#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 163 of 1
transcendetal + irrational may make rational
Well... if you think of an irrational as having an infinite chain of decimals without any repeating pattern (lest it'd be rational), then there'd be another such irrational that complements the first to make an even and nice integer right?
You know, like 4-pi would still be such an irrational number, and that one plus pi would be... 4
So I really can't wrap my head around an irrational for which we couldn't do that
$\sum_{i=0}^N c_i x^i = 0$ implies all $c_i$ are zero for any $N$ and trancendental x
Darkrifts:
*c_i being rational
OK YEAH I KNOW but tahhts irrelevant to the problerm actually
True, just a small digression since you mentioned not knowing them
I said I dont know their properties
but its ok
anyways, this problem is probably solvable using actual topology, fuck you have no idead how much shit I need to learn before my exams
So there’s finitely many points in each Cn?
Is that closed?
would it be closed tho
Well, are the rationals closed?
ok yeah thats closed I think
I mean we are talking topology of all R not just interval, but yeah its closed
so C_n are sets of points
So that’d be R\Q
C_n doesnt have interval
thats the characterization
Im lowkey thinking induction might work
Wait is Q closed in R?
yes
wait sorry
Q is neither open or closed
obviously actually
so same with R\Q
ok I think C_n are made of finitely many points
anyways, im spamming, I'll play with it
If it’s finite, then induction works
no thats not the argument at all
what's the problem question ?
For all $n \in \mathbb Z $ let $Cn$ be a closed boundary set in the interval $\left[n,n+1\right]$. Let $D= \bigcup_{n \in \mathbb Z} C_n$. Show there exists $t \in \mathbb R$ such that $t + D \subset \mathbb R \setminus \mathbb Q$
closed, boundary meaning closed and empty interior
Godel:
so for example, the cantor set is a closed boundary set ?
trying to think of the biggest closed boundary set i can find
Im not sure if Cantors set is boundary, probably is
Cantor has empty interior, unsure on closed
Ah ye
Since there's been a pause here again I wanna ask again, anyone know literally anything about arcpolygons or any place that is talking about them? Aside from the incredible overspecific and not so useful german wiki page I found literally nothing: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bogenvieleck
@gritty widget: BCT is good for this type of things. Enumerate the rationals $\mathbb{Q} = {q_1, q_2, \ldots }$ and note that the translates $C_i - q_j = {x - q_j : x \in C_i }$ are closed sets with empty interiors, so $\mathbb{R} \setminus (C_i - q_j)$ is open and dense, and the index set $(i,j)$ with $i \in \mathbb{Z}$ and $j \geq 1$ is countable, so $\cap_{i,j} ( \mathbb{R} \setminus (C_i - q_j) )$ is nonempty. Take $t \in \cap_{i,j} ( \mathbb{R} \setminus (C_i - q_j) )$, then $D - t \subseteq \mathbb{R} \setminus \mathbb{Q}$.
hochs:
Thanks for the answer, I'll try to understand it.
the version of BCT that I'm using here is: Countable intersection of open dense subsets of a complete metric space (in this case the reals) is nonempty (in fact dense, so you get in addition that the set of t with D + t contained in the irrationals is in fact dense in R)
I think Im getting it now... thanks, I have never really used BCT and I REALLY need to see how to use it so glad I could see your solution.
Hey guys I'm pretty new to topology and I have to get through this paper and summarize it to my boss. Can anyone help me past this hurdle here?
Given a finite covering U = {Uα}_α∈A of a space X, we define the nerve of the covering U to be the simplicial complex N(U) whose vertex set is the indexing set A, and where a family {α_0,α_1,...,α_k} spans a k-simplex in N(U) if and only if U_α_0 ∩U_α_1 ∩...∩U_α_k= ∅.
So I get that we have a covering of X called U with an index set A. "Family" seems to just mean some subset of U, but what does it mean to "span" a k-simplex?
Are you reading Topology and data?
Yeah, this is the Gunnar Carlsson paper that outlines TDA. XD Glad to see you folks caught that.
The idea here
I read that paper like 2 years ago lol
Well, its weird that they are doing this in terms of open covers
Im gonna give a more explicit tda example
So we have a bunch of points
And we want to talk about how ‘connected’ they are
But like, they are points right
They dont touch
We want to ‘thicken them’
So we take some thickness r
We will be varying r but just fix it for now
Take balls of radius r around each point
Then we have something called a ‘k-simplex’ for every set of k r-balls that intersect
So if two intersect, we add a 2 simplex
A line.
If three, we add a three simplex
Etc
Yes
Wait no
Sorry im tored
If two intersect we add a 1 simplex
If three we add a two simplex
Etc
One lower
So the ‘line’ connect the two data points
And the triangle connects 3
Etc
Then we gather all these simplexes
And we remember how the edges of each triangle
Are three 1-simplicies
And so on
Then this allows us to compute homology
And gives us betti numbers
So replace ‘balls’ woth ‘elements of the open cover’
Thats the Nerve
Okay. Now this is something I've been kinda unclear on, when everything pops out of Mapper we have something that appears to functionally be a graph. So essentially TDA is just a clustering algorithm of sorts? And isn't the degenerate "ball" that we can create with varying thickness just going to cover the whole space and so it'll glue all the points together? What's the stopping criterion?
Ok for a second
let's forget we care about persistence
Then TDA can be thought of like this
Okay. As long as we get there I'm good. XD
We take data. We make it 'topological'. We turn this topological data into simplicial data. We compute homology.
