#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 211 of 1
sure, you can get a covector via the inner product on R^n
(covector = linear function from vectors into R)
so is I_P a 2-form
it's not doing anything with webge prodcuts
What is a form, to you?
product
aha
Which is what eg differential forms are
ok i was trying to relate the two
you can see this by symmetry
Hi, could someone help me understand a topological thing?
I also posted the question here: https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c7h2482712p20856932
but I'm still very confused, and I'm in a real hurry, so I'd appreciate your help.
Question:
If f(z) = 1 / p(z) where both are entire complex functions.
And we have a closed disk of radius R
I want to show that the function has a maximum value on the disk, but in my paper, I don't really have time to prove and explain it with compactness.
I was wonder why the following argument isn't valid:
If f(z) isn't bounded, then for some sequence in the disk, it must tend to infinity. Which means p(z) tends to 0 for that sequence
This is true, but why does the sequence have a limit?
Mustn't it have a limit in D since a closed set has all its limits?
"a closed set has all it's limits"That is true, but sequences in a compact set do not need to be convergent, they just must have a convergent subsequence
But if the sequence has a limit in D, mustn't all subsequences also converge to this limit?
But the sequence doesn't need to have a limit in D, eg 0.5, -0.5,0.5,-0.5,...
This has a convergent subsequence but it is not convergent itself
But since D is closed, mustn't the sequence have a limit in D?
I said above that this is false
And you can see that the sequence I gave is not convergent
If the limit exists, then it is in D
But a limit can fail to exist in the first place
I see
But if the limit doesn't exist, doesn't this also imply that no sequence will make f(z) go to infinity, and therefore f is bounded?
I'm not sure I understand your reasoning here
If f is unbounded, on must be able to find some sequence in D for which f goes to infinity. Or am I mistaken?
This is true
So mustn't this sequence also converge to some limit?
(btw, if you have access to some theorems from calculus, that I guess depend on compactness, in particular extreme value theorem, I think you can prove what you want that way as well)
You are just repeating yourself
I was just unsure whether it was okay to simply cite the extreme value theorem without proving it. But to prove it, I need to show compactness, which would fill out a lot of my paper...
(My readers are high school teachers)
So I was just wondering whether there was an easier way to go about it
hey quickly does this definition work
I feel like it’s a bit sus but I can’t put my finger on it
Ah, I think maybe I've misunderstood something here?:
If f of a sequence tends to infinity, then the sequence must converge to some limit.
Oh, the assumption is the problem is that f has 0 zeros
Sorry, I guess that should be unless you could prove p is bounded way from 0 except at <=1 points
I think, or something like that
If the assumption is that p is defined on the whole complex plane, and p has 0 roots. In the problem, I previously show that for some radius R, for all values outside this R, p is less than 1.
So I wanted to show that p is also bounded on the closed disk of radius R.
You mean f, right?
Ah yes
(I am trying to show the fundamental theorem of algebra by contradictly assuming p of degree n>0 has no roots and showing that it leads to p being bounded on the whole plane)
If you are doing it with this liouville argument, I'm not sure how to get out of talking about compactness
Hmm, yes that was what I was going for
Dang
Hm, not sure I myself understand yet, but it seems everyone agrees that my argument doesn't work. I will try with compactness then. Glad I won't hand in something wrong.
Thank you 🙂
Sorry, now it's bugging me a little: would f having at most roots validify the argument, or am I still just wrong?
at most 1*
the part about the sequences having to tend to some limit
btw @sleek thicket bc I need to complain
Here's the syllabus for the manifolds class right
we have 5 weeks left in semester
and we haven't finished A (given we have done the multilinear algebra portion of B)
Wow
This is a grad class right?
no
wut
but last year they like
you have manifolds for UGs?
literally did
de rham cohomology
and this year we are just vibing
defining the tangent bundle for submanifolds of R^d
umich ends in mid april??
last day of exams is April 31
ye
when do u start school in the Fall?
september-ish?
