#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 210 of 1
shamrock i saw the equivalence of COV_B and TRA_B
when B is transport local
scary tbh
Ahhhh, so like, within discrete metric a convergent sequence would eventually have the same point recurring in the sequence, and within the regular metric the corresponding sequence converges. However, there are more sequences in the regular metric converging to the same function value, while they all don't exactly have a pre-image in discrete metric? Idk I'm just rambling
oof
This is exactly correct
if you like analysis, there's lots of examples on function spaces
moth AU where they know literally any analysis
On the set of continuous functions [0,1] -> R there's two natural metrics
coming in 15 business days or so

$d(f, g) = \sup_{x\in[0,1]} |f(x) - g(x)|$
!!Shamrock!!**
Euclidean, sup-norm, taxi-cab are the ones I know of
$d'(f, g) = \int_0^1 |f(x) - g(x)|, \mathrm{d}x$
!!Shamrock!!**
ah yeah this is sup norm vs Euclidean
Oh, these are metrics on function spaces
Although I think taxi cab and Euclidean are equivalent?
yes, sorry
but does that make sense?
Exercise: prove that these do not generate the same topology
Find a sequence converging in one but not the other

cring
and show that one is finer than the other
Nice
does anyone here know about fundamental groupoids
I'll try this!
(all open sets open in one are open in the other)
So a sequence converging in one metric converges in the other, but the converse fails to hold?
Exactly
like the equivalence of functors from Pi(B) -> SET and Pi(b, b)-SET
Neat, I'll try this.
also, equivalent means they generate the same topology
Not that they're actually equal
Replying to this, sorry
You can get uniform bounds
c Euclidean <= taxicab <= C Euclidean
The two metrics I showed you are the sup (or "L^infinity") and L^1 metrics
Very important in functional analysis
shamrock cna you believe im actually going to learn multivariable
its been like
2 years
I'm so excited for you
my streak 😭
im doing it for the difftop pill
g e o m e t r y

@fading vale I am trying to show that given a circle, set of all paths between points on circle modulo endpoints preserving homotopy is homeomorphic to R.
Thanks for all the help, everyone.
also
is this about universal covering spaces?
im not totally sure what you mean by this, the set of paths between two points x, y up to htpy?
basically the end goal is showing that fundamental groupoid of circle is homeomorphic to the infinite cilinder
moth, do you remember the construction of the universal covering space?
vaguely
i wasnt precise withj my phrasing
well unique lifts and a trivial monodromy and all tell us what it has to be
i just want ot make sure im clear on the thing sei is talking abt
any universal cover has to be identifiable with the space of homotopy classes of paths in X
the fiber over p being all paths starting at p
so you can construct it as such
given xand y on a circle you have a path between them. you have equivalence relation via homotopy.
I forget the topology, I think it might be ugly
iirc the way I saw it was by declaring the "take first endpoint" map to be a local homeomorphism
on sets where the base is simply connected
like, thinking of the set of arrows in the fundamental groupoid as being the universal cover or whatever
even though it is true
now i understand how topology is defined
did you check the reference in hatcher?
but yeah this is one way to define the topology
you take the base of sets from being semilocally simply connected
or whatever
and declare those to be evenly covered
it's been a while since I looked at this construction
although this only works for nice spaces
i tried looking for it in hatcher but didnt manage
maybe somewhere in covering spaces chapter
yes
yeah, that's where I meant
I like the presentation of the universal cover in Introduction to Topological Manifolds by Lee
it's very explicit and done in great detail
this is basically (partly) how dieck does it by associating the cover to the Hom functor lmao
ah gotcha
sham stop simping for lee for one minute challenge
oh actually
i think topology and groupoids may have done this
the way i saw this presented was very umm
thinking
no
topology and groupoids takes a cover of the fundamental groupoid
it develops a theory of covering groupoids
and then constructs a space from such a thing
yes
hmm i think given an explicit representative of an arbitrary path(morphism) in the groupoid i feel like there is natural way to come up with an isomorphism
an isomorphism between what
between what?
tom dieck basically does this by getting an equivalence of the categories COV_B and TRA_B = [Pi(B), SET] where for a functor Phi: Pi(B) -> SET you get the cover thats basically uhh, take the disjoint unions of all the sets in the image of Phi and send Phi(c) to c for c in B lol
and then the universal cover is associated with Hom(b, -)
betyween fundamental groupoid of circle and S cross R
ah
i.e infinite cilynder
i do not think you can produce an isomorphism from a single path
wait
hang on
I am confused
i saw this done from van kampen
so you have a topology on the set of arrows
and you have a topology on the set of objects
how are you combing these?
