#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 189 of 1
$\tilde{f}(1)-\tilde{f}(0) = 1$
doubledual
Ohhh now I see it
but, if you use any other regular value, it's fine
like i is a regular value of f
f^{-1}(i) = {pi/2}
degree at pi/2 is 1, it works out
yeah is it because the the derivative vanishes at 1?
the derivative doesn't vanish at one
the problem is, endpoints get counted twice if they're in the preimage
but if it's a closed loop, morally it should be counted once
because morally, a closed loop is a map from S^1, not a map from [0,1] with equal endpoints
anyway i would email your prof and mention that example to him
one way to fix it is to just not double count the endpoints
Okay. Thank you. I will ask him before I attempt this one.
If I have a bundle $E \to M$ with compact fibers and a smooth map $f : E \to \R$ is the function $F : M \to \R$ given by $F(p) = \inf_{x \in E_p}f(x)$ smooth?
Shalmorc
in the case that I care about E is the bundle Gr_2(TM) and f is the sectional curvature
Hi going back to my problem here. How do I show that $\tilde{f}(s_{i+1}) - \tilde{f}(s_i) = (d(s_{i+1}) + d(s_i))/2$? Thank you
emphatic_wax
Alright so I figured out that I don't need F to be smooth, just continuous
And smoothness feels unlikely...
So by going local my question is now this:
(ty for the hmm ttera I made a typo)
Let $X, Y$ be topological spaces and suppose $Y$ is compact. Say I have a continuous function $f : X \times Y \to \R$ and define $F(x) = \min_{y \in Y} f(x, y)$. Is $F$ continuous?
Shalmorc
You can assume X, Y are actually smooth manifolds if it somehow simplifies things
hmm this feels less true now
tfw
@gritty widget so I need to find a positive smooth function on M s.t. α(x) <= sec(Π) for all Π a plane in T_x M
It suffices to find a continous one
And it sure would be nice if α(x) = min sec(Π) worked
But I don't see why it would
:(((
are there any conditions on M
i'm trying to imagine how such a function would act like on a few different surfaces
Oh shit there totally is
M is complete
I didn't think that would matter but maybe it does??
if such a function didn't exist... maybe there's something to be said?
cause like
uh
hm let me think more
i love partitions of unity so much 
some things shouldn't be joked about tterra
I have a strong emotional dependence on partitions of unity

is this a lee problem
i wanna see full context
just to make sure i'm not thinking about this in the wrong way ig
It's the last problem in IRM lol

Trying to do step 1 of the hint
pls do not spoil the rest of the problem
I've only thought about defining α so far
Have you tried looking at it on a distinguished open?
yeah
Rip I have no other tricks left

imagine not having nitro
still dont know when my nitro runs out
I think I proved my lemma
right i feel like you could do this in coords and then patch it up
but coords gross
I used to have nitro but then I stopped spending time on discord
but then I became degen again
oh hey this problem is in do carmo (without a hint-solution
)
its true
Damn the turn tables
I give you 30 seconds
You made me do it
:(
who else would buy it for me
So let $X, Y$ be first countable topological spaces with $Y$ compact hausdorff (thus $Y$ is also sequentially compact). Suppose we have a continuous map $f : X \times Y \to \R$. Then the function $F : X \to \R$ given by $F(x) = \min_{y\in Y} f(x, y)$ is continuous.
Shalmorc
Because $X$ is first countable, it suffices to show that for any convergent sequence $x_n \to x$ in $X$ we have $f(x_n) \to f(x)$
Shalmorc
This is equivalent to the claim that for any subsequence ${f(x_{n_k})}_{k=1}^\infty$ there is a further subsequence converging to $f(x)$
Shalmorc
For each $k$ we can choose $y_{k} \in Y$ such that $f(x_{n_k}, y_k) = F(x_{n_k})$, i.e. $y_{k}$ is a minimizer for $x_{n_k}$
Shalmorc
Since $Y$ is sequentially compact we can find a subsequence ${y_{k_j}}{j=1}^\infty$ which converges to some $y \in Y$. Then $F(x{n_{k_j}}) = f(x_{n_{k_j}}, y_{k_j}) \to f(x, y)$
Shalmorc
Okay so it suffices to show that $y$ minimizes for $x$, ie $f(x, y) = F(x)$
Shalmorc
If not there's some $y' \in Y$ with $f(x, y') < f(x, y)$. Choose some $c\in \R$ with $f(x, y') < c < f(x, y)$. By how product topologies work, we can find neighborhoods $U$ of $x$, $V$ of $y$, and $V'$ of $y'$ such that $U \times V' \subseteq f^{-1}((-\infty, c))$ and $U \times V \subseteq f^{-1}((c, \infty))$. Because $x_n \to x$ and $y_k \to y$ we can find some large $j$ such that $x_{n_{k_j}} \in U$ and $y_{k_j} \in V$ (in fact this holds for all large $j$) and so $f(x_{n_{k_j}}, y') < c < f(x_{n_{k_j}}, y_{k_j})$, which contradicts the definition of the ${y_k}$
Shalmorc
This sucks lol, I bet there's a much nicer proof which doesn't involve sequences
just for posterity, this is proving that if $f : X \times Y \to \R$ is a continuous function and $Y$ is compact and $X, Y$ are nice spaces (manifolds) then $F : X \to \R$ defined by $F(x) = \min_y f(x, y)$ is continuous
Shalmorc
okay so it's obvious that $F^{-1}((-\infty, c))$ is open, since $F(x) < c$ iff $f(x, y) < c$ for some $y$
Shalmorc
But $F(x) > c$ iff $f(x, y) > c$ for each $y$, and that's not obviously open...
