#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 197 of 1
shamroc$\overline{k}$
Why do the Xj come out?
dx^i is a linear map
Linear in what?
C^\infty-linear
You can think of it as a function on vector fields which is linear over the ring of smooth functions
lol tterra posted my real answer as his meme answer
Ah I see so covector fields are linear over the module of smooth functions on a manifold
basically if $\omega$ is a covector field and $X$ a vector field, and $f$ is a smooth function, then $\omega(f X) = f\omega(X)$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
where Γ is the C^infty module of global sections
The first * takes the dual bundle and the second one takes the dual as a C^infty module
this is true for tensor bundles in general btw
flexing your bundles course i see 
nah lol we did this in my manifolds course last year
i figured lmao just memeing
oh but I did want to flex my bundles course
on you
Very cool problem
how many isomorphism classes of real line bundles are there on the circle?
guess
no
become bundlebrained ttera
the mobius bundle is just like
Take a mobius strip
Extend the line segment infinitely outward
tada
now it's a vector bundle
anyways the proof is very cool
You should learn bundles is the main point
from what book 
not this book tbh
I'm not a huge fan
so far
It could use more category theory
unironically
It does stuff with functors
but then it doesn't do it well
it doesn't prove enough things about the stuff it does with functors

So the exercises are really tedious
if you haven't looked at it, Natural operations in diff geo is quite nice
this one?
yes
oh shit am I supposed to know what a module is before I do lee 
it helps to know the definition for when you get to vector fields / covector fields / tensor fields
but like
i don't think you need to have an in depth knowledge of modules to do lee
phew
basically, the set of all tensor fields on a manifold is a module over the ring of smooth functions
what else...

pi_0 (R*) = 2?



yeah that should do it
as bundles on spheres are in one to one correspondence with homotopy classes of functions from the equator to the structure group
and the equator of the circle is just 2 points
and the structure group is R*
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
I don't know anything about classifying spaces
you can argue that real line bundles on the interval are all trivial by like, covering with finitely many trivializations which go from the start to the end, each only overlapping with the next
via the lebesgue number lemma
then you can define a consistent global orientation
It's trivial on each little bit and when you hit the next patch you can flip the orientation to compensate
now you can cover the circle by two line segments, their overlap has two connected components
by choosing a metric and an orthonormal frame we get that the bundle is determined by a transition function landing in O(1), and this is just an assignment of ±1 to each component
Flipping the sign of the transition function gives the same bundle, so there's only two options
yeah the argument is pretty much the same
it isnt using anything about classifying spaces
the reason why the bundle it determined by that function is because the upper and lower hemispheres are both contractible, so the bundle is trivial
and now all you need to know is how to identify fibers
which is the same data as a map from the equator to R*
ah okay, I saw homotopy classes of maps and assumed it was classifying space stuff
yeah it's called a "clutching function"
so by the same argument fiber bundles over a sphere S^n with a given structure group G are determined by homotopy classes of maps from S^n-1 to G
so elements of pi_(n-1)(G)
for low dimensions and groups like SO(n), O(n), ..., you can actually compute the homotopy groups
Yeah I think this argument is using some facts I didn't know about bundles, eg all bundles on a contractible space are trivial or gluing data/transition functions only matter up to homotopy
stuff on that is in May's concise course in alg top
well the next chapter of my textbook is on "bundles and homotopy", so presumably I'll learn it soon
yeah it's all pretty straightforward
the main point is the functor that assigns rank n vector bundles (up to iso) to each factors through the homotopy category
and now you can start using homotopical methods to study them
like representability follows from abstract nonsense
Milnor and Stasheff is also nice for bundle stuff
so $f(x,y) = (x/(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}), y/(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}))$ maps points on a square to points on a circle
Corgwn
so, will solving x = x/(\sqrt{x^2+y^2}) for y, do I retrieve the y component of the formula for mapping a circle to a square?
@gritty widget sorry to bother you but could you take a look at this?
you may not get something going to a square
this map takes the entire plane minus the origin to the circle
er
why are you solving x = x / sqrt(x^2 + y^2)? how did you get that?
slimvesus
Yeah I’m trying to come up with a map from the unit circle to the unit square
For a point on a unit square, it gets the x coord of it mapped to a unit circle
Uhhh no I’m just curious about what it would look like
But I know it should exist, given that circles and squares are topologically congruent
Yeah
you need to restrict the domain
and then it will be a homeomorphism
computing an inverse probably isn't so bad
But in that case solving the x= whatever equation above will work yea?