with a topological groupoid G defined where the object space is S^1 and the morphism space is S^1 x R
and van kampen established the isomorphism
well the topology of the underlying set stau the same
onto Pi(S^1)
right
oh I see, I'm being silly
the universal cover isn't the space of all paths
you fix a starting point
yea
because the set of objects in the groupoid is just the underlying s@ace
its associated with the Hom functor from the grpoid
space
it sends the paths from b to c up to htpy to c
where b is the basepoint
(this sounds right, right sei lmao)
so when we say Pi_1(S^1) is homeomorphic to S^1 x R we're talking about the set of arrows
i presume so
what's "it" moth?
i mean that sounds like the projection out of the universal cover
yeah
but in this case we have more stuff
we have arrows with different bases
so the idea should be like
you have a path class p : x -> y
in Arr(Pi_1(S^1))
you can send this to (x, (lift of p to universal cover)(1))
this doesn't feel right
ahhhh i see
if u want to read it sei
this looks right, yeah
whats the reference??
this looks like what i needed
he does most of the basic pi_1 stuff from the perspective of groupoids
it might help
algebraic topology from the homotopical viewpoint
feel like im supposed to learn alg top at some point
learn it good, actually
impossible
trying to be straight passing so when I call someone a fag it sounds like a slur and not a term of endearment
i cant im leaving twitter
Hey I just went to a spectral sequences talk
has gone way up
i didnt actually expect anyone to help
heres a (legal) link to dieck
when you enable all the display options for the differentials
nG why are you bringing black magic into the chat
i think this was max's talk https://math.mit.edu/~hood/spectral_sequences/latex/SSS-KZ3.pdf
iirc
no
gamer moment
lol
anyways yeah i went to a talk on spectral sequences tonight
and learned about the GSS
very cool
do u ever think about how probably at some point all the ways we talk and think about this stuff will seem like
weird and dumb
when some better perspective is uncovered
Atiyah Hirzebruch spectral sequence computing $\mathit{KO}^*(\mathbb{RP}^{14})$
!!Shamrock!!**
"thats literally so easy just do the blah blah blah"
lmao
haha ng is such a moron all he does is calculate integrals imagine doing something so tedious
also algebraic topologists:
Oh, I thought you were a girl

lmfao owned
mfw a math discord changed my life
literally 4x
if i were a high schooler i would simply resist math brain worms
(no i wouldn't)
i was naive and 14
yea when i joined
i didnt start doing math seriously until like
right b4 i turned 15 tho
also on the topic of reminiscing this time last year i was freaking out about applying to sumac and now its due in 2 days and idek if i wanna go
oh well
tfw your sick burn goes unnoticed
why would i know who benjamin button is!!
ur just a boomer
no
yes!
i retain my youth
☘️

many such cases
how do i motivate myself to do the problems for this summer camp when it covers intro AT and id literally just be paying like several thousand dollars to learn weaksauce version of intro AT online
¯_(ツ)_/¯
man.
Literally like 10 times my amount wtf
👀
I was going to ask what the point of actually doing a weaksauce summer camp for money is
well I mean like
is it to have physical clout of AT skills
It's only weaksauce because moth is absurdly chad
I am defending the honor of this program
lol. Weaksauce is better than no sauce? As always, the amount you have to pay is important.
Also, community and mentors and stuff
it's genuinely insane that they pay undergrads to do math if you get into reus
I'm not defending the program but it does matter how much it costs. 1 cent? Maybe it's worth it.
if I get both my research grant and my reu that's 7800 for the summer of just learning math
to write a harmonic analysis exposition with my professor
I'm confused are you in high school now?
It's not really research
That would be really cool!
it would be insane to have that opportunity but there's one grant and it's up for grabs for all math majors
Dang yeah not very likely
I don't know of anything like that here
There's some kind of outstanding junior arward I meant to apply to but I can't find any info
I do think it's kind of likely that I'll get into that reu, since it turns out my professor knows the director
Doesn't seem to have been awarded last year
It's just called "normal" research. If you know enough and are hard-working enough or creative enough or both to contribute you might get someone to work with you on research.
what
email the department and say to them "I am an outstanding student and I want money"
lol
No, you have to prove you know what you know and try to get "hired." It's just like every other job.
Oh, and bury bodies. Don't tell anyone you harmed your past advisor ...
??????
I'm kidding.