Okay sorry I wanted to be more explicit
You can blackbox homology but not the simplicial part
Ok so what I described
is called the Vietoris Rips Complex
it takes data
makes it topological by thickening it
and then makes it simplicial by looking at interesections
A simplical complex looks kinda like a graph
except we can fill stuff in
Okay so let's talk about persistence
this is normally applied in the 'make it topological' step
in particular, we choose some random thickness right?
well, we can change our units when recording data
and make it arbitrarily far or close together
So it doesn't make sense to just randomly choose a thickness
what if instead we considered
all possible thicknesses (up to some maximum)
That's persistence
You gradually increase, right?
so for every number in say [0,100]
we get a topological space and collect its simplicial data
and do homology to it
Let's think about what happening at the topological stage
at r=0
we have our points
and we add a 0-simplex (a point) for each
Nothing is connected. Stars in a void.
at maybe r=50, maybe some stuff connects, let's assume that only pairs of things connect
this is exactly a graph!
So we don't have any 2-simplexes (triangles)
but some of the points have lines between them
Homology at this stage
can tell us if we have any 'cycles' in our graph
if you know what that means
Yeah, I know graph theory. I've had literally three hours of topology. XD
Now, let's thicken, r=75
Now we have triplets connecting!
So we have points that are connected to nothing
points that are connected by lines
and then the closest points are connected by triangles
SO it's analagous to a hypergraph, edges can have three things that they connect to.
Tetrahedron, right?
(to picture this, take a sphere, and think of like a low resolution video game)
tetrahedron is 3 simplex
sphere is empty
on the inside
Oh, yes, go on.
Ok so, we learn two new things at this stage
some of our cycles from before
are now filled in
Homology now 'ignores' these filled in cycles
and only counts cycles that aren't filled in
we also have potential 'spheres' in our data made by a tiling of triangles
homology sees these, and records them separatley
If you know the terminology, this counting is given by the betti numbers
(if you dont know the terminology I just told you it so lol)
Okay so like
we can keeo doing this
at the next stage maybe some of our data connects in sets of 4
so we fill in tetrahedra
and this makes homology ignore some of our spheres from before
and eventually everything is connected to everything else (just set r to be the max distance between any two points)
This is what persistent homology measures
how connected our data is at different resolutions, and how many 'holes' and 'connected components' are in the data at each stage
So when you say "ignore" could you rigorously define what you mean? Does it literally identify the points and say "you're all the same" now or what?
This requires us to get into homology
the slogan
is that we literally just dont count them
the idea is
Homology is like, all of the n-dimension cycles that do not bound a larger n+1 simplex
Oh, cuz we only care about holes. That's now "a sheet".
so we ignore a filled in triangle because the sides of the triangle, which are a cycle
now bound a 2-simplex
(and we also ignore things that bound like, sums of 2-simplicies)
"bound"? In this context I'm not quite sure how you're using that. (My boss is SUPER precise, he won't let me get away with this. XD)
Hm
Bound as in, are the boundary of
like if oyu take a triangle
remove the interior
you get three lines
Okay. Carry on.
connected
This is more or less the full story
But we can generalize
What I just gave you wasn an assignment
for each resolution 'r'
a topological space + an open cover of that space that depends on 'r'
But the simplicial stuff
doesn't really care about how we build the open cover
or what the underlying space was
it just takes in cover data
and spits out simplicial data
SO this is the "filter" function thing.
Yeah I think thats the terminology the TDA people use
Any function that roughly maintains the notion of connectedness/distance.
It depends how much you want to generalize
if you want
we can get away with any machine
that takes in data
and spits out a simplicial complex
But that kinda is too general
what we want is a machine that does
data -> Topological Space + Associated Cover at 'r' -> Simplicial Complex -> Homology
The only steps here that we can't mess with
are homology
and data
we can do each intermediate step in any way we want as long as the output has the right 'type'
For example
Data -> Send everything to a single point -> the simplicial complex with 1 point -> trivial homology
is a perfectly valid pipeline
if useless
And the other degenerate one, stars in a void, nothing is connected. XD
To be honest, I only have a very vague idea of pipelines other than the one I just gave you
because the Nerve is the one mathematicians care about
outside of TDA
I think theres a Cech comlex mathematicians care about too but idk it
Yeah I'm actually a math grad student working for a math professor on Data Science, so he wants me to "grok" it from both sides.
Ah I see
One example I saw recently
thats worth keeping in mind
is that you can do like
as many intermediate 'data transformations' as you want
so you don't need to topologize your original data
to interpret it topologically
Like someone used TDA for financial research
but they did a few things to the data itself to make sense of 'how is the stock market topological'
I guess this has been kinda a rant
@little robin feel free to ask any specific questions
Eh, I kinda interjected where I needed to for clarification/confirmation of understanding. The rest is just implementaiton, which is the easy part right? XD
I guess most of my questions are about how to interpret results which are really outside the domain of mathematics and really back in the world of domain knowledge.
tbh
that's probably the most nontrivial part of tda
its hard to go back to the real world from the math
and you need to have a good hold on the steps to really have any intuition for the output
Here's a cute example: someone took a bunch of cancer data
and realized that at almost all resolutions
there was a chunk of the data split off from everything else
they studied these patients and their particular cancers
and found a new sub-type of cancer that had important distinctive qualities
So from an applied perspective, this is just mathematically rigorous and flexible clustering that's invariant to some traditional Euclidean "weirdness".
I like to think about it like
what properties of your data are maintained
if you don't think about the numbers themselves
but instead think about how they are positioned relative to eachother
in a much looser sense than you can do without topology
So like, you lose a lot of the info in your data
but if you get anything out of it
you really are seeing something intrinsic about the data
that's the theory I think
Okay. Thank you Max this has been really enlightening. If I think of anything else I'll pop back on but I gotta finish getting a writeup done. You have a great day. 🙂
Feel free to @ me
Thanks. 🙂
Hi, I had a question about algebras of functions.
I know you can completely reconstruct a smooth manifold from its algebra of smooth real valued functions (and vice versa). From what I can tell, to do the same on topological spaces requires the algebra of complex valued continuous functions, instead of real.
