#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 199 of 1
like, if a manifold is defined as the zero set of a C^1 map, then you're guaranteed an orientation on it, so you can't define a non orientable manifold that way 🤯
theorems like that ig
and/or intuition
This is because the gradient is a normal vector, right ?
how do you prove that every curves have the cofinite topology ? @tight agate
Anyways my recommendation as always is ISM lol
hatcher also gives another perspective on orientation
In terms of the (co)homology
both good
oh perfect, I've been meaning to give hatcher a look at some point
to see what this homology stuff was all about
It's good!
well, you do need to ignore the generic point, but it is quasicompact, so cover it with finitely many affines and show that each affine part has the cofinite top
over each affine part it should reduce to polynomials have finitely many zeros (1-dim)
thanks!
@obtuse meteor that person is so annoying
I have had similar interactions
(this is about a rando on Twitter not any of you)
yeah ok it should gives a one-dimension function ring, that is every non zero prime ideals are maximal then the ring is factorial. And if you take f irreductible, I(V(f)) = (f) maximal, and V(f) is only one point bc maximal ideals are in one-to-one correspondence with points of your curve. @tight agate
I will assume it's you now ultra
why would you say this thing
duxk you
fiber bundles confuse me 
apparently you can give $\mathbb{S}^1 \times \mathbb{S}^1$ the structure of a nontrivial fiber bundle over $\mathbb{S}^1$ with structure group ${-1,1}$
with the projection onto the first factor
@shut moat reveal to me your mysterious ways mx circle
sorry for asking so many questions, but i just wanted to make sure my intuition is correct:
if you have a smooth 1- manifold in R^n, you can define an orientation on it with a nonvanishing continuous tangent vector field via the orientation induced by its work form.
If you have a smooth 2-manifold in R^3, you can put an orientation on it with a continuous transverse vector field via the orientation induced by its flux.
For the latter, this only works because R^3 has the special property that 3-2 = 1 (big bren maff), so you can identify an orientation on the surface with a vector via this poincare duality thing I guess. But this is equivalent to picking out a pair of continuous tangent vector fields that form a basis at each point, which is the direct analog of what you do to the 1-manifold, and this is the version that generalizes more readily to 2-manifolds embedded in arbitrary dimensional spaces, right?
also what is that horrifying symbol :o_o:
looks like that s you find on desks in middle school
why do u use mathbb sham
its correct
in what sense
in the sense that its correct
tbf it looks nice lol
we're briging it back in 2021
hot take
\mathbb{S} should only be fore symmetric groups
they don't deserve to use normal S
wrong
ironically computing stuff w spheres ends up being something to do w k-theory related to symmetric groups
so truly notation leads to Truth
another reason I might use this notation: my book does
Is algebraic geometry more fitting here or in abstract algebra
also sorry @shut moat but im not big brained enough for your question so it's getting buried
npnp
~S^1
ah okay
wait so like
is your question "how does a normal vector give an orientation"
it looked like more than that
actually hm it's a little weird that it works for 1d curves in any dimension, I guess it's because the tangent space is 1d
so the top exterior power is just the cotangent bundle
smth like that lol
ig like it was like "why do you use a tangent vector field for a curve but a normal vector field for a surface (in R^3)"
And I attempted to answer it with "R^3 is nice bcz dual of a 2-form is a 1-form ~ vector"
so they're actually equivalent
ah yeah so like
here's how I would think about it
a tangent vector for a curve trivializes the tangent bundle
so you just get an orientation
does that make sense?
I'm not sure what you mean since idk much about bundle stuff sry. A trivialization is a when you pick a neighborhood where the bundle looks like a product bundle or something right
ah no worries
yeah so like
if you have a global basis for the tangent space
varying smoothly
you get an isomorphism $TM \cong M \times \R^k$
Shamrock -> E -> B
yeah?
I think yeah
so a tangent vector to a curve is such a basis
if $X$ is a nonzero tangent vector to $C$, I automatically get a map $M \times \R \to TM$ by $(p, t) \mapsto t X_p$
Shamrock -> E -> B
and this is an isomorphism
so our orientation is just "the bundle is trivial, i.e. globally looks like R, so we can define an orientation"
or to put in another way, just declare the direction X points in to be the positive direction at each point
so for curves something different is going on imo
the generalization of the curve thing is that if $M$ is an $n$-manifold and you have global vector fields $E_1,\ldots,E_n$ on $M$, and for any $p \in M$ the vectors $E_1|_p, \ldots, E_n|_p$ are a basis, then you get an orientation for $M$
Shamrock -> E -> B
just declare (E_1|_p,...,E_n|_p) to be positively oriented at each point
does that make sense?
yeah! This is sortof what I was thinking
and then normals are the special case where cross product exists, is how i tried to think of it
hmm, I disagree
so for example, the orientation on $\mathbb{S}^2$ comes from the outward pointing normal vector, but there is no such global frame for $\mathbb{S}^2$
Shamrock -> E -> B
(frame means global basis of vector fields like above)
oh dang
do you know (of) the hairy ball theorem?