Shalmorc
Hi. So far, I proved that f^{-1}(z) is finite. I'm still confused how to show that the sum is equal to the difference of the values of the lifts
I was also able to show this bit: $\tilde{f}(s_{i+1}) - \tilde{f}(si) = (d(s{i+1}) + d(s_i))/2$
emphatic_wax
I just need the full equality in the problem
What are the geodesics of the cylinder? Are they circles, vertical lines, and helixes?
sounds right
if you cut out a vertical line from the cylinder you get something isometric to the plane (or rather an infinite horizontal section thereof)
the geodesics there get mapped to one of those three
well that might not be entirely convincing but i think it forms the basis for a proof
if this is for the second part of that problem in lee then you can also ||take a paraboloid, say, z = x^2 + y^2. the sectional curvature at the vertex is 0, but any meridian is a line|| this is wrong, the sectional curvature of this paraboloid at the vertex is 4 (but does go to 0 as you go further up it!)
No, different problem
ah i c
I already had an example for that one
i thought "zero curvature" so i thought you were doing the other part lol
I think I have a counterexample to a problem lol
he's your prof!
23a
i don't know cut locus / injectivity radius stuff
Take M to be a cylinder
oh no worries I don't either
Here's the relevant section
So the cut locus of a point on the cylinder is the antipodal line
and thus the distance is π (right?)
I'm taking R = 1
So take p = (1,0,0) and q = (1,0,π)
Then d(p, q) = π yeah?
yes
So the only geodesic going through p and q is γ(t) = (0,0,t), right?
Like any unit speed geodesic going through p looks like γ(t) = (cos(at), sin(at), bt) where a^2+b^2 = 1
And I did some algebra and found that a is forced to be 0
Maybe that's wrong??
oh yeah so like p and q aren't conjugate points on the straight line geodesic because the straight line geodesic is minimizing for all time, I think
something like that, i'd think. conjugate points hurt my brain
Yeah so like, I know that if a conjugate point occurs then for all further times the geodesic stops being minimizing
By prop 10.32a
ahhhhhh
Confusing

okay maybe i do not understand the geodesics of the cylinder
i am failing to visualize the result of the problem
mood
but i see where you're going with it
It seems like this is a counterexample and I'm confused
Maybe I should look at like R^2 \ {0} instead
not complete
oh right lol
But the cylinder is right? It's a closed subset of a complete riemannian manifold, R^3
yes
Also all the geodesics exist for all time lol
Because I just classified the geodesics
ok so if your points p and q aren't conjugate then i'm imagining like
uh let me draw something
gonna do this in paint since i'm too lazy to get my phone
okay nevermind i cannot draw
lol
i want to say you can have two helical geodesics from p that wrap around and meet q in such a way that their tangent vectors are negatives
but like
i am not sure that's possible
yeah i don't have any ideas right now

i'm gonna go eat, gl on the problem
Yeah but like
Okay that makes sense but I couldn't find them
And also why would they be minimizing??
Like they need to have length < π
Maybe I fucked up computing the lengths...
it didn't seem like there were any errors
i'm having trouble imagining a geodesic of the cylinder shorter than just the straight vertical line from p to q
Okay so like, γ(t) = (cos(at), sin(at), bt). To go from p to q you gotta complete a single loop in the circle, so a t0 = 2πn and b t0 = π
okay i am actually gonna eat now

eating (derisive)
Hmm okay so wlog γ has unit speed and so t0^2 = (a^2 + b^2) t0^2 = (4n^2 + 1)π^2
Which is never < π...
If we choose n = 0 then t0 = π but then b t0 = π forces b = 1 and since a^2 + b^2 = 1 this can only happen if a = 0, so we're looking at a straight line
so in general like b = 1/sqrt(4n^2 + 1) and a = 2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)
Okay yeah so for each integer n we get a helical geodesic which is (1,0,0) at time 0 and (1,0,π) at time t = π sqrt(1+4n^2)
And flipping the sign of n gives a geodesic with opposite velocity
I'm 100% convinced there's an error
So you can actually compute the geodesics very easily. S^1 × R is a lie group with a bi invariant metrics, so geodesics starting at (1,0,0) are one parameter subgroups, which are all of the form γ(t) = (e^(i a t), bt)
And I did the algebra several times for when these geodesics pass through (1,0,π) if you start at (1,0,0)
blech
I think there was some author who would pay you if you found an error in their textbook
oh so there actually was a helical geodesic like the one i was thinking of?
i felt like it'd fail because of some uniqueness-of-geodesics thingy (imagining the tangent vectors at q as being tangent to the circle at height pi so by uniqueness they have to be circles...) or something
maybe i shouldn't avoid computations 
maybe i'll do this one after i finish this lie group exercise
lie groups are very nice
everything is just
do thing at T_eG
left or right multiply
what could be more nice?
Exactly
Actually maybe they aren't orthogonal...
So let γ(t) = (cos(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), sin(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), t/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)) and σ(t) = (cos(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), -sin(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), t/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)). Then γ'(t) = (-2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1) * sin(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), 2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1) * cos(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), 1/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)) and σ'(t) = (-2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1) * sin(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), -2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1) * cos(2nt/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), 1/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)), so at time t0 = π sqrt(4n^2+1) we get γ'(t0) = (0, 2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1), 1/sqrt(4n^2 + 1)) and σ'(t0) = (0,-2n/sqrt(4n^2 + 1), 1/sqrt(4n^2 + 1))
So you don't get γ'(t0) = -σ'(t0)
The z coordinates are the same (and this is geometrically obvious)
I'm glad I'm doing this because it'll prepare me well for the math gre lol
Hey
Does anyone here happen to know if the extended (or signed) gauss code of a link diagram can be written in a canonical way? If so, please let me know I’ve been trying to find a resource which shares how to do this but I haven’t found one thus far.
