#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 162 of 1
can you find the place where they define the boundary of a cell
Sure
look at the picture, you have two hemispheres and from the perspective of each hemisphere one goes around clockwise, the other counterclockwise
and the orientations
so basically for one, the boundary is oriented “along” the orientation of the hemisphere, for the other “against”
which is basically the analogue to being in front/back of the line
Oh you mean, to find d2 u1 I should look from above
and for d2 l1 I should look from below
intuitively, yea
Ahhhhhhhhh
actually, you have to use those ugly degree computations there, which’ll give you the same result ultimately
because for one you have a disk with positively oriented boundary (degree 1) and for the other one negative (degree -1)
so much for “intuitive”
I mean like, it is intuitive to me in these cases
but Δ-complexes are way easier to introduce imo cause you just have like, triangles
So I perhaps you use the same look from above look from below for d1 as well?
and the boundary maps are super easy to define on the Δ complexes
yeah but is there any iNtuItIoN, the part that sucks is almost any algtop book introduces homology using simplicial
@midnight jewel One last question, why wasnt d1 u1 = u0 - l0 instead of l0-u0?
can I just say because it is that way and not the other way
I’m pretty sure it would all work out fine if you (consistently) flipped all the signs
Oh so the orientations at d1 doesnt effect the orientations at d2?
In later at the homology computations part
I’ve just lost all intuition for signs of 1-simplices sry&thx
):
I don't understand that theorem cuz I don't know what those S(n-1)(alpha) and S(n-1)(beta) are
we have cells labelled as e^1_alpha and e^1_beta (In my case it will be e^1_alpha = u1...). The boundary of these is called S^0_alpha
to compute the degree you need to choose some orientation for all those boundaries and all those complexes ?
Yes
concretely, what is an orientation ?
you have to peel at so many definitions to understand the thing completely lol
Not sure, but I think you can define initially the degree of maps from S1 to S1 by defining it to be deg(f) = !f(t+1) -!f(t) where !f is the lift of the map. Denote the orientation to be positive if the degree above is positive. From there maybe build the definition of orientation inductively
Thinking out loud
Ok
So I have a vector bundle of dim n over some connected top space B
So we have R^n -> E -> B
Then we can define a new bundle Ehat whose fibers are collections of orthonormal bases
for the original fibers
this can be topologized by the correspondence with O(n)
Then BO(n) will classify this bad boy
so let's say I start with an O(n) principal bundle
Oh, no, thats not what Iw ant
what I want is to recover a vector bundle
up to iso
once I've taken its o-frame bundle
Say we have a Convex Polytope in k dimensional space is there an efficent algorithm to determine if a point is inside the polytope?
I am trying somethign out but literally the only things I see people talk about are planer polygons and at most R3.
It feels like the naive thing shouldn't be that bad?
My gut says just testing if the point is in each supported half space from the constraints of the polytope
but that is generally a O(kn) cost with k being dim and n being number of half spaces
The downside is that I am looking at k~n~1000
I was wondering if there was an algo that made at least one term logarithmic or at least sqrt
Is there a standard notation for one-point-compactification?
Yes
Makes sense
And then theres a standard topology on that
Can I just say this is the first time I've ever seen an accented character as a variable
$\sin è$
Icy001:
this is the wrong channel
Can someone explain the note that part where a and b are 1-cells and alpha is the two cell and the bracket denotes the equivalence class? How does the "note that" implies "so that"?
should I learn analysis properly before topology?
some analysis is nice i guess, but mostly to obtain the required mathematical maturity
to me, my topology class was taking the good parts of real analysis and then going from there
@raw sedge No need. I would say my analysis got complemented more from topology than topology got complemented from analysis.
thanks
do y'all know a good textbook to begin from? preferable something motivated rather than dry
Munkres for text. Topology of surfaces for pictures
i feel munkres is kinda analysis oriented with the later chapters before the alg top part
as a different suggestion as munkres is the standard: i enjoyed topology: an introduction by waldmann
but maybe that is because i know the author
counterexamples in topology is nice too once you get the definitions
yeah, good suggestion to have around
@floral gust
Can you send a pic of the cw complex
I think I know what its saying but I would like to be certain
Ok cool
Have you written down the computation and seen why the algebra works out?
like if you write down dalpha
Yes I know why the boundary maps are they way they are. I just dont know why "note that" implies "so that"
take a negative 1 out of the LHS
you get -(a+b)
then the two chains in question differ by a boundary (dalpha)
If two things differ by a boundary at the level of the chain complex
they are equal in homology
Yeah that much I inferred from the statement by assuming it is true. I just want to see a demonstration of why that actually is true.
Think about what homology is
you take a quotient
by the image of d2
so "differ by an element of the image of d2"
means "equal"
ohhhhh true true...
The canonical CW structure obtained by identifying opposing sides of 1-torus (isomorphic to S1) is 1 0-cell and 1 1-cell.
Similarly, for 2-torus we obtain, 1 0-cell 2 1-cell and 1 2-cell.
Similarly, for 3-torus we obtain, 1 0-cell 3 1-cell and 3 2-cell and 1 3-cell.
Does this claim generalise? That is the number of cells in the k-th skeleton of an n dimensional torus equals n choose k?
That would not surprise me
But you can also just try to prove it
Inductively
You know the cw on S1
So you can compute the obvious cw on the n fold product
Also its important to note that bc everything we are doing is only canonical that the question is telling us only something about the cw on S1
Like we dont make any choices after that so its really a question of arithmetic
True true. I mean yeah the main purpose of homology is just to calculate the groups which I can just do by using the Kunneth
what's the intuition behind the types of space where connected iff path connected?
what property of R^n and C^n is it that makes this so, intuitively?
What makes irrational plane to be path-connected in R^2 but not the rational plane? If its merely uncountability than is it true that dense uncountable subset of path-connected spaces are path-connected?
