#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 198 of 1
Yeah
So for every y ≠ x, there is a connected subspace K_xy. Their intersection is not empty since they contain x, and their union is X since x is in it, and for every y ≠x there is a K_xy in the union which contains it
That's it
yea yea got it
tysm
so
any hint for number 3?
i always struggle with showing like
specific shit like thjis
like showing somerthing is disjoint of something etc
any hints?
Sorry, writing a test soon
I wanna prove that any two intervals (a,b) and (c,d) are homeomorphic over the rationals
I think you can construct it by writing the equation of a line
really?
f(x) = c+(b-a)(x-a)/(d-c) will work?
I feel like it won't map rationals to rationals
i dont think this should work
why wouldn't it map a rational to a rational?
well...provided that a, b, c, d are rationals, then that big quotient sum soup will compute to a rational
yup
a=0, b=1, c = sqrt(2), d = sqrt(2) + 1. x = 1/2
hm...
there's no requirement the intervals have rational endpoints
that's why this is tricky
for my purposes, this isn't going to work
since I want $a, b, c, d$ to be reals, not rationals
Corgwn
so that I can chop up the interval $(0,1)$ into a bunch of intervals bounded by irrationals
Corgwn
i like this, that should work
ooooo I've got it
we can do it pretty simply without showing it's homeo to Q
what if I show that for any (a,b), there's a least rational and a greatest rational
fucc
right...
actually i think, we just want to show any rational interval is homeo to Q
i kinda think this is going to be something weird using choice
it has positive image
it's not injective, but it's getting there
i think
oh
nevermind
ok, i that works for (-1,1)
trying to get that to work for non-rational endpoints is more annoying
so i decided that's harder than it looks
works when you translate or scale by rationals
I kind of like your function, i just wanna see if there's a way to force it to take rationals to rationals on arbitrary endpoints
you see i knew it would be something insane
could I just use the fact that (a,b) \cap Q is gonna have a continuous bijection with Q?
ok now prove that
well I dunno how to attack that
lol
it feels true
yeah same
i want to do something weird with choice or zorn's lemma to prove such a thing exists
but i haven't worked out how that would go yet
i figured
yeah i was just thinking this actually
you enumerate Q
send the first point to something random in the interval
then define the next point in the way respecting the order of the previous points
you need a bit more
to make it dense
like put it half way between the points from before
that should be fine
ooooo yeah
god i think i did this at some point in my life
lol
if you back in forth in a way that respects order, you're guaranteed a bijection. this + monotonic means it's a homeo 🙂
i think either way back and forth is easier
i don't think a cantor set is possible, but i think the image might be dense without being onto
true
so in my initial approach, I went Q -> (a,b) cap Q
if I take something to x, something else to y
I'm forced to get a dense subset of (x,y)
because eventually i get the exact midpoint of that interval
and this applies to every interval
in my construction
but it's definitely not guaranteed to be onto
in fact it's definitely not since i'm basically just doing midpoints after i choose some initial points
yikes this got scary
hey does anyone want to help me find the sign error in 4 pages of computations in stereographic coordinates?
would really appreciate it thx
the analysis TA would write an equally long, condescending essay about how you don't know how to compute
sniped

60/40 on Lee fucking this up
I think the map he gives is orientation reversing
Which is sus
lmfaooo
I still haven't sent that regrade request
Didn't want to edit it down from RageMode
Maybe because I'm too tired but I don't see this
The definition I was give was this
I can see that the second term vanishes obviously but how do the other two vanish?
it says \nabla_X Z = 0 for all X
(T*(Terra), -dτ)
@summer jolt
Lol, I should go to sleep