What different information does the algebra of real or complex valued (continuous/smooth) functions provide about the underlying space? More fundamentally, what's the difference between the actual structure of the algebra of real and complex valued functions?
oh interesting
i guess i'm wondering why you use complex in some cases and real in others
in my intuition the algebra of real functions contains less information than that of complex functions
so for the case of smooth manifolds, you can recover the manifold from the real algebra, and the complex algebra from the manifold
so in a sense its like they contain the same infromation? which is fine i suppose but just feels weird to me
yeah that was my thinking
in the case above, you can construct the complex algebra from the real algebra, and vice versa
but I can't imagine theyre isomorphic or anything
yeah if you look pointwise
yeah i mean if C^4 = 1 everywhere then pointwise C(x)^4 = 1
which can't happen for real functions
Jan is this summary of banach alaoglu correct
The unit ball of X* is homeomorphic to a closed subset of product D_x. Since D_x is compact the product is compact by Tychonoff, the unit ball is compact and done
Here D_x is all complex numbers z such that |z| <= ||x|
Seems pretty intuitive now haha
I didn’t get it before
but weak* topology is just pointwise convergence
With that detail it makes sense
Eh?
I mean If L is in X* then L_n -> (weak *) L iff L_n (x) -> L(x) for all x in X right?
Oh
Shit
But I mean weak* topology on X*
Not X
Ah ok
Then it’s fine haha
Cool, now just need to understand why Tychonoff theorem is true
I am so bad with aoc constructions..
Tychonoff, stone cech, Hahn Banach
All of them no make sense
Ye gH
Haha
But I can’t intuit it
I was using the term loosely
Oh lol
Ergodic theory ya
Comes up all the time
Haha why
It seems like the kind of thing u would like
Functional analysis everywhere
And it’s soft analysis
Oh haha
I feel like Z-systems are pretty geometrically intuitive
But when they talk about general group actions
My intuition flies out the window
Group actions? @marsh forge
I’ve.. never heard of powers factors before hah
Is it an oa thing?
Oh so Z actions
Wait, not invertible?
Endos
Well I guess it’s invertible ae
So doesn’t matter
they’re very common iirc cause of the ergodic decomposition
Every pmp action can be broken down into ergodic components
It’s so spooky lol
Defining measures on null sets
Oh I’ve seen a crossed products book
For c* algebras
Apparently it’s god stuff but I need the basics of c* algs first
It’s kinda like semi direct product in group theory?
I haven’t gone through the proper defintion
God I hate those
So hard to figure out wtf the action is doing
Yeah
Especially in the fully general case of semi direct products
Where it’s just any homomorphism from X To aut Y
Eric?
What’s his surname
oh i have
Ah ok
i'm sorry i didnt realize
For this, am i supposed to show $d_1(a,b) < \delta$ \xrightarrow{} d(a,b) < $\epsilon$?
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
I'm confused cause isn't $d_1:X \cross X \cross X \cross X \xrightarrow{} \mathbb{R}$ but $d:X \cross X \xrightarrow{} \mathbb{R}$
aaaaaaaaaaaaaaaa:
i.e show d_1 is continuous?
what?
Idk i'm confused
you're supposed to prove $(\forall (x, y) \in X^2)(\forall \ep > 0)(\exists \delta > 0)(\forall (x',y') \in X^2)[d_1((x,y),(x',y')) < \delta \to |d(x,y) - d(x',y')| < \ep]$
fuck
Ann:
When can you (nontrivially) have $x \in A$ but $x$ is not a limit point of $A$? Clearly, if $A = {x}$ then this is the case, but are there any more interesting examples?
kxrider:
Isolated points are interesting kinda
oh hm wait does that mean any subset of a set X with the discrete topology has no limit points? Since {x} is a open set for each x in X?
oh yea when u think of it that way...
Wait I’m an imbecile but ignore me
Limit points need neighborhoods to hit more than one other point right?
more than just the point itself
hence “other”
if {x} is an open subset of A (in subspace topology)...
it’d be a bit hard for every nbhd to intersect A\x
In a discrete Topology all convergent sequences are eventually constant
A slightly less trivial example (I.e. not discrete) might be ${0}\cup [1,2]$
Darkrifts:
Yeah a isolated point
0 isn’t a limit point there
ah yep
That's a good example, in fact that's kind of the only example
The only good one anyway
No
All the other examples are kind of the same
But yeah, a point x is a limit point of a set S if there is a sequence of points in S-{x} which converges to x
Or equivalently if x \in \bar S-{x}
In the discrete case you have that every convergent sequence is eventually constant, so the sequence must be eventually x
I showed that $\overline{A\cap B} \subseteq \overline A \cap \overline B$ and I am trying to explain why the other inclusion doesn't hold. \ \ When $x \in \overline A \cap \overline B$ is a limit point of $A$ and $B$, it could happen that there is an open set $U \ni x$ which intersects $A$ at different points than $B$, such that $U\cap A$ is nonempty and $U\cap B$ is nonempty but $U \cap A$ and $U \cap B$ are disjoint.
kxrider:
that's correct, right?
*the bar notation is for closure, in case that notation is not standard or somethin
are you just asked to explain
if you want to disprove
you would need a counterexample
The intuition is that collecting the limit points and then intersecting should capture more points than intersecting and then taking limit points
You're just intersecting more stuff in the first one
yea, ill see if i can think of a counterexample...
lmk if you want a hint
open intervals A = (a, b) and B = (b, c). b is an element of the intersection of their closures but the closure of their intersection is empty.