I feel dumb but could anyone give me a clue as to how he gets this?
I mean, the indices between the LHS and RHS don't even match...right?
This is in the context of flows, sigma is the flow generated by X.
Chain rule?
$$ \varepsilon X^{\nu}(x) = \varepsilon X^{\mu}(x) \partial_{\nu} Y^{\mu} (x) $$
MoonBears-C-
MoonBears-C-
Here $X^\mu$ and $Y^\mu$ are the vector components while $\partial_\nu =\partial/\partial x^\nu$, so I don't think it would give a delta
These indices are a disaster
I think the X^\mu in the second line should be an X^\nu, then this is an okay Taylor expansion I believe
@mystic geyser
So it's prolly just a typo. It looks like the X and the \partial have the same index as he continues with his calculation, too
I just learnt about the shape operator and I have some questions
On a surface, which direction are the eigenvectors of the operator?
Is there a way to visualize the principal curvatures and its directions?
I don't really have a good general rule for you, sorry (because I don't really understand the shape operator lol)
but I think it's helpful to look at some examples
eg the cylinder, the hyperbolic paraboloid
also general surfaces of revolution are doable and you can write down the principal directions easily
oh yeah this is sort of what I was trying to get at with my examples but I didn't know how to communicate it lol
also spectral theorem stuff tells you that the principal directions will be the vectors $v$ of norm $1$ which maximize $\langle v, sv\rangle$
Shalmorc
Oh, I see
The taylor expansion thing is new. They haven't brought that up at all in class
Most extreme curvatures makes sense
they taught me that the principal curvatures are the eigenvalues of the shape operator
and that the eigenvectors are the corresponding directions
Its still kind of hard to visualise what exactly the shape operator is doing
They say in spirit, its the derivative of n (sigma)^-1
Hi so my gf has this exercise
It’s really similar to one from harsthorne 2.7 specialized to X being Spec A
And I think her version might be misstated? I don’t know a lot about this stuff but I can’t think or any reason why it should be true
Whereas the harstorne restatement is a lot simpler to prove I think
(Hartshornes version says given A->L we get a bijection between points in Spec A and maps A_p/m ->L)
@tough imp @sleek thicket it’s ur time 2 shine
This is true I think
you know the kernel is prime as it's an integral domain
then you can embed that integral domain in different ways I think
i agree
That map is injective so it induces a map on the field of fractions of the integral domain
and by commutative algebra stuff that's k(p)
so to be clear, maps A -> L are determined by a prime p (their kernel) and an injection A/p -> L. If B is an integral domain then injections B -> L are the same as injection from the field of fractions of B into L, and fof(A/p) = k(p)
Oh I see I see

This stuff is fun honestly maybe I should be a geometer
Jk I’ll just pretend to understand A1 htpy
Max you should help me with geometry rn
I have a smooth positive function α : R -> R
I’ve seen the cursed shit ur doing sham
daily reminder that geometry is painful
(i know)
Why does the initial value problem u'' + α u = 0 with u(0) = 1, u'(0) = 0 have a solution defined for all time
pls
I need geometry
My children are starving
lmao
Have you considered homotoping it
You are both very helpful
just solve the ode 
I tried
But I was too weak
It turns out any 2nd order ODE y'' + qy' + ry = 0 is of this form up to a substitution (but maybe α is not positive anymore)
That's pretty cool
It’s cursed
for u'' + α u = 0 i think this one depends on the sign of α
but like
three cases
so it's not that bad
Hmmmst
like
α = 0 gives you a constant solution, done
α < 0 gives you something with exponentials, done
α > 0 gives you something with sin and cos, done

I'm not that bad at ODE
ODEs belong in wolframalpha
or for that one guy in #multivariable-calculus to solve
oh wait you posted in there
maybe he'll show up 
Lmfao
W|A didn't help
What if you could like
Make this into a geodesic equation or smth
Idk lol
just rewrite the proof of existence and uniqueness 
Some second order equation we already know has solutions


wolfram given alpha
okay off the top of my head i don't know how to show this thing has a solution for all time
usually if you gave me a 2nd order ode id like
try to turn it into a linear one using v = u'
but :(
so it's probably got a full worked solution in do carmo 
He says "let u : R -> R be the solution to the IVP..."
With no further explanation
lmao
i vaguely remember like
if your ODE satisfies some super specific lipschitz condition then you can extend it for all time
idr the details
something like if you can find a lipschitz constant that works everywhere (independent of time) then you can extend to all time (sounds false but it's the best i remember)
but i see no reason why that should be the case for this problem
that's all i got
oh wait you do actually get that solutions exist by introducing v = u' right?
we have the linear system
u' - v = 0
v' + αu = 0
Solutions for this exist by Picard lindelof
Locally I mean
hmmmmmmmm
I'm looking at the proof of existence and uniqueness of geodesics lol
This is how you prove that
Okay yeah Lee actually proves a linear ode thing which gives existence for all time!
smh go eat
Page is 106
The sectional curvature at the vertex is 4, right?
Like sectional curvature = gaussian curvature for a surface
And I computed that the gaussian curvature there was 4 last week lol
By surface of revolution stuff
Now I'm confused as to why the meridian isn't minimizing tho...
it shouldn't be 4 at the vertex
if it were you'd contradict bonnet myers or something like t hat
i haven't actually computed it 
uhhhhhhh
okay i might be wrong
let me be a bit more careful to avoid saying anything dum
no, you are right, it should be 4
i misspoke, sorry
See here
For curvature computation
Kk
Anyways I think you can look at like S^2 × R?