Seriously, you have to be skilled enough to do well if someone gives you a chance. (life lesson)
you seem to be saying a lot of stuff disconnected from the rest of the conversation and I don't understand what you're trying to say
like with this
Or this
You're asking about REUs and calling some shams. I'm saying if you're good enough you have the option of possibly doing real research.
I'm not calling any of them shams
I am.
I wasn't calling the reu a sham, I just meant that exposition with my professor isn't research, it's a reading/expository project
Fair enough. I lost the thread of the conversation.
Moth ("many such cases") is a high school student who is trying to decide whether they should apply to a summer program (which costs money) when they already know a lot of algebraic topology
Bacono is an undergrad applying to both an REU and a research grant, the research grant is really for an expositional project with their professor. Both of these would pay them
I'm an undergrad and have been admitted to the university of chicago REU which is very prestigious but accepts lots of applicants and can't distribute funding evenly. I was whining that I wouldn't be paid for this reu, unlike most
I think that's the conversation in summary?
I'm headed out :). My head hurts from helping others with calculus.
society if tom dieck clearly stated what the topology on this G-set is
pretty sure its the discrete topology
i hope.
Either A) assume it has a given topology (i.e. its just some arb top space w action)
B) assume its discrete
C) it's a group that has a topology like SU(n)
i think context makes which of these it is obvious
i think its discrete but it genuinely isnt that clear from context
i mean i dont think this works otherwise tho
he just says "let F be a G-set, p: E -> B a cover and take p_F: E x_G F -> B"
but i dont think the fibers r discrete if F doesnt have the discrete topology so
If they just say G-set and not like, topological G-set
i think discrete is the only reasonable assumption
hey pals, can you have a neighborhood U of p, where V is uncountable?
Correct me if im wrong, I thought U is p in X to a point in V, where V is in X,T. Is that right?
ummm
im not sure what you mean
a neighborhood of p is just a subset U with an open set V where p in V subset U
Circles are sets, red dots are points
I thought U is p in X to a point in V, where V is in X,T.
im not totally sure what you mean by this but a neighborhood doesnt involve two points, or an interval between two points (necessarily)
like a neighborhood of p is just a set U whose interior contains p
theres nothing wrong with your drawing im just not sure what you mean by "to a point in V"
That in this drawing, can the set V be uncountable
a neighborhood can be uncountable yes
a neighborhood can have any cardinality depending on the underlying set and the topology placed on it
the interval [0, 1] is a neighborhood of 0.5 in the reals with the standard topology
reeeeee
Do you actually use that definition?
that seems real awkward compared to just defining it to be the open set V
wut
what
closed sets can be neighborhoods too
I learned it as "A neighborhood of x is an open set containing x"
ummmm thats not correct lol
that would be an open neighbourhood
^
It was in Munkres
how often do you use "closed neighborhood" though?
i mean fairly frequently
really?
for one thing separation isnt equivalent
by open neighborhoods vs neighborhoods in general
saying that any two points can be separated by closed neighborhoods is a stronger condition than saying they can be separated by neighborhoods in general
yeah
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/24016/example-of-hausdorff-space-x-s-t-c-bx-does-not-separate-points stack exchange example
the way munkres phrased that is: There exist neighborhoods U, V, with the closure of U distinct from V, and vice versa
also if you want to do something like say
which is equivalent
neighborhood bases
also Lee backs my pov up
when is that book from?
Introduction to Topological Manifolds (2011)
I feel like it's wacky to not do it this way
not really
like it makes intuitive sense
the idea of a neighborhood is that we have wiggle room around a point
it makes sense to me, in the sense that any statement about a space has to use the open set structure
so if I want to talk about wiggle room, it makes no sense to use a general set
the wiggle room is an open set
dieck does it moth's way
dieck does
bredon also does
as does hatcher in his notes iirc
i think the idea intuitively is that the point is the interior of the set
it's less of a problem if you're coming from the "neighborhood = open set" school
because then you read "open neighborhood" everywhere, and it's unambiguous
but I guess it's usually clear through how they use the neighborhood, that they mean its open
like idk, it seems weird to take a neighborhood, and then immediately discard it to work with an open set
why not just take the open set directly
😛
i think ive done exercises involving closed neighborhoods specifically
but its been too long to remember anything specific
I mean, at the end of the day, it doesn't really matter
the terminology is non standardized cuz no one cares about point set 
if you need to talk about closed neighborhoods, you can just mention open neighborhoods whose closure has a certain property right
yea
just take closure
if ur working w/ general neighborhoods just take the interior (or the arbitrary open set contained within)
for example like, did you learn regular as "every open neighborhood of x contains a closed neighborhood?"