Yes
lol, yeah I guess. I think the result in the first sentence somehow is used to show the second result, but its not quite clear what to do hmm
the closure of A is closed, so I know that the closure of A in Y is the intersection of some closed set in X with Y (from the previous result), but I'm not sure how it follows that that closed set must be the closure of A in X (if that makes any sense).
yes
yes
hmm okay, I'll think about this
So the closure of $A$ in $X$ is the intersection of all closed sets in $X$ containing $A$. When we intersect this with $Y$....
$$Y \cap \operatorname{cl}X (A) = Y\cap \left(\bigcap{X \supset C_i \supset A} C_i \right) = \bigcap_{X \supset C_i \supset A} (Y\cap C_i) $$
and by the previous result, $C_i \cap Y$ are closed sets in $Y$ containing $A$. So hmm, now I somehow have to conclude that gives the closure of $A$ in $Y$.
kxrider:
Y n C_i are closed sets in Y containing A, but I'm not sure that all closed sets in Y containing A have the form Y n C_i.
yes
not completely sure about this question 
I thought maybe: call $A$ the subset in question (inside a topological space $X$). Suppose $A$ contains one element from each basis element. $A$ is clearly countable. We want to show that the closure of $A$ is $X$. So let $x \in X$, and let $U$ be an open set containing $x$. Then $U$ is a union of basis elements, each of which contain elements of $A$, so the intersection $(U \setminus { x} )\cap A$ is nonempty.
kxrider:
but I don't see why you couldn't have that U only contains x. In that case, the intersection would be empty.
<@&286206848099549185> 🙏
I am guessing that X just can't be the discrete topology? I'm so confused rn 
oh I am dumb. We don't care about when x is in A 🙃
consider a random point x, does every neighbourhood of x contain A? if so x is in the closure of A
if a certain one-point set {x} is open in X, then it must itself also be a basis element
@little hemlock
(in particular x in A and therefore x in cl(A))
right, and it doesn't matter whether points of A are limit points for A. Rather, every point that is not in A should be a limit point. 👍
Prove me wrong: the set E = {1/n | n \in Z} isn't compact; Let e be the distance between 1/n and 1/(n+1). Then let an open set G_n be the neighborhood of radius e/2 of 1/n. Therefore, every point of E has its own point of G = \Cup_{n=1}^\infty and G is an open cover of E. If we consider only finitely many subsets of G, then we are missing infinitely many points of E, and so there does not exist a finite subcover for the open cover G.
This is right
I know it's flawed because E is both closed and bounded, i.e. compact
Also the exercise says to prove that E is compact
Wait
Nvm
The E in the problem contained 0
So the proof is correct but it's not a counterexample to the exercise
so I've been doing a project where I want a square grid to wrap around in various ways, so I've been doing some reading. Wikipedia says this
but what about these two?
are they somehow equivalent to some of the ones in the wikipedia article?
If i do the group theory looking stuff down here (which I kinda get but not really), I get BB for the first one, which is equal to the projective plane, and AABB for the second one, which is equal to the klein bottle, but I really don't see how
basically I don't get how this works
you can use tricks like this to change them into one of the other ones
@cobalt crescent
ah ok, thanks
are there any refs that cover geodesic sprays?
Kogasa:
Can someone help me with a Hartshorne problem? I'm working on showing that if you have a morphism f : X -> Y and there is an affine open cover {Vi} of Y such that f^(-1)(Vi) is compact for each i, then f^(-1)(V) is compact for each affine open subset V of Y
I tried writing f^(-1)(Vi) as a finite union of affine opens {Uij}, writing V intersect Vi as a union of simultaneous distinguished opens D(sik) = D(tik) for tik in Γ(Vi, O_Y) and sik in Γ(V, O_Y), and then pulling everything back and using the fact that pulling a distinguished open D(tik) of Vi back along Uij -> Vi is the distinguished open D(φij(tik)) where φij : Γ(Vi, O_Y) -> Γ(Uij, O_X) is the map corresponding to Uij -> Vi
But now I just have a big messy union
Is this union somehow finite? I don't see why that would possibly be the case
I guess I'm stuck on the fact that the cover of Y by affines could be really big and the cover of V intersect Vi by distinguished opens could be really big
might just look up how to do this in vakil, feeling pretty dumb
exercise 5.8
hi guys I am working through Topology, Geometry, and Physics by Nakahara. can someone help me with exercise 5.8?
spose this might go here
define a graph to be k-embeddable if it is possible to embed it in R^k such that no edge passes through the (k-1)-simplex spanned by any k nodes in a k-clique
one sees that 2-embeddability under this definition is the same as planarity
are there any graphs which are not 3-embeddable?
to clarify: i'm considering undirected, finite graphs
and an embedding is required to keep edges straight
Yeah I think so, if it is embedable you can compute euler's characteristic and deduce an inegality on number of edges and vertices
Like planar graphs
hm
okay so
define the embedding dimension dim(G) to be the lowest k such that G is k-embeddable
dim G = 0 iff G is a single point
dim G = 1 iff G is a path of at least two points
dim G = 2 iff G is planar but not a single path
is it possible to characterize all graphs of embedding dimension 3 in this way?
is it possible to construct explicitly a graph with embedding dimension, say, 4?
hmm
i think K_n may have embedding dimension n-2 always but i'm not sure
Doesn't it works by defining CW complexes ?
K6 seems to be 3-embeddable
@west spindle There is a very nice similarity to your definitions and the definitions of n-skeletons of a CW complex
let $f$ be a continuous map from $\bR$ to $\bR$. I need to show that the set of points left fixed by $f$ is closed. Any hints?
kxrider:
there are some basic things I can see like: if A is such a set of points then f(A) = A, but that doesn't completely encode the fact that every point is fixed by f
It seems like the easiest thing to do would be to show that A is equal to its closure but I'm getting nowhere 
Oh, well I suppose you also have f^-1(A) = A hmm
g(x)=f(x)-x is continuous
The point 0 is closed
This is a very common trick @little hemlock
If a_n in A converges to x, then f(a_n) converges to x by continuity, done
${x \in \bR \mid | f(x) = x } = (f - \id)^{-1}{0}$
Ann:
damn all right, thank y'all.