This is a product of manifolds with nonnegative sectional curvature so it had nonnegative sectional curvature too
Maybe R^2 so sectional curvature isn't degenerate lol
I think you can compute that vertical lines are lines
Oh wait actually
We did this problem last week
If G is any nonabelian compact connected lie group I can choose a bi invariant metric
oh hey i just did that exercise 
Oh nice lol
Anyways just like
If G is a nonabelian compact connected lie group
Look at G × R
This will have nonnegative sectional curvature since it's a lie group with a bi invariant metric
But it's nonabelian still so not flat
I should've known, every exercise is better with lie groups
how do you visualize a line/vector bundle over a scheme? I can't seem to find any visualization so is there like a reason for this?
Can you visualize it for a variety?
Grassmannian bundles should give you plenty of visualization for the easier cases
@sleek thicket stackexchange has a nicer proof for X locally compact Hausdorff
Also you can try to visualize O(1) @gritty widget
Wait what
So if you have an open set U in XY and some aY in U
Then you can find open set V in X s.t. V*Y is in U bc Y is compact
It follows that X*Y to X is a closed map
I don't see why this is relevant to me, sorry
@meager python I can’t visualize O(1) on projective line oops
Somehow it’s different from O(-1) idk how visualize these
Take the projective line and remove a point. Take a line disjoint from the point and project away from the line. This is a realization of O(1)
I just need to think of it as glueing together the trivial bundles on open subsets
I think O(-1) is similar but opposite
oops sorry i still don’t see it
What was this about btw?
yes
I don't see how the projection being closed proves that the function F(x) = min_y f(x, y) is continous
@meager python is this visualization of O1 correct?
Oh I think Finverse((-infty, c]) is closed @sleek thicket
You should get a twist, I think it’s called the serre twist
Oh I see, it's the image of f^-1((-infty,c])
Similarly to moebius strip
Thanks!
Yeah except it’s like an algebraic twist
But is this like good intuition though? Basically I’m trying to glue together two trivial line bundles.
im not seeing why the underlined part is true
agh wait a second hm
yea, so my understanding is that every sawtooth has to "touch" 1, so why can't we just take a basic open set of the form $$U = \prod_{x \in [0,1]} [0, 1/2).$$ Then, if $f : [0,1] \to [0,1]$ is any sawtooth, there is $y \in [0,1]$ such that $f(y) = 1$ so $f \notin U$.
kxrider
i.e. U is an open neighborhood of the zero function which doesn't intersect the set of sawtooths. ig i'm misunderstanding something tho?
Is it really clear that this U is an open set in the product topology? Since this is an infinite product of sets, I don't think this is clear
Wiki says that if you have a product like this, but almost all factors in the product are equal to the whole space (i.e. [0,1]), then that's defined to be open, but this one doesn't fit that description
agh oops that's exactly right thanks lol
Ye, and if you have open sets like that, where almost all factors are [0,1], you don't run into this problem
Naisu, I feel like I learnt something from this
What book is this?
Introduction to Riemannian Manifolds by Jack Lee
Thanks. I remember considering reading that
It's good
@chrome dew i think what the authors want to say is this actually
${(A^T)_\alpha}^\mu$
but they wrote the indices backwards
Floccinaucinihilipilificator
yeah I agree
cuz if u dont do this then the dimensions dont match up
ok thanks for giving it a look over and reminding me we are dealing with scalars
that was really hurting my head
yeah, no problem
Hi, is there a non trivial continuous function from A^1 to R ?
where A^1 is the affine space on R, its closed sets are the finite subsets
slimvesus
oh yes fk
thx
do you have an example of topological spaces X and Y and a function f : [0,1]xX -> Y which is continuous on both variables but not continuous ?
i.e. f(t, .) continuous for all t in [0,1] and f(.,x) continuous for all x in X
ty
wtf
ok then what do we get if we study homotopy but with the definition that an homotopy between f and g is a function H : [0,1] x X -> Y continuous in each variable. Thus we can see H exactly as a function H : [0,1] -> C(X,Y) where the topology of C(X,Y) is the topology of the simple convergence ?
I'm sure we can define some groups as the fundamental group
iirc the book topology and groupoids has an exercise on this and most things are degenerate
Let me see if I can find it
So this should show that the "fundamental group" of the circle is trivial
What are two schemes X,Y such that Hom(X, Y) is empty?
yeah thx @sleek thicket ! the homotopy H(t,e^2ipix) = e^2ipitx works well too imo
@meager python Spec F2 and Spec F3, yeah ?
Any two affine schemes with incompatible characteristics should work
Ah truuu, no ring morphisms
How do I go about showing that suspension is functorial. Im showing that continuous maps induce continuous maps. So I have f:X->Y and then clearly fxid:XxI->YxI or even p*fxid:XxI->SY but how do I show that there is a continuous map from SX->SY? Is there some universal property that helps here?
bc p*f ((x,0)) = point
and p*f((x,1)) = point
you can factorise by Xx[0,1]/~
(it's the universal property of the quotient space)
Ah yeah true, thanks! For some reason I thought that wouldn't work.
So now I am to show that since I've shown that suspension S is a functor that now if f:S^n->S^n has degree m then Sf:SS^n->SS^n has degree m. Well I know that SS^n=S^n+1 and that S and H_n are functors. And that by definition of degree Hn(f) is multiplication by m and now i need to show that Hn+1(Sf) is also multiplication by m but not sure how to continue
hmm ok. how does it follow that that is an isomorphism?
uh
it follows from the excision theorem
let CX be the cone of X, you have a s.e.c. 0->C(X)->C(CX)->C(CX,X)->0
which induce a long exact sequence
and we have a natural quasi-isomorphism C(CX,X) -> (CX/X,{X}) by excision
ahh alright i think i get it! thanks!