We can construct paths in the first
But not in the second
We can only guarantee that complements of countable sets are pc
Because we can demonstrate by contradiction that it is impossible for such a removal to kill all paths
The latter can be seen bc Q is a totally disconnected subspace of R
So does the claim generalise then I suppose? Because removal of countably many points cannot kill all paths and thus uncountable dense subsets of pc are pc
oh ffs true true
Thanks
But I mean the unit circle is uncountable
Oh right I should have phrased as complement of countable
Can anyone pls help with the intuition behind this
@orchid forge a universal cover is a simply connected covering space
i dont get what the space is
ah you are gluing it to itself
the circle is identified on itself
so I wouldn't describe it like that
anyway what's the fundamental group you computed?
generated by a, right
so now the universal cover will be 3 copies of the space glued together
do you recall the construction of the universal cover?
read through the proof
that every nice space has a universal cover
the construction is fairly explicit
essentially it's the space of paths in your space
where going along an element of the fundamental group takes you somewhere else
so it's like (point, element in fundamental group)
yes
gluing means that, if you take the boundary out, then your thing is contractible so it's homeo to its 3 fibers in the universal cover
and those three have their boundaries glued
yeah it's a compact simply connected surface so it has to be the sphere
wait
is this thing a surface
it should be
oh
no
of course it's not
no surface has fundamental group Z/3
so yeah it's gonna be something weird
i can't tell, it's not obvious
i think it's like 3 bulbs
joined at a point
nah not that
im rusty on this stuff
but you should definitely go through the general construction first
and then speicalize
for this one uhh
i guess it's this one
so the question is how did I come up with it
and again the answer is the construction of the universal cover
the construction is more general
basically you have n copies of your point
and loops which are nontrivial on the fundamental group are now paths connecting different points, right? since that's how deck transformations work
so we're gonna have 6 points and a bunch of paths
I chose a presentation where b has order 3 and a has order 2
but this is arbitrary
so each point has 4 paths going out
because it has to be locally homeo to the figure 8
b forward, b backwards, a forward, a backwards (not drawn)
a backwards are just parallel to the drawn a
and you can see by my labeling that there's an action of S3 happening here that respects the quotient
so it's what you want
I don't remember where I saw the construction for a general group
rather than just for the universal cover
but you might be able to find it
i'd read the trivial group case first though, which is the construction of the universal cover
you might be able to figure out how the general one goes
also
I sketched out the first one
and I think you're right
it's a sphere with a slab in the middle
where the two hemispheres and the slab are the triangles
there's a twist happening though
so the projection isn't just taking a line through them
i think
should be a rotation involved
but yeah that seems right
Got an A in topology. Thanks everyone for their help!
Special thanks to @marsh forge.
congratulations
How would you map a cube to a 3-torus?
I need the mapping to embed periodicity into a representation of a unit cell of a crystal
the specific 3-torus would be a unit horn torus
Why is this channel the 'liquid echo chamber'?
@dim meadow
Huh?
Can someone compute me tangent vector from this definition? I don't get it.
Let:
r(t) = (t, t^2 | t in R)
v = [1,1]
x = (2,4)
I'm taking algebraic geometry next term. Do you guys have some suggestions for material I should review before taking it to help succeed?
What book is it using?/what is it covering?
@honest narwhal Hartshorne
You should have commutative algebra down well, some basic category theory
And probably you want to get an idea of how sheaves work from elsewhere
Okay, I'm moderately comfortable with commutative algebra
Apparently there's a notion of an "Etale space" that has to do with sheaves and which Hartshorne uses a lot without being explicit about it
And it may or may not help to get an idea of singular cohomology
Disclaimer: this is mostly hearsay, I'm also gonna start schemes next semester
Okay, I'll look into this stuff. Thank you
you probably want some basic homological algebra down as well (for ch 3 hartshorne and onwards). derived functor formalisms especially.
@gritty widget any resource you'd recommend for homological?
I'm guessing just the appendix in eisenbud
I'll actually be taking a class on homological algebra next quarter using Weibel!
Though that's far more than what you'd need for Hartshorne
Also semester not quarter
@red atlas : weibel's intro to homological algebra is a student favorite, but gelfand & manin's methods in homological is good too. If you're feeling particularly ambitious there's Categories & Sheaves by Kashiwara and Schapira
There's no need to know "everything" in these books. Hartshorne also goes over the basic facts about derived functors. For a lot of the concrete exercises you'll do in Hartshorne, you'll most likely work with noetherian schemes and hence cech cohomology is good enough
(cats and sheaves by kashiwara and schapira also subsumes derived functors in the treatment of derived categories in one go)
Just bought one of Cliff Stoll's tiny Klein bottles as a Christmas present for myself
Gonna make it into a necklace with a Möbius loop haha
The Klein Stein is my fave haha imagine getting drunk out, off rather, of something with 0 volume
So, I'm looking to find the packing efficiency of 9-D hyperspheres. I know I know it hasn't been proven yet - but I don't need an exact number, I need a close approximation
I've been thinking about running tests on various sized radius spheres in a hyper-cube space and seeing what it might be through brute force
my question is - has anyone else tried this yet?
Im thinking someone has GOT to have tried this before
someone suggested that I try a physics simulation with 9-dimensions. Does anyone know of an open source physics simulation in X-dimensions?
bought one to celebrate passing my first year at uni and my switching to mathematics ^^
especially the pics stoll sent us of himself with my bottle
yea same
we answered with a pic of us in front of the christmas tree adorned with the bottle
oh nice
the most complicated one i have is a megaminx
which is again just tedious not difficult
I have a 2x4x6
to this day i havent figured a decent way to solve it
Hey, I have an issue understanding how to compute some pushout. Here I want to show that the fundamental group of base point O of the real plane without n points X is $<[\sigma_1],...,[\sigma_n]>$ and is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}^{*n}$ where those are the canonical loops around one point.
This is done by induction using Van Kampen theorem. After choosing correct open spaces U and V, we have the following pushout :
$\begin{tikzcd}
1 \ar[d] \ar[r]&<[\sigma_{p+1}]_V,...,[\sigma_n]_V> \ar[d]\
<[\sigma_1]_U,...,[\sigma_p]_U> \ar[r]&\pi_1(X,O)
\end{tikzcd}$
One can prove that it is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}^{*n}$ because it is the sum of $\mathbb{Z}^{p}$ and $\mathbb{Z}^{(n-p)}$.
But I can't figure out how I can show the equality $\pi_1(X,O) =<[\sigma_1],...,[\sigma_n]>$ by using only the Van Kampen theorem.
Zak:
Oh I've just figured it out. We have an isomorphism, but by universal property this isomorphism is canonical in the sense that it commutes with injections. That's all.
@midnight jewel is that a genuine Cliff Stoll, Acme Klein bottle? He just shipped mine! I got a tiny one I'll make into a necklace :)
What a cool guy though am I right? I loved the pics he took!!
Hey anyone, I'm taking topology next quarter. Anyone know the standard text for undergrad (or at least what you used)? I wanna try to get a little feel for it. Thanks!
standard text seems to be munkres for general topology
Is a countable composition of continuous functions continuous?
I'll say no, it won't necessarily converge
imagining things like iterating the same function over and over for instance pretty much lands you in 3 spots, things push apart, you have an isometry, or you have fixed point
^ just consider the logistic map at like r=3 to 3.57ish
funny example just came to me, f(x)=-x just compose it with itself, definitely won't converge
oh lol yea
And what if I provide it converges?
I wanna say it's possible to break it into a discontinuous function but I'd have to think about it
I think if you have a family of functions that you compose you can make it do something like how a fourier series can create a square wave
is it cheating if I actually just define my family of functions to be the partial sums?
each composition would then just be adding on the extra term
that would do it I think
with some clever composition I think
oh thanks, that's much better haha
ahhhhh true true
@sick jewel
I liked topology without tears, free online
thanks @small obsidian and @vocal wharf
what's the reason for the definition of a topological space where only a finite intersection of open sets is also an open set? why would an infinite intersection break this notion?
i guess i was looking for the right example for intuition, is a good example just a set of open intervals on the real line that tighten around a point, effectively making it closed?
if by singleton you mean one point, yeah
i've only heard singleton used in programming context
Token:
you can do $\bigcup_{n \in \mathbb N,,n>a} [a, n)$
Darkrifts:
and infinite unions work in topologies
here's a question that just popped into my head
call a topological space X pseudocompact if every continuous function from X to R is bounded
it's obvious that all compact spaces are also pseudocompact
but does there exist a pseudocompact space that isn't compact?
I can tell you that pseudocompact metric spaces are compact
Proof: Let $X$ be a non-compact metric space. Then there exists an infinite sequence $(x_1, x_2, \dots) \subseteq X$ without accumulation point. For each $x_n$, let $d_n > 0$ be such that no two $B_n := B(x_n, d_n)$ (balls of radius $d_n$ around $x_n$) intersect one-another. Now define $f\colon X \to \R$ by
[
f(x) = \begin{cases}
0 & x \notin \bigcup_{n \in \N} B_n \
n\left( 1 - \frac{\mathrm{d}(x,x_n)}{d_n}\right) & x \in B_n
\end{cases}
]
Then $f$ is unbounded and continuous.
Sascha Baer:
(intuitively, the function has a cone of height n around each x_n)
what if X isn't metrizable
then I don’t know, my point was merely to show that you’d have to look precisely at non-metrizable spaces to find a counterexample
if there is one
I have a question about germs
According to this definition, two sections s1 s2 on the same open U have the same germ iff (s1,U)~(s2,U), i.e. s1|U = s2|U, i.e. s1=s2.
This would mean that the germ at only one point p determine entirely the section, but in the examples after it is not the case. Where is the flaw is my reasoning?
Consider $\mathbb{R}$ with the particular point topology, where $U\subset \mathbb{R}$ is open iff $U = \emptyset$ or $0\in U$. I'll call the space $X$ to avoid confusion with the standard topology on $\mathbb{R}$.
\begin{itemize}
\item $X$ is pseudocompact: consider a continuous $f\colon X\to \mathbb{R}$ then $f^{-1}(\mathbb{R}\setminus {f(0)})$ is an open set not containing 0, so it must be empty. Thus, $f$ has to be constant, which means it's bounded.
\item $X$ is not compact, however: consider the open cover of all the sets ${p, 0}$ for all $p\in\mathbb{R}$. It admits no finite subcover.
\end{itemize}
@west spindle
you mean f^-1(R \ { f(0) }) right
yeah
just changed that lol
huh
ok
thank you
hmm ok so this brings up another question
and i'm about to commit some terminological sins here, but w/e.
call a space X strongly pseudocompact if every continuous function from X to R is not only bounded but constant, and weakly pseudocompact if it's pseudocompact but not strongly
does there exist a space that's weakly pseudocompact but not compact
wait no
of course 
just give R a... two-particular-points topology ig
haha
also the sin is that compactness doesn't imply strong pseudocompactness 
okay so conclusion
so far we have
compact $\subset$ pseudocompact
Ann:
obviously, compact Hausdorff $\subseteq$ pseudocompact Hausdorff
Ann:
so then, will the other inclusion hold
or can we find a hausdorff space that's pseudocompact but not compact
Counterexample space that is both Hausdorff and pseudocompact but not compact: ||positive integers with the (relatively) prime integer topology||
It's in Counterexamples in Topology, page 82
what's the coprime integer topology 
huh

Hey, I'm reading a book of algebraic topology. It's written "if Rn is the covering space kn : S1 -> S1, we see that the total space of km^*(Rn)..." where kn : z -> z^n. I don't get what's km^*.
km^* might be the induced homomorphism on the fundamental groups. Would need to see the actual wording to be precisely sure.
@rugged swan
In my book, this morphism is written f_*. And what would be the sense of km^*(Rn) if it was this morphism ?
@rugged swan Do you mind sending a screenshot?
It's in french but ok @floral gust
in the Remarque
it's written "If Rn is the covering space kn, we see that the total space of km*(Rn) is compunded of d disjoint circles. And kn*(Rnà is trivial, bc d = n. If m and n are coprime, km*(Rn) is a unique circle".
d = gcd(m,n) here
What is km? The lift of kn?
I am guessing it has something to do with the fact that for every point, there exists a neighourhood that is evenly covered by the covering map. This will give you the disjoint circles in Rn (there will be disjoint sets in Rn which are locally homeomorphic to their image)
km : z -> z^m
What is R_n? I suppose it is not R^n as in n dimensional R?
The exercise consists in showing that :
$\begin{tikzcd}
S¹\times \mathbb{U}_d \ar[d,"\phi"] \ar[r,"\psi"] & S¹ \ar[d,"k_n"]\
S¹ \ar[r,"k_m"]&S¹
\end{tikzcd}
$ is a pullback.
Zak:
where $m = d\mu, n = d\nu, a\mu+b\nu = 1$, $\psi : (z,\zeta) \mapsto z^\mu\zeta^{-b}$ $\phi : (z,\zeta) \mapsto z^\nu\zeta^a$
Zak:
$R_n = (S¹,S¹,k_n,F)$ the covering space $k_n$, F is the fiber $k_n^{-1}({1})$
Zak:
Why aren't closedness and boundedness topological properties?
;-;
oh
thats just a dumb definition
but based on that definition its obvious that they aren't
counterexample?
Hi, I wonder - is there some way to visualize, imagine, comprehend metric tensor and Christoffel symbols? Is there some geometric interpretation? Is there any method to "draw" metric tensor in 3d?
wouldn't that go from unbounded -> bounded? that doesn't show that its possible to go from bounded -> unbounded?
why tf do you have that role
i dunno
Yeah you just asked for it for no reason lol

@marsh forge sorry for the ping but do you have a counterexample for closedness being a topological property?
There are lots of examples on stack overflow
but here's a cheeky one
Let X be a space and let U be an open and not closed subset of X
U is a topological space in its own right with the subspace topology
under this topology U is obviously closed
So the inclusion of U into X is a continuous map sending a closed set to an unclosed one
ah ok ty
it should be preserved by htpies
in which case barely anything is topological
we still got connected components babyyyy
N is its own closure in R
Yes
And it's not a subgroup
Oh fuck me
Lmfoa
So A is closed under multiplication
No I know
So let's look at A closure
GxG->G
Preimage of A contains A x A
So it contains the closure
We need to use compactness somehow
Let h be the inverse of g
Compact Hausdorff (all top groups here are Hausdorff) is normal
Consider the sequence g^-n h
Extract a convergent subsequence
Ah wait, I might be setting this up slightly wrong.
No I think this works actually. You can use this sequence to cook up a sequence of g^n's that converges to g^-1.
Oh you mean like
I have written it in an ugly way though.
$g^{n_k}\rightarrow L$ so $g^{n_k-n_{k-1}-1}\rightarrow g^{-1}$
gomez:
something like that
Okay I'll use a fact from earlier in the chapter
Which one
Oh okay I see your thing in the second countable case
If G is a topological group and U is a neighborhood of g, then there's a symmetric neighborhood V of the identity such that VgV^{-1} is in U
This feels applicable maybe?
Perhaps I am getting confused, but where is second countability being used?
To take a subsequence
If you're second countable + compact + Hausdorff you're metric
But for a general compact Hausdorff space you might need some net fuckery
Oh I see what you mean, yes.
I'll just say we proved this for Lie groups and move on
Might come back later
Repost so no scroll
So symmetric neighborhoods of the identity form a basis
So let's say U is symmetric. Should be something about intersecting conjugates
Ahhhh
I think it's like
Finitely many gU cover G
Now the idea should be to just repeat this. g^{n-2} \in g^{-2}V and in \overline{A}
So we're done
Okay so now
Guess I'll continue
6 idk, might need Hausdorff, 5 was fine just used that the quotient map is open so if you have a disconnect you actually partition the cosets since gH is connected so lives in one of the two sets in the split
7 is like, part of a more general thing
SO(n) acts transitively on S^{n-1}
Why? You can take a point on the sphere, extend that to an orthonormal basis of R^n
And negate a vector if necessary so the matrix has det = 1
Well, stabilizer of the north pole? Well that's just the copy of SO(n-1)
So by topological orbit-stabilizer, SO(n)/SO(n-1) is homeomorphic to S^{n-1}
Hermitian Gram Schmidt is a thing too
So SU(n)/SU(n-1) ≈ S^{2n-1}
Prob same for quaternions but that's for nerds
That also handles problem 8 thanks to problem 5
Also it's clopen in O(n)
SU(n) is obv connected
Now we wanna say U(n)/SU(n)
Oh lol
U(n) has |det|=1
So act on S^1 by multiply by determinant
Boom
Center of a topological group is closed, I'm gonna be a fuck
G acts on itself by conjugation
Center is the kernel of this action
So this follows from problem 6
🙃
@marsh forge
Anyway so O(n+1) acts on S^n, can we make it an RP^n action?
Okay act by homogeneous coordinates I guess
?
Yeah
Lol
So write RP^n = R^{n+1}-0/~
A[x] = [Ax]
What's Kochen?
Anyway yeah this makes it clear, transitivity is lol and stabilizer of [0:...:0:1] is O(n)xO(1)
Same for CP^n
GL(n,H) is open in M_n(H)
Ehhhhh quaternions are for dorks
Also probably von Neumann series
Anyway problem 4 is false for upper diagonal SL_2
Topological group is regular. Well gimme U,V symmetric neighborhoods of 1 such that V^2 \subset U
Is \overline{V} \subset U?
Something like that yeah
Eh von Neumann is the Neumann that matters tbh
I'll allow some Neumann washing
Hello. Im a bit confused. I tried to found, but there is no strict geometric interpretation of metric tensor. I know how to calculate this one, both from dot product and linear element. So I got one question - is metric tensor just some kind of "shortcut"? Could it be theoretically written in other way instead of matrix? Is it just a convention?
there are a couple different ways to think about the metric tensor. im gonna assume you mean riemannian; some of the requirements can be loosened though to get other types of manifolds
- one is as a choice of inner product at each point (so a function that takes in two vectors and gives you a real number satisfying symmetry, bilinearity, and positive definiteness) that does so in a smooth way. its properties mean that it is a tensor, of rank (0, 2), and thus it is a geometric entity
- if you pick a coordinate chart, which gives you a basis for the tangent space at each point, you can then represent the metric by a matrix, since it's just a quadratic form. this is maybe a more physics-y way to think about it, since physicists do all their geometry in coordinates. you lose a bit of the actual idea of the metric as an inner product this way though imo
English?
@fleet trench quadratic form is something new in my exploration. I'm gonna study this thing.
So actually I used to think that physicists did geometry in coordinates until I met one who really gets upset at this
He complained once that Milnor's book and lectures on differential topology has caused too many mathematicians to get addicted to embedding manifolds in R^n and/or working in charts instead of tensors
Imagine working in charts instead of sheaves
I refuse to think about what ive done
Forgive me for I have sinned
a 1-dimensional measurement is called distance
a 2-dimensional measurement is called area
a 3-dimensional measurement is called volume
a 4-dimensional measurement is called what?
and is there a general name for n dimensions?
volume
but how do you specify which dimension it applies to?
prepend a number? 4-volume? 6-volume?
do I have to spell it out as "4-dimensional volume"?
If youre working in a n-dimensional context
Then the term volume refers to n-volume
Like generally its obvious from context
ohh okie
follow up question: what about applying lower dimension measurements to higher dimensions?
for example, measuring area on a three dimensional object becomes "surface area". Is there a generalization for that?
would saying something like "the 5-volume of our 8-sphere" make sense for that concept?
I've always just seen n-volume.
ive always seen volume and surface area for nD space
This is only half true
Volume generalizes also to the theory of differential forms
Where n-volume refers to integrating over ‘volume forms’
@bitter kestrel hi 🅱️
There might be some kind of representation theorem of this sort idk
Okay so
You have k-forms on n-manifolds
When k isn't n I don't have much of a connection (heh) between the two concepts in my mind
You can't even integrate in that case
But
Let's say you have an orientable n-manifold, then there's a volume form \omega
I can now make sense of the integral of a continuous function f on the manifold: I just take \int_M f\omega in the sense of differential forms
Now I can do Riesz rep
@bitter kestrel differential forms do correspond to measures (in the background you use the lebesgue measure on R^n and then take a partition of unity)
Okay so
We have that V and I become inverse bijections between radical ideals in k[x_1,...,x_n] and algebraic subsets of A^n
Well, irreducible varieties end up corresponding to prime ideals
And points to maximal ideals
So if X is an algebraic set, well we can consider the coordinate ring k[X] = k[x_1,...,x_n]/I(X)
And then the Nullstellensatz applies also to the coordinate ring. So subvarieties are radical ideals, irreducible subvarieties are prime ideals, and points are prime ideals
But this means X is naturally in bijection with mSpec(k[X])
And in fact when you put the Zariski topology on X, well closed sets are subvarieties, this gives us a topology on mSpec(k[X])
Namely you take the set of maximal ideals containing a given ideal I
(The set of points contained in V(I)\subset X)
Now it turns out that for various reasons it ends up being cleaner to work with prime ideals than maximal ideals, I don't know of a satisfactory/a priori explanation for why you'd wanna do this aside from "you guess randomly that prime ideals work nicer and they do"
But okay now given an arbitrary ring we have the set of prime ideals Spec(R)
And we put the analogous topology, namely you let V(I) = {prime ideals containing I}, and this should restrict to the earlier topology on mSpec
Prime ideals work better for technical reasons
Consider spec(DVR)
Mspec would look like spec k
Now the valuative criterion for properness relies on spec(DVR)
Also it cleans up definitions
Consider an elliptic surface over P^1
We want to define a mordell-Weil group of this
Either you have a definition that relies on sections of the elliptic fibration, or you can just define it as MW(fiber above generic point)
So this is perhaps somewhat above my head, my AG at the moment is still kindergarten level
I guess I was aware that prime ideals work nicer insofar as like, e.g. you don't even get an induced map on mSpec out of a hom while you do get one on Spec
That comment I guess was more, I don't know if I have some sweeping "Ah this just ends up being the completion with respect to this obvious construction" answer that makes you feel warm inside
In [-infinity,+infinity] ,do you have compact iff sequentially compact?
I know very little about two-point compactifications
But yeah so I guess continuing, the business about being a ringed space is basically this. So V(I) = {prime ideals containing I}. Well, those are the closed sets. Complement of that is, {prime ideals not containing I}. You can write that set as \bigcup_{f\in I} {prime ideals not containing f}
So if you define D(f) = {prime ideals not containing f}, that's a basis for the topology
If you revert back to the varieties picture, it's basically saying where is a given polynomial f non-zero?
The nice thing about that is that this is precisely the open set where it makes sense to talk about the function 1/f, so these basis open sets are ones where we can speak about more than just polynomial functions, but rational functions
Well at that open set you can localize at f
Yeah that's what I'm getting to
But yeah so once you define what a regular function is on a general open set, it turns out these basis open sets are isomorphic to affine varieties themselves, and the coordinate ring is k[X]_f
Question
So when we want to talk about the local ring at a point
We can either take the local ring and invert at all the nonvanishing polynomials
Or we can do the generic stalks thing
Do these match up
It seems nontrivial that they do
So the definition of regular gives a sheaf of rings on the variety, and also an analogous sheaf of Spec, namely Spec(D(f)) = A_f. So this leads to the whole scheme thing. You want a space with a sheaf of rings, and locally you want this sheaf of rings to just be Spec(R) for some R
I'm not familiar with that business as much, sorry. Maybe abstract nonsense can answer
there are two ways of defining $\Gamma(D(f))$: either by hartshorne's "espace etale" method or by simply declaring that it be $A_f$ and check the sheaf glueing axioms (this is how vakil does it)
hochs:
if you're doing it the hartshorne way, then the statement "generic stalk thing equals local ring at inverting all nonvanishing polynomials" is consequence of the fact that an element $a \in A$ is $0$ iff it's $0$ in all $A_p$ for $p$ in Spec $A$.
hochs:
Err yeah I meant Gamma rather than Spec of D(f)
If you're doing it the vakil way, it's really the statement that $\lim_{f \notin \mathfrak{p}} A[1/f] \cong A_{\mathfrak{p}}$.
hochs:
Gamma being your ring sheaf?
There are other ways (there's such a thing called "plus construction" that some algebraic geometers like to use to introduce sheaves)
(you'd need to do the "plus" construction twice to arrive at a sheaf from a presheaf assigning on the basis set though)
the way that hartshorne constructs sheaf is pretty concrete. he defines a section $s$ over an open set $U \subset \textnormal{Spec }A$ to be a function $s: U \to \coprod_{p \in \textnormal{Spec }A} A_p$ satisfying a certain "locally constant" type condition. so the stalk at $p \in \textnormal{Spec }A$ say represented by $\langle s , U \rangle$ with $p \in U$ can be mapped to $s(p) \in A_p$ and you can check that this is well-defined and is an isomorphism (the little commutative algebra fact that I mentioned above is the only nontrivial part of checking this isomorphism)
hochs:
(which itself isn't hard. One looks at the ideal $\textnormal{ann}_A , a$, the annihilator of $a$ and if that doesn't contain $1$ then you take any prime ideal containing it and localize there)
hochs:
Interesting
hey guys, can someone explain this example? i can't see how the quotient spaces are different
I am not seeing it either
I'm not sure what the equivalance classes are
It doesn't seem like they actually state it
Do they mean submanifolds with boundary?
i think the equivalence classes in question might be something like the two diagrams below?
I guess you're looking at a foliation of the open strip
Yeah it's not so clear what's happening here
i think the equivalence classes are represented by the lines, so for the first example it would be something like
$\newline x=t , t\in(-\infty, -\frac{\pi}{2})\cup(\frac{\pi}{2}, \infty);
\newline y(x, \alpha)=\tan(x)+\alpha , \alpha\in(-\infty, \infty), x\in(-\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2})
$
p-zombie:
$\dfrac{1}{2\pi} \int_0^L \dfrac{x(t)y'(t) - y(t)x'(t)}{x(t)^2+y(t)^2} dt$ if your curve is parameterized by [0,L]
trex:
@buoyant comet you could draw the curve and then use one of the known algorithms to compute the winding number in each region
I was trying to show that the Affine Group is a Lie Group. I wanted to so showing that i can embeed Aff(R,n) into GL(R, n+1) and show that it would be a closed subspace, the point is that i can't show that is closed, any tips?
for reference this is the theorem that i'm trying to use https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Closed-subgroup_theorem
In mathematics, the closed-subgroup theorem (sometimes referred to as Cartan's theorem) is a theorem in the theory of Lie groups. It states that if H is a closed subgroup of a Lie group G, then H is an embedded Lie group with the smooth structure (and hence the group topology...
isn't this a bit overkill ?
I mean multiplication and inversion on matrices is rational component-wise, hence smooth; you don't need the closed subgroup theorem (which is pretty elaborate)
either way, the reason why the affine group is closed is that you can write it as the set of matrices of GL(n+1, R) with the first n coefficients of the last line equal to zero and n+1-st coefficient equal to 1, all of which are closed conditions
Hadn't actually seen the affine group written in that way before haha.
It's how you visualize quadric as hyperplane in a space of higher dimension, kind of a cool trick
Their as smooth but I should find the open diffeomorphic to any matrix
*to an open nbhood of any Matrix
i agree
I think the theorem is kinda of the easiest thing you can use
I considered showing that it is the preimage of some regular value (as you do with SL(n) or O(n) ) but could not find any cool function that does so
Well you can also say that since Aff(n,R) is the intersection of GL(n+1, R) with the affine subspace {matrices with last line (0, ..., 0, 1)}, it is open in that affine subspace, which is itself a submanifold of Mat(n+1, R), hence Aff(n,R) is a submanifold of Mat(n+1,R)
and then use the argument that matrix product and inverse are rational in the components of the matrices involved to claim that they are smooth maps
topologically, is there a difference between a normal torus and a torus generated from a ring instead of a circle?
imagine a donut but instead of being filled with bread, it's empty on the inside, but on the outside it still looks like a donut
I assume there is, but just to be sure
Wait
Sorry
Are you saying the torus is ‘thick’
Like you take an annulus
And rotate it?
If so they are homotopic but not homeomorphic
So there is a topological difference
@tranquil vector
(One of them is a manifold while the other isnt)
oooh
anyone can help me how to show that if C={(-∞,a):a∈ℝ}U{(a,+∞):a∈ℝ} then every open cover of [0,1] from elements of C has an finite subcover?
Are you familiar with the (or any) standard cover compactness proof of the unit interval?
is it a similar proof ?
I looked one up just now and imo it's very easily modified
oh ok thanks
np
for the question above ... if i said that for an open cover {(-∞,ai)}i∈I U {(ai,+∞)}i∈I
if sup(ai) > 1 or inf(ai) < 0 then [0,1]c(-∞,supai) a finite subcover or [0,1]c(infai,∞) a finite subcover
else [0,1]c(-∞,supai)U(infai,∞) a finite subcover
is right ?
@warm hedge any two distinct elements of C cover all of R
not any two
any two distinct elements
Also if $\sup(a_i)>1$ or $\inf(a_i)<0$ isn't the case, then you cannot generally say that $[0,1]\subset(-\infty,\sup(a_i))\cup(\inf(a_i),\infty)$
Rijinaru:
This is because it might still happen that $\sup(a_i)>0$ and $\inf(a_i)<1$, in which case $[0,1]$ isn't completely covered
Rijinaru:
If the supremum and the infimum of your index set $I$ are even finite
Rijinaru:
Which I highly doubt, because you are supposed to take any open cover of elements in $C$
Rijinaru:
From $\mathbb R ^2$ plane with standard metric countably many circles have been removed. Does this set have to be uncountable?
Godel:
hint: ||consider a line in ℝ².||
second hint: ||if you can show that line still has uncountably many points after removing the circles from the plane, then you’re done||
yeah that's what I was thinking after a while
i'll try to prove it although seems obvious
ok cant cover the line because one circle can cover at most 2 points from a line
is that a fine argument?
although Im not sure how that implies can't cover R^2
cuz like you could do it with this kinda thing
Thats a fine arg godel
Any placement of circles removes a finite number from a line
Hence countable many remove countable many
Topology exercise: Show that $T^n$ does not embed in $S^1 \times S^{n-1}$ for $n>2$.
gomez:
I have a question related to integrability of distributions.
When can you “integrate” distributions with submanifolds of higher dimension?
i.e given a distribution D, can one find a submanifold N of greater dimension where D ⊂ TN.
Or, For the sake of explicitness, given a smooth vector field on R3, can one always find a dimension 2 submanifold that is everywhere tangent with that vector field?
Intuitively, the extra degree of freedom from the normal integrability problem makes me suspect you can, but I’m not sure.
Fun, first off if $T^n$ embeds into $S^1 \times S^{n-1}$, then the embedding is a diffeomorphism (indeed, the image is closed because $T^n$ is compact, and open because of the inverse function theorem). Now, it only remains to prove that they cannot be homeomorphic. But, if $n > 2$, then by the Künneth formula $H_1(T^n, \mathbb R) = \mathbb R^n$ and $H_1(S^1 \times S^{n-1}, \mathbb R) = \mathbb R$
trex:
Now I'm not sure how to adapt this if the embedding is just a topological one (can we still conclude that the embedding is a homeomorphism ?)
topological maps are homotopic to smooth maps
on manifolds
so just reduce using that
Ah, very nice I didn't know that!
Nice. Yeah I just meant topologically. A topological embedding is a homeomorphism onto its image by definition so you can argue just as you did, replacing the role of the inverse function theorem with invariance of domain :).
is the following enough to characterize the real line:
"a connected second-countable hausdorff space which upon the removal of any single point disconnects into two components"
In fact you don’t need the second countable Hausdorff
Just connected. I beleive
Let me find tge thread
O okay you need the Hausdorff second countable
In fact you need more
Connected separable metric spac3 is the assumption
what it means when we are saying second countable ?
It means the topology has a countable basis. Eg balls with rational coordinates and rational radius form a countable basis for the standard topology on R^n.
First countable by comparison means that each point has a countable local base, which is weaker.
Anyone know how to solve this?

Youll@have better luck in #geometry-and-trigonometry
@honest narwhal weekly reminder to change the name of this channel somehow
And to give me honorable
There's no good answer, the problem is once people see "geometry", which kinda has to be in the name, they jump to it. And this isn't exactly frequent enough anymore to warrant such a change (since people see "topology" first, in contrast to when this was "advanced geometry")
hey, I'm currently studying homology and I can't figure out why, if I take the two canonical generators of the fundamental group of the torus c1 and c2, the chain c1+c2 isn't a border
because I have an homeomorphism between the torus without this chain and the square [0,1]^2
and the square is homeomorphic to the 2-simplex
then the torus without c1+c2 is a singular 2-simplex
and the border of this singular 2-simplex seems to be c1+c2 visually
Trace ur pen
Around ur drawing
While trying to follow the arrows
@rugged swan
It’s also obvious if you write it down explicitly from the fundamental square of the torus
What the boundary of that square is
You can’t forget abt orientation
@ me if you still want me to be more in depth but I think its important to figure it out urself
yeah I've just understand what did you mean, the border of the square is an oriented circle, but here it's not a circle since I can't follow one direction with a pen
thanks
Well
I was hoping you’d just write it down
And see that the border is like
a-b-a+b
=0
=/= a+ b
that's weird
I mean, that seems the right reasoning, but I can't see rigorously what's the structure of 2-chain of the fundamental square
Boundaries are oriented
The boundary of the square you are talking about would never be a+b anyway
If we didnt care about sign (like over Z/2) we’d have that the boundary is a + a + b + b
Ie 2a+2b
But we are working Z/2 so thats 0 anyway
Hm in fact it is logical since it's the border of the torus x). I was wrong on my previous drawing, to have a 2-chain structure I must orient c in the other sense. And the I would get border = a+b+c-a-b-c
I’m being a bit dumb here. this should be elementary pointset topology but I’m stuck (I need this to finish a proof of the meier-vietoris sequence):
Assume $A, B \subseteq X$ such that $X = \mathrm{int}(A) \cup \mathrm{int}(B)$. Show that $\mathrm{cl}(B \setminus A) \subseteq \mathrm{int}(B)$
Sascha Baer:
my attempted proof was $$\mathrm{int}(B) \supseteq X \setminus \mathrm{int}(A) \supseteq \mathrm{cl}(X) \setminus \mathrm{cl}(A) = \mathrm{cl}(X \setminus A) \supseteq \mathrm{cl}(B \setminus A),$$ but it appears that that equality is not true in general
Sascha Baer:
so idk how to fix this
Should be like
Any limit point of B/A that isnt in int B must be in Int A, but removing A means you remove some neighborhood of the point
So its not a limit point of B/A after all
@midnight jewel
Wait
Sorry
You also need that B/A itself is a subset
But if x is in B/A but not int B then its also in int A
Then its the same arg
It was never in B/A to begin with
Yeah that works
yea I see thanks
my apologies if this doesnt come under topology and geometry
I have a system defined by periodic boundary conditions, the unit cell of a crystal.
I have a metric tensor defining the basis of the "cell" and thus the shape of the periodic boundary conditions
I've also converted all of the points inside the cell to complex numbers from (a/A,b/B,c/C) or fractional co-ordinates (with respect to the basis) into (e^2ipia/A,e^2ipib/B,e^2ipic/C)
So at this point I have a metric tensor describing the periodic boundary conditions and the vectors that define the 'bounding box' and points within it that have a complex phase rather than a real number co-ordinate
My hope is that I can combine these in some way to create some form of canonical co-ordinate system where information about the periodic boundary conditions as well as the position within the cell is present in each point, does this sound like a reasonable way of going about it?
In the standard topology on R, would a disjoint union of open intervals like (1,2)U(3,4) be open? I can't think of a reason why not, but it seems unnatural for intervals with gaping holes to be open.
You're thinking of connectedness
Which is separate from openness
You can be open and disconnected, like (1,2) \cup (3,4)
ah, okay.
(If it helps, you can remember that open iff completment of closed
And its not hard to believe [-infty,2] cup [2,3] cup [4,infty] contains all of its limit points
And not hard to see how this point of view allows open sets to be kinda all over the place
@little hemlock Try using the definition. Can for every point you can find an open neighbourhood contained inside the set?
hey can someone explain me the difference between afine conics and projective conics?
one of the is the afine and the other is the projective, but I dont understand which is which and why
How do I prove that for two connected sets A, B at least one of AnB and AUB is connected?
to get started could try to show if the intersection is nonempty, then the union is connected
hey folks
im really having a hard time trying to understand external algebras
i have already learned about dual bases
and now im trying to illustrate what the pairwise wedging of the dual base would look like
So I have this ultra truncated isocohedron.
This was created by using code from https://github.com/mikolalysenko/conway-hart.
And then constructed by creating each face from a hexagon mesh for each set of 6 points.
However, if you look closely.
There's a lot of distortion around the pentagons.
So my question is does the dual and truncate operations keep regularity?
Do they deform it?
Or is this a numerical issue.
I've done it boys
Ok so by a theorem I don't fully understand at the moment
if we have a cohomology class $c$ in $H^{2k+1}(M)$ for $M$ a $4k+2$-manifold, then there is a map $f:M\to \Omega S^{2k+2}$ such that if $e_1,e_2$ are the generators of middle and top homology of the loops space, respectively
MaxJ:
$f^*(e_1)=c$
MaxJ:
Then we define a quadratic form by putting $q(c):=f^*(e_2)$ which lives in $H^{4k+2}(M)\cong \mathbb{Z}/2$
MaxJ:
Then again, for reasons I do not totally understand yet it turns out that $q(c_1+c_2)=q(c_1)+q(c_2)+c_1c_2$ where that last product is the cup product
MaxJ:
This means we have a quadratic form!
We can take a symplectic basis to compute it's Arf Invariant
And this is the kervaire invariant!
Theres also a way to do this with steenrod quares
but thats a lot of machinery
We actually know even more
bc we know that the associated bilinear to this quadratic
is in fact the Poincare Pairing
Once I understand those two things I mentioned
Im gonna be ready for my blog post
Ok ok
so the first thing
This actually clears up a lot of what I was missing ebcause the KI is defined by highly connected manifolds
and its like
whys that?
Ok heres why
(*) We want a cohomology class c to be a map M->LoopsS
The obstructions to this
are maps from pi_k(M) to pi_k(LoopsS)
Ok so let M be 4k+2 manifold again
then the first nontrivial htpy group of M has to be $2k+1$ in order to define the kervaire invariant
MaxJ:
The reason for this is that obstructions to (*)
are maps from htpy groups of M to htpy groups of LoopsS
(Where S is S^{2k+1})
Well, the first obstruction possible is at pi_2k+1(M)->pi_2k+1(LoopsS)=Z
But this can be shown to not be a problem
Wait okay no this is sketchy
okay well I get the idea
and I won't go into htpy stuff in this post
And for the second thing
it turns out to just be a computation
So @honest narwhal I've figured out the kervaire invariant
give me a medal of honor
@marsh forge okay
hi, why does the space of couple (L,x) where L is a linear line of R^2 and x is in L can be identified with the quotient space R^2/~ where (a,b)~(a',b') iff it exists k in Z s.t. (a',b') = (a+k,(-1)^kb) ?
anyone know if Rn diff geo classes usually require an R3 class as a prerequisite
like, would taking a class on curves and surfaces benefit me much later on in an Rn class
Probably helps for the sake of having examples which you can very directly visualize, subsets of R^3
But it's not necessarily a strict prerequisite
if (X,T) compact and T2 topological space and S an other topology in X and TcS and T≠S
i know that the (X,S) isnt always compact , but is there a chance that it could be compact ?
there could be an S bigger than T that would make the space compact ?
Quick question from a noob: Is this topologically equivalent to a Klein bottle?
Ignoring the fact they accidentally punctured all the way through on the left
Or wait no I'm dumb, that needs to be punctured through.
it’s not, this is orientable (it has two sides)
@tidal cedar
I reckon it’s equivalent to a torus
here’s a prettier picture
yea just looked it up it’s homeomorphic to a torus
What if the bottom section was closed up and it was extended into another spatial dimension
wdym? how you embed it isn’t relevant
this is only a torus if you pretend it doesn’t intersect itself
the same way you pretend a klein bottle doesn’t
Ah
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=ixduANVe0gg the beginning of this video shows a deformation of a torus that goes through this double klein bottle
This week’s video is about the beautiful mathematics you encounter when you try to turn ghostlike closed surfaces inside out. Learn about the mighty double Klein bottle trick, be one of the first to find out about a fantastic new way to turn a sphere inside out and have ano...