I've been having a bit of trouple proving that the wedge product is associative. Here's what I tried:
Let $\varphi_1 \in A^{k}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $\varphi_2 \in A^{\ell}(\mathbb{R}^n)$, $\varphi_3\in A^{m}(\mathbb{R}^n)$
~S^1
$(\varphi_1 \wedge \varphi_2)(\mathbf{v}1, ..., \mathbf{v}{k + \ell}) = \sum_{\text{\shuffles}\ \sigma \in \text{Perm}(k, \ell)}\text{sgn}(\sigma)\varphi_1(\mathbf{v}{\sigma(1)}, ..., \mathbf{v}{\sigma(k)})\varphi_2(\mathbf{v}{\sigma(k+1)}, ... \mathbf{v}{\sigma(k+\ell)})$
~S^1
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
it's this book's notation for the vector space of k-forms on R^n
Huh
sry
Never seen that before
apparently it's A for alternating multilinear map? idk
Oh that makes sense
Anyways, sorry for interrupting
Definition of wedge looks good
so then throwing in the second wedge:
Err what's Perm(k, l)? I would expect Perm(k+l)
But I might be misremembering how the wedge is defined
oh sorry I fucked up the latex, it's supposed to be shuffles \sigma in Perm...
so the set of permutations where sigma(1) < .... < sigma(k) and sigma(k+1) <... < sigma(k+l) independently
Gotcha
Is it always true that for a general topological space X, a point x is a limit of point of a certain subset S of X iff there exists a sequence of points in S such that the limit of that sequence is x?
I always liked this characterization the most
Hm sorry
$$\text{sgn}(\sigma)\text{sgn}(\alpha)\varphi_1(\mathbf{v}{(\sigma \circ \alpha)(1)}, ...\mathbf{v}{(\sigma \circ \alpha)(k)})\varphi_2(\mathbf{v}{(\sigma \circ \alpha)(k+1)}, ..., \mathbf{v}{(\sigma \circ \alpha)(k + \ell )})\varphi_3(\mathbf{v}{\alpha(k+\ell + 1)}, ... \mathbf{v}{\alpha(k + \ell + m)})$$
wth
ok I'll just leave the sums implicit lol
~S^1
gdi
hopefully you get the gist of it
so at this point, I have on the LHS a sum over shuffles alpha in Perm(k+l, m) and a sum over shuffles sigma in Perm(k, l)
ill be real with you
I would not do this
Both sides should be multilinear
In v, w, u or whatever
So you should be able to check on a basis
Which should be easier
This just seems inanely irritating
oo expanding in a basis sounds nicer yea
i just thought I'd end up wrestling with permutation shit anyway
for $\omega\in\Omega^n(M)$ and $\sigma\in\Omega^m(M)$, $$(\omega\wedge\sigma)(X_1,\hdots, X_{n+m}) =\frac{1}{m!n!}\sum_{\pi\in S_{n+m}} (\omega\otimes\sigma)(X_{\pi(1)},\hdots, X_{\pi(n)})$$
spinsicle
if you want to go that way
I'm saying a basis for the dual space
because you expand each form in terms of the elementary forms, which requires a sum over increasing indices
sorry i'm missing a factor of sgn(\pi) in that
Is this right? I think they don't have that normalization out front
You can see their definition up above
Dividing by 1/(m!n!) is a matter of convention
ya
or you could do the alternating map thingy
anyways approx
which is the same thing really
I would suggest checking on a basis
For both the alternating maps and for the input vectors
I'll give that a try, ty 
sry went and made tea 
so this is fairly easy to prove then
if you expand in a basis you just need to prove that the wedge of elementary forms is associative
and those are determinants
and prods of determinants are determinants of prods which are associative
I think that should be the gist, although I need to actually write this out lol

the interior of any one dimensional open interval (a, b) is just (a, b), right?
right, and any 1 dimensional set that you can describe $(a, b)$ for some $a$ and some $b$ is always open, yeah?
Corgwn
also, $X - S = X \ S$, right?
Corgwn
youre probably looking for $X \setminus S$
Namington
yeah thanks @ivory dragon

Corgwn
where $I$ is the interior of $S$
Corgwn
by showing that any neighborhood of an arbitrary $x \in X -S$ $G$ intersects $X-S$ nontrivially?
Corgwn
or at least getting to a point where I have that
leveraging that to show that $X- I(S)$.
Corgwn
assuming G is an open neighborhood of x, the only thing that shows is that x is in the closure of X - S.
What you need to show is that x is in the closure of X - S if and only if x is in X and not in the interior of S
is this even true?
i am thinking cl(Q - (0, 1)) = R - (0,1) != Q - (0,1)
not sure what the assumptions were, but pretty sure this isn't true in R w/ its usual topology by above, unless im being dumb 
really?
I saw written as fact in a lecture that for any X and subset S of X
X - int(S) = closure(X - S)
right
It just occurred to me that X is probably supposed to be the whole space, not a subset
I think I've got a proof:
We will show that the closure of the set $X - S$ is equal to $X - I(S)$, where $I(S)$ denotes the interior of $S$. To do so, we will consider an arbitrary $x\in \Bar{X-S}$, and show that it is a member of $X- I(S)$. Consider that $x\in \Bar{X-S}$ is equivalent to the statement that $x$ is adherent to the set $X-S$. Thus, we know that $x\in X$ for an arbitrary neighborhood $G$ of $x$, $G$ intersects $X-S$ nontrivially. Thus, if we can show that $x$ is a member of $X$, and moreover that it is not a member of $I(S)$, it will be contained in $(X- I(S))$, and our proof will be complete. We know that the first statement is given, however, and so all we need to show is that $x$ is not a member of $I(S)$. \
Suppose that $x\in I(S)$. Then $x \in S$, and $S$ is a neighborhood of $x$. Thus, since all neighborhoods of $x$ intersect $X-S$, there is at least one element $a$ within $S \cap X - S$. Thus, suppose that $a \in S$. Then $a$ is not in $X-S$, since every element of $S$ is removed from $X-S$. Thus, we have wrought a contradiction, and as such $x\not\in I(S)$. QED.\ \
Corgwn
"Let $X$ be an arbitrary topological space, and let $S_\alpha$ be a collection of $I$ subsets of $X$. We will prove that the union of all such $S_\alpha$ is a subset of the complement of the closure of all $S_\alpha$."
Corgwn
I'm unsure of how to attack this one. Maybe show that the closure of a union of sets is equal to the union of a bunch of closure'd sets?
although that feels wrong
wait
I just need to show that for any given point $x \in S$, x is in the closure of $S$, right?
Corgwn
What’s the difference between a group scheme and an algebraic group?
I think algebraic groups are group objects in finite type schemes over a field
while group schemes are just group objects in scheme
Ohhh
Makes sense
They say algebraic groups are group objects of varieties
As like the classical thing where you end up getting all the matrix groups as algebraic groups and stuff
Yeah
Sucks tbh
Afaik there’s not a great source of algebraic groups in the context of schemes
There’s milne’s thing but it only looks at closed points
I was about to say milne lmao
Idk I talked to a grad student and he said he didn’t like it for ignoring the non-closed points
There was a topics course on it last year
I did not go
As I was a babby learning what a sheaf was
might make sense to learn some of the classical stuff first idk