Oh I actually have proved that before for reduced homology😅 and it works here
yup
H_n+1 (S X) -> H_n(X) here we have an iso in reduced homology but since it's the classical homology in degrees > 1 I didn' t mention it
Alternatively let Y be Spec 0 haha
Any hint appriciated on how to proceed: i have f:S^n->S^n with d(f)=0 and I am to show that there are distinct x,y with f(x)=x and f(y)=-y
the degree of the map
so f*:Hn(S^n)->Hn(S^n) is multiplication by d(f)
yeah that i just figured out
Ok so now i assume that no point maps to its antipode. And i think this might then be homotopic tobidentity
-f maps x to -x?
Ahhh. So -f has a fixed point as well since d(-f)=0 and now this fixed point is y
Damn. Nice 😅 Gotta get used to these
Thanks a lot
The zero set of an ideal I is the union of the zero set of all minimal primes containing I, right?
As a set without structure
In a polynomial ring k[x1,...,xn]
Yes. A maximal ideal m (eg of the form (x-a1,...,x-an)) contains I iff it contains some minimal prime containing I
because if m contains I then the ideal m/I of k[X]/I must contain some minimal prime via zorn's




I thought zorn's lemma was obviously false
very cool, mathew
isnt zorn the one no one knows about
in that joke
well ordering is obviously false
yeah lol

If you substitute
Was lying
you get an odd degree
Like clearly you want to get size to blow up
I know odd degrees are always fucky
Umm this admits a map from a hyperbolic paraboloid
Right
Err maybe that's the wrong term
not compact
But like let u = y^2, v = z^3
oh
Then x^2 - u^2 + v^3 = 1 is a hyperbolic space
Oh yeah so there's a surjection from this onto hyperbolic space
Right?
f(x, y, z) = (x, z^3, y^2)
And the hyperbolic plane is homeomorphic to an open disk
Well that function gives a bijection with the pringle model
And it's continuous
Sorry not bijection
Surjection
yeah?
let H = { (u, v, t) : u^2 + v^2 - t^2 = 1 } and let X = { (x, y, z) : x^2 - y^4 + z^6 = 1 }
Define f : X -> H by f(x, y, z) = (x, z^3, y^2)
This is clearly continuous
And it's surjective because you can just take cube/square roots
Does that make sense moonbears?
Well H isn't conpact
Oh oof
Umm
We should be able to engineer an explicit sequence going to infinity
Okay I see
So for each y I believe we can find x, z such that x^2 + z^6 = 1 + y^4
Just take x = sqrt(y)
Err sqrt(1+y^4)
So define p(t) = (sqrt(1+t^4), 0, t)
This is a curve in our set yeah?
And |p(t)| > |t|
pringle model 
The rhs goes to infinity so p becomes unbounded, so X isn't compact
@elder yew did that make sense?
That's good
That works
This is due tomorrow and he decides to come in for tutoring on this today
Ooof
I'm scrambling to finish my analysis hw
Very very stuck
It's also due tomorrow
Nah it's okay
I'm so fukin' done with the past few days, PhD apps, job apps, writing, massive amounts of tutoring, spouse is stressed
:/
I had a cool problem at Tterra, to show if there's a vector parallel to the tangent plane on a simple surface at some point, then you can find a curve whose derivative is parallel to that
To that tangent vector
@gritty widget
Oh I also had a cool problem for ttera but then I didn't finish solving it
So I was working on a problem related to the inverse limits of spheres with surjective monotone bonding maps and needed to show a lemma, namely that for a locally connected separable continuum $X$ if for any $x,y\in X$ and any open connected sets $U_x,U_y\subset X$ we have $X\setminus (U_x\cup U_y)$ disconnected then so is $X\setminus {x,y}$ (this is not true if $X$ is not lc for example take the closure of $sin(1/x)$ in the plane).
I'm pretty sure that this can be generalised, to be precise let $X$ be a locally connected, separable continuum and $B\subset X$ be a subset with an associated family ${B_{i}}_{i\in I}$ of subsets such that:
-
the collection is closed under union and $B=\cap_{i} B_{i}$
-
for all $i,j$ there exists $k$ with $B_k\subset B_i\cap B_j$
-
for any disjoint open connected sets $U_{\alpha}\supset B_{\alpha}$, where $B_{\alpha}$ are connected components of $B$ we may write $U_{\alpha}=\cup_{r\in R_{\alpha}} B_r$ for some $R_{\alpha}\subset I$ and all $\alpha$
-
for any open set $U\supset B$ there is an element of the family $B_{i}\subset U$ s.t. $X\setminus B_{i}$ is disconnected
-
for all $A\subset X$ with non empty interior there is some $B'\subset A$ homeomorphic to $B$ with an associated family ${B'j}{j\in J}$ which satisfies 1)-4)
if all these conditions are met $X\setminus B'$ is disconnected for any subset $B'$ homeomorphic to $B$.