wtf
like first day of september
Uw starts really late Alex
I mean I know but
We had 1 day of september this year

wait you have 4 months of vacation
this is literally like 90% of basic smooth manifold stuff though
it's important to have a bank of them to work with though
without regular submanifolds the theory would be garbage
sure but like
when doing these psets and stuff
I don't feel like I've really learned anything
or am any better at these manipulations
they're just very banal and boring and just take time to do
understandable, it definitely sucks ass in the beginning
but the cool parts easily make up for it
5 weeks is plenty of time to zoom through differential forms
a lot of math is building up a good repertoire of technical gadgets to prove some intuitive things formally 😛
at least that's been my impression in a few fields
the only decent results in an intro manifolds course are frobenius's theorem and stokes's theorem, everything else is just definitions and immediate corollaries
invariance of dimension is kind of cool
but also like one of those things, where you're like "wait, this isn't trivial?"
can't prove that in an intro manifolds course though
this isn't really my impression of other fields tbh
the general proof requires retractions I believe
you can prove it for smooth things using some very basic linear algebra
topological manifolds? a lot harder
you can use de rham cohomology for that i think
yeah for smooth things it's immediate
bc from a diffeomorphism you'll get an invertible derivative
and you'll be like happy
do you use much analysis in diff manifolds?
existence of bump functions is topological no?
which we had to reprove in one dimension on the midterm and it's like why
sorry
rant
can you do it that way?
neat
wait no that doesn't give you smoothness
you need smooth bumpy bois
oh, a smooth bump function
is there a smooth Urysohn's lemma?
lol
I'm asking, because I know calculus well, of course, but I'm wondering if it's worth a detour to analysis or if you can just get by for the most part
I mean, I read a book on measure theory once
so I know how like, Lebesgue integration works
idk, I find analysis kind of boring
tru
well I'm not a math major
so I just self-study textbooks as a hobby
I feel like I learn way more through self-study than I can in a course
but I probably have a weird pacing
because courses will skip parts of books, and give a broader perspective usually
whereas reading the book gives you a bunch of details
I get bored by those kinds of details very quickly
how do you usually study coho
shitposting
tbh I probably learn more from wikipedia and nlab than other sources
classes primarily
but those two are big for me
furrysohn's lemma
read the references at the bottom
step 1. know higher category theory
the nlab pages on topics surrounding symplectic geometry are surprisingly digestible
rather pleasing
yea some pages can be great
you can just like
ignore the word infinity
and the symbol
and most of its still true
@gritty widget
i was being serious haha
using nlab is the art of separating useless abstraction from what you need
almost by design
making sense out of abstract nonsense
reading nlab is learning why saying the words "L is adjoint to R" by themselves is a proof :^)
Here's a neat thing I was thinking about: the only contractible compact topological manifold is the point (up to homeomorphism, the claim is significantly less interesting up to homotopy equivalence)
Curious to see what proofs of this other people can think of
(it's false that contractible manifolds are automatically Euclidean, see the whitehead manifold)
I am probably being a dumbass, but if I take X=[0,1] and a homotopy H(x, t)=(1-t)x, I thought this would imply [0,1] is contractible.
In my terminology manifolds are by default without boundary
It's true that closed balls are counterexamples otherwise
yup
used a bigger theorem than I would like
that's essentially my proof
oh huh
yeah
I was gonna say anything is Z/2Z orientable
So top dim cohomology with Z/2Z coefficients is nontrivial
But proving this is a little tricky imo
maybe not actually
like
Let's go with your proof
Orientation double cover isn't so bad
So if you're not orientable π1 is nontrivial by covering space theory
so say you're orientable
This means you can choose a consistent local orientation
but then you can glue together to a global homology class
still idk, feels like there should be a more direct way
I guess this provides some intuition
lol
what a mood
Nah it's okay haha
So for your proof
You can make it work without the Z/2Z coefficient stuff
if your not orientable you have a connected double cover
A point upstairs is a point of your manifold and a choice of local orientation at that point
does that intuitively make sense?
Nah I'm saying not orientable => not contractible
Because this was the hole in your original argument yeah?