unrelatedly, had my algebraic topology exam today. unsure how it went
we had four exercises and had to solve three
more than enough time to work on all four though
I got one down quickly
and then on the other three got about 2/3s of the way through each before getting stuck
managed another one after a lot of thinking
at which point I was left with two exercises. one I couldn’t solve and one I probably did all wrong but I at least tried
(the one I couldn’t do was show that the line with two zeroes is not homotopy equivalent to S¹; the one I tried was to show that for an open cover U, the singular homology restricted to chains with each simplex contained in one of the covering sets is isomorphic to the regular one - and I was allowed to use anything we proved about barycentric subdivision in class
Ah
Any book/notes recommendation to learn point set? Especially complete metric spaces and intro homotopies
the usual recommendation for point set is either munkres’ topology or hatcher’s lecture notes, but the latter doesn’t cover either of those two things in detail. I’m not sure how much in detail munkres goes with metric spaces, the study of complete metric spaces is basically analysis
Yeah I have munkres but I want something else to read as well
my class used Runde's A Taste of Topology, i thought it was pretty nice
Both of those are topics you'll learn from elsewhere. Like the main features of complete metric spaces are gonna be what
Baire Category is probably the most important
There's the business about compact = complete + totally bounded for metric spaces
Yep, mostly need to learn homotopies tho
Cause Ive been having trouble to understand those
homotopies are
pages 1-10
of any intro AT text
but you won't see them earlier
(in general)
Until you want to start doing serious topology
you don't need homotopy
And to be honest you should not learn homotopy and homeomorphisms at the same time probably
your intuition for both will suffer
Lol
If I dont Ill have to retake the course mate
And not to offend but I dont know if I should listen to you about the order of learning something
You should on this, but if its for a course you don't have a choice
Anyway, pages likes 1-10 of hatcher or something
@midnight jewel Did you figure out the S^1 thing
Now Im nerd sniped by it
it has fundamental group Z, so H1 is also Z
H2 should vanish
yea, the homologies of the line with two zeroes are ℤ for 0,1 and 0 otherwise
I didn’t try anymore but I’m told the thing you have to do is first show that the two zeroes have to map to the same point in S¹
and then you can get a contradiction by that
Oh interesting
So you do explicit stuff w the homotopies
thats a cute problem I like it Ill think more
the whole problem was:
Let X be the line with two zeroes
- compute the singular homologies of X
- is X homotopy equivalent to ℝⁿ for any n≥1?
- is X homotopy equivalent to Sⁿ for any n≥0?
you can do 2 and all of 3 except S¹ with the solution to 1 right away, but S¹ has the same homology groups as X so you have to try sth else
and I couldn’t think of it
for 1 I just used Meyer-Vietoris with the sets being “all but one of the zeroes” (so both sets are homeo to ℝ)
from that you get it pretty quickly
(not immediate but not hard either)
ok so
I think you can compute the universal cover (after reading some MO)
and I think that the universal cover is contractible
in particular has vanishing higher htpy groups
@marsh forge well not page 1-10 of Concise
Page 10 of Concise you're on cofibrations
page 10 of concise you gotta buy More Concise
Fuck I was being dumb
ok my proof strat doesnt work
I forgot S^1 wasn't covered by S^1 lmao
Well it is but that's not universal 😛
yes
So if X has pi_1 = Z then like, X is weak homotopy equivalent to S^1
So you basically need to show that X doesn't have the homotopy type of a CW complex at all
T3+Lindelöf=T4 or it needs to be also T2 ?
or T3 ->T2
oh ok i see
thanks
yeah thats true
yeah
oh wait
i think not always
yeah
i have a (X,T) T3 second countable topological space and i want to poove that every open subset of X is countable union of close subsets of X .... any help ? 
@marsh forge we didn’t cover higher homotopy groups and covering theory should not be examinable for this exam
the only covering stuff we did was in the previous topology course (which is not exam-relevant) and there we only did as much as we needed to prove that the fundamental group of S¹ is ℤ
I don’t think the word “universal cover” was ever mentioned outside the non-examinable last lecture of last year where he showed some additional neat stuff
so it should be solvable without it
Well
My proof strat didnt work anwyay lmao
@honest narwhal that is correct but it is not clear to me how to prove that other than the vague idea sasha gave out
That you literally cant construct a reasonable homotopy
My guess is like, you take some path in the double origin line from one of its 0s to the other
And show that this has to become a loop in S^1
But Idk why
of T4 or T3 ?
i think i will use that for x ∈ V open there is a W open that x∈ W c closeureW c V
and maybe in place of W i will put a B open from X's base and V will be = with union of closure of Bx for every x ∈ V
maybe something like that ? @gritty widget
👍
Yo I don't understand one problem cause seems too ez: For all $n \in \mathbb Z $ let $C_n$ be a closed boundary set in the interval $\left[n,n+1\right]$. Let $D= \bigcup _{n \in \mathbb Z} C_n$. Show there exists $t \in \mathbb R$ such that $t + D \subset \mathbb R \setminus \mathbb Q$
Godel:
So I was thinking - can't we take an irrational number from every [n,n+1] as C_n? Then t=0 will work
cause a single point is a boundary closed set right?
Well, for one, I assume this is for any choice of C_n
for two I am not familiar w the term 'boundary closed'
Right, I assume boundary closed refers to the closed boundaries, [], so that n and n+1 are included, right?
Can't really wrap my mind around the intent of the last statement.
I also have a simple question myself. Does anyone know anything about arcpolygons?
boundary closed I meant a boundary set (empty interior) and closed
but yeah, I misunderstood the question, ifc its for any choice C_n hmm
Oh... I think I might get it, now that you said the interior is empty it makes much more sense. In that case taking any irrational number really should do it. Say pi, it's irrational, so a subset of the reals, not a subset of the rationals, and so still a subset of the reals without the rationals. Since the same counts for pi +1, or +2 and so on, yeah.
yeah but its for any choice of C_n
so if I took 1/2 from C_0 and sqrt(2) form C_1 I still can pick such t (for example sqrt(3))
I guess I would have to somehow characterize what those C_n look like...
(I guess those need to be sets of points that have 'discontinuities' in some sense, can't have intervals, cause then it wouldn't have empty interior)
Yeah, any solid interval would break it. t=0 should work, but other integers too from what I can think of
Well yeah, but I see nothing that would force a mix of rational and irration C_ns
I need to show that no matter how I choose what C_n is there still exists such t that works
so showing one example doesnt prove it obviously
Wouldn't it be enough then to show there is a t that keeps an irrational C_n irrational, and a t that makes any rational C_n irrational?
yep probably, I mean, it would be necesarry to show that for any number of irrationals (denote them x_i, i in I) there exists another irrational y such that x_i + y is irrational for all i in I
and that sounds pretty hard tbh
not sure if induction works because set I of irrationals might be uncountable
probably would?
Well... I mean if you pick transcendentals than adding any integer or even other rational will never make them rational. Likewise adding any transcendental to any rational would still be irrational, right?
What I'm unsure of is why there's got to be a specific irrational y that satisfies that requirement. It also doesn't sound satisfiable.
well, why doesnt it sound satisfable?