My attempted proof of this is found here in lemma 1
\url{https://pnkaddaj.files.wordpress.com/2020/12/inverse_limits-21.pdf }
I am still quite new at these things so I am not sure if there is a mistake in the proof, I would be really grateful for any comments
pnkadd421
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Just learned something super cool
Let R* be an even periodic cohomology theory
with a kunneth formula
Then R* (CP -infinity) is iso to R* (pt)[[X]]
and as CP-infinity is a K(Z, 2), it is a topological group
and the multiplication map induces a map R*(CP-infinity) to R*(CP-infinity) \otimes R*(CP-infinty) (kunneth)
and a choice of iso from R* (CP -infinity) to R* (pt)[[X]] gives a formal group law
and a theorem of Quillen states that the complex cobordism spectrum carries the universal formal group law
Are you familiar w chromatic homotopy theory?
ah yeah, this is the starting point which is why i ask
I like your funny words
if you want a cool thing to look at, every complex oriented cohomology theory gives a FGL and its natural to ask when an FGL gives a cohomology theory. There's something called the landweber exact functor theorem which tells you when this is possible
lizard ring 
yeah we did that too
nice
flat maps Spec R to Mfg give even persiodic cohomology theories with R0 iso to R
pretty neat stuff
ideally i think i want to do my thesis related to this stuff eventually
chromatic homotopy?
yeah
yeah it looks dope
if i can compute one homotopy group of S^0 i will die happy
heh
You can do the whole thing algebraically. There's a functor from nil Augmented R-algebras to sets which sends a map A --> R to its kernel
this functor is "representable" by the power series ring in one variable over R
with the adic topology
and we're looking for lifts of this functor to groups
which is in 1-1 correspondence with co-group structures on R[[x]]
which is the same data as a one dimensional commutative formal group law
as the comultiplication map R[[x]] to R[[y,z]] is determined by where you send x
which is some power series F(y,z)
and the cogroup axioms force all the formal group law conditions
what is an "even periodic cohomology theory" ?
and then if you look at the functor which assigns to every comm ring R the set of all formal group laws over it, it is representable, and represented by the Lazard ring
even if R^n is zero when n is odd
and periodic if there's an element in R^2 such that multiplication by that element induces isos R^n to R^n+2
for example complex K-theory is even periodic
what's a cohomology theory then
uuh
something that satisfies all the eilenberg maclane axioms
except the dimension axiom
and instead, you can ask for a functor that goes from comm rings to the groupoid of formal group laws
and if you "force" descent for etale covers
you end up with the moduli stack of formal group laws
the moduli stack of elliptic curves sits inside the moduli stack of formal group laws
i am not sure how, but I assume for each elliptic curve you just take the formal completion at the identity
can you do all that in ZFC ?
all 'normal math' is done in ZFC no?
Most normal math is done in ZFC + "I don't really pay much attention to the nitty gritty"-axiom I think
Inb4 Ultra
if a cohomology theory is a sequence of functors from rings to set, you run into some problem cuz of how that's not a small category
size doesnt matter
and I do not see the problem
but i do not know anything about set-theoretic issues
I don't remember such an axiom in the ZFC axioms
what's a nice book explaining all that stuff ?
an LCA ?
wait are you doing topological modular forms
this stuff does lead up to tmf, yes
but we arent going to learn anything about them
as there's only 1 lec left
I mean books about those K(Z,2) CP-infinity formal group laws things
and any book/article which does stuff with the adams spectral sequence ig
ah that's the authors' initials
alright, thanks I'll try to read them
that link was 268 pages
yeah that's the bigger one
Hello I need to show that sin(n) is dense in [0,1]
can someone do a demonstration for me ??
same fos cos
IIRC this boils down to rational estimates of pi
That’s all I’m willing to say cuz I forget how to do this and really don’t wanna work it out haha
do you have any precise demo zritten ?
also, did you mean dense in [-1.1]?
yeah yeah
y
blocked
🥺
@slender plank it is related to the question you asked in #advanced-analysis
||sin(n)=sin(n+2πm), π is irrational||
no the function
elaborate
ok lemme give you this final hint
|| if a is irrational then { n+am | n,m in Z} is dense in R ||
so... I guess you mean you haven't seen its proof
Rest is pretty straight forward
you can adjust the integral part of an+m as you please with m
and fractional part is dense independent of m
this is an instance of a more general fact: any additive subgroup of R is either cyclic or dense in R
and the argument is pretty much: look at the infimum of all positive elements in the subgroup
if it is in the subgroup, then you can show that it generates it
as for any other positive element, if it is not a multiple of the inf, then by subtracting you can get a smaller element in the subgroup (not exactly, but i think you can make this idea work )
if the inf is outside the subgroup
you can show that the subgroup is dense
by just "translating"
yes
same idea
Yeah I've seen it hand wavy for the circle
But never seen a full proof. I've seen it come up on quals
On my RG homework I was supposed to produce a counterexample to something
My construction started with "let G be a nonabelian connected compact lie group", and the argument works
Except I also said "eg G = SO(2)"
🤔
Oh yeah ultra I ended up not needing any of that
I'm trying to prove that a line in a smooth surface lie in the tangent plane of any of the points the line contains. I'm probably missing something obvious but I'm not sure how to proceed
For simplicity we can restrict to P^4 such that the line is the intersection of two planes
Clearly the line lies in the tangent space of the two planes defining it
just email the ta and say you typo'ed
so if $\alpha$ is any curve in $SL(n, \bC)$ with $\alpha(0) = I$, then you want to show that $\alpha'(0)$ has trace zero (after which comparing dimensions finishes the proof). try differentiating $$\det(\alpha(t)) = 1$$ at $t = 0$ and using the fact that $\det(e^A) = e^{tr(A)}$ to simplify. (i.e. find $d(\det)_I$)
parallel TTransport
any element of the tangent space is given by the velocity vector (at the identity) of some curve
what i outlined only shows one inclusion (tangent space \subset trace-zero matrices), and the other one follows from basic linear algebra
anyways a big hint for finding the differential of the determinant at the identity is || e^{tA} is a curve through I at t = 0 with velocity vector A, so by the definition of the differential, d(det)_I(A) is the derivative of det(e^{tA}) at t = 0 ||
which i've spoilered since it's basically the main idea of the proof 
well you will get that $tr(\alpha'(0)) = 0$
parallel TTransport
differentiating $\det(\alpha(t)) = 1$ at $t = 0$ gives $$ 0 = (\det\circ\alpha)'(0) = d(\det)_{\alpha(0)}(\alpha'(0)) = d(\det)_I(\alpha'(0))=tr(\alpha'(0)) $$
parallel TTransport
the second equality sign is the chain rule, the third because alpha(0) = I, and the fourth by the fact that d(det)_I = tr, which follows from the identity det(e^A) = e^{tr(A)}
curves and surfaces or rg?