Well I am generally dissatisfied
I just thought you might want an outline of a proof without the coefficient stuff, sorry
Kk
So say M is a manifold
Which is not orientable
If it's disconnected then it's not contractible
So say it's connected
Then we can construct a double cover M' of M
The points of M' will be pairs of a point in M and a local orientation of M at that point, you project onto M by forgetting the local orientation
It turns out that M' is connected iff M is not orientable, this isn't so hard to prove
So in our setup M' is connected
But the existence of a nontrivial connected double cover of M implies π1(M) ≠ 0
yeah?
Yeah :(
You need singular homology, orientability, orientable+compact => top dim homology is nontrivial, orientation double covers, and covering space theory
Yeah I guess so
$T_{id}(\mathrm{Diff}(M)) = \mathfrak{X}(M)$
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)

i like it
so if you have a lie group action $G \to \mathrm{Diff}(M)$ and you take the differential at $e \in G$ you get the infinitesimal action 
yeah?
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
!!!
I do want to learn that stuff
Especially because I liked banach spaces
hmm
Think
thinking about bundles
why wasnt i reading nlab before?

some of these pages are so clear and concise
lmao
Very excited for this tterra arc
Gonna get category pilled
tterra arc this
tterra arc that
plz
im just in a really slow category theory arc 

Let me know when you want to learn lie groupoid/foliation stuff 
foliations 
foliations are nice
frobenius' theorem was my favorite result from intro manifolds 
It's super cool
I can try to answer
I got everything except showing the inverse (d' is the metric of the domain) is continuous.
I could not figure it out for the life of me
Well, we have two different metrics. We need to show that the distance metrics are a continuous mapping on the identity function.
Yea, that is precisely the issue
So although this may be a weird way to go about it, this is how I imagine what's going on
||show for each open ball U in (X,d) and each point x you can find a smaller open ball V in (X,d') which contains x and is in U||
and vice versa like how you would prove 2 basis generate the same topology
So it is very trivial if $d(x, y)\leq 1$ However, I am struggling for when it may be greater than 1
dackid
so before that
Ari, can you delete that please? I don't want the answer spoiled
Like formally?
i just gave the definition in munkres for 2 basis to be the same
but sure
always a good place to start 😛
okay sure lol but getting into the habit of checking the definition and working with it is a skill one needs to develop
Okay sure:
$f:X\to X$ is continuous if $\forall x\in X$ and any $\epsilon>0,\exists \delta>0$ so that:
$\forall x': d'(x, x')<\delta\to d(x, x')<\epsilon.$
dackid
Sure yeah
then for some unspecified x' and delta, what does it mean to have d'(x,x') < delta?
It must be less than or equal to 1
sure
so what im thinking is like
we can do cases
and get something more specific
so either (1) d(x,x') <= 1 or (2) d(x, x') > 1
then d'(x,x') < delta iff
(1) ...
(2) ...
Okay, let's look at greater than. 1 is not hard, it writes itself
That is case 1
Case 2 is what confuses me
sure
so lets back up
in case (1) we have d'(x, x') < delta iff d(x,x') < delta, right?
Yea
and in case (2) we have d'(x, x') < delta iff 1 < delta
yeah?
and you can handle case (1)
you agree with all that?
Why not choose $\delta=\frac{1}{\epsilon}$
dackid
And then we just choose $\delta=\min{\epsilon,\frac{1}{\epsilon}}$
dackid
I think that would work, and it's very clever!
Which unless my logic is off, that covers both cases
I was just thinking delta = min(varepsilon, 1)
Oh, well that works too 😆
Okay, let me write it out and see if it looks okay. Afterwards, I want to add one follow up question to this if that is okay
np, go ahead!
