#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 201 of 1
oh yeah i guess the wording could be better
but i meant 0 is an interior point of G0
i would also write down the indexing set
im not sure what you mean
consider an open cover ${G_i}_{i \in I}$
Lochverstärker
(i wouldnt use n as an index since to me it implies countable)
but this is just nitpicking at this point, the proof is fine
also the first sentence should be "Consider an open cover {G_n} of K"
i was mainly hesittant on the step where i say that G0 contains infinitely many elements of K so that finitely many are not in G0
right
its fine if you know that 1/n converges to 0
Well
Just because G0 contains infinitely many elements of K doesn’t mean that finitely many aren’t in G0
You can chop an infinite set up into two disjoint infinite subsets
What you really need to know is that for some N, and for all n > N, that 1/n is in G0
Then you can only possibly have 1/1,1/2,...,1/N not being in G0
yeah thanks, i discussed it with rokabe and he helped me polish out the problems
what do you mean "in topology terms"
are you looking for some kind of way to describe the figure 8 that isn't just "funny loop over itself?"
like a parametrization?
$\gamma \colon [-\pi,\pi]\to\bR^2$ given by $$\gamma(t)=(2\cos t,\sin 2t)$$ works
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
the image of this curve is a figure eight
its fundamental group is the free group on two letters iirc
Is that what you want?
that does not classify the figure eight
You can classify it up to homotopy as a K(F_2,1) though
@red garden it is also S^1 v S^1
@gritty widget do you know about moment maps in symplectic geometry or equivariant morse theory?
i know like
one or two facts about moment maps in symplectic geometry
nothing about equivariant morse theory though
Maybe I'm having a dumb moment but in the context of de Rham Cohomologies, $[H^\bullet _{dR} (M)]$ has a graded ring structure defined by
𝓐eteer
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has a graded ring structure defined by $[[\omega_1]\cdot [\omega_2] \stackrel{def}{=}[\omega_1 \wedge \omega_2]]$ why is this well defined?
𝓐eteer
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it sure does
Oh I missed the question lol
So to show it's well defined you need two things
(1) if you wedge two closed forms you get a closed form
(2) if you wedge a closed form with an exact form you get an exact form
Both should follow from the product rule d(ω ^ η) = dω ^ η ± ω ^ dη
oooo
The sign here is 1 if ω is an even degree form and -1 if ω is odd degree
Iirc
See if you can derive this!
Err, prove my conditions (1) and (2) from the product rule
Deriving the product rule is just annoying lol
thank you sir shamrock
maybe I shouldn't just sleep at this point but why are we using boundaries of k-cubes to integrate forms?
oh wait
Oh I think I understand it, is it related to the fact a 0-cube is a just a point, and then a 1-cube is a curve
then we can just pull-back the form along the image of the k-cube
I’m not really sure, but I’d say it’s mostly because it’s convenient
You could use simplices and it would still work
I don't think what you're saying is standard
I just integrate forms along submanifolds ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Is this for defining the exterior derivative? Iirc Arnold's mathematical methods(?) book defines the exterior derivative by using a kind of infinitesimal stokes theorem where you integrate along cubes
If I recall correctly rudin does this as well
Not that I would recommend anyone to study Stokes from Rudin
yeah arnold's def is a limit of an integral over a parallelogram
$d\varphi(\mathbf{v}1, ..., \mathbf{v}{k+1}) = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{1}{h^{k+1}}\int_{\partial P(\mathbf{v}1, ..., \mathbf{v}{k+1})}\varphi$
~S^1
which is p nice and suggestive of stoke's
although it caused hubbard to push the proof of exterior derivative identities to the appendix
(hubbard's treatment was inspired by arnold)

~S^1
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the phi here denotes that integrating it over a surface (with constant time) gives the flux of the magnetic field through the surface
~S^1
How do you think of this term, geometrically?
i might be waaaay off the mark here but it's just a tiny piece of the surface, right? a tangent plane?
ig that's how you think of integrating most 2-forms?
but I'm trying to understand this in particular
like for instance if you have two vector fields v and w in $\mathbb{R}^3$, $W_{v}\wedge W_{w} = \Phi_{v\times w}$
~S^1
which is nice and easy to think of
Re:Arnold. I found that a really cool intuition for what the exterior derivative is but I never worked out the details
It does justify me in thinking "the exterior derivative is the thing that makes stokes work" though
I think Dami mentioned this at some point
yea this is a good way to think about things
the exterior derivative is the unique operator from k-forms to k+1-forms
it's literally the only way I can remember the vector calculus integral theorems
which commutes with pullbacks
this is true. I was thinking about the fact that you can actually define it by a version of stokes
The thing approx posted above
(shit there's a typo there mb lol, put an h in the arguments of P in the integrand)
uniqueness is good but that formula is a little more concrete/actually defines the thing
Does anyone know of a great place to read more about Van Kampen; I'm somewhat confused although we just covered it. I don't think our material covers it the best.
the true way to van kampen is via groupoids
i find treating it via groupoid then specializing to π1 nicer tbh

Pushouts of groupoids are harder to compute and if you want to actually talk about multiple basepoints and still get useful info about π1 you need to do awkward things
like the computation of π1(S^1) with groupoids
you need to somehow take one basepoint in the whole space but two in the intersection
It's doable but kind of unclear
I think it's probably better to just see it with groups first
im sorry but i just cant believe anyone genuinely thinks this lol
i mean like
i dont understand what the advantage is lol
at all really
the pi1 case is easier to computer, more geometric, simpler to state, and requires less machinery
and honestly 99% of the time more useful
back to my question from the other day: $G$ is a finite group acting continuously and freely on a topological manifold $X$. The goal is to show that $X/G$ is a topological manifold, and right now I am trying to show that $X/G$ is locally euclidean. So far, I only have some intuitive guesses how charts may arise on $X/G$: if $(\varphi, U)$ is a chart in $X$ then I'm guessing I need to somehow define a chart $\varphi' : \pi(U) \to \bR^n$ which somehow in a well defined way uses $\varphi$ to map orbits to points in $\bR^n$, but i haven't had any luck so far.
kxrider
I haven't needed freeness of the action yet, so I'm guessing that should come up somewhere 
(pi : X to X/G is the quotient map, and we know from earlier that its open, so pi(U) is open)
This might help?
Once you have that the action is properly discontinuous, it should not be hard to show that the quotient is locally euclidean
^ what they said
you just need to show that you can choose any one of many disjoint open neighborhoods for lifting a small neighborhood of x in X/G
ugh, still kind of struggling with proving proper discontinuity. I just don't see any way to remove all of the possibly infinitely many points which are fixed inside of an open set by the action of G
shrink the nbhd element by element
say you have an open set U
look at U and g_1U
if they intersect, make U smaller
hmm
wait a sec
yeah just do it for each element
and intersect them
it will still be open as it's a finite intersection
ignore what I wrote above, lemme rewrite it in a cleaner way
say we have a point p
for each g in G, there are disjoint open sets Up, Ugp separating p and gp
ohhh i think i see where this is going
choose a nbhd of p inside Up such that g maps the nbhd into Ugp
(which you can as the function is cts)
now do this for all g
and intersect them
yeah that should do it
ok im kind of confused. What does intersecting them do here? If U is their intersection, wouldn't that just mean gU \subset Ugp for all g in G?
oh wait 
gU \subset Ugp and Ugp is disjoint from the original Up which contains the intersection U.
U is just what i called the final intersection
there is a nbhd Vg of p s.t. g Vg \subset Ugp
intersect all the Vg
intersect the intersection with Up
and then call that intersection "U."
U \subset Up and gU \subset Ugp for each g but Ugp is disjoint from Up and therefore gU is disjoint from U, right?
yup
amazing. hopefully i've got it from here lol. thanks!

Can someone explain why this function is discontinuous at x_0 by the topological definition of continuity?
topological definition of continuity being that preimages of opens are open?
I get that the open set (f(a),f(b)) has an open set (a,b) as its pre-image, implying continuity over that interval.
Yes, Terra.
is f(x_0) the part on the left or the right of the jump
i wanna draw a picture but i need to know that 
i'm gonna show you an interval whose preimage isn't open
Let it be on the left.

Hmmmmmmmm
So having it on the left, the open interval ending on the left bit and starting on the right bit will both leave out x_0 in their pre-images?
so the picture is a little wonky
but
on the vertical axis i've shown you an interval I around f(x_0), yeah?
the preimage is just the stuff that gets mapped into there
but the preimage of this guy isn't an open set!
(this is not a rigorous argument, but i think you can come up with one from it
)
Dumb question, but why is it not an open set? If I take the union of (b,x_0] and (x_0,c), I do get an open set?
sorry brofibration my analysis TA says rigorous = including absolutely every single step in mathematical symbols

no open set around x_0 is contained in it, despite it containing x_0 (concisely, x_0 is not an interior point)
since it's half-closed
(think about why)
-1 for not stating the Archimedean property 
you should turn in homework
Ohhh, that makes sense!
lol
just a wall of quantifiers
i'm still malding about that connectedness question
oh i think i saw that. I literally couldn't comprehend the criticisms lmao
every time i work on complex analysis or symplectic geometry, i think "yeah, that analysis class means nothing"
how many points did you lose tho
1

which actually makes me even angrier
you're malding over 1 point?
yes.
is it out of 2?


i'm malding because it's such a stupid fucking thing to lose a mark on
it's literally nothing
but he still did it
he could have just posted an ascii middle finger for the feedback and it'd be the same
lol just get to a level where you don't care about grades
already am
lol
nice
I mean in grad school
i don't care about grades because they're already good 
i literally got a 90 on this problem set
this is unnecessary anger
the other marks i lost were because i couldn't be assed to write down a parametrization of the topologist's sine circle and a fully formal and rigorous proof that it's not locally path connected
not even worth the effort
(yes, the TA wanted us to do that)
Okay, I gave some more thought to this definition. If I have an open ball centred at x_0, the corresponding image is the union of two sets which are not open. Am I right in thinking so?
are you trying to show that the preimage is not open?
Uh yes
right, so you want to show that there is no open ball in R around x contained in the union of those two intervals
Yes.
okay, so say you have an open ball of radius r around x_0
why is it not contained in the union of those two intervals
oh wait it's just one interval
not two
I'm actually not entirely convinced about that
Since x_0-r lies in the first interval, and x_0+r lies in the second, I feel like I have an open ball contained in the union.
(Referring to Terra's drawing)
if you look at tterra's drawing
there's a gap
between x_0 and the other interval
points in that gap are still in the open ball
remember we are looking at the open ball in R
not in the subspace topology
I submitted a regrade request on a hw I got 43/44 on last week
ignore the subspace topology remark
they changed my grade 2 days after I got it back and the new deduction was blatantly wrong ("you didn't fix x, this is showing uniform continuity" when I explicitly fixed the variable)
I was mad and felt justified regrade requesting 1 point
the set we're looking at is (a, x_0] union (b,c)
brb emailing my TA
where b and x_0 are some distance away
so any open ball containing x_0
will contain some points between b and x_0
OH, I got it!!!!
so not in the set
I had a brain-fart moment when I couldn't process the gap, I thought we had intervals (b,x_0] and (x_0,c). Turns out the second open interval has some gap, so its something like (c,d). So any open ball centred at x_0 is not in the preimage.
yes


Thanks both of you!