All functions are continuous:
@floral gust "f, g ∈ X -> Y" did you mean f, g : X -> Y
So you can actually package this result into some others
A space Y is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal in Y\times Y is closed
That's a special case of this result, namely let X = Y\times Y, f be the projection to the first factor, and g to the second
But let's say you prove that special case
Well, given f,g:X->Y, you get a map x->(f(x),g(x)), which is a continuous map X->Y\times Y
Then your set is the preimage of the diagonal
All functions are continuous' explanation is about the most I can parse atm but thank y'all. very cool 
@west spindle Soz typo. I meant f and g are two function from X to Y
Celephinnor:
do you understand what the question is asking?
$e_N$ is the function that tells you how the group acts on $N$. Thus, if you start at $p\in S^{2n-1}\setminus {-N}$, you want to pick $s(p)$ to be the group element that takes $N$ to $p$, so that $e_N\circ s(p) = p$
Cooper's Exercise #2
Alexander's trick does not give us a smooth isotopy (only isotopy). To remedy this, I tried to construct bump functions that will try to "smooth" out the homotopy.
In particular, I did this.
Homotopy follows using the pasting lemma.
Since f, p1, p2, and the identity are all diffeomorphisms, isotopy follows.
However, smoothness still seems to be an issue.
I'm trying to prove that $f(x) = \frac{e^x}{1 + e^x}$ is a homeomorphism from $\bR$ to $(0,1)$. How does proving continuity work exactly? I know I should take some basis element in $(0,1)$ and show that its preimage is open in $\bR$, but... how exactly?
kxrider:
I mean you know that e^x is continuous
And that 1+e^x is continuous
So the quotient is
oh wow, okay.
similarly for the inverse:
ln(x/(1-x))
x is continuous from R to R. 1-x is continuous from R to R. So x/(1-x) is continuous for x != 1. ln(x/(1-x)) is continuous for x/(1-x) > 0 so x > 0 blah blah inverse is continuous on (0,1)?
Yup. I didn't check to make sure that's the inverse exactly but on (0,1) that's a continuous function by the same reasoning
a) The real projective space $\mathbb{R}P^n$ is the space of lines through the origin in $\mathbb{R}^n+1$. What does $\mathbb{R}P^1$ look like?
b) The canonical line bundle over the real projective space is constructed by attaching, to each point of $\mathbb{R}P^n$, the line that it represents. What does the bundle over $\mathbb{R}P^1$ look like?
So, by drawing a diagram, it was obvious to me that $\mathbb{R}P^1$ looked like a circle, $S^1$, touching the origin once and extending however far I liked. However I am having a slight degree of trouble understanding part b intuitively. I thought that since a line looked like $\mathbb{R}$, I could understand the line bundle as looking like $S^1 \times \mathbb{R}^1$, which would just be a cylinder. However, this wasn't right
Daniel Cann:
RP^1 isn't exactly a circle in the way that you're thinking about it, because points that are opposite on the circle are also "equal"
Oh?? What do you mean?
My teacher said that my response was, well, correct enough I guess
Well, (1,0) and (-1,0) get identified to the same point of RP^1
Because the line going through those points and the origin are the same
Well, yes, of course
Yeah, I just thought his explanation was a bit wonky, but I think I just read it wrong
fix a direction on your line, above (1,0) (for the line bundle on b). once you do a half turn, notice that your direction has been reversed
Is the completion of a metric space the same as the compactification of the said metric space?
not really, completeness and compactness are fairly different things
compact spaces need to be complete though
Are you talking about completion and compactification of the space by referring to the fact that compact metric spaces are complete ? @floral gust
Is anyone on here familiar with the theory of topological vector spaces?
I'm wondering if there's a standard way to topologize Hom sets in the category of finite dimensional vector spaces.
I'm more of an algebraic guy, so most of the theory on this subject I'm unfamiliar with.
Should I just assume the compact open topology, or is there a metric one I can invoke?
For context, I'm reading a k-theory book that just says to topologize hom(V,W) in "the standard way".
Compact metric spaces have bounded cardinality @floral gust
compact open seems the usual way @tawdry knoll
But would that be the usual way for vector spaces already endowed with the metric space topology?
Where my linear maps are going to be represented by matrices?
Like I get using compact open for general topological spaces
im pretty sure compact open agrees with, say W x V* when they are finite dimensional
convergence of matrices is the same as uniform convergence in compact sets as linear transformations
Hi, how do I understand functions as (0,0) tensor field? I dont see how they can be regarded as such
Could Someone explain please why finding Such point will prove the theorem?
This shows that the union doesb't contain any open set
Thus has an empty interior
Since the interior is an open subset
take a point which isn't {1,-1}. show that eventually the sequence is epsilon far from your point
it shows any other point is not in the closure
except possibly for points in A
more directly, it shows the complement is open because for any point you can find an epsilon neighborhood which is still in the complement
but you aren't trying to show the complement is open
you're trying to show you got the full closure
okay sure that works
yeah
I am a high school math enthusiast who is unsure where exactly this question belongs, but does it make sense to generalize the idea of an n-dimensional sphere to non-integer values of n? Like a 1.5-dimensional sphere for example?
what do you want that to mean?