Wasn't much to write out here 😆
nope lol
I'd have to justify it, but that wasn't too hard either
so my intuition for this problem is
qualitative observation: on sufficiently small scales, balls look the same in either metric
wah, delta = 1/epsilon?!
and continuity only requires you to look at sufficiently small balls
You no like?
what dark magick have i just stumbled upon
choose epsilon arbitrarily small
You can't
well, you can
well you only care about local convergence
Epsilon is not up to you
an upper bound on epsilon is up to you
Hold on, can I ask the question first
sure
So our class isn't going too much into the topological spaces. We've talked about it here and there, but metrics has been the main goal.
How would we generalize this to topological spaces?
you can't really
this is very much a problem about metric spaces
and distance
ariana's thing at the start is close
the topologies have a common "basis"
so they're identical
Can we do a continuity problem of this nature in respect to topological spaces?
the issue is figuring out what an analogue of d' would be
Well, doesn't have to be d' exactly
I just want a problem regarding topological equivalence
well for topological spaces there aren't really other finer kinds of equivalence
like
yeah
I basically just want to get my feet wet
sure, do you know what a basis for a topology on a set is?
Not exactly
hmm
Is that the collection of open sets?
no, it's sort of like a smaller set of opens which generate the whole thing
so say $(X, \tau)$ is a topological space
EShamrock -> BShamrock
It has been said
?
a collection $\mathscr{B} \subseteq \tau$ of open sets is called a basis if (1) for every $x \in X$ there is an open set $U \in \mathscr{B}$ with $x \in U$ and (2) for any $U, V \in \mathscr{B}$ and any $x \in U \cap V$ there is an element $W \in \mathscr{B}$ with $x \in W$ and $W \subseteq U \cap V$
EShamrock -> BShamrock
(1) says that the basis covers X
Okay, hold on. I need a minute to digest
(2) says you can cover any intersection of basis elements with another basis element
can i ask what eshamrock -> bshamrock is a reference to
i know what a tangent bundle on a manifold is
Hold on. Let me work with this please
more generally a bundle is like a space which is locally a product
dackid, gristle is asking me a question. feel free to ignore it
so like think about the mobius strip
yea
this locally looks like a circle times a line segment
Oh sorry. Thought you were referring to me here
yeah?
oh ur doing that weird thing where u take products of spaces
i havent encountered that yet
i see
it's something which is locally a product
if G is a topological group then we can find a very special bundle EG -> BG
i will be ready for your name in a few months
it's somehow "universal" with respect to bundles "involving" G
good luck!
oh actually here's a cool example
take your favorite manifold M
you have a tangent bundle TM
do you know what a "frame" is?
probably not
smh
I don't know any physics if it's about that 😅
u high topologists and your advanced educations
wel
l
for example the frenet apparatus
would involve a moving frame
Okay, so how does this differentiate from the basic collection of open sets?
oh look at the time, i need to finish my french homework by midnight
au revoir
i have been threatened with an explanation of physics
oh wait i looked it up
this isn't so bad
yeah this is exactly what i'm talking about
ah ok
a frame is a smoothly varying basis
easy example: one basis of the standard topology on ℝ is the collection of open intervals (a, b)
right
this differs from the collection of all open sets
more precisely, it's a basis for the tangent space
since, say, (0, 1) U (2, 3) is in this collection
ok T_P M
but it isnt an open interval of the form (a, b)
right
or TM rather
so I'm gonna define a new space for you
let F(TM) be the set of all pairs of a point p in M and a basis for the tangent space T_p M of M at p
dackid
...an example of?
A non-basis
ok
its not a basis for many reasons
we can give this a topology
for one, its a set, not a collection of sets
if (U, F) is a chart on M then we have this subset F(U) of F(TM)
but yes, your objection is another reason the set {(0, infinity)} is not a basis for the euclidean topology
we're going to declare sets of this form to be a basis for our topology
hahaha
brb keep going
😮
nobody can ever tell you otherwise!
ask them to think of another space
they cannot
well
so just pretend
Hmm, okay.
s p h e r e
fuckin good enough
right??
so
coordinate charts
idk fucking
hemispheres
yeah?
good enough charts
sure
so what happens on a hemisphere
well we have coordinates
just project down
yeah?