or well, did you see that version of regular
i learned regular as any closed set C and point p, p notin C, admit disjoint open neighborhoods
yeah that's the definition
honestly couldnt even tell u if i saw urs
but an equivalent, and often more useful version is: for any point p, and open U containing p, there exists an open V containing p, with cl(V) contained in U
ive seen that
right yeah
and this is equivalent to saying that any open neighborhood of a point contains a closed neighborhood
yea
i guess the defn ive seen seems more natural to me also because its a little more general
and exposure obviously
nah it's the better definition
going from hausdorff -> regular -> normal makes sense this way
mhm
you can separate larger and larger things
an equivalent formulation of hausdorff is that if x != y, then x has a closed neighborhood not containing y
8^)
closed neighborhood is not the same as closure of open neighborhood
this is true you run into problems with empty interiors
but i mean
if the interior is empty then it cant be a neighborhood of any point anyway
doesn't closed nbrhood mean: closed set, containing an open set?
idk maybe there are other counterexamples i cant think of off the top of my head
thats fair
indeed
Let R_K be the K topology, what does R_K/K look like
the base of R_K is (a,b)U(a,b)\K
Anyone know Geometric Algebra?
I briefly went over some lecture notes and was quite overwhelmed by the bazillion operations that have been introduced
I have a couple of questions. can I DM you?
sure, but I don't recall much of it, so not sure if I can actually help you with anything
Hoping this would be the right channel to ask/discuss this...
I am trying to find the gradient on a color image.
I understand the usual approach is to covert the image to grayscale, then take the gradient there. However, a clear problem is that e.g. a fully saturated color of some lightness would be the same color as gray, creating no gradient - obviously a problem.
If we were to take the gradients in each color channel separately and added those up though, then something like a pure green transitioning to a pure red would have two gradients of equal magnitude but opposing direction, which would cancel out, leaving us, again, with no gradient - obviously also a problem.
This is probably not the right channel 🙂 but maybe you could do something like taking the l2 norm of the channel separated gradients
Is there a reason that grayscale doesn't work for you?
Different colors of equal intensity would turn gray creating no edges where there clearly are some. Like clouds in the sky - light gray and light blue are the same in grayscale.
I really looked at all the channels, and I don't know... #calculus maybe?
Tbh I feel like this isn't a math question
Maybe it could fit in #numerical-analysis
No programming Discords really know what to make of it either. Too theoretical for their tastes. 😅
Digital Signal Processing, but that's too niche to have a separate community.
The norm you suggested - do I not lose the direction component with that, leaving only the magnitude, not allowing me to find which way the gradient goes?
I guess so, but I'm not sure what better you can do if you want a scalar output
That said I'm not particularly familiar with image processing so I don't know if there are standard ways to handle this situation
That's fair. Maybe there is no good solution. I'll keep thinking/searching.
try here: https://computergraphics.stackexchange.com/ and you can also convert your image to a different space such as HSL/HSV to separate "color" from "intensity" and take the gradient only on the "color" part. It also feels like you're asking an XY question and are already proposing a solution without telling us what you actually want to achieve. @zinc venture
What is the meaning of $dx=x^2$ Is there any way for me to get rid of the dx?
R3P34T3R
context?
i incorrectly solved a differential equation
and this is what i was left with
and i was wondering what this thing could be
what's the differential equation
i dont want you to solve the equation
i just used separation of variables incorrectly
@brave gate you could think of dx as a differential form, but then it wouldn't equal x^2. this is like if you got the equation 0=1, it just means you messed up
so when you have an equation made up of differential forms it cannot contain a 'normal' function?
there's this way of creating a formal algebraic system which assigns meanings to stuff like dx, dy, df, etc.
that system is consistent with the manipulations you do in ODEs and whatnot
in that system, dx means something specific, and x^2 means something else specific, and those two things are different things
dx isn't really a function like x^2 is
so this equation doesn't really make sense
set d = x
cool. if you want to learn more about this topic the thing you'd google is differential forms. you can learn the algebra rules easily but the formalism rigorously is pretty advanced
oh yeah
i knew of them before
and looked them up this time too
somehow i didnt realize what i was looking for was false
thank you so much 
cancel x out on both sides you get d=x
make a bad post about it on twitter and you'll cancel the entire equation
Suppose we have a exact sequence:
0->A->B->C->D->0
Is it true in general that AxB is isomorphic to CxD
If anyone is interested the answer is no, take D=0 and pick an exact sequence that does not split
This sequence looks pretty boring in general, but i guess you can try $A \times C$ and $B\times D$ in some specific categories. I’m not sure what will come out though
Aki
what's a good way to tell if a covering is regular?