I don’t know, I’m just curious how it would generalize. Maybe something like a fractal sphere, but I don’t know what that would be
This is more so just a question being asked out of curiosity
generalizing doesn't make sense if you don't know what properties you're trying to generalize, or what you want the generalization to do
Okay, that makes sense. I guess I need a more rigorously defined question, but I don’t have enough experience to know what rigorously defined aspects I would want to have
I was more so curious as to whether or not there was some frame that had been thought of that did try to make sense out of such an idea. Maybe something along the lines of the volume equation, and one of the properties that this object needs to have is that it’s measure is the same as that volume formula predicts it would have
one way of generalizing dimension is as you say, vol(kX) = k^d vol(X)
but what's unclear is how you would generalize sphere
Yeah, I was curious if there existed some geometric object that would sort of encapsulate various generalizable aspects of spheres to get to a definitive shape that you could call for example, a 1.5-dimensional sphere, or does that not make too much sense in the study of fractals?
idk what you mean by various generalizable aspects of spheres
Things like the volume equation. But I don’t completely know if the question makes sense either. I was just sorta wondering if it did make sense in some sort of frame work. Is there something you could integrate that had the same sort of form as integrating over an n-dimensional sphere, but was for a non integer integral. Maybe you could use a fractional integral to find a function that would give you the equivalent to finding the volume of an n-dimensional sphere given different boundaries(similar to integrating (1-x^2)^1/2), and perhaps that could be used to get a sense of what an n-dimensional sphere entails?
if you look here, it has a little bit about what you're talking about https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unit_sphere#Fractional_dimensions
In mathematics, a unit sphere is the set of points of distance 1 from a fixed central point, where a generalized concept of distance may be used; a closed unit ball is the set of points of distance less than or equal to 1 from a fixed central point. Usually a specific point h...
alsohttps://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1783732/is-a-hypersphere-of-non-integer-dimension-a-fractal
Thanks to the gamma function the formula for the surface of a unit http://mathworld.wolfram.com/Hypersphere.html
$$
S(n) = \frac{2 \pi^{n/2}}{\Gamma(n/2)}
$$
allows to calculate the surface of a
Thank you I’ll try reading up on these in the near future, hopefully tomorrow if I get homework done, it’s getting kinda late and I probably have school tomorrow(tho I may have a snow day or delay), so I’m going to bed. Adios
@sick elm you can think of it in the context of differential forms if you want; for a C\infty function f, df is a one form that acts by df(X) = X(f). Since d in general increases the degree of a form, it's as if the function is a zero form that has had its degree increased to a one-form. Since forms are tensors, f is thus also a tensor -- of rank (0,0)
Why are separable spaces called separable

To hell with you all, scum



is being able to specify balls everywhere equivalent to defining a metrization of your topological space?
Urysohn's metrization theorem. This states that every Hausdorff second-countable regular space is metrizable.
But then again I don’t really know of any examples spaces that aren’t second countable
the discrete space is not second countable for like R
hey guys, i have a question in #help-7|zen1thxyz , it's about measure theory so i don't even know if this is the right channel to ask..
could you take a look? thank you!
Hey, I need some help with this one (differential geometry). I'm thinking that we can use the hint and state that f(s) has a local maximum point at s_0, so f''(s_0) < 0. I understand that I have to differentiate f twice to get the formula for f'' in terms of alpha, but tbh I dunno what to do
Is this proof correct?
What's taken as S_n doesn't match how S is described. For example the set {2,3,4,...} satisfies the condition for S but I don't see how any S_n can be equal to this set
In fact, why is there a need to introduce a set like that in the first place? Can't we just say that $S_k$ are all the S in $\tau$ and from the property that for each k, $N - S_k$ is finite prove that this is a topological space?
Never Sacks:
,rccw
I don't really understand your question, please elaborate
Never Sacks:
So there should be some $S \in \tau$ for which $\mathbb{N}-S={1}$ , right?
Never Sacks:
In the proof from what I can see they treated it like all $S \in \tau$ can be written in the form $S_n$
Never Sacks:
But for none of these $S_n$ is $\mathbb{N}-S_n = {1}$
Never Sacks:
So not all $S \in \tau$ can be written in the form $S_n$
Never Sacks:
Instead, why can't it be done like this:
I number all $S \in \tau$ as $S_1, S_2, S_3, ...$, so that I can say $S_k \in \tau$ for any $k \in \mathbb{N}$. Then I proceed the way it's done in the second part of the proof by replacing $S_n$ with $S_k$ without having to introduce that union thing that defines $S_n$
Never Sacks:
Was that elaborate enough? @gloomy plover
Okay yeah I see your point
I don't know exactly why they introduced S_n in the way they did, it seems rather arbitrary
All functions are continuous:
neither is maximal, and they are compatible
Oh nvm,... the maximal atlas would contain both of them
Does this go here
i don't understahdn why some pairs of committees cannot meet during the same period
Person 1 is on both committees 1 and 2
what does it matter if a person is on two teams
They can't be at both meetings at the same time?
@gritty widget UWU yo
Let $A = {\left(0,-1\right), \left(0,1\right) }$ and $B = A \cup {\left(1,0\right)}$. Show $S^1 / A$ and $S^1/B$ are both Huasdorff and they aren't homeomorphic
Godel:
actually knowing this I need to do the other problem: Find a closed set $X$ in $S^1/A$ and a continuous $f : X \to D^2$ onto the boundary of disc $D^2 = {\left(x,y\right) \in \mathbb R^2 : x^2 + y^2 \leq 1$} such that \left(S^1 / A\right) \cup_f D^2$ is homotopy equivalent with $S^1$
Godel:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
And to the part 1 whats the ideal way to show they arent homeomoprhic?
is there an easy fast way here? Like components or sth
you can remove a point from $S^1 / B$ and turn it into a space with 3 components, but you can't with $S^1 / A$.
hochs:
yeah thats what I thought
with S^1/A you can make it at most 2 right
sure
yeah so thats pretty mcuh what I wrote on my exam, but the 2nd part I don't have a clue
Also $S^1 / A$ is figure 8 so there's an obvious way to turn your identified space into something that is homotopic to $S^1$
hochs:
namely, take $f$ to be the map that sends a trace of an arc from $(0,1)$ to $(0,-1)$ once around the boundary of $D^2$
hochs:
then in the identified space $S^1 / A \cup_f D^2$ you can "collapse" into a point one of the holes in figure 8
which is homotopic to S^1
hochs:
hmm thanks, I'll think about it, I think I dont understand the \cup f thing yet

kevy you need a hug?
Hugs are not topology or geometry
yes they are
I am a bit confused with this question. Specifically, for the forward direction, let us consider U as a manifold and i(U) as U as a subset of R.