have fun
so far it's fun
i just finished an RG course that did nearly all of do carmo's book
so i'll say that if you're planning to do his RG book after curves, you'll see a lot of stuff repeated
oh
just in more generality
well ig i'll just skim those parts
skimming do carmo's rg is how you die 
that's great because i want to die 
i was so happy when dover released do carmo's curves & surfaces 2nd ed
No need to worry too much about content repeating. Historically curves and surfaces stuff came first and was developed by Gauss. Riemann came up with RG as a generalization. So it's gonna help a lot to do curves and surfaces first
Gives a lot of context and motivation
ah dope
My gf was wondering if anyone had a hint for how to do this
I’ll be honest I’ve thought about this for exactly 0 seconds
So give A^4 coordinates (u, v, s, t). Then im φ is contained in Z(vs - ut, v^2 - uv - u^2 s, t^2 - ts - s^3). You can prove im φ = Z(vs - ut, v^2 - uv - u^2 s, t^2 - ts - s^3) by cases on whether u = 0 and s = 0 or whether one is nonzero
this shows closedenss
what's her definition of normality of a curve?
I don't really want to check if it's irreducible but assuming it is, the coordinate ring isn't integrally closed in the field of fractions
because (t/s)^2 - t/s = s
(basically here I solved for y)
I'm not sure how to show t/s isn't in the rign easily
Left as an exercise to the Max's girlfriend
Oh I think I see. Consider the point φ(0,0) = (0,0,0,0) = φ(0,1). You should be able to use like, continuity to argue that y isn't a function on the variety
I think you can say that on the dense open set D(x) of A^2 we have f ° φ = y where f is the function t/s = v/u, so this is true globally, which causes a contradiction
Did you use some computer algebra to get the zero set or did you just compute it that fast ;3
sham's just big brained
I just thought about relations
like the first one is sort of obvious
But im φ ≠ Z(vs - ut) because of dimesion reasons
So maybe you notice xy - x = x(y-1), and then xy^2 - xy = xy(y-1), so v^2 - uv = x^2 y^2 - x^2 y = x^2 y(y-1) = u^2 s
But then finally you see that the image doesn't contain (0,0,0,0), but that satisfies the relations vs = ut and v^2 - uv = u^2 s. The trick is that you need to say "if s = 0 then t = 0"
That one was harder but I sort of just focused on s and t exclusively
Yeah its basically relations of x, y, y-1
Was wondering if you had some algorithm or just exhausted most possibilities
I computed the second fundamental form correctly the first time with my student
Holy shit
Usually I mess up some cross product or something
I just noticed that moonbears' pfp is a frog lmao
I used to think it was a weird crab and monkey hybrid with a visor/ski goggles
Just a happy frog lookin' for a fly
second fundamental form 
yA
you take some parameterization x(u,v)
Then ya like ya know
$$ N = x_u \times x_v $$
MoonBears-C-
(normalized)
And then ya set
$$ L = - x_u \cdot N_u, M = -1/2(x_u \cdot N_v + x_v \cdot N_u), M = -x_v \cdot N_v $$
MoonBears-C-
MoonBears-C-
Lmao I thought moonbears' pfp was Kermit specifically
didn't realize it was a real frog
I'm getting bullied
@gritty widget @sleek thicket All the fancier curvatures reduce down to gaussian curvature
I think it's like
II/I for the fundamental forms
Surface area is given by
$$ \int_{U} \sqrt{EG - F^2} $$
MoonBears-C-
I mean kind of
That's what I saw in my old notes anyway
so like, sectional curvature determines the curvature tensor, and all the other curvatures are derived from the curvature tensor
Good enough for me
and like, if I have a plane Π in the tangent space at p I can push it forward via the exponential map to get a surface
and the sectional curvature of Π is sort of the gaussian curvature of the surface
but gaussian curvature only makes sense if you have an embedding into R^3
you can define an abstract gaussian curvature, but it's defined in terms of the scalar curvature, which is derived from the riemann curvature tensor
I would not say that everything reduces down to gaussian curvature
I was referring to an earlier discussion where I had asked if it reduced down to classical DG curvature
Riemannian/Sectional etc.
But it didn't seem like it did
But it seemed the notion that did end up getting generalized was gaussian curvature
Even if it doesn't all boil down to that
If $f:R^1 \to R^n$ is a smooth map, $\omega$ a 1-form on $R^n$. Is it true that the pullback $f^{*}\omega$ is exact?
Apopheniac
This is just FTC right?
Good thing I computed a bunch of pullback anyway, just to decide not to integrate at the end. lol
thanks 🙂
from appendix b of lee's riemannian manifolds book
but this is in coordinates
🤨
i would like without tensor components
defined as a map from a tensor field to a lower rank tensor field without any reference to components
i'm not sure what you're asking for, there's a coordinate-free definition right there
lee just gives the coordinate definition right after
i cant see which is the coord free def
im confusee
i see he uses components to write it out
If $$ F \colon V^* \times \cdots \times V^* \times V \times \cdots \times V \to \bR $$ is a $(k+1,l+1)$-tensor (eating $k$ covectors and $l$ vectors) then the trace of $F$ is the $(k,l)$-tensor defined by $$ (\mathrm{tr}(F))(\omega^1,\dots,\omega^k, v_1,\dots,v_l)=\mathrm{tr}(F(\omega^1,\dots,\omega^k, \cdot, v_1,\dots,v_l, \cdot)), $$ where the trace on the right is the trace of a $(1,1)$-tensor.