so like
if I have a covering of a wedge of two circles
and it has 3 vertices
and how I've lifted the edges is like
edge a has a loop on the left vertex
edge b has a loop on the right vertex
and there are transposition looking things from the middle vertex to the other two
this feels non-regular but I can't figure out why
like I kinda get it intuitively because there's a symmetry break but
hrm
@marsh forge can I placate your anger with topology?
ah wait I think I have a big brain way of doing this
so like if you look at the left and right vertex
you get an induced fundamental group from each
the left one has an a in it
the right one has a b in it
they can't be the same
because if they were it would be the whole group
which has index 1
not 3
everyone always things im angry
im watching puppies on tiktok during that entire convo
i showed my gf a bunch of cute ones
oh god
does this argument make sense?
coho theres a fast heuristic of like
if you can visualize it
any starting point should have similar paths
so like, name the lifts properly
and see if doing the same path on two points
looks the same
i also think there might be a more formal criterion
yeah i mean if there is a symmetry break
you can formalize this at the group theoretic level easily
not if you're bad at algebra like me max
basically anything that is a loop at one of the verticies
has to be a loop at the others
and that breaks pi_1 stuff
mhm
question 😛 completeness of a space isnt a topological property, right ?
completeness of a space ?
if a space is complete (i dont know the english word i guess 😛 )
don't you need a metric space for that ?
yeah
so you want to find two homeomorphic metric spaces, only one of which is complete ?
R and an open interval
oh yeah right
so it isnt topological property
but a space to be called polish needs to be complete and at the same time it is a topological property , how this is working ?
it doesn’t need to be complete itself
polish only requires that you're homeomorphic to complete right?
open interval is also polish
the open interval can be complete with the discrete metric ?
Need help on part b). My guess is I need to find a particular retraction to a subspace that has fundamental group Z^N, but I am not exactly sure how to find that.
yes discrete always implies complete
or you can start by finding countably many morphisms into Z
Okay... so we have countably many retractions r_n which are mapping to one particular circle. This gives us countably many morphisms from Hawaiian fundamental group into Z
I'm just not sure how to go about multiplying them all together
it has a weird name
similar to tropical geometry
i think mathematicians are just not talented enough to invent names
ohh i see
why do we need surjective for a quotient map
The most important reason is just motivational imo
A quotient is a very general notion in mathematics
and it almost universally means like
apply some equivalence relation to object A to get object B
so you want B to 'come from' A
if the map is not surjective this means something is in B that didn't come from A
yeah its not like, divinely inspired; its more that quotient maps are introduced almost exclusively to study quotient spaces
and having a nonsurjective map doesnt make sense if you want your codomain to be determined entirely by an equivalence relation (i.e. a quotienting) on your domain
thank you for detailed comments
I don't get it
if I have say a lie group with a chart around identity
then I could rewrite multiplication "in coordinates"
i.e I'd have a map Psi : R^n x R^n -> R^n
and we can show that Psi(x, y) = x + y + B(x, y) + o(x^2+y^2)
and supposedly associativity of Psi gives us associativity of B?
but I just don't see that happening?
like, sure, if we expand Psi(Psi(x, y), z) we will get B(B(x, y), z)
but that won't be the only term of third order
cancer computation:
the B B thing is what I want but the other cubic term won't go away 
hmm this tensor is symmetric in i,j
it's equal to a similar tensor that's symmetric in j,k
means its symmetric in i,j,k
there exist multiple totally symmetric nondegenerate tensors in rank 3 though
how to show $\mathbb{R}^n/B\simeq\mathbb{R}^n$ where B is a closed unit ball
亜城木 夢叶
the way I would think about this is that R^n is homeomorphic to the space (S^{n-1} times [0, infinity))/(S^{n-1} x {0})
does that make sense?
basically, the map sending (x, r) to rx is a quotient map from S^(n-1) × [0,infty) to R^n
then to prove your claim you can just work on the radius and ignore the coordinate on the sphere
Because collapsing B to a point has the effect of collapsing [0,1] to a point in [ 0,infty)
I guess I'll take the 🤔 as a no?
no, don't follow that
A simpler way to say what I'm saying is that everything is radially symmetric, so you just have a find a nice function s(r) from [0,infinity) to [0,infinity) sending [0,1] to 0 and bijective everywhere else, and then you can define a function F : R^n -> R^n by F(x) = r(|x|)/|x| * x which squishes the unit ball to a point
So I guess even further, to show something is homeomorphic to a quotient you need to exhibit a quotient map going the right things together, right?