Then a map f : U -> R is smooth iff f o i-1: i(U) -> R is smooth (calculus sense). But from this all I can show is f o i-1 is smooth (calculus sense) not f: U into R (calculus sense). Moreover, it is impossible for f:U -> R to be smooth (in calculus sense) since U is not a subset of R.
Now ofcourse over here I was treating U and i(U) as separate objects. Am I correct to think that in the question they're being considered the same thing? So f:U -> R <=> f: i(U) ->R ?
a map between manifolds is smooth if it is smooth when expressed in coordinate functions (because for a general manifold, we define smoothness based on the normal calculus definition of smoothness for functions R \to R); the inclusion into R is a map U \to R which can be thought of as a parameterization of the mfld U
So when he says show the map f:U -> R is smooth what he actually means is that f:U -> i(U) -> R where i is the inclusion map?
What is/how do I find a planes "normal form" or "hessian normal form"? I'm trying to create a plane using: https://github.com/brauls/random-geometry-points/wiki/Creating-geometry-instances
Hi again, back with another question
Let $X$ be a vector field on $\mathbb{R}^2$. Assume $X_p = 0$.
1.) Show that there is a well-defined integer $\mathrm{ind}_p X$ given by the degree of the self map $S^1 \to S^1$ determined by traversing a small circle about $p$.
2.) Find a vector field $X_n$ such that a.) $\mathrm{ind}_p X_n = n$, and 2.)$(X_n)_p = 0$, for each $n \in \mathbb{Z}$.
ZaiD:
I've been trying to look for a definition of degree of a map since the concept hasn't been discussed in class.
Nor is it in the text, it seems (Tu).
Given a map S1->S1
there is an induced map on homology
Z->Z
all maps of this kind are of the form x\mapsto nx
n is the degree
You can show that the htpy classes of maps S^1->S^1 are fully determined by this n
Yeah thats why I did homology
bc the normaly intro is pi1
and it still works
for pin
but its gross
homology is cleaner for the Sn version
Let $d(x, A) = \inf{d(x,y) \in \bR \mid y \in A }$. Prove that $d(x, A) = 0$ iff $x \in \overline A$, the closure of $A$.
kxrider:
So, I came up with this argument for the case when x is a limit point of A (but not an element of A). Idk... it seems correct but it might be kind of cumbersome what do y'all think?
kxrider:
<@&286206848099549185> 🙏
Stodge:
um ye thats what B(x, \epsilon) is by definition.
I don't think that's the best definition
Stodge:
this argument will work for any complete metric space, not just R
and yeah, open balls of radius e around x are just all points with distance strictly less than e from x
so you can make this more general
If you aren't told that A is a subset of the real numbers, I wouldn't assume it
and same with x being a real number
ok yea i see ur point, ill delete that. However, im more concerned about everything after "Let l = inf{....."
I don't think anything is wrong, but it seems like there should be an easier way to argue this idk 
It's also weird that you suppose x to be in the closure of A, but not in A. What if A is closed?
ugh true.
I mean, other than when A is closed, its not weird, its trivial because d(x,A) = d(x,x) whenever x \in A.
cant you just take x in boundary of A, for 1/n you can find y in A with d(x,y) < 1/n, then take the limit for n -> inf
yea, i like that... I wouldn't have thought to do that.
d(x,A)=0 iff you can find a sequence of y[k] in A so that d(x,y[k]) approaches zero. This means x must be the limit of this sequence, and so x must be in the closure of A. If x is in the closure of A, any sequence of y[k] in A approaching x will show that d(x,A)=0.
That's how I'd show it, at least
(I'm not sure what bits of information you are allowed to use for this proof)
honestly, im an analysis noob, so im not always good at making those kinds of connections. quite cool tho
Can you take for granted that for a decreasing sequence, its infimum is its limit?
yea, thats monotone convergence theorem.
By contradiction, suppose it is not a limit point
There is some eps ball containing x that does not meet A
That gives a lower bound on d(x,A)
Contradiction
This works and is cleaner
For the case of backward implication, it suffices to prove that d(x,A) is a continuous function. Since we have that A ⊂d⁻¹({0}) and since d⁻¹({0}) is closed (preimage of a closed set), we have that Ā ⊂d⁻¹({0}) as required.
Wow thats so clean...
The set of n×n doubly stochastic matrices is a polytope in R^n^2, right?
How would you find the vertices that are connected by an edge to a particular vertex?
As I understand, the vertices are permutation matrices, so what would two adjacent permutations look like?
empty set is a subset of {a}
oh it is empty
should be {a}'
and then b
but yeah
let me think harder
that's the question right?
if it is
Yeah, you can come up with more counterexamples by just embedding this space into another one right?
that's what I understood
I don't understand what you mean
I interpret this question as being "is the essentially the minimal counterexample?"
you're asking if it's the only thing that can go wrong, right?
ok im confused
add an extra element to the set?
{0, {a,b,c}}, A = {a}, A' = {b,c}, A'' = {a}
Kogasa:
oh by ' you mean
ok
i see
{0, {a,b}, {c,d}, {a,b,c,d}}, A = {a,c}, A' = {b,d}, A'' = {a,c}
no you're right
the one before doesn't work
because that's not what ' means
Kogasa:
ok what does ' mean
are you allowing elements of the set
or just sequences that aren't constant
Kogasa:
oh but the point is it satisfies what you want
still
okay sure
right so the question is if this is the only thing that can go wrong
and idk im kinda ditzy apparently
cuz everything I write is slightly wrong
it's the interesting question
it is?
what exactly do you mean
Kogasa:
Kogasa:
yeah any counterexample is going to have some U - {x} not open and you can just remove everything else and get that one
All functions are continuous:
Notice you could do this with anything by restricting the domain enough
@gritty widget
Ah ofcourse ofcourse. If I want to work with this strategy I have to construct a function f from |R² to |R such that f⁻¹(0,1) = S
For this one, the argument does work right?