what a nightmare
give me a moment to fix this shit
we have trace on lhs and rhs
yeah wait
how
TTerra
the trace on the right is the trace of the tensor F
the trace on the right is the trace of a linear map (in the picture, you can see lee mentions there is an identification of (1,1)-tensors and linear endomorphisms V-> V, the latter of which certainly has a well-defined trace)
ok then i need to understand the trace of a linear map
i havent done that without matrices coordinate free :/
there's definitely a coordinate-free definition of the trace of a linear map somewhere out there
okay then let me post the part where he identifies (1,1)-tensors and linear maps V -> V
the thing on the right inside the argument of trace is a (1,1)-tensor
(finite-dimensional is important)
So when we write $$ F(\omega^1, \dots, \omega^k, \cdot, v_1, \dots, v_l, \cdot), $$ we are referring to a $(1,1)$-tensor on $V$. (The empty arguments mean you put things in there.) Under the identification given in Proposition B.1, we can think of this $(1,1)$-tensor as a linear endomorphism $V \to V$, which certainly has a well-defined trace.
TTerra
and that's why the definition makes sense
can you pls write out explicitly the trace of an endomorphism v->v?

then I think I got it
i mean there are a few ways to do so
most straightforward is to just pick a basis and take it to be the trace of the matrix 
coordinate-free would be as the sum of the eigenvalues
how can one define eigenvalues basis free
TTerra
the trace of a (k+1, l+1) tensor field will just be a (k, l) tensor field whose value at each point is the trace of the tensor at the point
its a section on the module gamma tm
i’m trying to derive einstein eqns coordinate free
all of the multilinear algebra that gets developed on a vector space transfers over to tensor fields pointwise
just a general-philosophy thing that i think is good to keep in mind
my diffgeo class is so yikes
prof follows janich’s vectoranalysis book
i wanna kms
super old approach of dg not even coord free
does lee define grad curl div all coordinate free?
ya
lee always like, gives the coordinate-free definition of something, then immediately gives its coordinate representation (usually as an exercise)
grad, div, and curl are all in chapter 2 and its exercises of irm
wish my prof did lee

i took RG out of do carmo's book and there's basically no mention of differential forms or tensors outside of like, one tiny section that never comes up again
one of my only gripes with the book
(also do carmo's notation is shit)
where can one read about spinor bundles and cartan’s approach to diffgeo?
in a self contained way
seems like spinor fields we use in qft are a highly nontrivial mathematical structure
sections of spinor bundles but idk how to define spinor bundles
it has to do with associated and principal bundles somehow but idk precisely how 😦
i don't know where you could find stuff about spinors, but i know that tu has a book on principal bundles that may be related
Stupid question, just starting learning about topology, isn’t any space under the topology (X,P(X)) a Hausdorff topological space? If so what’s the point of a Hausdorff space then? I also have the same issue with the definition of a topological space, with this topology or (X,{Ø,X}) isn’t any set a topological space? What‘s the point of these definitions of any set satisfies them?
Oh so the point is to be taking about different topologies? It‘s just that with things like manifolds I see that in the definition there‘s conditions for the existence of a topology which is Hausdorff, what’s the point of that part, if every set has a topology that‘s Hausdorff?
every set has a topology which is hausdorff, but not every topology is hausdorff, and the things only want the ones which behave nicely?
Yeah I got that
i don't see the problem
What I’m asking is what‘s the point of including conditions on the existence of a Hausdorff topology in a definition
If there always is one
oh right
So what is the point of it?
uhhh i don't actually know
Huh alright, still thanks for clearing up some things
If someone else knows please ping me
Ohhh, I get it
It‘s just that with things like manifolds I see that in the definition there‘s conditions for the existence of a topology which is Hausdorff, what’s the point of that part, if every set has a topology that‘s Hausdorff?
This is not true. There is no condition on the 'existence' of a Hausdorff topology,since as you say, this always exists so its a pretty useless condition. Instead, a manifold is a set, together with a topology that is Hausdorff and satisfies some other conditions. In particular, when asking if something is a manifold, you are already given a set and a topology on that set, and you wanna check if the topology satisfies your conditions. You don't just take a set and ask 'is there a topology that makes it a manifold', the topology is already given.
For the <= direction I don’t understand the sentence “alter the C_i by adding to each C_{i+1} a finite union of compact sets”
What is the finite union of compact sets
What are we even adding it to? C_i or C_{i+1}
Hi. Can someone tell me if I solved this correctly?
I have the set A = B(0_2, 1) \ {0_2} ⊆ R^2 where B is a closed ball
and I need to find the int, fr of A
and find if A is a closed or open set
is it correct to say that int(A) = A\fr(a)?
and that fr(A) = {(x_1, x_2 ∈ R^2 | (x_1)^2 + (x_2)^2 = 1 }
and A is a closed set?
o_2, no?
Yes
then it isn't a closed set
No it isn’t
thanks!
and one more question
if I have the set A = QxQ ⊆ R^2
what is int of A?
oh, it is {0}
yup
add to C_{i+1} a finite union of compact sets covering C_i
Why is it possible to find a finite union of compact sets whose interior cover C_i
X is locally compact. Around every point in C_i take a compact neighborhood. This is an open cover of C_i, which is compact. Take a finite subcover.
Technically the interiors are an open cover but whatever
@coarse kestrel
For anyone that has a copy of Hartshorne, can you check the statment of exercise III.2.5 on page 213? I think my copy must have a typo as it defines F_p to be j^*F but that isn't defined
I suspect it maybe meant j_*F or j^-1F but I'm not sure
For what it's worth, Springer's online copy also has j^*F