So the way you should think to prove R^n/B ≈ R^n is by exhibiting a quotient map R^n -> R^n squashing the unit ball to a point and injective on everything else
I'm saying that to find such a function you want to just think about the norm of a point and work with that, do everything in a radially symmetric way
now, i understand what you mean, thanks
Cool
Does it make sense that R^n \ {0} is homeomorphic to S^(n-1) × (0, infinity)?
yes
Yeah, so this extends to the case where you add in the origin and look at all of R^n
But then in S^(n-1) × [0, infty) you have to crush the sphere S^(n-1) × {0} to a point
turns out
it's not even true
counterexample is the most obvious coordinate representation of SL2(R)
((a, b), (c, d)) mapsto (a-1, b, c)
So lets say I have some function f that is continuous on a subset D of R^n. Is this equivalent to it fulfilling the preimage conditions in D with subspace topology?
Usually this terminology means that f is defined only on D, and continuous on D (with the subspace topology)
so yeah
Thats not true for R^n
you have a notion of point-continuity
Contuinity on a subset is at least stronger. To see that it is at least stronger, the preimage of an open set of the image of D must be open in R^n and in particular this means it will be open in the subspace topology of D.
but it might be equivalent
let me think
On open subsets D it should coincide
and Im forgetting the details of continuity on a closed subset
what about sequences
Can we use those to check continuity without worrying about being relatively open?
I'm not sure because how do you control sequences not taking place in D
ah yeah
D can be closed as an example and then the preimages are no necessarily open in R^n
is the indicator for [0,1] conitnuous in R
but they will be an intersection of an open set and D afaik
ye but they will be open in the subspace topology so it should be fine
Yes so one direction is simple
but I don't think if you have a function f : R^n\to R^n
and f is continuous restricted to the subspace topology
that necessarily makes it cont on D
as a subset
Actually yeah take the indiciator of [0,1]. This is continuous on [0,1] as a subspace but not as a subset
because the sequence approching 0 from the left (choose your favorite) won't be preserved
@sleek thicket ur idea worked in reverse i think hahaha
Oh lol
this was a good exercise im gonna put in on a pset if i ever teach point set
I'd consider it continuous in [0,1] as a subset tho
It is by definition not continuous at 0 or 1
wait isnt this indicator =1 at 0 and 1
Ye so the discontinuity is outside the subset
yes
so it is continuous as a subspace function
but not as a subset
like the function f : R^n \to R^n is not continuous on [0,1]
but the function it induces [0,1]\to R^n is genuinely continuous
If its discontinuous on the boundary thats fine for what im doing tho
as long as it isnt discontinuous approaching from inside so to say
pass to the interior of your set
yes continuity on a subset is certainly stronger
and if you have continuity as a subset you can pass to the interior
or more importantly like
you should be able to say that if D is a subset of R^n
and f is continuous on the interior of D as a subset of R^n
then f is continuous as a function on D as a subspace topology
i think something like this should work
there has to be something more because i could have the boundary completely messed up
yeah its too strong i think
maybe if you explain your context I can be more helpful
probably something like connected with nonempty interior might suffice
Well its stability analysis on a connected subset of R^n
I can make additional restrictions without much loss like borel
So I am interested in the preimages of a function V:D->R D\subseteq R^n
I am additionaly demanding V to have bounded sublevel sets
The sublevel sets of V are invariant sets of the dynamical system
If D is R^n then these are compact for preimages of closed bdd intervals which is very useful
So basically I'd like to characterise the continuity of V on D so that I get the preimages, and I think the subspace topology of D does that?