And I ended up doing the previous one by this.
Token:
umm that is loterally the opposite of connected
there shouldnt exist such U and V if X is connected
(assuming they mean disconnected) that is true
you can equivalently define disconnectedness (of a space X) as "there exists a nonempty proper clopen subset of X"
(I'm proving the forward direction first)
remember how closure plays with inclusion
All functions are continuous:
I dont really know what my question is
But can anyone give me an idea
Of what the fuck this space is
And why it works
yo what is an example of relation ~ on interval [0,1] with euclidean topology such that [0,1]/~ isnt Hausdorff?
would collapsing rationals to one point work?
yes
thx, yo what would be example of topological spaces (X,T) and (X,T') such that id: (X,T) -> (X,T') is continuous but id: (X,T') -> (X,T) isnt?
just make T' a much coarser topology than T
Help plz
hi i saw the channel description
can i get help on this echo in water problem pls
the submarine
I wouldn't call a vehicle a chamber
plsss ineed help
plsss use another channel
its not funny to do it when u know what it is
prof defining cohomology
I miss those blackboards
they still exist
where’re you at these days, r/j?
Back in Delft
What do you call a process of making friends? Homieomorphism
@fading vale you cant just @ me like that here
An @ in this channel makes me so excited
can anyone help me with an undergrad topology question?

@coarse kestrel
I know I need to take an open subset U of XxY and show i^-1(U) open in X but idk where to start
I tried using the projection map to get some kind of composition of functions but that doesn’t seem to be useful
whats a proof
So the idea here is this
Or wait first off regarding the projection map
Do you know what a quotient map is?
Just think abt the subspace topology?
@honest narwhal this is assuming we only know about subspace topologies, basis, and continuous functions
Do you know about continuity at a point?
And in particular, that a function is continuous iff it's continuous at every point?
You don't need the projection map to do this :?
You don't need it but it's faster lol
is it
Err I was thinking of it the other way actually
Like there's a universal property of quotient maps
If f:X->Y is a quotient, a map g:Y->Z is continuous iff f o g is continuous
But we can't quite use that here
In any event so, take x_0\in X
Give me a neighborhood of (x_0,y_0)
There's gonna be some U\times V contained in that neighborhood since those guys generate the topology
i feel like its easier to just liek, think for a moment abt what the preimage of a subset under the inclusion map actually is
Then U is a neighborhood of x_0 whose image is contained in that neighborhood N of (x_0,y_0)
So gg
¯_(ツ)_/¯
idk i feel like its pretty obvious that if ur taking the inclusion map from like A to B or whatever and u take U subset B then ||i^{-1} (U) = U cap A||
and once u have that its like...
lol
basic property of the subspace topology
that seems like the most direct approach
Not quite that simple, thing is there's the topology on X just in space
And there's the topology of {(x,y_0) | x\in X} as a subspace of X\times Y
Like there's not really much to the proof that these are homeomorphic but that does require a few words
It's not even that, in a point-set class if you just wrote that down that wouldn't suffice lol
Like you need to talk about the product topology on X\times Y
Sure, neither was what I said lol
ye
Point is you gave the part of the proof that didn't have content
well yea i wasnt trying to give the full proof
all i said was "its pretty obvious that..."
It's not even the full proof lol, more like
The actual meat of the problem isn't in that
It's like the computational analog of, someone gives you a square matrix and asks you to show it has full rank, and you just say "Oh just follows by rank-nullity"
But the point of the problem was to show that the kernel was trivial
I mean you kinda did say "Just think about the subspace topology" as if that was pretty much the point
The subspace topology is not what's relevant
well which subspace are you referring to?
wait
are we still doing that X->XxY is cont?
This is very easy if you know the basis for the topology on XxY
What is a preimage of UxV? Compute it directly
There are two cases
either y_0 is an element of V
or it is not
Can you do it now?
Not really. Sorry
I've been trying for the past hr lol
Every x
gets mapped to (x,y_0)
if y_0 is not in V
can anything get mapped into UxV?
I'm just not following sorry. I'm gonna just go reread some definitions in the book and see if i can restart from the top and figure it out. Thanks tho
@marsh forge
huh?
Assume
f(x) is in UxV
that means (x,y_0) is in UxV
if y_0 isn't in V
is this possible?
Do you know the defn of preimage?
So apparently it is possible to construct a nonempty perfect set with no rational points
which means this proof is wrong:
Yeah this is a Rudin chapter 2 problem
did you see what you did
The fuck was i doing with epsilon
The proof is confusingly put together, put i don’t really see the falsehood in the reasoning
I think I meant to define epsilon to be 2r-h
ok it's a bit weird to work out what it's supposed to mean
looks like p isn't fixed and you treated it as if it was
Does this not show that for every neighbourhood of a, there exists a rational point p which has a neighbourhood containing E and therefore x
Oh
where do i treat it as if it was?
for p to be a limit point of E, every neighbourhood of p needs to contain a point of E (different to p)
(which is done for fixed p)
Oh
So I could have chosen a different p for each r
and the proof would have failed
yes
Yuhhh
Jon I remember when you were just a noob
you're just like me except you're actually succeeding on your own
🗿
np
I took a break from the “flashy” stuff, so to speak
I never really developed proof-making skills
Tbh same
I'm just too unmotivated to actually do any math
so I just know bits and pieces from the few areas I've explored and that's pretty much it
can't do much
I figure it will be much more rewarding to learn things like algebraic geometry etc. in a more rigorous way
Oh for sure.
My main goals right now are elementary differential geometry and algebraic topology.
Kinda far away from where I am right now
lol
Lol yeah
"differential geometry" stahp
el christoffe
Token:
Oh ok
Idk why youd use an eq relation
And?
The image being oath connected doesnt help
You should try
Sure
I would suggest
Token:

