#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 161 of 1
Maybe up to me messing up the indexes
Because this is true
I think it should be X^n+1 actually
Anyway
Yep kinda the same I think
Yeah this should be in hatcher
In his section on higher homotopy groups
X^{n+1} fully determines \pi_n(X^n)
that result sounds familiar to me
because everything else has a trivial contribution
Yeah its pretty intuitive
Basically a map from Sn is trivial iff it extends to Sn+1
So its only the n+1 cells that matter
Ok time for another rant
So orientation is a continuous choice of generator for local homology
So if X,Y are oriented
orientation is a global choice of element in cohomology which passes to a generator in local cohomology
might as well go full algebraic
That means that we have elements x and neighborhoods U for each x such that H(X,X-U)->H(X,X-y)
I mean
I can’t just bust out new material for the pset lol
Anyway
So let’s think about X\times Y
Given continuous choices of generators for X,Y
Is there an obvious choice for X\times Y?
We have the kunneth map HxH->H(\times)
This gives us an element
But its not necessarily a generator?
Is it clear that the kunneth map sends generators to generators for the case of n,m manifolds?
It’s a map ZxZ->Z
Is it obviously surjective?
Wait ok
So for a connected n manifold X and a connected m manifold Y
check the error term in the kunneth formula maybe
By kunneth we have that the homology for both at 0 is Z
So we get Z\tensorZ at n+m
And we should get Z at H_0 with an iso
Duh
Something something flat something something
i mean
one term is (n) + (m-1)
the other is (n-1) + (m)
in both cases one of them is Z
and the other...
is something I dont remember
I know that this stuff is very well explained in hatcher
Can anyone recommend a book as interesting as this?
Why is this in topology and geometry lol
Anyway just read a math textbook
Theyre even cooler
Because it’s mostly topology
Anyway I found a bunch of books to check out by James Gleick and Rudy Rucker, not all topology but seem interesting
And GEB is a math book lol. It’s just not a general reference text. It’s a math philosophy book

It’s speculation of mathematical conceptualization but I mean sure call it that I won’t argue with your definition. It’s fitting lol
I love your definition tho it’s fitting and funny
It talks a lot about interrelatedness of things, I consider that part of topology more broadly
what do you think topology is 
I had no idea topology had a colloquial meaning
given a point (x,y), can you find a nbhd that doesnt contain the diagonal? and try to deduce facts about x/the diagonal from this
is the product of two open sets open
by definition of the product topology, yes
the product topology has as its basis all products of open sets (for finite products)
ah great thanks
How can I argue π_1(X^1) is surjective to π_1(X)?
I have already proven that π_1(X^2) to π_1(X) is bijective so I assume I only have to show that π_1(X^1) to π_1(X^2) is surjective. X^n denotes the n-th skeleton of X which is a CW complex. Any help?
pi1 is generated by closed 1 cells mod some relations
is morally the answer
chase this through the definitions
Hello ! I'm sneaking outta #category-theory to ask you : does anyone know of a good reference about knot theory, besides Rolfsen (which I've already read) ? 🙂
Is it possible for the fundamental group of a wedge sum of two simply connected spaces not to be simply connected?
If the basepoints have neighborhoods which strong deformation retract onto those points, then no
But in general?
I dont think its true in general, you need to apply Seifert Van Kampen to show the wedge is simply connected so if it fails to satisfy the criteria it wouldnt be simply connected I think.
I am positive I have seen a counterexample but cant recall atm
this question should only care about things up to weak homotopy equivalence unless you are defining wedge sum in a weird way. So the answer is yes, it is true.
So Im looking at https://www.seas.upenn.edu/~jean/sheaves-cohomology.pdf and not sure why the pth homology module is a quotient module
like if the sequence elements (of the given chain complex) are just albelian groups, where do we get rings from for them to have module structure?
ty
hey quick q
Okay I'm still listening
Just keep going
How do I show that space is not compact?
Like I know that I need a cover that emits no finite subcover
but idk how to produce that in this topology...
Wait so your topology are all the finite sets, and all the subsets that contain infinity?
Its the integers union infinity
topology is finite set and anything union infinity is closed
and open is ur compliment is closed
so basically everything is open and closed
Uh what? There are some sets that are only open or closed, but not both
Yes but finite intersections of open sets are open
yes
Ah no, I'm wrong
well then you only need to show that the space has no finite open cover
wait
that there is an open cover with no finite subcover
or maybe it is compact
a open cover that does not emit a finite subcover?
maybe you should show that the space is compact
Each of the singleton sets form an open cover
Yes I thought that as well
but {infinity} isn't open
Hm yeah
Oh yeah
infinity causes a problem because you need to add all but finitely many to be able to make it open
Okay yeah I think this is compact now
with a proof
infinity is a special point in that space that is different from all the others so maybe you should start investigating around there
Well anything union infinity is closed...