yea sure
im feeling quizzical
@ivory dragon so were you trying to say $(0,1)\cup(2,3)$ is not a basis?
dackid
about that
Because I agree there

well
think about the disk
down below
what's the tangent space to the disk?
this is not a trick question
its the disk
Correct me if I am wrong, but this sounds a lot like compactness
okay we need to go back a bit
its just
a local linearization of the disk at that point
yep
i gave ONE example of a basis for the euclidean topology on ℝ
the collection of open intervals of the form (a, b)
(0, 1) U (2, 3) is not in this particular basis
similarly if you're living up on the sphere
Yea I agree. What is a non-example? I think that would help
in this little hemisphere
its another plane
its rotated
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
Wait sorry, why is that?
something like uhh
since it isnt an open interval of the form (a, b)
Ohhhh!
theres no way to write it as (a, b)
take the inclusion of the disk onto the sphere D -> R^3
the point is that
take the jacobian
the columns of the jacobian will be a basis for the tangent space
we get all open sets in the topological space
ok yes
point is
so while not every open set is in the basis
every open set can be written as a UNION of the basis
(0, 1) U (2, 3) can be written as the union of basis elements (0, 1) and (2, 3)
Ohhh, I see
then other bases are just (Av, Aw) for a linear transformation A in GL(2)
(0, infinity) can be written as the union of basis elements (0, 1) U (0, 2) U (0, 3) U (0, 4) U (0, 5) U ...
gl(2)
sorry not quite
[note that we're allowing infinite unions]
linear group 2?
yup!
havent learned it, googling
Which is still technically in the basis 
ive taken no algebra yet
if A = {{a,b}, {c,d}} then we get a new basis (av + bw, cv + dw)
yea agreed
it's not quite matrix vector multiplication
its like we multiplied the whole basis by a matrix
anyways
these are what other bases look like
@quasi forum you are not entitled to either my help or this channel
another discussion started when you stopped posting
I stopped responding since namington seemed to be helping
where tf are we going on this wild ride
sorry haha we've gone kind of far
so the point is
if you have a chart U for M
(with some fixed coordinates)
T(U) is easy to describe
very
it's just a point in U and a matrix
so topologically
F(U) is homeomorphic to U x GL(2)
this smells a lot like a bastardized e-math version of what ive been doing in differential geometry lately
yea ppl that know shit i dont know from far off lands
F(M) looks nice locally

Well, thanks I guess. I got some help at least.
that's me
ye it do
dackid, I helped with your original problem and then continued to talk to you
you asked me to come up with a problem off the cuff
I thought of something and then you stopped responding for 4 minutes
It's okay. I'm moving on
so @quartz edge F(M) is sort of weird and abstract globally
Like I said, I got the help I initially wanted
but in coordinates it's nice
this is called "differential topology" 
sometimes it's the other way around though
so anyways point is
we have this group GL(2)
and we have this space which is locally like a product of GL(2) and our manifold
F takes a tangent bundle on M and maps that to tangent basis "bundles"
ok ok
need principal fibre bundles 
aww sheeit
so things like this
spaces whihc are locally a product U x G and have a "nice" action of G on them globally
are called "principle bundles"
the action in our case is that thing with like (av + bw, cv + dw)
im not gonna lie this is dope and i wanna run through a text on things like this
talking about bundles does this proof look right?
so the kicker is
is that red diff topo book good?
and another other principal bundle on say M comes from pulling back along a "unique" continuous map M -> BG
"unique" is in scare quotes because it's only unique up to homotopy
haha
pullback is a very overused word
it means a lot of things
saw it in bachman, didnt finish yet
i haven't read it, sorry
got u
best book on fibre bundles is steenrod
bachman A geometric approach to diff forms?
seems cool ty
but people keep yelling at me to read lee instead
tu is a watered down version of lee
so they do say
Lee is good
The bundles book I've been using is a Lee book but it's not public yet
i might even nab lee for riemannian instead of do carmo though i already have the latter
and I'm not sure I'd recommend it
lol my brain saw "nab lee" as "nlab" and got very concerned
do carmo is a waste of time
I liked IRM
Good luck. They've been on this roller coaster ride for a hot minute. Enjoy the ride!
i considered do carmo for the euclidean diff geo text but
went with shifrin instead and it is way nicer
despite being lesser known
i guess maybe the recommendations i got for do carmo must have come from students using him as course texts
i want off mr bones wild ride
well to be fair the conversation started before i asked my question
Weren't you just complaining about people interrupting you dackid?
Sorry yeti, I really do have homework I've been avoiding
and nobody is obligated to answer anybody's questions
Otherwise I would look at it
no no problem lmao
I'm certainly not interrupting anything rn. I was just stating facts.
And yes, I was frustrated, but frustration doesn't get anywhere inthe longterm, so it's all good.
I do also plan to ask for help in the future, so it would be dumb to be butthurt and break those ties over something silly.
In case it was not clear, I do appreciate the help you have given me. 😁
Man I really don't like when channels are left in a state like this...

I suppose you could help me out, then.
Is the unit interval [0,1] homeomorphic to R?
if we remove 0 or 1 from [0,1] we get a connected space
if we remove anything from R we get a disconnected space
@viral atlas
So does the fact that connectedness isn't preserved mean it is not a homeomorphism?
yeah- connectedness is a topological property
Oh wow, that's a very neat consequence
yeah it's pretty slick
proving that two spaces aren't homeomorphic is much harder than proving that they are, I think, so it's v nice to have extra topological properties like these which are easier to check
So if I may, what is connectedness exactly?
I know that'll come up later in the semster. But ya know, it isn't later yet :p
a topological space X is disconnected if there exist two disjoint open sets who's union is X. And it's connected if it's not disconnected
Another version:
A space is connected iff every continuous function to {0, 1} is constant
intuitively: there's no way to paint the space with 2 different colors continuously
Oh, so as soon as you remove a point a from R, you have the intervals $(-\infty,a)$ and $(a, \infty)$ which is definitely disjoint
So that's why you say it's disconnected
dackid
a space X is connected iff the only clopen sets are X and \varnothing
best definition
Hmm okay. I think I understand
Why does a circle stay connected if we remove a point from it?
So a common question from real analysis is to show that $(a, b)≈\mathbb{R}$. So can this idea of connectedness be enough to show that's true for any a and b?
dackid
You'll probably need an explicit bijection?
Pugh explains it very neatly with a picture
Map the points on (a,b) to a semicircle with radius |b-a|, centred at (a+b)/2 through vertical lines from (a,b). Then create projections from the centre of the semicircle to the entire line.
The circle minus a point is an interval

Alright. This radial projection thing is interesting, but a bit above my understanding. Thank you for the help
Or you define a circle as an interval with endpoints identified
It's also 3 am, which has a very significant factor 😆
I agree but I also think that's not a great thing to say after someone says they're confused
it can be a little discouraging
Sorry, I didn't mean it that way
It's okay, I'm not a mod or anything
I'm pretty sure I wouldn't have understood it the way I explained it either
The picture is pivotal
That's what I meant
The picture intrigues me
good picture
Oh, that is not at all where my mind was going
Project the interval onto a semicircle
Project the semicircle onto R
You get a nice rational function
You can map points on the interval to points on the semicircle through those vertical lines
Then take lines from centre of the semicircle to R
So if I may, how exactly are we showing that the interval can map to the semicircle?
They map points on semicircle to points on the entire real line
you use invarients to prove things aren't homeomorphic
I definitely get the intuition
I'm just happy with the intuition, probably someone else could give the formal idea here. 
Ohhh okay, since $-1\leq \cos(\theta)\leq 1$
dackid
I generally use the strongest invariant (the homeomorphism class). I'm built different tho
No, I mean that is true regardless of what theta you choose
That is the bounds of cosine
Oh, I'm used to thinking about angles in theta :p
That is all

You said we can map (a, b) to (-1,1) and the way we can do that is to let f(x)=cos(x)
take $\tan:(\pi/2,\pi/2)\to\mathbb{R}$
spinsicle
Spin, please don't introduce this example. It's going to complicate the other bijection being defined
In terms of projection
The thing up above has nothing to do with angles or trigonometry
Isn't that the example that shows (-1,1) is uncountable
That is one bijection
But the one here is different
You don't use any sines or cosines or anything
Okay, I guess I am not following
Sure, so there's two steps
Let S be the semicircle
S = {(x, y) : y < 0 and x^2 + y^2 = 1}
Okay, I am good with that.
we have a map (a, b) -> S and a map S -> (0,1)
The second map is easier to write down
It's the vertical lines in the picture
Just project out the x coordinate
So so yeah if p = (x, y) has angle θ we'll send p to cos(θ)
But imo that's more complicated then just f(x, y) = x
Okay fair, that was just the first thing I thought about
Sorry, I didn't understand what you were saying. It makes more sense now
but the first map is trickier
I wasn't thinking in the world of projections. It's a different mindset than I'm used to
The second map is like this
So the second map is S -> R
Oh right it's also important to note the thing about cosine would be about the the map S -> (-1,1) (but it is better to think about it as just giving you the x coordinate)
Not between that and (a, b)
Hmm, okay
(-1,1) and (a, b) are homeomorphic for simpler reasons
Just translate and scale
so the really tricky bit about all this is the connection between S and R
S and (-1,1) is just (x, y) |-> x
And the intervals are just similar shapes
But S and R is the clever bit
Ah okay! Gotcha
What do you mean mirza?
Oh i missed the word rigorous lol
I think so
So here's what the picture is depicting dackid
Take a point on R
Actually sorry one thing
We're going to think of R as sitting below S
Okay, I can do that
So hold on.
mhm
It's the set of points (t,-1) with t in R
Oh, silly me. Alright, go ahead
No worries
so we have this line
Sitting tangent to the semicircle
Given a point on the line we can connect it to the origin
By which I mean
Draw the line segment between them
this intersects the semicircle at exactly one point
we'll send the point on the line to that intersection point
Conversely, given a point on the semicircle you can connect it to the origin and look at the intersection with the line
and this gives an inverse map
So we are referring to drawing a point from an element in R to the origin?
yup
Okay, I follow
That's the slanted lines in this pick
That all meet at the origin
This is a bijection between the semicircle and R. If you write it all out and figure out what the intersection points are you get some rational function (so in particular everything is continuous)
Oh, that does give you an inverse map indeed. And therefore f is a bijection.
This is really cool imo because there's no need for trig!
Projections are a really neat tool. They take some time to get used to, but they are quite nifty
Yup! This kind of projection away from a point is very useful in algebraic geometry
What is algebraic geometry exactly?
At its heart it studies shapes that are defined by some number of polynomial equations
So like conic seconds are some examples of shapes like this
Or the curve y^2 = x^3
It uses the tools of abstract algebra to analyze these shapes
It is a very complicated field of math that has branched off a lot in many different directions though
So how does algebraic geometry look at shapes like that? Moreover, what does it do that elementary algebra/geometry cannot?
At least for y^2=x^3 I mean.
Are abstract algebra and algebraic topology related? Ya know, apart from the word algebra?
🤯
Maybe one explanation is that algebraic geometry associates a ring of functions to such shapes. So for example, you have continuous functions from R to R, and more generally, on a manifold, you have a (vector space) of functions from your manifold to R. It turns out that you can use this vector space to study your manifold. Algebraic geometry tries to do a similar thing with "algebraic" shapes by giving them a ring of algebraic (polynomial) functions
I barely understood what you said Zopherus. But hey, I did ask and I appreciate the involved answer 😁
If there is anything I've learned today, it's that I need to spend some more time in these channels. You guys talk about some cool stuff.
What exactly don't you understand? I could maybe explain a bit more in detail
So you're gonna have to break it down a bit.
I do not know what either rings or manifolds are.