on spheres of even dimensions
there is one on the 3-sphere actually
and all odd dimensional spheres
but anyways
so if $(X,Y)$ was a frame for $\mathbb{S}^2$, we would have $(X_p, Y_p)$ linearly independent at each point $p$, an in particular both $X_p$ and $Y_p$ would be nonzero for each $p$
Shamrock -> E -> B
so imo the normal vector thing comes from the hodge star operator
speaking of the hairy ball theorem 
which is the duality between 1 forms and 3-1 = 2 forms you mentioned
ooh
interesting
idk anything about killing vector fields
they kill the metric w/ lie derivative
mathematicians are violent smh
so the geometry is preserved along their trajectories
Shamrock -> E -> B
this means that g is an inner product on the tangent spaces of M, smoothly varying and all
(here's the proof of the previous picture, btw)
let $n = \dim M$. then for $0 \leq k \leq n$ we have this funny "hodge star operator" $\star : \Lambda^k(T^* M) \to \Lambda^{n-k}(T^* M)$
Shamrock -> E -> B
you should check if hubbard defines it
I think it's really cool
anyways, here is how you can think of the normal vector giving an orientation abstractly
an orientation is equivalent to choosing a nonzero top dimensional form
oh also pretend M = R^n here lol, don't worry about general riemannian manifolds
rip only a passing mention saying it's related to "perpendicularity"

so if $M'$ is a hypersurface in $M$ (ie an $(n-1)$-dimensional submanifold) and we have a global choice of normal vector $N : M' \to TM$, we can use the metric to get a covector $\omega : M' \to T^* M$ satisfying $\omega_p(v) = g_p(N_p, v)$. Then $\ast \omega : M' \to \Lambda^{n-1} T^* M$ gives an $(n-1)$-form, and we can pull back along the inclusion $\iota : M' \to M$ to get nonvanishing $(n-1)$-form $\iota^* \circ \star\omega : M' \to \Lambda^{n-1} T^* M'$
Shamrock -> E -> B
i do not think of the orientation coming from a normal vector this way though
i just think of it as like, declare $(v_1,\ldots,v_n) \in T_p M'$ to be oriented if $(N_p, v_1,\ldots,v_n)$ is oriented
Shamrock -> E -> B
¯_(ツ)_/¯
but you can look at it abstractly via the musical isomorphism and the hodge star like I did above
once again, this should be in ISM (i don't think it's spelled out but if you read the section on orientations and on riemannian manifolds this will make sense)
actually i should probably check
what's the point of pulling back by the inclusion map? isn't that basically the identity
have you seen the equivalence between an orientation and a nonvanishing top degree form?
yeah
okay cool
it's just because we want a form on M'
but what we have is a section of the restricted bundle $(\Lambda^{n-1} T^* M)|_{M'}$
Shamrock -> E -> B
this is not the same as $\Lambda^{n-1}T^* M'$
Shamrock -> E -> B
oh ic
i feel like you always ask simple questions and then I give super overcomplicated answers lol
idk if hodge star is in ISM but it's definitely in the exercises of sec 2 of IRM
np at all, this is rly helpful!
oh wait it's definitely in ISM
he talks about like classical stokes/greens/divergence
for surfaces in 3-manifolds
I always try and link stuff I see in hubbard to smooth manifold language in lee or whatever because hubbard uses nonstandard terminology so frequently lol
page 438!
lol
i wish i had a copy of ism 
same
but yeah @shut moat your intution that we were relying on 3-1=2 is right
in general you want a hypersurface
and a normal vector
or a frame
Kobayashi and Nomizu?
vaguely related but Milnor's topology from the differentiable viewpoint is apparently insanely good
you can read the entire thing in a day
but i think the 2 examples you pointed out (curves vs surfaces in R^3) are distinct, one is about parallelizability (having a global frame) and the other is about this duality between normal vectors and top degree forms
get working buddy
Milnor's morse theory book is really good
im not your buddy pal
oh yeah ~S^1 just to be super clear, the top degree form you end up defining is $\omega(E_1,\ldots,E_n) = g(N, E_1,\ldots,E_n)$
you might as well get used to it
wait this is wrong
a lot of books used that font
wtf am I sayin
mood
I think it's like, a determinant with entries the inner products
or smth
i revoke everything I have ever said
back to bundles
when is a torus not a torus
morse theory, characteristic classes, infinite loop spaces, curves on an algebraic surface, ...
all the old orange books
I think wiki defined it as like $\eta \wedge \star \zeta = g(\eta, \zeta)\omega$ where $\omega$ is volume form
~S^1
this is true
but i didn't want to go into it
because I would need to explain the volume form and the inner product on Lambda^k T^* M
g(eta, zeta) doesn't exactly make sense
if you think of g as an inner product on TM
but there is a way to extend the inner product to the tensor/form bundles
makes sense
I noticed something was weird about that because I see ppl talking about GR writing $\det(g)dx_1 \wedge \text{whatever}$ for volumes
~S^1
but then when I got to volumes on manifolds it was sqrt(det(D\gamma T D\gamma))
so I'm guessing this is somehow how you generalize the inner product if you treat D\gamma as a bunch of tensored 1-forms or something
hmm
topology question
if I have two bases for a space, say U_i and V_j are both bases for X
and U_i is countable
can I find a countable basis V_{j_1}, V_{j_2}, ... of X?
should be true
I believe so
yeah
wait no
Makes sense to me
do they have to generate the same topology ?
oh yeah you need to cover them
So here's my thinking
Argue that if you have such a U then any countable cover of an open has a finite subcover
inceresting
Oh wait no this doesn't do what I want sorry
is that true?
but it is true
wait doesn't that work then?
bc then you can cover each U by finitely many Vs
ok thanks for the lemma :P
I constantly do this
Where I prove it in my head
Then forget my proof
And confuse myself
the context was like
hm
,iamnot studying
Removed the studying! role from you.