The way to prove something is compact is to play the following game
Suppose someone gives you any open cover U
You want to construct for me a finite subcover
Without making any assumptions about U
If you can do this for an arbitrary cover you can do it for all of them
Can you do this for the singletons?
the singletons is not an open cover
Hello 🙂 I'm asking this again because I would like to add one to my Xmas list ! 😄 Does anyone know of a good reference about knot theory, besides Rolfsen (which I've already read) ? 🙂
no :(
Okay compliments of singletons are open so {A}'is an open cover of a lot so then there exists an arbitrary union of closed sets that suffices as a subcover?
since arbitrary union of closed sets is closed or something?
no, complements of singletons aren't necessarily open
Thats not true
and no about the arbitrary union of closed sets being closed
Thanks :x
Can't I show via induction that {A} U {B} etc is finite and thus closed?
This is bad I'm really struggling with this
no
uuuh closed ?
I guess
oh yeah lol
It says anything union infinity is closed
no because you want to do that for any possible open cover
not just the easiest one possible
after {the wholet set}
Okay one last question @wanton marsh is {A}U{B} open and closed
what's A and B
singletons
@wanton marsh How do I know that the union of anything with infinity is not open
closed =/= not open
it depends
On what?
I have that A U B finitely many times can be an open cover and subcover of itself
but what about infinity
it depends on what you union infinity with
I have no clue what you're talking about
same problem as before
I have that A U B finitely many times can be an open cover and subcover of itself
in this
Its the integers union infinity
topology is finite set and anything union infinity is closed
and open is ur compliment is closed
yes
A U infinity is open?
what is A
A singleton
is {1 ; infinity} open ?
I know its closed
yes it's closed, but you were asking if it's open
yes
Z \ {A,infinity}
is that finite ?
no
does it contain infinity ?
so then, is it closed ?
no
But {1,2} is open
yes
{1,2} is an open set
yes
it is thus an open cover of {1,2}
I guess ?
and we have shown that finite open covers can be their own sub cover
well, {{1 ; 2}} is if you want to be precise
no
you need to show that any open cover of {1 ; 2 ; 3 ; ... ; infinity} has a finite subcover
if you change the bolded things you aren't doing anything
well {{1}} is an open cover
of {1}
not of {1 ; 2; 3 ; ... : infinity}
do you know what the word cover means ?
yes it cover the entire set and possibly more
well it can't cover more than the entire set
well we are working on the whole set
not on {1}
not on {1;2}
not on {1 ; infinity}
Well can't the whole set be written as one of those three things?
no
yes
not any arbitrary subset
yes
Well the whole set is an open cover of itself
yes that's the easiest cover you may need to find a finite subcover of
newsflash
if you could do that for any topological space
you wouldn't need to invent a new word to say "compact"
do you know what any in "for any cover" means
do you know what "forall x" and "there exists x" mean and why they are VERY different
for all x is -> any x can be chosen and "there exists x" -> I can give you an x that meets some condition
those sound like the same to me
well like for all E there exists delta
here you have come up with one specific open cover
with two in fact, with the earlier try
so you have shown that there exists an open cover such that you can find some finite subcover from it
but you want to show that forall open cover, you can find some finite subcover from it
I can't picture another open cover
there are LOTS of them
So itself and all the arbitrary unions of its elements
and you're doing something fundamentally wrong if you are just trying to come up with open covers of the space
Well I'm trying to find a finite sub cover that works for all open covers right
no
that makes absolutely no sense
you want to show
FORALL open cover of the space, THERE EXISTS a finite subcover
which is very different from
THERE EXISTS a finite subcover such that FORALL open cover the subcover is a subcover of the cover (???)
If I can make like a generic subcover formula
and let me add
that when you have to prove a statement that starts with "forall"
you always
ALWAYS
start with "let U be an arbitrary open cover of the space"
just like you would write "let epsilon be positive" in a limit proof
yes then I give my generic formula for a subcover demonstrating that a subcover exists
I'm not sure such a formula exists
Well what are the different forms this open cover could have?
also tysm btw this is helping a lot
There are a lot of them
But, like we've mentioned, you know that infinity must be in one of your open sets since its an open covering
Think about what open sets that include infinity look like
They are the compliment of a finite set not containing infinity
Yep, now think about that
So the union of that for every z in Z is an open cover
Uh what?
Well I need to cover the whole set rt?
Yes, that's what an open cover is
The complements of what
The singletons
Idk I need to show every open cover has a finite sub cover
Maybe if I can show that all the types of open covers have a finite sub cover?
All we did in class was do one proof where we prove a lack of compactness, not this
Just think about infinity
There's a lot of them
Not necessarily
Any open cover
I'm not sure what you want me to notice
You've already mentioned it before
"They are the compliment of a finite set not containing infinity"
Your open cover must include at least one of these sets
No you need to think more
Ah if A'UB' are our complimements -> AUB is in the open cover
I have no idea what this means
The open cover is the union of compliments of a finite sets not containing infinity
But in their union the "holes" are filled in
and the union of those holes is finite
Yeah I still don't really know what you're saying
But
It's possible your open cover only has one open set that contains infinity
Take any open cover of the space. Since ∞ is in the space and the union of sets in an open cover contains all points in a space, we have that there exists atleast one open set in the cover such that it will contain the point ∞. The only open sets (call it O∞) that contain ∞ are of the form { complement of a finite} U {∞}. Thus the only remaining points to be covered in the space are those that weren't covered by O∞ which are finite in number (Can you reason why? From this and the fact that the open cover covers the whole space can you complete the proof?)