Just think about things like toruses or spheres for example
We can consider continuous functions from the sphere to R, and use this set of continuous functions to study in the sphere in certain ways
Okay yeah. I follow
What do you mean by locally?
So is it actually the addition and multiplication operator? Or is it some other binary operator that just has those names?
Basically, algebraic geometry tries to do the same thing, but instead of smooth things like spheres or toruses, we have to study algebraic sets like y^2 = x^3
So we replace continuous function with certain "algebraic" functions
What is so special about this y^2=x^3 🤔
nothing really
Scalar multiplication and addition right?
the easiest example that's not smooth I guess
Oh really!? Well, that does make sense, since multiplying a matrix by a matrix gives back another matrix
So you said it had to be monoid under multiplication. What does that mean exactly?
Oh okay. But matrix multiplication has an inverse yeah?
True true
So invertibility is not a requirement
Oh, well that makes sense. Invertibility is in the name.
wait mirza, are you still going through D&F or have you switched to lang
It's a very very useful counterexample

Useful to keep in your back pocket when doing ring theory stuff
Sure, in that they both serve as counterexamples to things
Dually noted. Well, it's 4 am here and I still haven't slept yet. I'd like to continue, but my body does not want to. Thank you for all the insight.
Here are my top three counterexamples in ring theory:
k[x, y]/(y^2 - x^3)
k[x1, x2,...]
an infinite product of F2's
These rings are very bad it rules
No! And this is a very important distinction
Power series can have infinitely many terms
We're looking at polynomials which can only have finitely many terms individually
But the set of variables they can draw from is infinite
So like you can have x1, x1+x2, x1+x2+x3,...
Power series rings are denoted k[[x]]
That's for one variable
or like k[[x, y, z]]
Hmm, I'm not sure what you have in mind
lol
It might
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
AoC is important in ring theory
Specifically zorn's lemma
Actually if you're looking for set theory this ring is closer
Err
This one
By infinite I meant countably infinite
Shamrock talk when 
The structure of this ring is deeply related to the stone cech compactification/set of ultrafilters on N
Sham talk on Wednesday
But it's for a class
Oh, goodluck!
Hahaha, understandable. Hope you can give a talk here when you have the time.
Yeah, I was going to this summer but I had a covid scare and freaked out
couldn't focus on prepping or giving the talk
:(
That's nice.
It must've been, I guess. Had you given any talks before?
Nope
This is going to be my first one
But I've worked as a TA a lot and there's some overlap
Aaah, that makes sense.
just the information density/goals are a little different
Fair. What's your audience this time?

it's not so intimidating, I've seen them give talks over the past couple days :P
It feels like a very safe environment
That's nice.
I just hope people walk away with something
Ty! I'm going to sleep now so I can wake up for my classmates' presentation on frobenius categories 💤
if $(M, \omega)$ is a symplectic manifold and $J$ is an almost complex structure which is compatible, i.e. such that $g(X,Y) := \omega(X,J(Y))$ is a riemannian metric, is there anything interesting we can say about the levi-civita connection on the riemannian manifold $(M, g)$?
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
would play around with this but a lecture's starting, so putting this here in case anyone has any comments
only thing i can think of doing off the top of my head is writing the condition that $\nabla$ be metric, i.e. $$X g(Y,Z) = g(\nabla_XY,Z) + g(Y,\nabla_X Z)$$ in terms of $\omega, J$
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
So question: can a topological space have a finite number of elements in it?
yup
One interesting example is the sierpinski space S = {0,1} with the topology where {0} is open but {1} is not
Hmm, okay. So follow up question. How would we show in a finite space X that any finite subset is closed?
watch this: {{}, {X}}
This is untrue
boom, i'm a regular topological
another side note
Peter May has an entire book about the theory of finite topological spaces
it's pretty neat
not particularly useful
but neat nonetheless
@ terra you could probably ask hankel in the physics server, he knows a bunch about symplectic geo (he's an insufferable asshole though)
Is it true if you have a finite metric space?
my symplectic geometry prof is having office hours after this lecture so i might just ask her
but thanks