How do you even go about finding the inverse for a multi variate eq?
what exactly is going on here?
so we have defined $T^{ij}_k$ is some odd way wrt some coordinate system $\bar{Z}^i$ and showed that this definition is in fact a tensor?
Zero0
@placid thorn if you're still working on it I recommend looking at each side of the square individually
then coming up with a nice function that patches it all together
ding ding ding
Yeah that works well. Another good way to do it is to parameterize each of them and then do convex combination
AAAA
what a word lol, I used that on a complex analysis hw last year haha
I just asserted stuff about convexity using that I learned from computational geometry crap I've done and the TA just was like "sure"
Nice
hmmm
how could I prove that in isometric transformations, vertexes map to vertexes?
intuitively I feel like that should be try
*true
yes that
what I want to prove is that a square and a triangle aren't isometric
my current argument has to do with vertexes
basically, suppose that for 3 of the four vertexes, the distances between them in the isometry is fixed
they'd have to be right?
d(x,y) = d(f(x), f(y))
right, and in a square
for one vertex the euclidian distance to 2 other vertexes is a, and then to the last one is sqrt{2}*a
yeah so let's assume that the we map the two closest vertex to a triangle
getting an isoceles
and since the last vertex which should be length a * sqrt{2} will have to lie somewhere on this isoceles triangle
it's going to have to be closer to the vertex than the other two which have their distances fixed
so it can't possibly hold here that d(x,y) = d(f(x), f(y)) for this vertex
I feel like it's not a good approach
yeah
and therefore none for vice versa
well where?
is there a more elegant approach?
I feel like there’s a more elegant way to prove this
hm...
could I use the triangle inequality to prove that for isometries between polygons, vertexes map to vertexes?
Can you show that an isometry preserves angles
Like show that they’re conformal maps or whatever
Then it’s automatic I think
"Suppose that in an isometry between two polygons, there existed at least one mapping of a vertex, $a$, to a point that isn't a vertex, $e$. Consider that on a polygon, points are either on vertexes, or lay on line segments that connect them, so $c$ must be on a point between two vertexes in this new isometry, $g$ and $h$. Suppose that $f(b) = h$ and $f(c) = g$, for points on the polygon where $a$ lies $b$ and $c$, and thus $d(b,c) = d(h,g)$. Thus, because they lie in a straight line with eachother, the property holds that $d(h,e) + d(e,g) = d(h,g)$, so $d(b,c) = d(h,e) + d(e,g)$. Thus, $d(b,c) = d(f(b), f(a)) + d(f(a),f(c))$, or just $d(b,c) = d(b,a) + d(a,c)$."
I feel like I'm on to something here
Corgwn
"Suppose that in an isometry between two polygons, there existed at least one mapping of a vertex, $a$, to a point that isn't a vertex, $e$. Consider that on a polygon, points are either on vertexes, or lay on line segments that connect them, so $c$ must be on a point between two vertexes in this new isometry, $g$ and $h$. Suppose that $f(b) = h$ and $f(c) = g$, for points on the polygon where $a$ lies $b$ and $c$, and thus $d(b,c) = d(h,g)$. Thus, because they lie in a straight line with eachother, the property holds that $d(h,e) + d(e,g) = d(h,g)$, so $d(b,c) = d(h,e) + d(e,g)$. Thus, $d(b,c) = d(f(b), f(a)) + d(f(a),f(c))$, or just $d(b,c) = d(b,a) + d(a,c)$. Consider that this equality can hold if and only if $a$ was a point along the shortest line between $b$ and $c$. This implies that $a$ is a point that lies along the line connecting $b$ and $c$, and is therefore not a vertex, but this is a contradiction of our assumptions that it was. Thus, in an isometric function, all vertexes must map to other vertexes. "
Here we go!
Corgwn
yes, because |f(x)| = |x| for any x, so if x goes to 0, f(x) goes to 0 = f(0)

(just a quick way to see continuity at 0)
awwww yeah
if youre supposed to prove it dont forget to talk about discontinuity elsewhere
Moth | not male
so its easy here to show that Z^p is continuous and that f cont implies f Z^p cont
the hard(ish?) part is f circ Z^p cont implies f cont
where f is an arbitrary map into F(Y, Z)
i dont really understand how the preimage of a compact set = compact helps or what map it is supposed to apply to here cuz if f: A -> F(Y, Z) idk anything about the topology on A or how compactness relates to openness
unless its supposed to be like
continuity at ap oint or something
but if u pass thru Z^p from an open set of f(a) to F(X, Z) and then go back into A via (f circ Z^p)^-1 i dont think this would necessarily pass under f into a subset of our original open set
and it doesnt seem to take preimage of compact set is compact into account anyway
what are the topologies on F(Y,Z) and F(X,Z) ?
compact open i assume
Hey, could anyone pls verify if this 4d coordinate system projected to 3d is correct. I did the calculations of angles and modeling of it, so I don't know if it works. If someone could help me please send me a message.
In the plane, is the topology induced by the discret metric equal to the usual topology?
in the discrete metric, points are open sets, and they certainly aren't in the usual topology
phrased more suggestively
in the discrete metric all sets are open
TTerra
(and "all sets are open" follows from the fact that arbitrary unions of open sets are open, and that any set can be written as a union of singletons)
(and really, by "points are open," i meant "singletons are open," just to be 100% clear)
am I crazy or does this definition not make sense
j < i
i >= j
The function isn't defined if j > i????
I'm pretty sure it should be
$s^i(j) = \begin{cases} j & \text{if } j \leq i \ j-1 &\text{if } j > i\end{cases}$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
But would like confirmation from someone else
@gilded shell i can try to help you determine the lie algebra
Ok, am I fine?
So
I'm not sure where I'm effing up
I have two ways to calculate it and it seems contradictory
G=GL(n), with real matrices.
mhm
Let L_g multiplication on the left by g.
Now the vector V at T_I G, corresponds to what left invariant vector field?
edit: i->I
Yes
If we can identify the Matrices and the tangent space T_I G, as in, if: V=V_ij d_ij , we can say V = [V_ij]
Sorry, what do you mean by d_ij?
Is this the matrix with a 1 in the ijth spot and 0s elsewhere?
I mean the partial derivative with respect to x^ij
ah, gotcha
then I agree
(sorry, I wanted to clarify because d_ij looks to me like the covector dx^ij instead of the vector partial/partial x^IJ)
So two ways of calculating the desired object:
$L_g _*,e (V)$
Not sure why I'm not latexing
Is * here the total derivative, ie pushforward?
And it gets confused when you have spaces at the start or end
Yeah, makes sense. But I dont have the symbol for partial here.
Professor M'Oats
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shamroc$\overline{k}$
It is
Sure, so this is one way
So according to books we'll have:
$(L_{g})_{*}(V) = gV$
Yup
Professor M'Oats
Do you understand why this is?
I dont know, because I'm getting a different answer someway else.
But maybe it's cuz I need sleep but I really need to finish this right now so no sleep allowed
$L_g$ is the restriction of a linear map $M(n) \to M(n)$, namely left multiplication by $g$. The differential of a linear map is that map itself
But I think I do, to a degree.
shamroc$\overline{k}$
Also oof :(
We're basically working in M(n) instead of GL(n)
Since M(n) is a vector space
That's how we identify the tangent space with M(n) too, right?
Yes
Alright so what's the other way?
Ok
So let's have g be the respective function G->G, g(h)=gh.
Another way to calculate our vector field should be this
$(L_{g}){*}(V) = V{ij} d_{ij} (L_{g})$
hmm
Professor M'Oats
I think I agree with this, give me one sec
I have done a bit of identification
Isn't this literally the definition?
Wait, is d_ij the tangent vector?
More rigorously
$(L_{g}){*}(V) {ab} = V{ij} d{ij} (L_{g}) {ab} d{ab}}$
I got confused by the notational clash with covectors
Professor M'Oats
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lmfao
So if we think of partial/partial x^ij as a derivation on the algebra of smooth functions
Sorry for the confusion, btw, hope I solve this. ;-; Thanks
The pushfoward is prrcomposition
no you're fine! It's just been a while since I actually went down to definitions of this stuff
and there's a bunch of different ways to define everything
So, all agreed?
Alright so when you say $d_{ij}(L_g)$ do you mean $\frac{\partial}{\partial x^ij} \circ L_g^*$?
I'm still catching up lol
shamroc$\overline{k}$
The notation d_ij(L_g) does not parse for me
since left translation by $g$ is a diffeo you have a well defined pushforward $(L_g)*:\Gamma(TG)\to\Gamma(TG)$ where $X\mapsto (L_g)(X)$ where $(L_g)_(X):G\to TG$ so $h\mapsto (L_g)*(X)(h)=(\ell_g)*(Xg^{-1}h)$
spinsicle
maybe this guy helps ∂
I'm being stupid, sorry
The partial acts on the function L_g
🤦
Yeah alright professor I agree with your statement now, sorry for the confusion
The g(-1) is confusing me a bit in spinsicle but I guess it's to obtain an automorphism or sth
Anyway, I'l ldothe computation
This should also work
Spin, I don't understand your last expression. What is \ell_g?
if you consider a $X\in\Gamma(TM)$ as a linear map $X:C^{\infty}(G)\to C^{\infty}(G)$ then you can just write $(L_g)_*(X)(f)=X(f\circ \ell_g)$ for any smooth $f$
spinsicle
\ell_g is just the left translation map
yup, eventually I realized this
$(L_{g}){*}(V) {ab} = V{ij} d{ij} (L_{g}) {ab} d{ab}} = $
$V_{ij} d_{ij} (L_{g}) {ab}$
$=V{ij} d_{ij} (g_{ak} x_{kb}$
$=V_{ij} (g_{ak} delta_{ki} delta_{jb}$
$=V_{ij} (g_{ai} delta_{jb}$
why
?
Does the bot support multiple $ $$$ ?
I was being thrown off by the use of lowercase d to mean a vector instead of a covector
It does, but you'll want an align*
How?
Professor M'Oats
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Because I'm getting it wrong
Because the formula I got doesnt correspond to L_g_*(X)=gX.
And I have to be fucking up royally somewhere
Actually prof I'm back to being confused lol. You write $L_* \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}} = \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}} L$ but this seems wrong to me. The left hand side is a vector field while the right is a function
shamroc$\overline{k}$
Unless I've misunderstood your computation using linearity of the pushfoward
i think there's a bit of confusion about what L_* actually is here
I'm confused at least
So L_g is a smooth map G->G. Which allows us to pushforward a tangent vector at I, to a tangent vector at gI=g.
Sure
And V is a tangent vector at I.
do you remember what the definition of the pushforward is prof
It should be $V_{ij} (g_{ai} \delta_{jb} d_{ab} |_{g}$
trailing space
The pushforward by F of v applied to f, = v(foF)
shouldn't it be the vector field $\left(L_* \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}}\right)f = \frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}} (f \circ L_g)$?
oops
shamroc$\overline{k}$
Professor M'Oats
I am also confused by this notation
Isn't that the same?
This is right
This does not make sense to me
It's not a metric, it's a kronecker delta.
I think the metric is the g lol
Yes, it does not, but I'm not sure why atm.
^
Oh the g is a matrix so it has components
yes i know but this is just like
Okay so prof, you have $(L_g)* V = V^{ij} (L_g)*\frac{\partial}{\partial x^{ij}}\Big|_{I}$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
Yes
Then you tried to compute the pushfoward
And lost me
I think your computation of the pushfoward was wrong
The pushforward was just calculating the derivatives of gX, which is the multiplication of two matrices
why are you even trying to compute pushforward
I don't think it makes sense to talk about the derivative of a product of matrices with respect to X
Because I'm computing it wrong so I'm messing up somewhere I don't udnerstand
Also spin they tried to compute something two ways and got different answers
Even if one way is easier you should still try to resolve the contradiction
so yeah prof have you tried computing the pushfoward by a curve?
G is a a group of matrices. Multiplying the matrix g on the left gives a smooth map, which we can take the derivative of.
I meant this in reply to how it doesnt make sense to calculate the derivatives of so and so
partial/partial x^ij is the tangent vector of a very easy to write down curve
I agree, but that derivative is the pushfoward map
I was saying you can't do like, d/dX gX
anyways, I would try to compute the pushfoward by using the curve γ(t) = I + tx^ij
The velocity of this at 0 is partial/partial x^ij
so the pushfoward can be computed as the velocity of the curve g * γ(t) at 0
The curve being the (I+e^ij t).
Yes
Any reason why?
why don’t you just play around with this on the tangent bundle before you do all this 😦
Say F : M -> N is a smooth map. What is the derivative of F?
Also spin they know how to compute it by identifying the tangent space with M(n)
Ah, I have to leave soon
That's how this question started
Prof, if you want to compute it like this I would suggest using that curve
I will, can I ask for a specific case on how you'd do it?
sure
I'll compute it, I just wanna say it because of time sorry
You have the block matrix with rows (R_s v)(0,1). Where R is the 2x2 matrix (cos(s) -sin(s))(sin(s) cos(s)) and v is 2x1 (x)(y).
It's really simple if you draw it out.
uhhh
How do you prove X= partial/partial s is an invariant vector field?
by applying the definition of a left invariant vector field
look at this abstractly
I do not know what you mean by this. What's v? The matrix
x x
y y?
and understand it then do the computation
I did it in two ways, none was direct direct computation.
No
The matrix is
( cos s -sin s x)
(sin s cos s y)
(0 0 1)
I thought we were working in GL(n)? How are we getting a nonsquare matrix?
How so?
$(L_{g})_{*} ( \partial _{s})(f) = ( \partial _{s})(f o g)$
This is the one by computation.
It's 3x3
This one
What's the vector field you want to show is left invariant?
partial _s
Professor M'Oats
is wrote theta sorry
It's not a coordinate on GL(3). IT parameterizes the subgroup given by the subgroup i was trying to define
I think I need to take a break, still need to sleep and wake up
And I'm being a unclear
Thank you though
Sorry that I have to leave midway
You should do that, it seems like you have stuff getting mixed up/not being communicated clearly
You too spin
I hope you can get your homework done in time
thanks
Would appreciate if someone looked at this question I asked about the simplex category earlier
yes, you defined it the right way
Kerodon is a great reference for this stuff
Oh yeah I remember hearing about that, thanks!
and Goerss and Jardine
I'm trying to focus on just what I need to understand dold kan, so I didn't want to use a more general homotopy theory reference
even weibel's presentation is a little more general than necessary for me atm
what are y'all doing in your hom alg class right now?
Just starting derived functors
A bunch of people in the course are concurrently taking it with the first year grad algebra sequence
So there's been more review than I would like
review can be a good thing
i do not want to relearn the definition of a natural transformation for the 20th time
lol
there was a lot of overlap between the undergrad and first-year grad algebra sequence, but I think I got to learn the material a lot better due to it
but yeah, twice is fine
20 times is not
have fun simping
I should read through the simplicial stuff again
I would like to learn more about this stuff
Haven't really had an opportunity
But presenting on dold kan seemed like a nice way to get into it
it seems like it might be super important 🤷
with all the "brave new algebra" stuff that's coming up
¯\_(ツ)_/¯
I've always been a bit of a category memer
so I just want to understand what all the higher category business is about
but until now I've suppressed my instinct to dive into simplicial stuff
this is true lol
It's weird because like
All the category theorists I talk to are the opposite of dry
They think about things at a less formal level than I'm comfortable with
But then the actual math is incredibly formal
I don't know how to square it lol
All the category theorists I've ever talked to are "ideas people" if that makes sense
im not talking about like ugtc memers
ik
kk, sorry
For some reason "we've got those over here" makes me think of ugtc memes 
perhaps I should have worded it better
I remember my algebra prof telling a story about like
back in the day he was a category theorist memer
he had to introduce the derived category at the start of his talks
and then as time went on he became much more concrete
Not because he'd changed, but because algebraic geometry had
huh
I remember specifically he said he used to need to introduce the derived category at the start of his talks because the audience might not be familiar
"well I used the derived cat in my thesis"
lol
that's crazy
how times have changed
well yeah no more derived cats
lmfaoo
hahaha
Now it's infinity cats
only E-infinity ring spectra /s
Tfw $\mathbb{R}^i$
Chmonkey 2.0
that's such a meme name
"hyper derived functor"
I need that meme like "hyper derived functor? what is that. No, derived functor"
anything with hyper sounds memey
and it calls it like stuck up or whatever
hyperbole
okay good night everybody. chmonkey we're meeting at 1pm
read the thingy
yes
before 1pm
Read the thingy
yes
:(
👍
based
How to show tha the fundamental group of an indiscrete space is trivial?
What is a tangent space? Is it like a tangent line but only a surface that is touching a single point in R^3
it's the best "linear" approximation to the curve/surface/manifold near that point
which should immediately make you think of derivatives
A loop is contractible if it is homotopic to a point?
yes
in particular this implies that the fundamental group of the space (based at a point on your loop) is trivial
since then every loop based at that point is homotopic to the constant loop, i.e. its homotopy class in pi_1 is equal to the identity (homotopy class of constant loop)
(if i'm remembering my basic AT correctly)
so once you can construct that homotopy, you're good
For a loop f in X, the homotopy is $f \cdot c=c$ where c is constant loop, right?
Go
?
you want to show that if X has the triv topology that any map S^1->X is homotopic to a constant map to the basepoint
I want to show that the fundamental group of a indiscrete space is trival
do you not see that those are the same thing?
Oh I guess sometimes this is first taught as special maps I->X
rather than S^1
an element of pi_1(X,x) is a map I->X with both endpoints sent to the basepoint x
you want to show that any such map is homotopic to the constant map
I have a problem I'm working on
don't we all?
be patient someone else is asking a Q rn sorry
sorry
This is because $f \cdot c=c$ right?
Go
what do you mean by this
The homotopy between f and c is $f \cdot c$?
Go
thats not a homotopy
thats a composition
i still don't know what you mean
in general $f\cdot c \simeq f$ is true, but $f\cdot c\simeq c$ is equivalent to $f\simeq c$ which is what you want to show in the first place.
doja max
Ooooo, I get it
oh ok lol
is it alright if I ask a question now?
I have two points on a sphere (x1, y1, z1) and (x2, y2, z2) and I want to have a quadratic bezier curve to go between them. I want the arc to go over the sphere instead of inside the spehere
I made the sphere transparent so you can see that it goes inside the sphere instead of on top of it
currently I am doing this to find the mid point for the bezier curve
midX = ((startPoint.x - endPoint.x) / 2);
midY = ((startPoint.y - endPoint.y) / 2);
midZ = ((startPoint.z - endPoint.z) / 2);
but how do I find the midpoint of the two points so that it is above the sphere
you can work out the midpoint on the sphere with some trigonometry, draw a circular cross section that passes through those two points to get started
well, actually no you don't need to do that if you already have the midpoint
just normalize the vector from the center to the midpoint
then multiply it by the radius of the sphere to put it on the sphere
yes, T_pM is (one) notation for the tangent plane to M at p
are you asking what it represents?
are you asking how to define it?
What’s T_pTTerra?
imagine only being 1 dimensional
this post made by surface gang
hey ttera what are your sectional curvatures? Oh that's right you don't even have them


is ur username some double tangent bundle meme

there
now it's a tangent bundle meme

actually cotangent bundles are cooler
😌
i am now the cotangent bundle of Terra equipped with its canonical symplectic form 
idk what that is but it sounds terrable
lmao they really gave that definition instead of just saying "union of duals to tangent spaces"
NICE
symplectic geometry seems rly cool
fancy ass classical mechanics stuff
although I've heard that apparently some huge theorem might actually be wrong 
Entire theses are written off of sentences of gromov
Cuz he doesn't fucking fill in any details
could someone please explain me what is double ortographic projction?e
I know what a ortographic projection is, but the double doesn't make sense, anybody could help me?
@gritty widget so CP^1
Tangent spaces have the structure of complex multiplication
Right?
Like they're 1d complex vector spaces
sure 
Okay so
There's this very fancy line bundle on CP^1
Line bundle means 1d vector bundle
In this case complex
Define $L = { (\ell, v) \in \C\mathbb{P}^n \times \C^{n+1} : v \in \ell}$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
So the fiber over ell is the line ell itself
It's all pairs (ell, v) where v is a vector on the line ell
And it's a subbundle of the trivial bundle CP^n × C^(n+1)
Does this make sense?
petthecat

sure i guess so
shamroc$\overline{k}$
check the errata 
Like you can cover by two affines patches
Where you normalize each coordinate
Yeah?
Turns out these are both trivial over those
So you just need to know they transform on the overlaps the same way
I ended up computing a transition function for the tangent bundle
It's just the jacobian of the change of coordinates map
Ez
Map is f(z) = 1/z
So f(x, y) = (x,-y)/(x^2 + y^2)
,w Jacobian matrix of (x, - y)/(x^2 + y^2)
wait this is wrong lol
is WA okay
Fixed
Right so
This is 1/|z|^4 times the matrix
y^2 - x^2 | - 2xy
2xy | y^2 - x^2
I go
"aha this is a complex number!"
Cause y^2 - x^2 is the real part of z^2 and 2xy the imaginary part
So this matrix is multiplication by z^2/|z|^2 = 1/(z conj)^2
But oh wait it's supposed to be 1/z^2
Fuck
I've been stuck on this for like a week mind you
today I realize (y^2 - x^2, 2xy) is not z^2
Re z^2 = x^2 - y^2
So it's actually -(z conj)^2

And suddenly everything works out
Fml
I wasted a week on squaring a complex number wrong
Such is math
oof
is ttera a bot?
yes
yes
yes

im still working on this fucking stereographic projection problem
it is like
a hydra
every time I fix one sign error
or issue with flipped orientation
Let us c
or backwards transition function
another one pops up
i feel like I am being stereographically projected
conceptually it is easy
just check it on affines/stereographic projection coordinates
but holy shit it is unbelievably finnicky
I'm guessing 15?
sorry yeah it's 15 but the statement of 15 depends on 14
so you sort of need to prove 14 too
(15 was assigned, 14 wasn't lol)
anyways, i now have a minus sign
finally got rid of that conjugation
im gonna scream

i screamed
im also just not including any computations
because they are so fucking long
i have a sage notebook
checking things work as I go
wow isn't this insightful
P.<x,y,z> = ZZ['x, y, z']
R.<xx,yy,zz> = QuotientRing(P, P.ideal(x^2 + y^2 + z^2 - 1))
X1_1 = 1 + zz - xx^2
X1_2 = -xx*yy
X1_3 = -xx*(1 + zz)
X2_1 = -xx*yy
X2_2 = 1 + zz - yy^2
X2_3 = -yy*(1 + zz)
Y1_1 = 1 - zz - xx^2
Y1_2 = -xx*yy
Y1_3 = xx*(1-zz)
Y2_1 = xx*yy
Y2_2 = yy^2 - 1 + zz
Y2_3 = -yy*(1-zz)
print(bool(X1_1 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y1_1 + 2*x*y* Y2_1))
print(bool(X1_2 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y1_2 + 2*x*y* Y2_2))
print(bool(X1_3 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y1_3 + 2*x*y* Y2_3))
print(bool(X2_1 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y2_1 - 2*x*y* Y1_1))
print(bool(X2_2 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y2_2 - 2*x*y* Y1_2))
print(bool(X2_3 * (1-zz)^2 == (yy^2 - xx^2) * Y2_3 - 2*x*y* Y1_3))
So L*\otimes L* pulls back to the holomorphic tangent bundle basically
right
except i don't know anything about complex manifolds
so
i just have vague intuit that this should be thought of as the holomorphic tangent bundle
I wonder if there's some weird sneak
Like oh knowing that they're isomorphic as real bundles and some not too hard extra condition
Gives that they're isomorphic as complex bundles
it is not easier to show they're real as real bundles
tbh
there's just a lot of places to choose the wrong one of two options
or get the wrong result out of a computation
orientation, conjugation, signs
i know there's a lot of them because ive done it wrong at every possible step
ahhhhh
anyways, i have a minus sign and I must scream
Yeah that's fair I guess. At least there are only two charts 🙃
yee
except
I chose the wrong charts to start
my original charts had the flipped orientation
so I had to redo all of these horrendous computations in spherical coordinates
Okay so I guess my conjecture that I am guessing is wrong because that's way too much plot armor is that if your iso of real bundles preserves orientation then it's an iso of complex bundles
lol
okay so
assume this is true
this is what I checked with sage
so
probably true
do you see an error in this computation?
Honestly my eyes are glossing over a bit
So what's our def of pullback again?
i haven't gotten there yet lol
that's actually the easy half
but it's the pullback as topological spaces
Or okay what's this computation doing conceptually exactly?
I just see two lines of notation
figuring out the transition function
for the stereographic coordinate charts on S^2
Oh it's just 1/z I think
do you mean the transition function as a manifold?
I'm computing the transition function of the tangent bundle
Right right
so it is that
which means it should be -1/z^2
err wait
hang on
that's what I got
wait wtf
the sign should be here
but uhhhh
won't the other one not have this sign????
okay maybe I should proceed, talking about this has reassured me
I think my computations are right at least
Does this need to be done? You know the tangent space to a point in S^2 is just the orthogonal complement of its span
...yes?
i don't see the relevance
the tautological line bundle L is trivial over affine opens
which are the same as stereographic projection charts
so my instinct is to compute the transition functions of (TS^2)' on the stereographic projection charts
and then the transition functions of L^* (x) L^* on affines
I'm just thinking you could work with the explicit description of things in S^2 \times R^3 such that blah blah blah
i did that earlier
And possibly just write down a map straight up
oh, I had that thought
like
triyng to define a global map
but I don't see it
now I even have an isomorphism locally defined
and I still don't understand it
if you can explain to me why this isomorphism exists I will be very happy
I'll think a bit and see if I can cheese it
Okay so what's the tautological bundle again? Is that just like
CP^1 is a quotient of C^2
the fiber over ell is ell
shamroc$\overline{k}$
but i think things are too floppy/differenteo-geometric to make sense of O(-1)
I thought about it
So apparently tangent bundle is O(2) or smth
right
I mean complex setting you can actually make it work I'm pretty sure
GAGA
But that's not the intent
yeah, probably
Do we have a nice explicit description of L*?
i couldn't think of one
Oh it's literally the dual space at each point so I guess like
yeah
(\ell, \ell*) where \ell* is a linear functional on \ell
so there is this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Euler_sequence
In mathematics, the Euler sequence is a particular exact sequence of sheaves on n-dimensional projective space over a ring. It shows that the sheaf of relative differentials is stably isomorphic to an (n + 1)-fold sum of the dual of the Serre twisting sheaf.
The Euler sequence generalizes to that of a projective bundle as well as a Grassmann bun...
but like
I doubt we need AG here
no i mean
an AG head told me this is morally how you should understand the iso
but it did not help me
Sloth King Daminark
Tru
also also
So okay time for the nightmare lmao
it suffices to find a map $T \otimes L \otimes L \to \C$
shamroc$\overline{k}$
probably with conditions on it idk
a bundle iso
but basically this is just
how do you evaluate
God I hate that this map is piecewise defined it makes it painful to give a description of the pullback bundle in symbols
yes
So wait what exactly is this map? In the nice case if we say S^2 is C \cup infinity
Then there's the map we like to CP^1
right so your question is really
Is this that written funny or is it genuinely different?
what is the local representation of this map
in stereographic vs affine coordinates
it is doing the thing you're thinking of
but like
there's some choices you could make
like is infinity [0:1] or [1:0]
is the north pole infinity or the south
etc
Yeah... Okay so conceptually what do we want to happen right now? If you give me a point on the sphere I stereo project to a complex number, let's say north pole or smth idk, whichever makes it work right
right, that's what it does in one of the two cases
and in the other you stereographically project onto a different plane
but get the same result
idk
I'm basically trying to think of whether in words I can say "Oh this map is just apply the bilinear form to somebody!"
But it's weird for sure lol because we're hopping between real and complex
yes
i spent a lot of time on this
before giving up and doing it locally
somehow the local proof is even worse than I was expecting
Yeah you should probably do things locally, I'm gonna go to sleep soon anyway I was just hopeful. I like giving nice one shot descriptions
👍
I mean okay let's revert the complex description of the tautological bundle over CP^1 back to the real case right?
this problem sucks so fucking bad lmao
im gonna
not do that
and actually work on this problem
let me know if there 'sa nic eproof
I wonder if duals and pullbacks play nicely
And whether you can say something like
Oh the dual of this pullback bundle is the holomorphic cotangent bundle of S^2
But they should all commute
Because f is a diffeomorphism
Yeah I was originally just working with TCP^1
But I decided I don't want to justify going back and forth
np lol
Hopefully I finish soon
I shouldn't have put this off
(it's due tomorrow)
man today was incredibly shitty lmao
Good luck. Is that your last problem?
Yup
That's something. When do you have to wake up?
By virtue of the pset or smth else?
Analysis class
Disgusting, I have one of those too next semester
I had a little bit of a meltdown in #advanced-analysis earlier
my grader is insane
I got 3/10 on a correct solution
They completely failed to understand my proof
The feedback was incredibly condescending
That's obnoxious
Yes
I'm going to go to the prof
and maybe drop the class
This is not the first time it's happened
Lol maybe your grader's just a moron. It happens
And the program dirextor is looking into the class
because of how many complaints there are with the class
And then you don't have to drop. But idk that's prob a pipe dream
Last quarter the prof addressed it and backed up the grader
If you do have to drop what are you gonna do?
But hopefully I can change her mind
Learn functional analysis in grad school and hope really hard this doesn't look bad on my grad school app
Is it past the drop deadline?
I got a 3.8 in the first quarter of this class and have like a full year of 4.0s in grad courses
So dropping this during covid times shouldn't look crazy
And yeah I think I'd get a W
Chicago gives 3 weeks before giving Ws lol, that's unfortunate
Did you start January 2nd or smth?
Ah it looks like it's only the first two weeks
That you can drop without a W
We started on the 4th
@honest narwhal I think I figured out why this problem is so fucking confusing/hard
The map f is orientation reversing
WHAT THE FUCK
Why would you do that!!!
Ended up getting the negative conjugate of what I should have gotten
It doesn't matter
I give up
help with number 2 please?
Can you do the forward direction?
no
@bleak helm
nothing
suppose X is connected? what then lmao xd
let x and y be the two points
$X \subseteq X$
Lunasong
oh
okay
now how about the other way
can we
wait
can we like
'induct'?
like just keep running over all the two points
in the space
and then take unions
(union of connected is connected)?
1 sec, sorry
That can work. Do you have an exact result about the union of connected sets being connected?
Because they must have a point in common
Do you or do you not have a result about unions of connected subspaces? Because if you don't, you can't use it without proving it first
What does it say?
If you have already proved it, you don't need to prove it again, you can just use it
Yes
.
how can i find this point lol
Just fix any point in X
Say x
Then choose subspaces that all contain x so that you can take the union to give you X
[Y_n] = {Y_i is a subspace | Y_i contains x} ?
How do you know the union equals X?
Let y be a point in X. Can you show that y belongs to the union?
ohh