@vocal surge
Are they finite because they are the arbitrary union of singletons?
O∞ covers a complement of finite set and the point ∞. In other words, O∞ covers every point in the space except points in some finite set.
okay so that's why what remains is finite
Indeed! Can you complete the proof by using the fact that what remains is just some finite set and my open cover contains the whole space?
(what remains to show is for you to extract finitary amount of open sets from the original arbitrary open cover. One of the open sets should be O∞ as we proved earlier. What else should go in the finite subcover/ finitary amount of open sets that cover the space?)
Well we still need the remaining points rt?
so then the open cover is made up of the union of finite things so any subcover is finite?
or maybe not, sorry this is hard for me to conceptualize idk
Try to write it out.
Remember open cover is an arbitrary collection of open sets. From this, you will extract a finite subcover.
Let $f: Y \to Y$ be a continuous function of compact space Y. Show that there exists a nonempty closed subset $A \subset Y$ such that $f\left(A\right) = A.$
Any ideas? A and f(A) compact
This isn't true
Wait what xD
It's not hard to think of a counterexample
Constant functions are always continuous
I didnt edit anything
Shit jk
The thing I edited was added 'of'
Ahh ok I see what you meant now
Godel:
Yeah this isn't true
Take the discrete Topology on a finite set
Oh hmm
Yeah this is just not true
Take three points {a, b, c}, map a and b to c and map c to a
@gritty widget am I missing something?
I mean, you want to show that there exists a mapping such taht its true @dim meadow
Oh what
Wait wha
why
?????
So is the question that you're given f, and you want to show there is some A so that f(A)=A?
Cause that's not true
What's your example again
Take three points {a, b, c}, map a and b to c and map c to a
Nothing gets mapped to itself
@dim meadow in this example take A = {a,c} then
yes it is its a problem I seen
A = {a,c} wouldn't work, since f({a,c}) = {b,c}
Ah well
oh you're right
And it's supposed to be a short answer question
And using the fact its compact
the 'all spaces are compact' guy should know
Oof
hey I've got another quick question but I can wait for this guy
Just ask, I'll repost it tomorrow if I don't come up with an answer by then
okay
If i take f : I -> R where I is an open interval in R, to be differentiable at x and that f'(x)> 0 show that there exists an open interval around f'(x) not containing x where f'(t) is greater than 0
My attempt is take lim as t -> x of f(t)-f(x)/t-x = lim t-> x f'(t)
then there exists delta st B(x,delta) \ {x} where f' cts and then fix an open interval v where t-x>0 in the delta ball
then v intersect I \ {x} is good rt?
@vocal surge
at first you said i take f : I -> R where I is an open interval in R, to be differentiable at x
then in the proof you said where f' cts
are you assuming that f' is continuous or not?
f' need not be continuous
see x^2*sin(1/x)
I need that it is continuous around the point x but not necessarily at that point and then I can find delta s.t. there is an interval of that open interval that contains another point where f'>0
how would i go about proving the trace operation on tensors is well defined? \begin{equation}\text{tr}: T^{l+1}_{k+1}(V) \to T^l_k (V) \end{equation}
brug moment:
i've come up with a few ideas but they all seem stingy
the way the book defined it was for $Q \in T^l_k (V)$ \begin{equation}\text{tr}Q(\omega_1, \hdots, \omega_k, v^1, \hdots v^l) = \text{tr}Q(\omega_1, \hdots, \omega_k, \cdot, v^1, \hdots v^l, \cdot) \in \text{End}(V)\end{equation}
brug moment:
idk i've probably got the wrong idea
<@&286206848099549185>
draw the square
that question is amazing when you look at it
p sure this shouldn’t be here anyways
Is such a CW complex correct? (I mean the mathematical redaction more importantly)
Is the set of integers with p-adic metric compact?
I was just confused about the middle figure because it didnt seem to resonate with the usual picture of a klein bottle
Well its not a klein bottle yet
Yeah yeah but like for a torus it makes sense
?
As in the middle figure makes intuitive sense if used for the torus 1-skeleton
Torus and klein have identical 1-skeletons
You create both by gluing the two cell in a specific way
Oh okay okay then! Thanks.
Do you guys know any good websites to practice GEOMETRY proofs?
@gritty widget Note that every compact metric space is complete. Thus not-complete implies not compact given metric. Consider the geomteric series 1+p+p² ... . What can you say about its convergence given the p-adic metric?
Haven't learned about complete spaces yet
Metric spaces are hausdorff, compact spaces are closed there
@honest narwhal this is why we need to change the name
@gritty widget it's on my geometry hw though
How does one sees the last line?
Is this by noting that S^n{x} ~ R^n which is contractible?
Any map going thru 0 is 0
But here no map is going through 0? no?
(assuming by going through 0 you mean f(0) )
Yeah but I am asking how did they know that H_n(S^n -{x} ) is a trivial group
Think about what S^n minus a point is
R^n-1 which is contractible?
Yep
Thanks!
Secondly can you also tell how to conclude the last equality where the degree is defined as the generator of the image under the isomoprhism with the integers
Seems like i have to argue f(deg(g) ) = f(1) * deg(g), but I cant really find a justification for this
The justification is that f is a homomorphism
Can you elaborate a bit more? From that all I am seeing is that f(deg(g) ) = f(1 * deg(g) ) = f(1) * f(deg(g)) = deg(f) * f(deg(g))
Let f: Z->Z. Then f(n)=nf(1)
Its a good exercise
So i wont prove it unless you ask
Is $d_n$ supposed to be $$ d_n = \sum_k d_n(e^n_k) $$
QuickMaffs:
<@&286206848099549185>
Its supposed to be cellular boundary
I am aware of that but like the book only provides a formula for d_n(e^n_k) and does not say anything about d_n. So from above I assumed that d_n just represents the sum.
Well in that para they are only taking in on e_k^n’s right?
Anyway because you’re dealing w free commutative groups
You get the unique Z-linear extensions of d_n’s values on the basis elements
Yes. So in the case we have two e^k_n, what would happen?
You’d sum bc its linear
So, I'm trying to create a very, very truncated isocohedron in code (specifically in Lua, if you're curious). I fonud a post that really addresses a lot of this and I'm particularly interested in this solution: https://stackoverflow.com/a/47455940
However it doesn't really go into the math of how to do such operations, can anyone clarify? Nor can I truly find anything that extensively talks about this.
<@&286206848099549185>
RIP lmao.
Sorry these channels tend to only get answers when the ppl who frequent them find the question interesting
Yea that's definitely understandable. I'll just have to keep looking and hoping.
As well as trying to solve in independently.
I'm really stuck on angles though....
Does anyone know if all vertices (or centers of the shapes) are located on a sphere?
Yea, unfortuneately it's less for the intrigue of mathematics and more for the practicality.
I've been told to come here. I'm trying to implement a bezier curve in some regard into a C++ program to be used to solve a BVP. I've found 2 algorithms for doing this. The first was too symbolic, but would probably work, but then I'd be focusing on simplifying equations, etc. The second I've found seems the most numerical, and it's the approach I am trying to take, but there seems to be a hole in the algorithm of some sort.
Let $B_{n,i}$ denote the $i$-th $n$-degree Bersntein polynomial s.t $B(t)=\sum_{i=0}^nB_{n,i}(t)P_i$, where $P_i$ denotes a control point.
The paper goes on to redefine the bezier curve as $\sum_{i=0}^n B_{n,i}(t)(\frac{i}{n},f(\frac{i}{n}))$.
Moving on to the beginning of the algorithm. Let $(P,Q)$ be a pair of unknowns and construct this Bezier curve spawned by the control points array $A={(a,y_a),(p,q),(b,y_b)}$, where $f(a)=y_a$ and $f(b)=y_b$ are the boundary values of the differential equation. It says we can compute the values of $p$ and $q$ respectively by the following two equations, included in the image.
Dodsy:
and here is an example where a numerical answer is given to the first part of the algoritm
I'm not exactly sure how they got the point (0.56344,1.68501)
I've tried mostly elementary things, and don't get anywhere near these values for (p,q)
Now the waiting game begins :P but there should be someone here who can help out
Depends who is around, not many people come to this channel
I don’t mind waiting! I’ll tinker with it :) thanks again guys
Not really, but the question is a bit vague
For example you can easily have a based homotopy between two curves of opposite orientation
But if you apply a homotopy to an oriented curve theres an obvious induced orientation
Here is my problem
I got a text that said that the integral of a form is the same on the following curves
Because they are homotopic
But aren't they curves with different orientation?
If so, shouldn't integral of formes cares for orientation?
,w parametric (sinx, cos^3x)
should be somewhat clear why this is homotopic to γ1 i believe?
That is clear but doesn't it change the orientation of the curve?
Yea it does
Homotopy doesnt necessarily preserve orientation
γ1 is +ve and γ2 is -ve i believe
Ok, so this was the point of Q
The orientation is not a factor when evaluating a form on homotopic curves
?
In that case I can always find an homotopy that changes direction to the curves
But like, this isn't a fixed endpoint htpy if we parametize both by [0,2pi]
that's not true abes
For R^2 yes(since the fundamental group is trivial)
that's also not true ariana
pi1 is about loops
try homotoping [0,1] to a point without moving the endpoints
or try reversing the orientation
Can you post where this Q is coming from abes
it feels like something is missing
because these curves have different basepoints
o rite they have different base points
I'll try and do my best at translating
We're considering exercise 2 and I'm given that form
which problem
Or vector field as u prefere
To show that it is not conservative (exact) he integrates on the curve (cos(t), sin(t))
As it holds a value different from 0 it cannot be exact
ok
At this point I'm asked to find the value of such form when integrating on the second curve (sin(t), cos³(t))
t in [0,2pi] yes
At this point he concludes because he already know the value on the first curve and their are homotopic
While I agree with everything I do not understand why the change of direction does not hold any consequence
I thought the curve orientation was important when evaluating form integral
Is it not important here because I have a closed curve?