I would see if you can prove it directly without worrying about lemmas
Feels like it should just jump out at me
I mean it has to mean something when we say we have a function from a subset
V on D will certainly be continuous
if it's continuous on D as a subset of R^n
as I described above
Well yes, but what if it doesnt exist outside of D
the issue is that V can be continuous even without that (I think my example above about [0,1] fits your hypotheses, for example)
what do you mean
you can't talk about the continuity of a function on a space for which the function doesn't exist
I only care if its continuous in D, and continuous on the boundary from within D, outside D the function doesnt matter
I really am not understanding you then
so like [0,1] indicator, i dont care what happens in R-[0,1] it is of no importance in the context
what exactly are you trying to do
If you want to show V: D\to R is continuous
you just have to show it
you can use epsilon-delta stuff for this
I have given V is C1 on a subset D
I wonder if this means it has open preimages of open sets in the subspace D in the subspace topology
it does
noice
yes
so its easier to be continuous
It is continuous in the metric sense within the subset at least
no its continuous in the subspace as well
just take the sequential characterization
if all sequences are preserved
certainly sequences in D are
ye
so V:D->R, preimage of [0,1] as an example would be closed by continuity, and bounded by assumption on V
But not compact depending on what the boundry is like
yeah you need V to be proper to get the latter
It is proper if D is compact because it would be an intersection of compact sets
Or if V goes to infinity at all boundaries not contained in D i suppose (V is bounded below by 0)
Thanks for clearing this up, although I still need to read up on some things 😛
Any 1-form can be expressed as a finite sum $\displaystyle \sum_{i} f_i dg_i$ for some smooth functions $f_i$ and $g_i$. Here, by finite, I mean locally finite. In other words, I think we need to do some partitions of unity stuff here.
Yash
Help?
I can find suitable f_i I think. But I'm unable to see how to get the g_i...
Any help would be much appreciated...
can't you just do this in each coordinate chart and then patch it together with a partition of unity
Yes, but how do you define the f_i and g_i globally?
to be zero outside of the coordinate neighbourhoods possibly?
then multiply by the bump functions in the POU to get something smooth
i haven't checked the details but something like that should work
I agree, something like that has to work, but my question is basically that I'm unable to make it precise...
I can show you what I attempted
The f_i's above are defined globally. But what about the g_i's? I cannot figure that part out.
@gritty widget You were saying something?
Is there any way to find the possible number of topological orderings of a tree. (that is a tree like looking undirected graph
shit, I'm not a math major
lol, my bad
hey I have a question and MasterTernimus said this is a better place to ask it
$$
\sinh^{-1}(2\pi p) + 2\pi p \sqrt{4 \pi^2 p^2+1} = \frac{4\pi v t}{d}
$$
もの
I'm trying to isolate p
I can also show how I got to this equation if you think there might be an easier way to get around this
here's my original question from #help-1 : #help-1 message
I want to see that if V is a symplectic vector space, and J is a compatible complex structure then J sends a lagrangian subspace W to another lagrangian subspace and their intersection is trivial
I've show that the image of W is indeed a lagrangian subspace. but I can't see why the intersection has to be trivial
if $g$ is an inner product on $V$ such that the compatibility equation $g(u,v)=\omega(u,Jv)$ is satisfied, suppose that $w \in J(W)\cap W$. then $w=Jw'$ for some $w'\in W$. then $$g(w,w) = \omega(w,Jw) = \omega(w, J^2w')= -\omega(w,w') = 0,$$ where the last equality follows from the fact that $W$ is lagrangian. since $g$ is positive-definite, $w = 0$, which proves that $J(W) \cap W = 0$
omega and w a little hard to read lol
(T*Terra, dqⁱ ∧ dpᵢ)
Would $S^1 \times D$ where $D$ is the disk of unit radius be a torus with its insides filled?
Trichloromethane
thanks for the practice, my symplectic class is gonna do this exact lemma next class 
That's the word I was looking for lol
What about T x I
where I = [0, 1]
Is that also a torus?
just beefier
Like it would have inner radius still 1 but the outer radius would be 3 instead of 2
Uhhhhh
Actually
idk
weird shape
im trying to imagine like, a torus, but with an interval attached to every point
a [0, 1]-bundle over T 
I mean because you choose a point on the surface of the torus and just go out in the perpendicular
welpm, i gotta draw it
bro share some of your 4d paper
ill just make flipart
can't you just extrude in like they're saying
like
take a
t u b u l a r n e i b o r h o o d
by compactness you can choose a constant radius
That looks like what they're describing yeah?
and it's diffeomorphic to T × I
Yeah I think you're right :)
Just trying to convince tterra
Hmm, I don't think these are the same
i still don't have a response from fields
I mean that's how my prof said to think about S^1 x I
you just choose a point on the circle and go some distance
I think of it as a cylinder
I mean the thinking is the same
I just go out some distance
whether in the same plane
or the other perpendicular one
Hmm I think I disagree with what I was saying
earlier
Oh no
I see
So the thick torus S^1×D is filled in
in the middle
T×I still has a hole
In the tube
Does it?
what about the inner radius going outward
Think about it like this: take a torus and taken outward pointing a normal vector to it
Attach a stick in the direction of the normal vector at each point
Ohhhhhhhhhh
That's T^2 × I
I see, i was thinking that I could, in your analogy, take the negative of the normal when im on the inner radius
Well you can take the inward normal
But you can't fill everything in
You have to make sure the little sticks don't intersect
So like half of the torus is filled?
That's not how I'm thinking about it
It's like if you took a solid torus
And then took a smaller solid torus contained in it
And cut that out
i see
like, T×I = (S^1 × I) × S^1
S^1 × I can be thought of as an annulus in the plane
yeah?
So take the surface of revolution of the annulus
Yeah breaking it up into its components makes it easier to think about
thanks!
So you can just commute the products?
Yup
Up to homeomorphism
Geometrically this is like a reflection of R^3
Being applied to the shape
Swapping the y and z coordinates
that's cool
Wait so that means that S^2 x I is homeomorphic (?) to T x I?
Im getting that S^2 x I is a 3d annulus
no
Oh crap i was adding the exponents :p
What specifically do you mean by 3d annulus?
i mean a cyllinder
I think S^2 × I and T×I are both sort of this
with a hollow center
Oh wait I mixed myself up, S^2 x I is a sphere with a hollowed out center
careful with your words
A sphere is a shell
Like S^2
also "ball with a hollow center" describes a sphere imo
Here you have some bits hollow and some not
ok, ball=filled, sphere=shell
anyways yeah that's what S^2×I looks like
Whereas T×I is like the surface of revolution of an annulus
but its still filled around the inner torus?
here's my drawings
please dont judge
ok
I agree with this drawing
Also S^2 × I
Take a closed ball and scoop out an open ball inside
Of eg half the radius
I'm imagining some mortal combat stuff rn lol
Yeah so S^1×D is the solid torus
Right
and then T×I is like S^2×I in that we scooped out the child of the parent object
Yup, exactly
ok dope
wait, I'm totally wrong about T×I being like an annulus but you rotate it
That will give you S^2×I
Sorry for the confusion!
So they're flipped?
yeah yeah like the difference between it being filled and a surface
makes sense now
so basically multiplying by I causes hollowness
Hmm, sort of
The objects you started with were "hollow", right?
I think what's going on is sort of the difference between a cylinder and a cone
Like, the cylinder is homeomorphic to an annulus whereas the cone is homeomorphic to a disk
Hollow vs filled
There's lots general definitions of a cylinder and a cone on a topological space (the above are the case where your base is the circle)
The cylinder on X is X × I, the cone is more complicated (you need to have seen quotient spaces to define it)
In the case of a sphere the cylinder is the hollow thing S^2 × I whereas the cone is the filled in ball
This isn't exactly right for the torus examples though, so maybe I'm wrong
if the eigenvalues of the second fundamental form of a surface at a point are the corresponding principal curvatures, what then are the eigenvalues of the first fundamental form? are they the principal 'speeds' of travel wrt. the parameterization?
gristle
my linear algebra is weak as i'm just now studying it, i merely know how to compute these things so the geometric intuition can be lost on me at times
for instance i have trouble visualizing what it means to multiply a tangent vector by I_P
what sort of transformation does that entail
like what does the new vector correspond to
i can compute lengths, areas, prove certain things analytically, but i guess understanding what this thing is as an object is confusing to me
@gritty widget what do you mean when you say 'induces the inner product'
this terminology is something i feel i ought to be able to use but the words don't really make any sense to me
what is meant by induce
and why is the inner product referred to as inner
~S^1
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
IMO it might be easier to get an intuition for what $\mathbf{v}^T I_P$ is. It's the function that takes $\mathbf{w} \mapsto \langle \mathbf{v}, \mathbf{w}\rangle$
~S^1
Basically, if you have any bilinear function $B$, you can express it as $B(\mathbf{v}, \mathbf{w}) = \mathbf{v}^T [B] \mathbf{w}$ for some matrix $[B]$. Slimvesus was just making this distinction between the matrix that gives the inner product and the inner product itself
~S^1
and dunno why it's called inner lul
gristle
that second expression doesn't make sense
gristle
still doesn't really make sense
Wym approx?
I think you want to exchange v and w?
That makes sense to me?
the dimensions work out
but yea it relies on symmetry of I_P right?
The inner product of a and b can be written as a^T b
it always works actually
yeah

This is very sticky
I would say I_p v is a vector
You're multiplying a matrix by a vector