The discontinuity at x=1 is explained by the fact that f(1) is not in any open set in the range?
Take a small open interval around f(1). It’s preimage is a point (unioned with stuff that comes from the right side of the graph)
That’s how I would think of it anyway
Thanks!
To claim that a subset of R which has a finite complement is open, can I claim that it is the finite union of open intervals in R such that these finitely many deleted points are excluded?
when considering the metric space Q with d(p,q) = |p-q|, am I allowed to considerr open neighborhoods with non rational radius?
say for example the neighborhood $N_{\sqrt{2}}(q)$ of q
Little Narwhal
yes
alright i dont know i didnt feel sure
cause im trying to show that the set 2 < q^2 < 3 is closed and bounded in Q and I made use of such neighborhoods for that so I was a little unsure
so now to show that it isnt compact
consider that metric spaces can be defined on sets which aren't subsets of R
so it wouldn't make sense that you'd have to only look at rational radii
for the compactness part, is considering an infinite cover that approaches a point between sqrt2 and sqrt3 from both sides the right way to go?
nvm
it isnt
and i just realised i messed up the first part too reeeeee
Is a certain subset A of X said to be open because it is included in the topological space (X,T) for some topology T, or is the topology T a collection of open sets? I'm kinda confused about which property is more primitive here-the open-ness of a set, or the definition of a topology on a set.
i think it is the first
Okay, thanks!
id wait for a second opinion though
This set is closed because the complement could be written as (-infinity, sqrt(2)) \cap Q union (sqrt(3), infinity)\cap Q which is open in Q
first im trying to see if i can fix what i messed up
i just didnt consider negative q but i think it should be an easy fix
definition of topology on a set
A subset is open with respect to a certain topology
it can't be the first because then every set is open as it's included in the in discrete topology
Chmonkey
aight fixed, back to compactness
i think i thought of a good cover in the meantime
$G_i = (-\sqrt{3} + \frac{1}{i}, -\sqrt{2}-\frac{1}{i}) \cup (\sqrt{2} + \frac{1}{i}, \sqrt{3} - \frac{1}{i})$ and take the union $\bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty} G_i$
Little Narwhal
this should work right?
obviously you need to intersect with Q but I trhink so
aight and the final step was to say if it is also open an it seems pretty clear to me that it is
can always construct subset neighborhoods
idk how much topology you know but
The topology you have is the metric topology induced by the normal metric on R but on your subset
this coincides with the subspace topology
so the fact that your sets look like "open set in R intersect your set"
tells you it's open
oh yeah ofc
we showed that theorem a little earlier
that it's open relative to a sub metric space Y iff it is an open set in X intersected with Y
To claim T is the discrete topology, it should be sufficient to demonstrate that every singleton subset of X is in T; can I take pairwise intersections of two infinite sets precisely in such a way that their intersection yields a singleton? It seems doable in concrete settings, but can I do such a thing for arbitrary(possibly uncountable) infinite sets?
The union of all infinite subsets of X should be X, and removing a single element from an infinite set still gives an infinite set.
So I could take an arbitrary proper infinite subset A of X, remove an arbitrary element x from it to produce a new set A', then x is in an element of (X-A') which is itself an infinite subset. Now (X-A')\cap A is the singleton {x}. T being a topology, it is closed under finite intersections and hence we have {x}\in T for every x\in X. Thus T is the discrete topology. 
X\A' might not be infinite
just don't take an arbitrary A
You need to use choice for something like this, but
Take a countable subset
then split that up into two sets, the even and odd ones
you can throw x into this countable subset too, and just throw it into whichever one you like for example
I don't know of other ways to show that you can put x in an infinite subset with infinite complement
Oh, this works!
To grab a countable subset you definitely need choice
if you want a proof that one exists, you can use well-ordering
I don't know the proof that it's necessry, i looked this up earlier this year
couldn't you also just take two infinite sets containing the same point?
take an infinite set and choose a point in it
That was my initial idea
then add that to another infinite set and take their intersection
I'm actually not sure if you need choice to show that you have an infinite set with infinite complement
Can we not define these sets to be such a way that their intersection is guaranteed to be a singleton?
but if you want to do it grabbing a countable subset you can't
lmfao
without choice you can't even show the existence of a proper infinite subset

so you're going to ultimately need to do something janky with choice
X -{a} ?
but grabbing a countable subset is not too bad
oh wait
nvm I didn't read the entire thing
LOL
but actually this is perfec
this is exactly what we wanted
proper ifninite subset with infinite complement
needs choice

Can I create arbitrary partitions of infinite sets?
wdym?
Like, take infinite subsets A and B of X such that A\cap B=\emptyset such that they both don't include some x\in X, and A\cup B\cup{x}=X?
Yeah do what was said earlier
take a countable subset Y of X
wplit up Y into Y_1 and Y_2
these are disjoint
Now call Z = (Y_1 U Y_2)^c
now just remove x from Z, Y_1, Y_2
Now you can do
Y_1, Y_2 U Z
both are infinite
x isn't in either
and they're disjoint
and then Y_1 U (Y_2 U Z) U {x} = X
sorry, I didn't say what Y_1 and Y_2 are, just like even and odd
Okay, makes sense. Can I claim all this without any additional assumptions(choice, etc.) which I should quote in my proof?
the only thing you need is choice
In order to grab the countable subset
You could do this with say, well-ordering
you can enumerate X as element x_alpha
where alpha are ordinals, and you can just take all of the x_alpha where alpha is a natural number for example
I think choice also tells you that any cardinal contains subsets of all the smaller sizes inside it
so you can abstractly grab a countable subset
Tbh
I wouldn't worry about this
I'd just say "take a countable subset"
and I think any reasonable person will accept that you can do this, unless your prof cares about choice
but the ppl who care about choice are pretty few and far between, and even those who do probably accept it and use it in a context like this
Nw about that, I'm studying on my own at the moment. I don't even think my uni offers topology at the undergrad level.
I just wanted to know what I'm assuming here in order to prove the result. Thanks a ton!
I mean I think it's something anyone would believe at first mention pretty much
Like if I said
Let x_1 be an arbitrary element of X
then let x_n be an element in X\{x_1,...,x_n-1}
Yeah, it sounds intuitively reasonable to me.
then take the set of all x_n
you just need choice to grab all those elements I think, but this is pretty reasonable I think
Agreed.
Oh, I guess the only thing to mention is you want countably infinite lol
since countable includes finite (for most people's definition)
Oh yeah, I'll write it down as countably infinite. Thanks again!









to separate two points in the product, just separate each of the coordinates/components, then take the product of those open sets to get a separation in the product
@tight agate yo sorry for the ping, but about the whole X/G is a manifold thing. Do you happen to know where freeness of the G-action is used? I haven't needed it at all which is worrying
sure
if the action wasnt free then we couldnt have separated g and gp
ohh yea because gp = p is possible for g!=e in a non-free action
consider GL(n, R) acting on R^n by multiplication. any two nonzero vectors can be swapped by the action of an invertible matrix, so the orbits are R^n \ {0} and {0}. The quotient will be the sierpinski space
I guess this isn't so good because you're only looking at finite groups, not topological groups with proper actions
thanks anyway sham
in my head the issue is that points can get stuck close together
you can get like singularities in your space, or nonhausdorffness
there's plenty of natural examples if you're thinking about (non-finite) topological groups
the action of Sl(2,Z) on the upper half plane
comes up when you're trying to construct the moduli space of elliptic curves
yee, I'm actually having trouble thinking of a finite one whose quotient isn't a manifold though
I guess {-1,1} on R
this is still a manifold with boundary though so it still feels a little too nice
permutation rep of S_n?
hmm I was thinking that would just give you R but maybe not
oh no it's weirder
because of like (x,x)
yeah C2 acting on R^2 by swapping will be fucked up
or maybe not so much, I think it's like a reflection along y = x
so you get the upper half plane
but in higher dimensions it's more fucked up
yeah, I think the quotient won't be a manifold with boundary
there's the sign rep on a 1 dim subspace I think
you have (x,x,x)
is the complement an irrep?
I believe so
so we have p : R^3 -> R^3 given by p(x,y,z) = (x+y+z,x+y+z,x+y+z)/3
this is a projection onto the 1d rep
what's the kernel?
so it's everything where x + y + z = 0
this is invariant
yup
basis given by (1,-1,0) and (1,0,-1)
oh right so like
S_3 -> C2
then we act on R^2 by swapping
that's the other irrep
okay the orbits are super messed up
good haha
oh right when you want to deal with the braid groups this comes up
I've definitely thought about this before
the nth braid group Bn is pi_n of the quotient of R^n \ {bad points} by S_n
Hey can anyone help me with trying to prove that the stereographic projection of n spheres S^n is a smooth manifold of dimension n?
so I've realised we can cover S^n by two charts, I've taken out the poles of both these, but I'm a little stuck on how to define our coordinate maps φ
so you have two sets
presumably $U = \mathbb{S}^n \setminus {(0,\ldots,0,1)}$ and $V = \mathbb{S}^n \setminus {(0,\ldots,0,-1)}$
Shamrock -> E -> B
you're not sure how to define $\varphi : U \to \R^n$ and $\psi : V \to \R^n$
yeah?
Shamrock -> E -> B
$U_{N} = \mathbb{S}^n \setminus {(-1,\ldots,0,0)}$ and $U_{S} = \mathbb{S}^n \setminus {(1,\ldots,0,0)}$
𝓐eteer
yah, np
so you're stuck defining the maps from these to R^n?
yeah I'm having a brain mush moment
that's fair lol
how do I define our φ to R^n
do you have a geometric sense of what this map does?
kind of im guessing that
ok so for the 1-dimensional sphere, the circle it kind of cuts the circle and pulls it out right
and maps it to R
and this is now mapping to some plane R^n?
like when I think of the circle I think of parameterizing it by (cos(t), sin(t))
and then you map the circle minus a point onto (0,2 pi)
and then pull that out to R
I think R^2 is better
S^2
yeah yeah, I did this in two ways, i used 4 charts and then showed I could do it for 2
now I'm trying to do the S^n... R^n+1 case
so for our S^1 we had that we could define our circle by x, sqrt(1-x^2) right
sure
I think it's better to think about S^2
so like
has anyone ever explained to you the idea of stereographic projection?
for the sphere
hahaha
right I think I remember that video
something about pythagorean triples
so here is the idea
actually is was about quaternions
oh
but yeah
but yeah I understand we are intersecting different points of the circle/sphere and finding where that point lies on our R space
and think about the xy plane
right!
so we draw a line
connecting e.g. the north pole to our point
and that intersects the plane z = 0 at a unique point
yup!
so we want to define phi(p)
take p
connect it to the point you're projecting away from
look at where that hits the plane
O
erm
can we see it as
you know the point we are picking on our sphere
ahh I think I understand
rubber duck method is helping
np lol
right right, so how can we formulate an equation for this cheeky line
wait our line going through our point P and touching our North pole
is the line going through the sphere?
right
do I have to use $d(a, b) = \arccos\left(\frac{a \cdot b}{1}\right)$ where a and b are points on our n-sphere?
trying to find the line that maps these points using the stereographic proj.
𝓐eteer
uhhh
you can parameterize a line through two points in R^n
tp + (1-t)q
and then solve for when the last coordinate is 0
or the first one in your case
oh my
what ist i doing
I just differentiated arccos to find the gradient
and just got into confusion
I forgot about this

$L_N (λ) = (−1, 0, . . . , 0) + λ (1 + x_0, x_1,\ldots , x_n)$
𝓐eteer
☘️
@sleek thicket important 
It's catching on
☘️
let x and y be points --> x=(x_1,x_2,....,x_n) and y =(y_1,y_2,...,y_n) , let X_i be seperated by A_i U B_i where x_i is in A_i and y_i is in B_i ( each X is totally disconnected )
is this right? @swift hemlock
exterior derivative of a p-form is just the sum of the partials right?
you might want to be a bit more precise with that statement
partials of....?
you want to get a (p + 1)-form
why are the inverse functions for the coordinate maps for the n dimensional sphere like this
are we trying to map our points of the form x/(1-x_0) to S_n \ {(1,0,...,0)} ? and if so how does this work by taking the differential of our sphere?
Sorry I'll rephrase. The exterior derivative is a (p+1)-form, whose entries are the partial derivatives of the coefficient function with respect to each coordinate basis, wedged with the coordinate basis you take the derivative with respect to
ooo this is defined for our y>0 and y<0 (upper and lower hemispheres) respectively and the 2y_1... 2y_n gives us our curvature gradient of the sphere right
is this not just a stereographic map?
my topology is not great but it looks like that
I guess the standard atlas is more straightforward
yes it is
sry if I'm interrupting (the person seems to have left), but I was wondering how useful the theory of differential forms is in solving ODEs
first order ODEs seem to be equivalent to finding integral curves of 1-forms, but is that change in perspective actually useful?
and can this be generalized to higher order and/or nonlinear ODEs?

i guess i have wondered something like this too, or maybe, what does PDE on manifolds look like? bunch of differential form crap?
probably something i don't actually want to think about
finding integral submanifolds of distributions on a manifold is the same thing as solving a PDE iirc
frobenius' theorem gives you necessary and sufficient conditions for when you can do that
I think there was also some generalization of laplace's equation using *d*d as an upgraded laplacian (I really don't know what I'm talking about here so could very well be wrong
)

spooky
frobenius' theorem has an equivalent in terms of differential forms
maybe you can look there?
there's probably a connection between PDEs and differential forms that you can dig up
ISM chapter 19
man lee does all the things lmao
It's a good book
Also not all pde in diff geo is forms
There is also riemannian stuff
Or wait no that's an ode isn't it
Just higher order

I was thinking about geodesics and parallel transport
those are ODEs
hmmmmmm
but yeah there's probably some PDEs lurking in riemannian geometry too
that seems more like an application of ODEs to manifold memes than the other way around
frobenius theorem is exactly application of manifold to DE memes
well "exactly"
iirc you can say some meaningful things
@nimble jolt can probably say more, I think his work is either pde or closely related to pdes
what i'm thinking is
ODEs are to PDEs as finding integral curves is to frobenius' theorem
frobenius' theorem has meaningful applications to PDE theory
frobenius' theorem has a differential form equivalent
thus, differential forms apply to PDEs
yes gomez say more this is something i like 
during my digging online, I looked for a characterization of curves defined by $\int_C F_i dx^i = 0$ (which is basically a DE problem right?) And it lead to this random obscure book called the Geometry of Vector Fields
~S^1
and the families of curves are apparently called "non holonomic manifolds"
also it defines the curvature of a vector field which was strange
was a fun find but the book is a bit dry so I probably won't properly read it lmao
yeah
here's a pdf if you like
🚔

ah yes, each component \xi_i of \tombstone
yeah, just take the product of the sets A_i and the product of the sets B_i to get a separation of x and y
so im right?
well you have to separate x and y to prove this^
so just add this and you're done
.
so yea the space here would then
for x and y distinct points we say X = Product(A_i U B_i)
where the coordinates of x and y are seperated by each A_i and B_i
is this right
so for every two points
we found a seperation
no, X = Product(A_i) U Product(B_i)
where x is in Product(A_i) and y is in Product(B_i)
and both sets are open in X by definition of the product topology
good luck with the rest haha
ty
anyone wanna help me show more smooth compatibility
Sure
oh no

I am always happy to subject myself to awful manifolds computations for a friend
I just don't wanna do manifolds ever again lmao
right now I need to show a fun thingy
So I did this problem right
By very nasty construction
@tough imp is familiar
:)
arctan time
and now I am doing this problem
and I am just here to complain
Oh yeah I helped chm with that problem a couple weeks ago lol
well I will not get in the way of complaining
This part ii
I am confused by
because like
the maps I've computed
can have derivative 0
and that is
very not good

for being diffeomorphisms,,,,,
Concerning
(also I love that, I found out about it from this tweet https://twitter.com/chagnie/status/1355996191763222531?s=19)
(this is my algebra prof from last year who's an algebraic geometer)
so like
the inverse of an angle function
is just e^(it)
right
and so
my issue is
right
the standard structure on S^1
is just projection to the first or second coordinate
yup
The domain should fix it
I think
but the domain has to cover the whole circle right
Which is a subset of a quarter circle
I see
hm
yeah
not a subset of a quarter circle
it's a subset of a half circle for us
oh right sorry
Yeah I was getting confused because there's four charts
ye
hmmm
I'm still not convinced
that domain will fix this
because like
-sin(t) and cos(t)
the derivatives
at least one of those is gonna go "badoosh zero"
somewhere
hmm this is true
oh okay
ignore dumb comments
Which makes sense to me
the opposite of the one which makes them be zero
and you will be happy
yeah I'm going to invoke IFT here
Oh right!
is why I want this
yeah so like
bc I know I have a cts inverse
Yeah this makes sense
Yeah I just assumed I could say that any branch of arcsin or arccos is smooth
since they're like, definable by an integral of a smooth function or whatever
ye
lmfao
My holy war continues
I went to oh yesterday
And the TA gave a false argument when a student asked for help (problem was to say a certain map is surjective, they showed it has dense image and used continuity)
And then on the next problem was like "sorry I didn't actually look at this problem yet can anyone else help"
I have been a ta and done worse but I'm still salty lol
rip
I don't look at problems ahead of time either
but at least I know how to solve them all so
yeah haha
This was like
A super technical argument
You need to do a weird induction thing
and then the ta was like
"what are you doing, this is super easy"
anger
anger time
now I am just needing to show that like
theta(U) will always be open
so that this is actually a chart
and things work
,,,I do not want to show this
rip
uhh what would I say here
hm
Ah okay i think I see
I know why this all feels so familiar
It's because I was literally saying these things to chm a couple weeks ago
lol
He just dropped manifolds
Somehow like all the uw core courses have gone berserk
this year
Every single one is faster and more stressful than it was last year, and they were already pretty high up there
oof
a bunch of my friends have dropped manifolds too
our manifolds is not that bad
oh god I just realized something disgusting
so like
for a general angle function
theta(U) might not be bounded
proof
split S^1 into countably many open subsets by just making intervals of smaller and smaller size, say 1/2 of the circle, then 1/4, then an 1/8 etc
use the standard angle function + 2pi * k
where k is the part you're in
this is continuous if you shrink the parts by a tiny bit so that they're like disconnected and can't interact
this construction is actually so cursed holy fuck
makes sense to me

what?
lmfao
number theory is not about numbers
How are you supposed to prove that an irrational-angled curve on the torus is dense without using Dirichlet approximation???
You're just hating me for being so correct