I think that might be the trick here re: closed curve
(he has already shown that the form is closed in the domain)
but importantly your prof is playing fast and lose
bc the theorem is only true for fixed pt htpy
and this isn't one w/o reparam
you need to 'rotate' the first curve or the second curve
or you can just change the start/end point by choosing a different interval
Ok, it clarify many things as it was my problem
While I agree that the results has to be true I think I was misguided by his "losiness"
1: it's impossible to reverse the orientation unless the curve is closed
2: so its probably the only time it doesn't matter
Thanks bro, appreciated
np
tensor is left adjoint to hom i need this tattooed
hello?
Hi
Given the following surface why I can't just find the singular point as those that are zeroes for the Gradient?
So whats the effect on changing the base of the log used to define topolgical entropy in terms of what its used for?
(if we define it this way, that is)
Like do we just pick log base e or base 2 and call it a day for using this concept ^^^?
Can somebody check if this is correct?
This chat dead? I'm trying to understand geodesics
Whoops i meant to respond to the thing abb
Abv
@floral gust your answer is correct
So i assume the technique was lol
Well I knew the answers beforehand xD
Lmao well
Given top spaces x and y I have a continuous fnx f that maps $\mathbb{X} \to \mathbb{Y}$ and $n \to x_{n}$ converges to l on $\mathbb{X}$. I need to show $n \to f(x_{n})$ converges in $\mathbb{Y}$
I was thinking maybe path connectedness?
or something with sub sequences
Is the function continuous?
ah yes
OPz qt:
What definition of continuity do you have?
uniform and point
Is it not the definition of point continuity that given f, if x_n → x then f(x_n) → f(x) ?
yeah in a way yeah
we did it with epsilons and deltas
so I thought that only held in R plus I kind of haven't used point continuity in a while
Can somebody tell me how can I go formally from {2ne | n in Z} to 2Z?
Hi i was working on a proof which im not sure can work: Show R^2/A where A is countable, is path connected. I tried induction depending on cardinality of A, but not sure if that makes sense. Does it follow from induction, if we show the step, that it Will work for countable infinite set?
I talked to one person and his answer was that induction doesnt imply sth works for infinitely many numbers, which I think I disagree with
"works for finite case => works for countably infinite case" is false
I think that transfinite induction is just the finite induction + the implication "works for finite case => works for countably infinite case"
in fact, the implication is formally true because true => true but unformally, it's not because you know how to do the finite case that you know of to do the countably case
you don't need any induction to prove the result btw
you didn't read the whole conversation...
Is there any way my argument could work though?
With trans induction
And using lemma that if there exists a path then there exists another path that differs every where but start and finish
Something shitty you can do is say there are uncountably many paths which do not intersect between any 2 points
Then you're done pretty instantly
And this is an obvious fact
@gritty widget
Not when you take out uncountable set
But thats a shitty way
So you're only fucking up a countable number of paths
Actually I like this way
It isn't shitty
Probably wrong Channel, what Im not sure is how to trans induction
Lol
Prove it for all successor ordinals, show that if it's true for all ordinals less than a limit ordinal it is true for the limit ordinal
Tbh just use what I said, it's easier
And it's probably the intended solution
No
Smh
I know intended solution
Its you put a Line between 2 points
And show there are too many paths
That's what I said lol
Ye
Cool
Tbh this doesn't seem like the sort of thing you would want to prove with transfinite induction
Like the finite case for all n shouldn't imply the countable case
Ill try and if I fail Ill go to a set theory professor
Transfinite induction isn't hard, it just doesn't apply here
Not with that attitude
Wait
That doesn’t make any sense
Transfinite induction doesn’t work here because we don’t even care about 99% of the ordinals
And its patently untrue for any uncountable ordinal
Anyway liquids proof is the correct one
"correct proof"
Its a well known result with a well know best proof that has stood the test of time
If someone thinks of something cuter Ill rescind it
did i prove this right?
<@&286206848099549185> been > 15 mins
Looks fine from a brief glance
have any of yall used Bredon's book and/or have thoughts on it?
I read chapter 1 of it to figure out point-set for real and I'm gonna soon do a crash course on algebraic topology, quite possibly using it
sick, i’m thinking of checking it out over break to see how far i can get with it
is the n-th de rahm cohomology isomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^{\text{#number of connected sets}}$
mop:
No that's the 0th deRham cohomology isn't it
sorry 0-th ty
anyone wanna help me figure out a problem about indices of vector fields before my hw is due in one hour
naive question from someone who knows basically no topology: It feels like the side of topology that's the generalization of metric spaces is very different from the side of topology that's about stuff like manifolds. In practice, are these areas studied relatively separately but they get lumped together under the label of topology, or are they actually really similar if you have a more nuanced understanding of the subject?
They’re similar, topology removes the metric and studying metrics in manifolds goes by the name of Riemannian geometry
ah cool! thank you so much
I have a question
Let $S$ be a scheme, and let $G$ be a smooth affine group $S$-scheme. When we define the classifying stack $\mathcal{B}G:= [S/G]$ (with by definition trivial $G$-action). Is it a classifying stack in the sense that principal $G$-bundles over an $S$-scheme $X$ correspond to homomorphisms from the associated stack of $X$ to $\mathcal{B}G$? I imagine one proves this using some sort of $2$-yoneda lemma, but I don't know a precise statement.
Rose:
yes
the moduli property is essentially in terms of the Yoneda lemma for stacks, although you can also see this in terms of the functor of points for BG
Okay this is really basic question so feel like a complete dumbass for asking it
What would the area of the bottom right hand corner be, if we know the distance away from the top left hand corner?
E.g. say we know that the total length of the diagonal is sqrt(2)*a, but the line only intersects at 1, what is cotton hand corner area?
Oh also with assumption that length and width is a and a, and the area is a^2
is the solid line perpendicular to the dotted one?
Yes
ok so
struggling to write this in words
but the leg lengths of the triangle are a-something
can you find that something?
would you agree the bottom right hand corner triangle forms another 45 45 90 triangle?
the goal is an area in terms of a right? (just making sure)
Yup
Need way to find area depending on this distance from top left corner, which can change. Context of this is basically I'm modelling forest fires using cellular automata, and the solid diagonal line is a fire front
I need area because I want to work out the area burnt / total area
wait so what is the independent variable that we are picking
the length of the dotted line in the bottom right hand triangle?
ie, the distance from the bottom right hand corner to the intersection point
i think i see how to do it, lemme find some paper to draw it
thanks :)
well it seems like...
the total area and diagonal length doesnt matter
just the distance you pick from the corner to the intersection
because i could make the whole square huge without affecting the area
so i dont think it will depend on your a
the area purely depends on the distance choice
see how the area of the triangle is not dependent on the area of the square?
as long as i pick the same x, they have the same area
also #geometry-and-trigonometry next time for questions like these
thanks @gritty widget
although... upon reviewing your question you also wanted a proportion of area to the total square
which is dependent on the total area of course
and that should be easy to make
which should be this i think
ignore the bottom i was just testing one number to reassure myself a little
so i think that should give you the proportion of area burned to total area for any choice of x and a
well wait not every choice but every geometrically possible choice
$p=\frac{x^2}{4a^2}$ for $a>0$ and $x \leq \frac{\sqrt{2}a}{2}$ where $a$ is the side length of the square, $x$ is the distance from the intersection to the corner, and $p$ is the percent burned
Botnuke:
@eternal crown does that seem right?
I'm checking it out but it looks good, thanks so much @gritty widget
this is actually the equation that the paper I am working from used:
so the numerator is the total area - area burnt, and the denominator is the total area
and they get like 0.83, in the case that x = (sqrt(2)a - 1)
for working out A
the burnt out area in the corner
wait I'm still trying to work out what you've done...
i used 45 45 90 triangle properties
oh yeah
I'm really bad at basic geometry 😳
what would happen if x > sqrt(2)a/2 ?
would probably be then easier to just work out the burnt area
and use that to figure out the unburnt bit
cool cool cool
this is going to be a pain in the ass to code
it would become this area
yeah
and not sure it would hold anymore
yeah I think it would be quite tricky making a formula that holds for all values of x
you could make it a piecewise function
I could just have some condition that checks and then does things differently depending on whether x <= sqrt(2)a/2 as you mentioned above
yea and calculate the unshaded area (in the pic) instead if x is greater
and just subtract it from the total area
do you know whats going on in formula (5) that I linked @gritty widget ?
no, need context
the ((sqrt(2) -1)^2) * a^2) bit specifically
it is to work out the ratio of burnt area / total area
so the bit in the bracket in the numerator is the unburnt area, i.e. area A
that you were working out
the unburnt bit
ohhh
ok flip around all instances of “burnt” ive said with “unburnt”
didnt understand the context
im still not sure whats going on in that formula, was a choice for x already made?
the proportion i made earlier will be a formula for the unburnt part btw, not burnt
burnt will be 1-p
@tough hamlet this is geometry obviously 😄
i thought this was geometry 😭
All functions are continuous:
Oh it is supposed to be f(x) ≠ -g(x)
Well the homotopy can be quite explicit then
Yeah I know, I was thinking about in terms of degrees
for each $x\in X$ you know that the segment from $f(x)$ to $g(x)$ doesn't pass through the center so you can take [h_t(x):=\frac{(1-t)f(x)+tg(x)}{|(1-t)f(x)+tg(x)|}]
That whether can we say something about the individuals knowing the addition
Icy001:
Well two things
First the naive addition doesn't lie on the sphere
so you have to normalize it
Luckily, you can normalize it because $f(x)+g(x)\neq 0$
Icy001:
Secondly, what you get is just the $t=\frac12$ phase of the homotopy
Icy001:
Personally I don't see a plausible argument with degrees
No I mean not the naive addition, but by giving the complex representation to the points in S and then use the addition over the complex plane. Would that work?
by stereographic projection?