Fml
Do you understand divisors?
II.6 exercises are hell and a grad student told me to skip them
But I still don’t get them at all
depends on what you mean by understand
lemme look at 2.6
I know definitions
And that’s it
Pretty much
Idk how you use them, what they’re useful for
Etc
Someone told me to check silverman’s arithmetic of elliptic curves
mumford
Mumford?
Is it
lots of stuff on divisors
Schemes
yes
“Is it the abstract one cuz Idk the classical stuff”
😔
Guy who can’t solve a quadratic over |R and asks for everything in ring theoretic terms
anyway, one of the reasons for divisors is that they're subschemes that you can actually say something about
it's very hard to study higher codim stuff
Thsts what Litt told me
which is why hodge theory is a big deal
As to “why we care”
And said yeah hodge conjecture is only known for codim 1 basically
But it doesnt really give me an idea on how to use them
I should have kept up last year
When we did curve stuff and riemann roch and stuff lol
😔
I mean what do you want to use them for?
divisors are an object of study
yes
And I’m doing curve shit like
We’re trying to show that M_g-bar is a blah blah blah
When you talk about curves I’m pretty sure you start talking about divisors really quickly
yes
So
mumfords book studies deformations of curves
Basically I just want to get a better feel for it so I can kinda understand wtf is going on
Haha
say you have a surface F
and a connected scheme X
then a family of curves on F parameterized by F is a relative effective cartier divisor on Fx X
and the problem in mumford is to find a universal deformation family
cartier divisor you know
Yeah but relatively effective
Was that the stuff in the image of the nice map
Or was that like a principal one
Effective should be the corresponding thing to like the degree of each codim 1 thing being >= 0 right?
effective means the thing is locally given by f = 0 for some nonzero divisor f
nonzerodivisor*
Wait wut
Okay so I know a Cartier divisor like is
Blah blah on a cover elements of blah fucking blah such that
I should reread II.6 tbh
But it was so fucking painful to get through oh my god
that is what I wrote, but I said what the blah blahs are
?
oh
by f = 0 I mean the vanishing of f
like some equation = 0
like x = 0 in the affine plane
I mena
Sure but idk what that means over a random ass scheme but
I looked it up and it was what I thought
The point was you don’t need to go to fractions
It’s just like in the actual structure sheaf
Locally
Right that’s what I meant
Like locally it’s elements in the total ring of fractions of Gamma(U_i,O_X)
Such that on intersections the ratio is actually in Gamm(U_i\cap U_j,O_X)
And then effective is that there’s a cover where they’re just in Gamma(U_i,O_X)
Half
And I literally can’t make sense of most of them because they are like
Let Y be the blah blah (Chspter I section 7) and I’m like
-_- ok so idk what that is as a scheme
I think I don’t know algebraic geometry
I know scheme theory