Im not even meming!
imagine having angles
This is the only way I know to do it!!!
it's lie groups
You should have just said a line in the plane with this loop de doo property
torus is just C/lattice
if two fields are connected
so it's equivalent to asking you be dense in C when you add in equivalencies with these lines
which IDK feels more number theoretic to me
usually means that. Not always
that is one of the ways
oh yeah true Faye
not sure
in my head it's like
look at the 1 param subgroups of the torus
some of them are embedded
The others are dense
You might want to prove this
and figure out why it's true
hmm actually I may be lying
not sure the others are embedded
I don't know lie groups
I think they are? Might have self intersection
and clearly I don't know anything about manifolds
Lie groups are so cool I love them
They're like me fave thing in diff top/geo
maybe this server should do a lie group reading course
That would be fun
I want to learn more about them
like the rep theory
I intend to
We're currently doing classifying spaces in my bundles course
So I should be able to start learning Bott periodicity stuff soon
I need to present on some equivariant K-theory stuff in a week
and I don't know any

hmm I am having a conundrum. I want to do math but I'm hungry. And I can't go get food because I need to do math
I need to prove that S^1 has the right fundamental group tomorrow
how can I possibly resolve this
speedrun time
Exciting!
Hurewicz
What proof are you doing?
Ah nice
so I need to like
So kind of covering spaces
prove it's a covering map
prove S1 is a K(Z,1)
right
EZ
the covering map isnt bad at all
the covering map is easy
Faye I would simply cite the well known result that π1(S^1) = Z
angle functions are bad
You can always use the complex analysis proof of this computation
manifolds course: construct with arctan
alg top course: It is clear that angle functions exist

do yall know what the first proof I saw was
Hurewicz
do you mean van kampen?
Without knowing any covering space stuff or degree theory
Groupoid van Kampen
Yeah brofib
how's that memeir
Yea that paper is nice 
it is absolutely memier

And learned the material really poorly in each
Wow mood
Brofib learned alg top by talking to his friends
next year I should probably take the alg top class
but I already sort of kind of know the material
the eternal struggle of "nail down your foundations" vs "do cool stuff"
how relatable (tm)
Me learning something for the first time: not doing enough exercises, rushing things, not learning everything properly
Me learning something for the second time: I already know this, shutting off brain
I did a Hatcher reading course in spring but uh covid
And also I jumped into the 2nd quarter with cohomology
Spent like 2 weeks speed running Hatcher homology chapter
do a seminar, you will be forced to learn the foundational stuff so that you don't look like an idiot when someone asks you a question
X
holy shit stop it stop it
I feel like I would learn stuff at a shallow level if I were trying to also keep up with a seminar
I enjoyed the cat theory seminars
despite not knowing enough
but that's ultimate ugct
going to cat theory seminars
I went to a couple ag seminars and was very lost
which is why I need to someday grind Hartshorne
It’s midnight and I haven’t started the rep theory homework due tomorrow oops
nG bad
Also need to prepare stuff for meeting tomorrow supposed to have talk slides to show Daniel 
this is why the west coast is better, it isnt midnight yet
more time to do rep theory homework
Yea I’m gonna
we can crowd source it
Post and we'll all write solutions
Just don't check for quality
I haven’t looked at it yet hold on
I need to rewrite a really ugly argument because I realized I was misremembering how fubini works
it will be much better now
but I don't want to think about it
oh ive done the last one at least
and 3
Yeah the first one scared me because "quiver"
But this looks pretty reasonable
1 is kinda annoying but not bad, 2 is easy, 3 is easy but annoying, 4 is annoying
yea not bad
last week's homework was really annoying I didn't do it 
I feel like I've done 2 but also I'm blanking on what the radical of a module is
So maybe not
intersection of all maximal submodules
ah yeah okay I've done 2
yea so that's not bad it's just checking definitions
I have run out of homework
So I need to like
Work on reu apps or something
blech
hopefully I get into the REU I'm working on stuff for rn
tfw the REU emails you and is like
"so you know that application you filled out?"
"turns out we need you to read these papers and write this response as well by say hmm, Wednesday next week, preferably Monday"
'it's """optional"""'
literal hell
only like 6-15 spots too according to the prof
so I'm like
AHHHHHHHHH

@sleek thicket you know the REU I'm talking about and anyone who follows me on twitter saw me post about this :P
me: applying to an REU in noomber theory / probability
me: so yo wtfffff is a martingale
yeah
oh hey 1a is cute and then the other parts are easy
computed the Jacobson radical by literally just classifying all the maximal ideals and then computing the intersection

I think I did this one by myself


this dude