You already have the selfroles studying!, do you want to remove them? (y(es)/n(o))
(Tip: use ,iamnot to remove roles without this prompt.)
I know the collection of all coordinate balls of a space form a basis and I want to use second-countability to yeet it to a countable basis of coordinate balls
and I didn't want to do that with a bunch of mess
:P
is it true that every space with a basis of cardinality k is k-compact for k sufficiently large? is it just true for countable?
Session timed out waiting for user response.
well actually we're using something stronger than countably compact here right?
👍 I'll prove the second countable -> that property about covers of opens and see what happens
i dont think so
I don't think so nah
how so?
lol sorry im watching a civ stream
Np lol
We want that every open subset is countably compact
but i dont think its a priori obvious
R with the usual topology has a countable basis but it is not true that every open is compact
unless I am misunderstanding something
hmm
I don't understand the relevance
compact isn't equivalent to k compact for any cardinal k
is every open countably compact?
and also we're not talking about being compact, we're talking about countably compact
Yes Faye, by second countability
Argue that if you have such a U then any countable cover of an open has a finite subcover
so you want countable instead of finite there ?
Oh I think maybe we've been misusing the term countably compact
I read this and assumed max meant "any cover has a subcover of cardinality k"
Due to context
this is what i meant yeah
How do you check tterra?
the fields institute sent me an email
just now
"we have recieved a reference letter from prof (...)"
email them right now, shamrock.
Wikipedia disagrees lol https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Countably_compact_space
In mathematics a topological space is called countably compact if every countable open cover has a finite subcover.
oh weird
Wait what?
"every countable open has a finite subcover" versus "every cover has a countably subcover"
Not the same
There are countable open covers of R with no finite subcover
But R is second countable and so lindelof
ah okay gotcha
I want to use a pigeonhole argument but don't know how to phrase it formally
@gritty widget wait so fields emailed you?
which is an L
Wtfff
yeah, i can show you what the email looks like
if you want
One of my letter writers told me they submitted
yeah me too
dming you
AHHHHHH
if you didn't get one of these i would email the fields and ask
like
right now lol
Doing it
@obtuse meteor
I got one from one prof
not the other one
waiting a bit longer
bc the prof I haven't gotten it from said she knew about it and is working on it / will get it done
so we should be good
just gonna keep an eye on my inbox
gl 

I literally would have no way of knowing this if I didn't shitpost on discord

Jack emailed me and confirmed he submitted my letter to the fields institute
like
I have it in writing
ref from lee
chad
lol
Assuming it exists???
It's actually a little awkward to have my letters be from Lee and Beardsley
I'm working on my u mich app
And I'm saying I want to work with these like, algebraic geometers and algebraic topologists
but Lee is like the opposite side of math
diff geo pde chad
this is absolute chad energy


oh my
now that i am done worrying about my letter i will check my algebra homework, due at midnight
Time to refresh my email for the next 8.5 hours
idk wtf you ppl are talking about but gl
sham, cohomo, and i are all applying to reus
Summer undergrad research program at u toronto
The actual Jack Lee? damn
Yes lol
ah
I'm taking my 5th class with him this quarter
And he seems to like me
Although we think about math very differently
I asked a question on Wednesday
And he was lkke
"this sounds right but I usually try to understand math by making it into geometry and you try to understand it by making it into algebra so I don't understand the point of the question"
Or something like that
lmao
I wanted to know if a certain construction with bundles could be thought of as like a tensor product on G-sets
gay sets
gay sets
gay sets!
I'm not enjoying them
When is a torus not a torus still haunts my brain

god i can't wait to learn lie theory, it looks so interesting
With structure group {-1,1}
It's so incredibly based circle
I think lie groups are the most interesting thing I've learned
In diff top/geo
lie group actions 
lie groups are incredibly nice
apparently my symplectic geometry course is going to focus a lot on lie group actions 
does your symplectic geometry class talk much about the classical mechanics connections
so far, not really
hnng I should be able to glue
lecture outline
- definition of symplectic form, darboux's theorem about all symplectic 2n-manifolds being locally symplectomorphic
- proving some lemmas behind aforementioned theorem
- reviewing lie groups, introduction to symplectic and hamiltonian v fields
- idk i missed this one, still waiting for the recording lol
lol
symplectomorphic
it would be genuinely impossible for me to tell whether this is an actual term
what even is life
mniip flexes it a lot in the physics server 
so who wants to play with differential forms
uhhhhh think i'll pass
still better than index juggling at least 

Ahhh I think I might understand
I remember the [physicist] derivation of the geodesic equation wasn't very pretty
oh it goes through multiple pages
this is what i think of when i think "geodesic equation"
didn't want to screenshot all of em
In this video, I show you how to derive the Geodesic equation via the action approach.
Superfluid Helium Resonance Experiment:
https://youtu.be/unUNQNmuvUQ
Quantum Field Theory Lecture Series:
https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLSpklniGdSfSsk7BSZjONcfhRGKNa2uou
this is your brain on physics
my algebra homework is going to take like 20 minutes max to check over and i STILL don't want to do it 😡
My idea didn't pan out and it's tterra's fault

curse you
off topic but hamilton slaps so much
Can someone help me understand what the stalk of the sheaf of regular fuctions is
Germs
So we have a variety X and its sheaf of regular functions O_X
yeah okay abstractly its the germs
but lets say explicitly
what is is it for X=A^1
For the affine line the sheaf of regular functions is just k[x]
And <U,f> = <V,g> if f and g agree on some open W < U\cap V
yeah
All of these sets nbds of the point
but I'd like to actually callculate this for some examples
Lol gl
so it should be a local ring
Idk maybe it’s obvious I’d have to think of schemes
But in general for schemes at least they just look like a localization at a prime ideal
A localization of the affine coordinate ring?
Take an affine open around your point, take the coordinate ring, localize at the corresponding prime
That's what it is to my memory
You can see this by thinking of it as a colimit
Take the cofinal system of distinguished opens in that affine
regular functions on a distinguished open are elements of the localization, right ?
ah yes
It's the same as for schemes
its just the localisation at the ideal coresponding to your point
I'm still not working with schemes yet
Ah sorry that was for chmonkey's benefit
He doesn't understand anything about varieties
I’m a chimp I go
Scheme cool ooo ooo aaa aaa
And then I get pwned when someone asks about A^1
🥴
So in this case then, the maximal ideal at a point p is (x-p)
so then O_x,p is the localisation of k[x] at (x-p)
I always get mixed up with localisations
Yup
when we say a localisation at (x-a)
you really mean taking the locaisation with S={stuff that is not in (x-a)}
Localize wrt the complement
Yeah, it's confusing notation
It’s just the most useful localization IMO
And it’s useful to be able to say “if a statement holds at all localizations at primes...”
so then k[x] localised at (x-a) consists of f/g where
g isn’t divided by x - a
f can be anything
Aka g(a)≠0
ah yes okay
g isn't divided by x-a when f and g are coprime
we can write and f and g in a stupid way so that x-a does divide g
x-a isn’t in the complement
So a factor of x-a shouldn’t exist in the bottom
Like... symbolically SURE
I guess
oh so if you are being really formal and thinking of f/g as (f,g)
perfect that makes sense
is there a good way to keep localisations straight in your head
i have zero geometric intuition for this
Oh
Practice
L o l
You just get a feel for it
IMO
But I’m also algebrain and geometry is non existent
So it took me a while maybe some ppl find descriptions of what’s going on motivating but not for me
and the other thing
if we have a ring R, and localise at p
everything not in p becomes a unit
Yup
So frankly
I don’t know the varieties side of this
Lmao
But for schemes if you look at what happens on Spec
It makes some sense I think
You could try to think about how Spec A and Spec A_p interact
I am a simple man
And then just tell yourself
i see schemes
“Spec is a space”
i smile and nod
I still don't even have geometric intuition for the spectrum of a ring
Welcome to the club
im just like
why the fuck is an ideal a squigly dot
but some other ideal is this curve running through stuff
Oh lol
how does this help you think about your ring
That’s describing what the closure of that ideal gets
It’s just encoding the idea that a non-maximal ideal
Has ideals above it
can i just double check one more think about localisations and units
we just need that (u/v) is a unit in k[x] localised at x-a
Yup
since u and v are both non zero at a, they are units in the localisation
Yup
or even just the inverse of u/v is v/u is in the localisation
Right but you’d need to know that v/u exists or u/v really, even
But that’s coming from non-zero at a
Aka both are units
yeah thats g
ty king
do you have any idea for this?
I thought the whole point of affine space was that you were free to do translations?
Uhhh I dunno I guess you have to show that the problem is invariant under translation
Here’s a stupid as fuck statement which wouldn’t be
The line x = 3 (in A^2) contains P
Okay WLOG by translation P = (0,0)
It’s false
so we just need to see that the translation does affect the derivative
or
doesn't make a non zero derivative zero
Right
But you’d also need to know that the conclusion is invariant under translation
Since even if you can show that you maintain the hypotheses
If you can’t go back and show the conclusion of the non-translated problem it’s pointless
So basically if P is (a,b), I have the translation phi(x,y)=(x-a,y-b). Then I show that if y-y(P) is uniformizer
Let U be S^1 minus a point
And V the same but for a different point
We have fiber bundles U × S^1, V × S^1
Glue them along the iso τ : (U cap V) × S^1 -> (U cap V) × S^1 which is τ(x, z) = (x, z) for x in the first component of the intersection and τ(x, z) = (x, - z) for x in the second component
This gives us some fiber bundle E -> S^1 with model fiber S^1 and structure group {1,-1}
what does E look like?
probably klein bottle
Oh lol that would make sense
If I pull it back along the squaring map S^1 -> S^1 I bet I get the torus
so yes, seems plausible
yeah it's the klein bottle, if you disconnect the circle you have a tube, and you're identifying one end of the tube to the other end 'from behind'
well that's annoying
from behind 
oh my
my next problem is to exhibit the klein bottle as a fiber bundle over S^1 with structure group {-1,1} and fiber S^1
but I am still stuck on this problem
🙃
Also ttrwea they haven't emailed me back
The fields people
what is the problem?
just fucking PRAY your letters got in
Yeah, me too :/
it's a little hard to state because I think Lee has a different definition of fiber bundle than usual
it's not just "locally homeomorphic over the base to a product space"
The structure group is packaged into the definition
And so the problem is to show S^1 × S^1 -> S^1 can be given a nontrivial fiber bundle structure
With structure group {1,-1}
There arent too many options
Yeah
the notation is a bit confusing tho
what do you mean by S1 X S1
just as a set?
or are you saying that the torus is somehow a nontrivial S1 bundle over S1
it is somehow a nontrivial S^1 bundle over S^1
the question is "what does fiber bundle mean"
basically like, define a locally trivial bundle over $B$ with fiber bundle $F$ to mean a space $E$ with a continuous $\pi : E \to B$ such that there's a cover of $B$ by sets $U$ on which the spaces $\pi^{-1}(U)$ and $U \times F$ are homeomorphic over $U$
Shamrock -> E -> B
so this is what people usually mean by fiber bundle
now say you have some topological group $G$, called the structure group, which acts faithfully and continuous on $F$
Shamrock -> E -> B
if you have two local trivializations $\varphi : \pi^{-1}(U) \to U \times F$ and $\psi : \pi^{-1}(V) \to V \times F$, we say they're $G$-compatible if there's a continuous function $\tau : U \cap V \to G$ such that $(\psi\circ \varphi^{-1})(x, f) = (x, \tau(x) f)$
Shamrock -> E -> B
an atlas for $E$ is a covering by $G$-compatible local trivializations
Shamrock -> E -> B
then a "fiber bundle with structure group $G$ and model fiber $F$ over $B$" is a locally trivial bundle $\pi : E \to F$ equipped with a maximal $G$-compatible atlas
Shamrock -> E -> B
a morphism $E \to E'$ is what you'd expect, i.e. it's a continuous map over $M$ such that the local representation with respect to trivializations in the atlases for $E$ and $E'$ is like acting by some continuous function $U \to G$
Shamrock -> E -> B
and a trivial bundle is one which has a global trivialization (in its atlas), or equivalently one which is isomorphic to a trivial bundle
okay, say we have a morphism $f: S^0 \rightarrow G$. Then you get an S1 bundle over S1 by taking the pushout of $i_1: S^0 \times S^1 \rightarrow I_1$ given by $(x,v) \mapsto (x,v)$ and $i_2: S^0 \times S^1 \rightarrow I_1$ given by $(x,v) \mapsto (x, f(x)v)$.
Brofibration
let $S^0 = {p_1, p_2}$
Brofibration
what is I_1?
I've viewing S^0 as the boundary of both of those intervals
bdrt? boundary?
I still don't understand the definition i1(x, v) = (x, v)
like, right hand side isn't in I1?
oh
oh I1 \times S^1
it should be I_1 X S1
okay you're just gluing two trivial bundles yeah
yes
this is what I was trying to do above
yes
with f sending one point to 1 and the other to -1
so your options are all the maps p_0, p_1 to +1, -1
yeah both to -1 might be the torus
yeah both to -1 might be the torus
right exactly
and the other is the klein bottle
so...?
both to -1 is compatible with the global trivialization of the torus
since it's locally given by multiplication by -1
if you take U to be S^1 minus a point and V to be S^1 minus another point, and define trivializations of S^1 x S^1 on U, V by phi(x, v) = (x, v) and psi(x, v) = (x,-v), the transition function will be the one you're talking about
and these trivializations are compatible with the global trivialization of the torus
ig the confusing bit is when you're working with based stuff, two of those maps dont turn up
so the trivial one is the torus
I'm not sure what you mean by based stuff
i got that part lol
are you talking about based maps U cap V -> {-1,1}?
with a basepoint in like U?
based maps S^0 to structure group
sure
the reason for this is people often interpret sphere bundles over other spheres are elements of homotopy groups of the structure group
and homotopy groups of the structure group are homotopy classes of based maps from some sphere to the structure group
so there should only be "2" S1 bundles over S1 with that structure group
as it's 0th homotopy group has order 2
in general bundles with structure group G over S_n correspond to elements of pi_n-1(G)
I'm gonna think about that other bundle
the one corresponding to a nonconstant map S^0 -> G
no longer convinced it's the klein bottle
I should be able to compute the fundamental group
actually homology is probably easier because the intersection is disconnected, it'll distinguish them either way
one way to study the total space is open up all the fibers into intervals
and the base S1 into an interval
you get a rectangle
and you can see how the sides are being identified
and you know which identifications give you a torus, a klein bottle, projective plane etc.
and using this you can also immediately see that the projective plane is not an S1 bundle over S1
using the fibration long exact sequence for homotopy groups is another way, but you will have to show that one of the extensions is nontrivial 
im not sure i understand this proof exactly
specifically the part about why h_0 and h_1 being functors means that changing the decomposition of the interval doesnt do anything
i mean that makes intuitive sense to me because you can combine the h_0 bits and combine the h_1 bits since theyrefunctors
but im not sure how youd prove it formally
groupoids 
Moth, I think that's all it's saying
like
Say you refine the partition
Then you'll split up the wi as compositions
All happening within one block of the partition
So on that wi you'll either get h0 or h1
And you can apply functorality to split up on the wi and get a new composition
also this is the proof of van kampen in my head, it's the first one I saw 
For affine space, we have that the open sets D(f) form a basis. I'd like to show that on projective space D(f) where f is homogenous form a basis
I'm struggling a little bit because the topology on P^n is defined in terms of closed sets
you should be able to reduce to the affine case, I think
well okay this is overcomplicating things sorry
so we give P^n the quoitent topology from A^n
oh yes
thats the important part that i think im getting tripped up on
so Y is closed in P^n if the inverse image of Y is closed in A^(n+1){0} if the inverse image of Y union {0} is closed in A^{n+1}{0}
they are the closed sets of A^{n+1} intersected with A^{n+1}{0}
so any closed set that does not contain 0, and any closed set containing zero we can remove 0
but a closed set in A^{n+1) is Z(f)
hmm
maybe it is true in general that if B is basis for X, and q:X to X/~ is a quoitent map then q(B) is a basis
okay this didn't work out
So now I am trying to to show directly that D(f) is a basis.
We have the intersection propert since D(f) intersect D(g) is D(fg) but its not clear to me that the D(f)'s cover projective space
well they do but I can't see why
Sorry for the inconvenience. I want to start learning about higher dimensional shapes. I know high school geometry, Calculus till calculus III, linear algebra, very basic topology.. Can anyone recommend some books I can read?
this is true whenever the quotient map is open
and the quotient map is open in this case
Ok. Does it talk about polytopes?
I'm not sure. I don't know anything about polytopes. But you should learn more about point set topology
I see. Alright.
Are you still in high school?
Are you interested in learning about high school circle theorems but for a 4 dimensional circle kind of thing?
if anyone remembers the problem I was stuck on last week about the tautological line bundle vs tangent bundle
It turns out the problem was false as stated
the diffeomorphism given in the statement is orientation reversing
🙃
yeah I was offering "bad" examples of stuff
Through the double cover $\operatorname{SU}(2)\to\operatorname{SO}(3)$, the round metric on $\operatorname{SU}(2)\cong S^3$ induces a Riemannian metric on $\operatorname{SO}(3)$. Is this the only "natural" metric to give to $\operatorname{SO}(3)$? Does it arise in a more direct way, without reference to $\operatorname{SU}(2)$?
i assume the person is a high school student who just wants to see some "sexy" maths
gustavn64
iirc the metric on SU(2) is also called the berger metric (it comes with a parameter but we're setting that to 1) and is bi invariant. So the descended metric on SO(3) should also be bi invariant
This doesn't uniquely specify it but it makes it seem a little more intrinsic
lol burger metric
Eg the geodesics at the identity are the one parameter subgroups
lol burger metric
lol burger metric
Exercise 3.10 in introduction to riemannian manifolds by Lee
🍔
so I guess maybe the moral of my answer is that the connection coming from this metric is determined by the lie group structure
borgar
why do you need connectedness here?
oh I didn't know the correct definition of simple lie group, my bad
Lorentz is not connected
I thought it was just "no nontrivial normal closed subgroups"
But somewhy phys books and wiki states this
so the image of such a representation is going to be precompact, since U(n) is compact
Maybe i didnt mention but i want to represent it on hilbert spaces
So unitary reps of lorentz on hilbert spaces
Idk if this helps/makes things more difficult
Hey guys, I have a question about the definition of tensor fields. I was told the usual definition that states a tensor field (r,s) is a multilinear map over smooth functions that eats r covector fields and s vector fields to give a smooth function. But then I was told that the torsion tensor is a (1,2) tensor because it eats 2 vectors and gives out a vector. I'm struggling to see why the two definition are equal.
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
there is a proposition in lee that touches on this, let me post it
this is stated fiberwise, but i'm sure you can find the analogous result for tensor fields
so the torsion isn't really a tensor field, but it's convenient to use this identification and say it is
(unless you want to start talking about shit like vector-valued forms)
@gritty widget I see. So essentially there is an associated map that is a tensor field?
Also is your $w$ an arbitrary convector field?
to make it even more precise
given the torsion "tensor" $\tau \colon \mathfrak{X}(M)^2\to\mathfrak{X}(M)$, define a $(1,2)$-tensor field $\tilde{\tau}$ by $$\tilde{\tau}(\omega,X,Y) = \omega(\tau(X, Y)),$$ where $\omega$ is an arbitrary covector field and $X,Y$ are arbitrary vector fields
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
and yeah
this "tau tilde" as i've written it is basically the same thing as tau
you should do the linear-algebraic exercise in the image i posted
it's pretty straightforward
agreed
yet both can be yucky sometimes
pin this
with this

That article was amazing
Did you see the original article?
I'm searching
Iirc it was posted to r/badmathematics
This channel will never reach the level of meme pins of #category-theory
:)) you guys either need to read the full question - or you guys need to expand your notion of what mathematics is. Or both :)) Mathematics among other things is the study of pure structure. All this human activities, our institutions, everything - is structured - our mind is structure, our understanding, is the way it is because it optimizes something. Any life form is a solution to such a mathematical setup expressed as our environment. Nothing is random. A tree is not random shape. It's a solution to an optimization problem. In the tree example, it optimizes the amount of energy it captures minimizing the amount of energy / matter it uses, since if it does that well enough it can grow even bigger. And once a balance is reached then that's a tree capped and we call that a tree species. Is very hard to beat it even if you simulate it, you basically end'up with the exact same structure as nature. Now if that analogy holds - then our institutions and such - are a mathematical structure which work under the same rules.
When it comes to organizing civilization - which is basically what my question is about - then we need to find the principles underneath it all. Trouble is im not smart enough to figure this one out by myself, and also we dont have time, and i also can't find a discord channel dedicated to software architecture. Because that's also very close to such an endeavor. I don't think im in the wrong place. You guys need to flip your frame and see things from this other angle. This is why im talking about having a principled design here. If i just go and make some random setup, and later things need to be changed - which most likely will - then what? Is gonna be a complete mess. Lots of people very angry. Reorganizing everything while thousands of people are already using it. So is one of this - get it wright or get it pretty right form the beginning types of problems or you are screwed. I rely need to not make the situation even crappier then it is.
pin it
reminder that it defined a categorical quiver as, paraphrasing, a "bunch of arrows in a graph that converge to something useful"
they heard the word "quiver" and know "arrows" are a thing in category thery
voila
Omegalul
ummm is that necessarily true though
since the w_i in our first partition could be totally different from our w_j in the second
though i guess since you can combine the w_j and divide to get the w_i it doesnt really matter
thats probably it
but then u get problems cuz its not like u can just combine everything since you have two functors h_0 and h_1 rather than just one
Aren't we refining a decomposition?
So we'll split up one of the intervals in the domain of the definition of the wi
In my brain we show that you can define this thing on some partition and then that it's invariant under refinement, and since any two partitions have a common refinement that's enough
I thought this was a joke but then I went back and found the original post oh my god lmao
oh my he had a discord server too
the original thing was posted on april 1st so there was still some doubt but that post was completely sincere
hmm
I think I'm realizing what's like
frustrating about cw complexes
there's these methods of induction that are difficult to phrase as a lemma or theorem
the one coming to mind to me is like
to show a set S is closed in a CW complex X you can pull things back to characteristic maps for X^n and show it's closed, and it's fine to assume that S is closed in X^(n - 1) when you do that checking.
And this is valid bc if you have both of the above properties S is closed in X^n
but I don't want to state that as a lemma bc there's also a lemma that if you're closed under pull back for all characterstic maps then you're closed in X
and these are essentially the same to show / prove
maybe should exploit X^n is a CW complex
I am being annoyed at this bc it is hard but grrr
I don't get what's wrong, to show S is closed you'll have to prove that S cap Xn is closed in every Xn, to do that you can use induction
what's wrong is that I want to use that at each stage it's enough to show pull backs under characteristic maps are closed
this is mostly annoying because there's a lot of data
how to prove the poincare group is not simply connected?
i keep vanishing cuz im falling asleep lol sorry
but i dont think its necessarily refining
i think it could just be any other partition of the interval such that w([t_i, t_i+1]) is in X_0 or X_1
or rather their interiors
any two intervals having a common refinement would work but i think thats somewhat harder to prove because the refinement also needs to have a gamma: {0, ..., m+1} -> {0, 1} and showing that any two intervals have a refinement with this property seems kinda hard
oh wait lmao yea
Yeah
nvm im dumb
ok cool that makes sense
also this is a way more intuitive way to think about van kampen then the normal one
just saying groupoid preserves pushouts
I love it!
Well not all pushouts
I don't think that's true
Brown's book talks about this
What kinds of pushouts it preserves later on
neat
er
i wonder if theres a specific name for this kind of thing 🤔 i guess you can just say it sends the coproduct to the coproduct
or its compatible with coproducts
Wym?
uh like
idk if theres a more formal notion of this but when we take the pushout of X_0, X_1, and X_01 we get X, which is basically the coproduct of X_0 and X_1 with X_01 in each identified
Yeah so there's two ways to interpret this
omg fuck
If yr category is cocomplete then pushouts are coequalizer of coproducts
Moth | not male
Coequalizers can be thought of as quotienting/collapsing
It sounds like you just want to say it preserves pushouts
because that's what both of these are
but u said it doesnt always right?