Yes

well at least youll be doing moduli of curves this quarter
so that's algebraic geometry
might even learn some GIT in the process
Ehhhhhh
Debatable how much of the moduli of curves bit I’ll actually understand details of haha
If I can understand stacks and how they work, get comfortable working with them, and have high level understanding of wtf the moduli stuff is
So I could explain to a friend “oky so basically...”
I’ll take it as a W
GIT is pretty cool
you cannot
lol nice username
Sham
i literally told Jessie that
If I can learn stacks and prestack, be comfortable with that, be able to work with them
And know enough of the moduli stuff to explain to you what a moduli space is I’d be happy
It’s too late
You’re already in my grasp
you don't need to get into stack land to talk about moduli spaces
Right
the hilbert scheme is even a sub thing of a grassmannian
I am a fan of the grassmannian
Uh oh
It's about like, when can every element of the kth exterior power of V be written as a wedge of elements of V
In terms of k and n = dim V
and the idea is basically dimension counting
like you embed the grassmannian in the projectivization of Λ^k V and voila
But wedge
Yes
but you need to know that map is like, full rank or whatever
Or even better show it's a closed embedding
anyways we had to do this with the charts on the grassmannian
Uh oh
Since we didn't know eg it was a quotient by a group action
Or a quotient at all
And the charts are very very very bad
Triple uh oh
It was one of the worst problems in 54x
We’re doing like
3,4 then to 7
To cover Lie groups
So maybe by the time we get it we’ll know it’s a quotient...
😖
The ones where you do bullshit by like probing deep into Projective space on the affine parts
I love them
Blech
Yeah well if you love them so much why don’t you marry one
Which ones the plucker?
span(v1, ...., v_k) to wedge
Like I swear I first told sham about this
And then he saw it later
And then learned it for actual
Hmm okay this sounds familiar now
Oh wait uhh
Actually
I went to a preseminar talk
VIII.4.8
It was by Jake, the postdoc I did the AT reading course with in spring
This was like a 2D case
And he defined the plucker embedded
Huh
He does a lot of combinatorics/ag with the grassmannian
I don't understand any of it
But he was jealous when I got @grassmannian
Wait dude wtf Aluffi does some like weak version of Artin Rees which gets you
For A Noetherian I•\cap I^n = \cap I^n
Which is a lot of why Artin-Rees has mattered for me besides showing stuff about the I-adic topology of a submodule being induced by the I-adic topology of the module itself
Maybe this is secretly the Matsumura proof of Artin-Rees since it isn’t the one in Lang
does anyone know a reference where the representation theory of galilei,lorentz,poincare,diffeomorphism group is being done in detail, such that a physicist can follow?
This comment inspired by showing that S^∞ is contractible

What?
The prof gave a hint so it shouldn’t be that bad
I have I think figured it out
But displaying a particular homotopy is always a bit painful
S^infty is like, sequences of reals with some metric
I saw an analysis-ish proof that was painful
I guess maybe like cell complex approach could be easier?
Like, Hilbert space and showing all functions can be homotopied into a constant function was kinda wack
It’s just union of all spheres with standard embedding
And take topology to be U is open if and only if U intersect S^n is open for all n
what does it mean for a base to "admit" a countable basis?
probably "has a countable subset that's also a base"
can I show it within the context of the thingie I'm working on atm?
sure 
So, the lower limit topology on $R$, right?
Corgwn
we have another base $B$, which is the set of $[a,b)$ such that $a < b$ and a and b are rational numbers
Corgwn
the lower limit topology on $R$ is the same, I suppose, but without the restriction that $a < b$ and $a$ and $b$ are rationals
Corgwn
Contractibility and cell complex structure of S^infty are exercises in chapter 0 of Hatcher
I remember going like
upon first seeing that
What I’m trying to show is that the lower limit topology can’t admit a countable basis
but again
I'm not sure what that means
you mean, the size of the topology is uncountable?
Its a collection of subsets of a given space that define a topology over a space
I think I get it
It seems it's just like not too bad
being careful with the details and checking things are continuous
is the brunt of it
but I basically just yelled "pasting lemma" and "polynomials are continuous"
when I constructed the homotopies
and didn't look back
:)
ok fuck CW complexes
the product of CW complexes is not equipped with the product topology

if I have a closed set $A$ such that $S\subseteq A$, $S$ is a neighborhood of $A$, correct?
Corgwn
a neighborhood of the set would enclose it, not be enclosed
Consider an arbitrary closed set $A$ which contains $S$. we, consider an element of the intersection of all closed sets containing $S$, $x$. We know that $x$ will be in the intersection of this set if $x$ is any given set closed set containing $S$. Let $S'$ be any such closed set such that $S \subseteq S'$, then. We will show that $x\in S'$ implies that $x \in \Bar{S}$. It will be enough to show that $x\in S'$ implies that $x$ is adherent to $S$, that is, every neighborhood $N$ of $x$ intersects $S$ nontrivially. Thus, suppose that for all neighborhoods of $x$, including $N$, $N \cap S$ is the null set. We know that since $S \subseteq S'$, however,
Corgwn
I'm trying to work this one out.
People talk about neighborhoods of closed sets as well for open sets containing a closed set
This for example makes it easy to state the theorem like
I don't know where to go with this proof though.
In a “paracompact Hausdorff space (I think?) given a closed set S, and a neighborhood U there exists a function identically 1 on S and with support contained in U”
Paracompact says like
Any open cover hs a locally finite refinements
I think????
All I know is “it gives partitions of unity or sometbinf”
In the context of manifolds
Lol
Ah
Yeah I dunno, I like being able to call somethig neigborhoods
After all what is a closed set but a really big point
Ignore the fact not all points are closed

That’s cuz u aren’t woke enough
Melvin
I cant find a proof for this
what's A'
isn't this just the definition of a closed set
whether or not there's a proof that's more than "it's by definition" depends on what your definitions of open, closed sets are
point set is cursed
I have no intuition for spaces that aren't "nice" and I really need to read Counterexamples in Topology at some point
There is no such intuition
ok It makes sense
this is why any topological space worth looking at is a manifold 
wait actually no that's not a take that differs significantly from my current takes
the only spaces worth looking at are locales 
ok pointless topology looks cool
vaguely related: I was surprised to learn today that you can think about integrating differential forms over more general subsets of R^n than just manifolds
is there any such generalization for abstract manifolds [well, I guess spaces lol]? :o
fuck it the only spaces worth looking at are sites
@shut moat https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Stokes+theorem
oh ik you can generalize stoke's theorem to manifolds-with-corners, I meant like something even more general
owo
also you can't integrate on general (topological) spaces if that's what you're referring to
you need a volume form
yeah general topological spaces seems too broad a class to even attempt to define it on
integrate on the long line
based
hot

uhh wait how about a point
>has a distinguished element
based
({}, {{}}) is a pretty great topological space
What do you mean by (,)?
I'm meming about sets

yes
Remember that all of mathematics is just empty sets smushed together in fancy ways
this is going to sound very silly
but if I have a topology $T$ over $R$, and a subset of $R$ $S = (0, \infty)$
Corgwn
how do I show that no sequence of $S$ $s_n$ converges to $a$?
Corgwn
I've been doing so much topology and there are so many definitions swimming around my head that I don't remember
You’d show that there’s some open neighborhood of a which intersects with the s_n only finitely many times
That’s a strong way to do it
But you can also do something like exhibit a neighborhood so that no matter how far our you are in the sequence there’s a term which is not in the neighborhood
So, in this topology, every neighborhood of 0 are uncountable sets containing 0, N, such that R - N is countable.
So, if I have a sequence over the real positive real numbers, s_n
Using https://www.math.uchicago.edu/~may/VIGRE/VIGRE2011/REUPapers/Markov.pdf and some polytope geometry, I was able to figure out that the Hadamard conjecture is true iff an n-simplex can be vertex-inscribed in a (n/2-1)-rectified n-simplex for all positive singly even n. Can it?
okay...last problem in this damned set
I need to show that the standard topology on R^{2n} =~ C^n is finer than the Zariski topology on C^n
Can someone help me through this? The product of two smooth varieties is smooth.
It is enough to show that if X is smooth at p and Y is smooth at q then X\times Y is smooth at (p,q).
If X is smooth at p, then from the definition of smooth we get a (U,\phi, f_1,..f_n-d) as in the defintion. Simillary for Y at q we have a (V,\psi,g_1,...,g_b).
Now U\times V is certainly an open subvaritey of X\times Y. And \phi\times\psi is a map from U\times V to some closed set, but I cant see why the closed set must be Z(f_1,..f_a,g_1,..g_b) and I can't see why the matrix still has full rank
using this definition for smooth
that is a fun problem
how much have you seen of the Zariski topology?
I'm still trying to wrap my head around what it is
so what way is your definition phrased
If $X$ is an integral scheme, and $f$ is a rational function on $X$, does $f$ determine a map from $X$ to $\mathbb{P}^{1}$?
Grothendieck
so the tricky thing is with the zarski topology you should think in terms of closed sets
so try and do this problem by showing that every closed set in the zariski topology is a closed set in the standard topology
this is what I'm looking at btw
what does the wiggly equals mean?
are we just looking at R^{2n} with the standard topology in this case?
or... R^2 =~ C^n?
that challenge problem better not be what i think it is 
in general its going to mean "isomorphism"
very cool Ciprian very cool
so in topology it will mean homeomorphic, in group theory isomorphic as groups, in ring theory isomorphic as rings
hm...
so I think I've got my head wrapped around the zariski topology
its the collection of points where a finite collection of complex functions are 0.
So, for example, 0 exists in the Zariski topology over $C$
Corgwn
cause you can think of all the complex functions going through the origin and voila
and the entirety of the complex plane $C$ also lives in the Zariski topology over $C$
Corgwn
cause you could just take the complex line along the x axis or whatever
and it's 0 at every point
am I understanding things correctly?
I posted this in AGS, but I'll post it here as well.
I know that if you are trying to show a functor F:(Sch/S)^op -> Sets is representable it suffices to show it's a Zariski sheaf and that there is a covering by representable open subfunctors. I've heard however that once you show F is a Zariski sheaf one may assume that the base scheme S is affine.
It isn't completely clear to me what it means to "assume S is affine", perhaps this means that for an open affine U of S you consider the functor (Sch/U)^op -> Set by sending X -> U to F(X -> U -> S).
Secondly, I don't see how even if you were to do so how this could show representability of F, presumably this gives you a Zariski open covering of F by open subfunctors but even if you showed these functors on (Sch/U)^op were representable they can't in their current form be open subfunctors since they aren't even functors from (Sch/S)^op
where or what is AGS?
Algebraic Geometry Syndicate, it's like Ravi Vakil's server or something
what characterizes the closed sets on $C^n$ in the standard topology?
Corgwn
we just treat the complex elements of that like regular variables, right, and just euclideanistically calculate their distance?
Just pretend it's R^2n
euclideanistically
yeah that's what I'm saying
"Consider the complex plane of numbers in $n$ dimensions, $C^n$. We will show that the standard topology over $C^n$ is finer than the Zariski topology on $C^n$. To do so, we will show that if a set is open with respect to the standard topology in $C^n$, it is open with respect to the Zariski topology. It is suitable to show the contrapositive of this statement for the purposes of this proof, IE, that if a set $a$ is closed over the Zariski topology, it is closed in the standard topology. Thus, let $A$ be an arbitrary set closed in the Zariski topology over $C^n$. Thus, there exist a collection of $m$, finite polynomial functions in $n$ variables $F_m$ such that for any $f \in F_m$, and for any $a\in A$, $f(a) = 0$. Thus, to show that $A$ is closed in the standard topology, we must show that $A = \Bar{A}$ over the standard topology. That is, for any $a \in A$, $a$ is adherent to $A$, which is to say that for an arbitrary open set of $a$, $U$, $U\cup A$ contains at least one element, $b$."
Corgwn
Think about basis elements
Also your contrapositive seems incorrect
oh, right, because not being open doesn't imply that you're closed
Yeah it is in fact very incorrect
If A and B are 2 topologies on X, then a set being open in A also being open in B is equivalent to a set being closed in A also being closed in B
but "Every set that is closed as per the second topology, is also closed as per the first"
Yeah, or just basis elements of zariski being open in standard
Doesn't the standard topology have more opens than zariski, not less?
Yeah it was rhetorical lol
No worries though
The standard topology being finer means that there are more opens in standard than zariski but you wrote the opposite @placid thorn
did I then
Yeah
Okay anyway you want to show that if a set is closed in zariski it is closed in standard
What are the closed sets in zariski?
They are the zero sets of some set of polynomials. In other words they are the intersection $\bigcap\limits_{i\in S} p_i^{-1}(0)$
right
Liquid
Lol there we go
that should prove that the zariski topology is fine than the standard topology, no?
*finer
Well we know arbitrary intersection of closed is closed
So you just need to show zero sets of polynomials are closed
according to this, the two conditions are equivalent
You can switch open and closed, yeah
By just taking complements
Yeah
(incidentally when I said look at the basis earlier, the basic closed sets for zariski are just the zero sets of a single polynomial. Once you show that the basic closed sets are also closed in the finer topology then you are done)
really?
I don't mean this argumentatively but do you know of a book that uses them the "wrong" way around
just very curious to see
actually this is a good time to ask this question
a fine topology has more open sets
so a fine topology has less continous functions
so then when we are defining stuff like the quoitent toplogy
we pick the finest topology that makes the quoitent map continous
because if we picked the coarses topology you'd just get the trivial topology
so in general defining topologys in terms of making a map continous you always pick the finest topology where it is still continous
so say we want to define a topology on on a set U and we have a map f:Uto V
ah okay
so in the domain the the topology that makes sense is the coarsest
in the iamge the finiest
is there something categorical going on here?
retweet
How do you define quotients in category theory? Look at the diagram and check if it checks out
(ie look at the universal property)
hrrmm
so
explicitly defining homeomorphisms
makes me very sad
namely
this does give a homeomorphism D^n/boundary to S^n I'm nearly certain
but showing bijectivity will be very fun
Is the problem just show D^n/bdry is homeomorphic to Sn?
because if so, there should be an easier way of doing it
wait why?
Writing down an explicit map seems like the easiest way to me?
Showing it makes the right identifications is annoying but it's just algebra. It's a quotient map because it's a surjection between compact hausdorff spaces
Oh yeah it's not like
hrm
I have done all the theory part of it
I just need to show this is a bijection when you descend to the quotient
sorry Faye I agree it's annoying
and I don't want to do the algebra
I just don't think there's a simpler way
lol
you can probably mess around with one point compactifications
🧠
I also like
don't have a good intuition for how to write down a "nice" map for these purposes
like I know the above map works
hmm
but showing it's bijective seems more work than finding a nicer map :P
You might be able to describe it via protection onto a disk I think
absolute hate
Like S^n{south pole} -> open disk
Right
And then you just notice it extends to the boundary
I can see how it looks similar having seen some stereo before
Probably
I spent the last couple days thinking way to hard about stereographic projection
both the sphere and disk/bdry are one point compactifications
Had a hw problem involving a map S^2 -> CP^1 and I just couldn't get the details right
"this is a bijection, as demonstrated by this geogebra file when n = 2"
oof
I might like
show it to my prof
and see if she has any suggestions for a better map
or if this is like
a good one
and I should just chug
And this seems like the nicest map you can get
brendan that's like telling me santa isn't real
tfw
I am bad at algebra
hmmm
I could demonstrate an inverse probably via stereographic bois or something
Demonstrating an inverse seems annoying
Just because you're mapping into a quotient
Could you try to do it by showing Dn/boundary~[0,1]^n/boundary and then using some trigonometry?
Although, I am not sure how trivial the trigonometry should be
Something generalizing the identification of [0,1]/{0,1} to S1 via t->(cos t, sin t)
Yep
Yeah, I vaguely remember
So Hubbard usually avoids anything to do with the language of general topology and bundles, but in defining an orientation on manifolds, it does this:
and after some googing, B(M) seems to coincide with the frame bundle in more general smooth manifold stuff
So my question is, is this definition actually equivalent to that frame bundle? can you give it the topology inherited from R^n(k+1)?
it should be
so like
i am going to say words and you may not understand them
say $M$ is some abstract smooth manifold and you have a smooth embedding $F : M \to \R^n$
Shamrock -> E -> B
then you get an injective bundle map $dF : TM \to T\R^n$ over $F$
Shamrock -> E -> B
hmm maybe this is not what I mean to say
I don't see abstractly why the frame bundle has the topology inherited from R^n, but it should be true
ah I think I see why this is true
so you can find an injective bundle map $\iota : TM \to M \times \R^N$ for some large $N$
by embedding M into euclidean space as above
Shamrock -> E -> B
this gives some set function $F(TM) \to F(M \times \R^N) = M \times GL(\R, N)$
which is injective
Shamrock -> E -> B
so the question is why is this an embedding
injective+locally an embedding should imply it's an embedding, I think
so you can work in trivializations of the tangent bundle
ie choose coordinates on M and see how this map looks
wait no
this is wrong, you don't get a map F(TM) -> F(M \times \R^N)
hmm
you do get a map F(TM) -> M \times (\R^N)^(dim M)
I think I would need to write this out more carefully
I am 99% sure this map will be an embedding
is this bundle map \iota not dF?
not exactly
so there's two reasons
we need to make the identification of T\R^N with R^N \times R^N and we need to restrict to the subset F(M)
(sorry for the double use of F, should probably call the map M -> R^N like G or smth)
but it's basically dG
right ok that makes sense
not that I understand all of the words
But from what I do understand, this seems to make sense
ty again Shamrock 
not at all 
Alright so
Say you have an injective vector bundle homomorphisms i : E1 -> E2 over M
This is automatically an embedding
you can check its an embedding locally, and locally its trivial (heh)
Locally you should have a left inverse
Proof: let p be arbitrary. We argue that i has a left inverse on a nbhd of p. Choose a local frame X1,...,Xn for E1 on a nbhd U <= M of p. Then i(X1),...,i(Xn) are still linearly independent at p, so we can shrink to some V <= U around p and complete to a local frame i(X1),...,i(Xn),Y1,...,Yk for E2. Then on the local trivializations over V given by these frames the map E1 -> E2 is the inclusion R^n -> R^(n+k) on fibers
In the smooth case this also proves you get a smooth embedding
okay so this induces an injective function j : F(E1) -> E2^n, where E2^n is the whitney sum of E2 with itself n times (this means that on each fiber you just replace the vector space with n copies of the vector space direct summed together)
We want to know that j is also an embedding
Well we can factor it as F(E1) -> E1^n -> E2^n
The second map is an injective vector bundle homomorphism, and so an embedding
The first is the inclusion of a subspace (at least, depending on your construction of the frame bundle)
If you construct the frame bundle by abstractly taking the disjoint union of the bases for the fibers and then defining local trivializations (and so then taking the topology induced by these trivializations) then the map F(E1) -> E1^n is injective and locally looks like the inclusion of GL(n, R) into M(n, R) on appropriate trivializations of each, and thus is an embedding
@shut moat sorry for the long reply. Basically F(TM) -> M×(R^n)^k can be factored as F(TM) - > (TM)^k -> M×(R^n)^k; the first is an embedding by definition and the second is an injective vector bundle homomorphism, and so an embedding for linear algebra reasons
So the construction in your book should be the same as the abstract version

does anyone have tips for understanding / working with CW complexes?
idk if it can help you but thnik CW complexes as fibrant and cofibrant objects are a good way to think of them imo
I don't know a lot about cw complexes
can anyone help me with this?
if f(P) =/= 0 can't you take U = D(f) ?
pretend everything is finite, or at least finite dimensional
induction is your friend
I might be able to say more specific things in a more concrete context
other than that i would just say they are nice spaces that are useful for computation
this depends on a choice of model structure
i.e. weak vs genuine
I think I might be a bit confused about the wording of the question, its this there is some Q where f does not vanish, or f does not vanish on all the Q

note that (TM)^k isn't the product space
The fiber over a point p is k tuples of tangent vectors at p
So it's like { (p, v1,...,vk) : v1,...,vk in T_pM }
right
the notation for some of these bundles always feels a bit weird when I wiki surf
Shamrock -> E -> B
sham i am sorry to interrupt but desperate can u check my question in ivory when u get a chance i will love you forever
like tensor bundles/form bundles are denoted as exterior powers/tensor powers of TM when that's really shorthand for the bundle formed by the disjoint union of exterior/tensor powers of the tangent spaces right? it's not like an actual operation between bundles
Oh sure I'll check uw's library
Does sci hub not have it?
Well approx you're right and you're wrong
It is the bundle formed by doing something on all tangent spaces
But this is an operation between bundles
do you know what a functor is?
I vaguely know it's a category thing, but that's it
what is your definition of a curve ? A 1 dimensional algebraic set over C ? @gritty widget
So here a functor is like an "operation on vector spaces"
For any finite dimensional vector space V you give me, I give you back a finite dimensional vector space F(V)
quasi-projective variety whos irreducible components are all one-dimesional
And for any linear map f : V -> W I also give a map F(f) : F(V) -> F(W)
but here we assume its irreducible so, its a quasi-projective variety of dimesion 1 over an algebraically closed field
We also need the rules F(id_V) = id_F(V) and F(g°f) = F(g) ° F(f)
Some examples are F(V) = kth exterior power of V
Or kth tensor power of V
Is the problem just asking you to show that if the germ of a section is nonzero, then it is nonzero in a nbhd? @gritty widget
if you have a functor like this, and it satisfies one extra condition I'll get to in a sec, you get a functor from the category of vector bundles on X to the category of vector bundles on X
Given by applying F to all the fibers and then taking a disjoint union
So it's true that the notation Λ^k (T^*M) is a little weird, but we really are applying an operation to the bundle T^* M
Namely this lift of the exterior power functor
The extra condition is that for any finite dimensional vector spaces V, W, the function Hom(V, W) -> Hom(F(V), F(W)) taking f to F(f) is continuous (the Hom sets are finite dimensional vector spaces, so they have a natural topology)
anyways point is Λ^k (T^* M) is an abuse of notation but not as bad as you might think! Λ^k E makes sense for any vector bundle E
what's Hom here?
Hom(V, W) is the set of linear maps from V to W
(which is itself a finite dimensional vector space, and thus a topological space)
Because if the question is this, then you do not need any of those additional assumptions. It works in any locally ringed space and follows pretty much from the definition of the stalk at a point.
Yeah exactly!
It's a homomorphism where the algebraic structure is a category instead of eg a group or a ring
it just feels kind of different because of how big categories are
that's rly cool!
I was thinking about this a lot recently
It turns out that there's higher categorical stuff going on here
which I will not get into
but basically this process of lifting a functor to bundles has a lot of nice structure to it
I think its asking to show that if a germ in non zero, then we can find a neighborhood where it does not vanish anywhere on that neighborhood except possibly the point p
but maybe i have read the question wrong
I think it is worded slighly badly
I would take "f(x) is non zero for all x in R" to mean that f is not the zero function,
and would say "for all x in R f(x) is not zero" to mean f does not vanish on R
that's what I meant but it doesn't work if f(P) = 0
you don't have P in your set
is it a real curve ? not a complex one ?
In any LRS the set of points x such that f(x) \neq 0 is open
but yeah that's not quite what the question is asking
yeah but U should be a neightbourhood of P
A curve over a general field that is algebraicly closed
Are you saying the question is not true if we interpret it as find a neighborhood U such that f does not vanish on U\p?
no but the idea to take the set of f non-zeros doesn't work
grrr
I might have not done algebra correctly
or
my idea for showing this is a surjection is wrong
and I am very sad
Since f is non zero there must be some open set V containing p where f does not vanish everywhere
then is there some nice propety of open sets in an irreducible 1 dim variety
it works in analytic geometry, for holomorphic functions, then it works for your example by GAGA principle 🤓
(joke)
yeah for 1 dim over alg closed field the topology is just the cofinite topology
just take the open set where f(Q) not equal to zero, and take the union with P

oh yeah that's what I was about to say lol
P need not be open?
btw why for dimension 1 variety the topology is the cofinite one in general
I mean it's non obvious for, like, self intersecting curves
wait what
I think it is true
yeah the complement is still finite
if every point was open then the topology would be (haussdorff or discrete?)
no
a point is not open
the complement of a point is inifnite
but an open set union a point is open
as the complement is finite
yea the topology on 1dim irred over alg closed field is funny
any two curves are homeomorphic
take any bijection and it works lmao
oh okay that answers my question
wait wut
I was going to say this is clearly not the same as the affine line
so how do they both have the same topology
oh okay lol
does this self intersecting count as a irredicible curve of dim 1?
yes
whack
the zariski topology is just too coarse to see it
to see that the analytic topology can see that it is "not" irreducible, take the completion at the intersection
r i p