Pushouts are coproducts with stuff identified
Right, we need to have two open subsets and pushout along their intersection
Okay sure the thing in your book is a little more general sorry
But interiors covering is just like
Replace by interior lol
yea
I guess it's a little more general
hahahahaha
literally orwells nightmare
It's still very specific
Everything is coming from a big space
Like the maps in the top left of the pushout are injective, for one
mhm
In fact the square is both a pushout and a pullback
The point being it's not true that Π1 preserves all pushouts
I'm trying to remember/find an example
even so to me it for sure makes it more intuitive to think of this as like the coproduct (coequalized?) of spaces fulfilling the assumptions in Top becomes the coproduct in Grp
vs the normal proof which is kinda just like
"lets show that directly"
Yeah, I agree!
This is how I like to think of it too
Well in Grpd and not grp for me
mhm
I'm just pointing out that this is a little too strong
For the statement of svkt
Also "coequalized coproduct" means "pushout"
he literally says "thus (2.6.1) says that Grpd preserves pushouts"
If you have a cover of the space by path-connected open sets, closed under finite intersections, then consider them as a category
where morphisms are inclusions
You have a functor from the category
by sending each open set to the fundamental groupoid
that checks out i think
and van kampen says the fundamental groupoid of the space is the colimit of the diagram
but still i think its a bit sloppy to just say that \prod preserves pushouts in general lol
its not that big a deal tho
are there operations on real/complex k-theory that are not generated by the adams operations?
nvm

hi im struggling to understand the argument here
He's saying , since B is a basis for T', a set U in T' is a union of sets in B, ok i get this
then he says; this implies U is in T
is it true that if B is a basis for T, then any union of sets in B is in B
like what if T = {(0, 1), (2, 3), (4, 5), (0, 1)U(4, 5)}, then B = {(0, 1), (2, 3), (4, 5)} is a valid basis. But (0, 1)U(2, 3) is not in T
that's not a topology?
topologies are closed under like intersection and finite union, or finite intersection and union, i forget which
i see, i forgot this crucial point, thanks
but it's that if (0, 1)U(2, 3) is not in T, T isn't a topology, right?
am i being a fool?
oh right you were replying to them
i'm blind
Hi guys, can someone help me understand the steps for getting the surface area of one face of a Reuleaux tetrahedron (spherical tetrahedron)?
To be specific I am talking about the steps used in this article:
http://www.math.unl.edu/~bharbourne1/ST/sphericaltetrahedron.html
Many people don't know what a Reuleaux tetrahedron is, so here's a brief definition of the shape: the intersection of four balls of radius s centered at the vertices of a regular tetrahedron with side length s. The spherical surface of the ball centered on each vertex passes through the other three vertices, which also form vertices of the Reuleaux tetrahedron. Thus the center of each ball is on the surfaces of the other three balls.
I understand, so far, that the entire spherical cap which one face of the spherical tetrahedron rests on, can be calculated using 2*pi*(r^2)*(1-costheta), and theta equals 60 degrees so the area of the spherical cap is pi*r^2. Then it goes on to calculate what fraction of that area contains the face, which is the dihedral angle of a tetrahedron divided by 2pi multiplied by the total spherical cap area to get a fractional area. After this, I get kinda lost. The article says it uses the spherical excess formula which is saying that a curved triangle constructed from three points of a sphere has a surface area equal to the sum of its interior angles subtracted by pi. However, the article not only sums the interior angles and subtract pi from it, but it also multiplies it by r^2. Why does he do that?
Also I completely don't understand this step "so we get ((arccos(1/3)/2)-(3arccos(1/3)-π ))r^2 for the area of one wedge and hence 3 times that plus the area of T for the area of T', which again gives r^2(2π - (9/2)arccos(1/3)) for the area of T', which is just one of the four faces of the spherical tetrahedron." Why does he subtract the surface area that he got from the spherical excess formula from the fractional spherical cap area? And this makes me even more confused because what area was the spherical excess formula used for calculating then? Sorry for this lengthy question, but I would appreciate any help via pings!
Sorry again scrap that entire last comment, I understand why he subtracted the surface area from the se formula from the fractional sc area now, and so I also know what he used the se formula for now too. So I only have one question really, why does he multiply the sum of the interior angles - pi by r^2 to find the surface area of T (labelled in the diagram below)? (please read everything above first!)
Yeah your basis set basically generates the topology by taking all the unions
Hello I have a question, is there topological property (or metric space property) which imply you can exhaustively "search" so that you could find actual witness for any predicate, given that you could find out if any given element satisfy the predicate or not?
i think you would also need to place restrictions on the predicate
for this to be possible
Well, there are questions you can ask that take place in very nice topological spaces
that probably wouldn't be searchable
in any topological sense
Hmm I see, I mean do you know what kind of restriction I should put to the predicate?
this isn't something I've thought about before
@dim meadow is there some kind of computability answer that comes to mind
Yeah this sort of thing is considered I think
But you wouldn't be able to do any predicate, just the sigma_1 ones
There are notions of computability for metric spaces that work well. You essentially need a dense set which you can list out
Sigma_1 formulas have only one existential quantifier
Oh, I see. Peculiar one I guess
They are of the form \exists x \psi(x) where \psi(x) is computable
it ends up being a very natural classification
for a lot of reasons
I actually don't know too much about this, I know one of the people I am in contact with (Johanna Franklin) did work on computable metric spaces at one point
psi(x) computable? So like, it is decidable proposition?
I can look at her publications and probably find a nice definition for what a computable metric space should be