One point maps to infinity under such a projection and there's nothing stopping f or g from hitting that point so you'll have a problem
No not via stereographic but by representing points in S by (cos theta, sin theta)
Oh I was thinking of $S^2$ this whole time lol
Icy001:
well I mean the homotopy works for arbitrary dimensional spheres
but if you're thinking about $S^1$ then well...
Icy001:
Yeah, for the remaining, I can also just argue that they are contractible
And since [X,Y] is trivial if Y is contractible thus f and g are homotopic
Spheres aren't contractible 
for n >1?
yep
The infinite dimensional sphere is contractible which is what you might be thinking of
yep
I was thinking of impressing my TA by using some roundabout approach ):
Btw why is a sphere not contractible for n>1?
Oh I see why
A loop can be shrunk
but a n-sphere cannot be shrunk inside n-sphere right?
ya
I suppose I cant even use the fact that f+g is nullhomotopic ? (Or do your objections above also apply to S1 instead of just S2?)
For S1 I guess you can do that
but I'd express it as complex number multiplication
to avoid confusion
wait a sec
Negative of an angle isn't the same as the antipodal point
So when you rephrase it in terms of angles
I mean let's define new functions
$f(x)=e^{ia(x)}$ and $g(x)=e^{ib(x)}$
No I mean I would define in terms of pi + theta no?
Icy001:
$f(x)\neq -g(x)\iff \bR/2\pi\bZ\ni a(x)-b(x)\neq\pi$
Icy001:
Yea so $a(x)-b(x)$ is nullhomotopic so $a\simeq b$ and so $f\simeq g$
Icy001:
ok simplified would be
$f(x)/g(x)$ misses the point $-1$ on the unit circle
so $f(x)/g(x)$ is nullhomotopic
Are you sure $\mathbb S$ is $S^1$ though?
Icy001:
No I mean I have to do for Sn but I was interested in employing degrees
So just interested in S1
Hmm yeah
There is no continuous surjective map from $\bR^n$ to $S^n$ as far as I know
Icy001:
for $n>1$
Icy001:
Not even space filling curves?
Because I remember in the proof for showing that fundamental group of S2 is trivial, he said that usually the contraction works because a loop would miss a point but there exists loops as well which would fill all of S2
hm
ok this is both false and not what I wanted to say
ok what we need is a continuous map $\mu\colon S^n\times S^n\to S^n$ such that ${\mu(x,-x)\mid x\in S^n}$ is just one point
Icy001:
oh and that no other pair of points map to that point
what is both false ?
what I said
Oh okay
``There is no continuous surjective map from $\bR^n$ to $S^n$ as far as I know
''
Icy001:
Is u the measure?
No it's just some map for which subtraction of angles was an example of on $S^1$
Icy001:
and I'm trying to find the minimal generalization of that that allows you to use your method
Ah I see I see
Icy001:
I feel like this is another way to state the axioms of an H-space
In mathematics, an H-space, or a topological unital magma, is a topological space X (generally assumed to be connected) together with a continuous map μ : X × X → X with an identity element e such that μ(e, x) = μ(x, e) = x for all x in X. Alternatively, the maps μ(e,...
so I read that the wedge product on the grassman algebra is the linear continuation of the $\wedge: \Omega^n(M) \times \Omega^m(M) \to \Omega^{n+m}(M)$
mop:
np
lol did u see that in frederic schuller's geometric anatomy of theoretical physics
if a map f is defined on some set V equipped with an addition (not necessarily closed), if the span of V is some other space U which inherits the addition then u can define f on U by defining f(v + w) = f(v) + f(w) and f(av) = af(v) for v,w in V and a in the underlying field
this is not always well-defined though, so you have to check that it doesnt lead to any contradictions
Hi can someone help me prove this statement: Let X be a connected metric space. For any two closed disjoint sets $A,B \subset X, \exists C \neq \emptyset, C = \text{closed }, $ such that $C \cap A = \emptyset = C \cap B $.
Godel:
and singletons are closed in metric spaces
ohh yeah
lmao
I dont know why I didnt remember singletons being closed thx
Also in this one I'm not quite sure: Show that if in metric space $\left(X,d\right)$ for any open ball $B_d \left(x,r\right)$ satisfied is $\overline{B_d \left(x,r\right)} = {y: d\left(x,y\right) \leq r }$ then every ball in this space is connected.
Godel:
Like, isn't it obvious balls in metric spaces are path connected?
if thats not the way, any tips on how to show it?
hmmm
yeah thats true
Differential geometry: I need to show that the general form of a surface of revolution, given by $\vec{X}(u,v) = (f(v)\cos(u), f(v)\sin(u), h(v)) $is regular only if $f(v) \neq 0, f'(v) \neq 0)$ or $f(v) \neq 0, h'(v) \neq 0).$ Is it enough to calculate $\vec{X}_u \times \vec{X}_v = (f(v)h'(v)\cos(u), -f(v)h'(v)\sin(u), f(v)f'(v)(\sin^2(u) - \cos^2(u))$ and then state that $\vec{X}_u \times \vec{X}_v \neq 0$ only when $f(v) \neq 0, f'(v) \neq 0)$ or when $f(v) \neq 0, h'(v) \neq 0)$? Or should I show more, if this is even an appropriate first step at all?
Cool
Now if I could get somebody to help with it, that would be great
Biggest brain

Let $f: X \to Y$ be a quotient map. Let $Y$ be a connected space and assume that for every $y \in Y f^{-1} \left(y\right)$ is connected. Does it imply X is connected?
Godel:
so yes
the proof is very visual
do it by contradiction
here's an outline https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/302059/how-to-prove-this-result-involving-the-quotient-maps-and-connectedness
All functions are continuous:
@floral gust thanks, actually thats what I tried to do but got stuck in the half
Yw!
@floral gust wait, actually Im not sure about one thing: you said that for each y either f^-1 (y) \subset A or B since each fiber is conencted. Why is that? What does it being connected imply here?
Say a set is connected. Is it possible for it to lie inside two disjoint sets?
ahh okay
All functions are continuous:
I often think that f^-1(y) is just one point not sure why, gotcha
well if its one point its just obvious so I werent sure why was connected needed lol
Blame analysis classes tbh
Idk where to ask this but does anyone know what a mirror manifold is? My friend was talking about mirror symmetry and how with mirror manifolds the symplectic and complex structures are switched
that's a term used in string theory
special calabi-yau manifolds which we do IIA and IIB on
mirror symmetry is the relationship between IIA and IIB
@hazy forum
Yee

I was thinking of this problem recently and I wanted to hear your guys thoughts on it. What is the best way to tile a region on (cover) the surface of a sphere with circles. That is if you had a 3 steradian section what is the optimal layout to cover a region on the sphere with the least amount of circles. I think the solution on just a plane region is to tile the region with hexagons then circumscribe the hexagons with circles. But not sure how that would translate over to curved geometries like a sphere. Any tip/hints/resources are helpful!
You're correct about the plane one!
Hmm thank you, I've seen circle packing before and it's generalization to higher dimensions although with packing it doesn't allow for overlap and doesn't cover the full region (correct me if I'm wrong). Is there an analog which covers the region with the least amount of circles allowing for overlap?
I'm looking into voronoi tesselations on surfaces right now but can't seem to make a great connection between the partitions and circles of equal diameter
For continuity, there's two definitions usually. A metric one and one with open sets. They're equivalent.
This boils down to the metric topology is generated by open balls so it suffices to check continuity on the open balls which is the definition of continuity.
Why is the equivalence of definitions important/what problems does it solve? It makes one's mind set up connections between metric space concepts and topology concepts so that one can work with both better. In particular abstract results about topology can walk through the bridge to give us results about metric spaces. But they get stronger mostly.
My question is, what are some examples where this is striking?
One common example that is given is say we have a function from $\mathbb{R}^2$ to $\mathbb{R}$. And we are considering $\mathbb{R}^2$ once with the Euclidean metric $d_E$ and once with the taxicab metric $d_T$. It's claimed that this function is continuous on $(\mathbb{R}^2, d_E)$ if and only if this function is continuous on $(\mathbb{R}^2, d_T)$ BECAUSE $d_E$ and $d_T$ generate the same topology. However, this doesn't make a lot of sense to me. Can someone walk me through this example in detail? And what are some other examples where the equivalence of the metric and open set definitions of continuity are striking and can be used to solve interesting problems?
what do you mean by striking
Given space (X x Y,d) can I find a metric d' on X and d'' on Y such that the product of metric topologies induced by d' and d'' is equal to (X x Y, d)?
Can somebody explain how were these boundary maps obtained?
In particular I dont see why l0 and u0 should have opposing signs
<@&286206848099549185>
think about this: if you had a closed circle (starting from a base point and returning to it), then you’d want its boundary to be 0 right? so the sign of the starting and endpoint must be opposite in order to cancel out
ultimately it’s just a definition, the signs of the faces alternate when you take the boundary
but what I just said is why
in this example here also you want $\partial u_1 + \partial l_1 = 0$. and you can only get that reasonably if you treat start and endpoints differently
Sascha Baer:
@floral gust
@midnight jewel But why would I want it to be 0? Isnt the criteria that the d_n+1 d_n = 0 and not d_n= 0? Secondly, we were made to use the cellular boundary formula in which we consider the degrees of the maps. Would be very helpful if you can explain in that context
what is the boundary of a closed circle?
intuitively
(it has to be some 0-dimensional set)
(well, a 0-chain I mean)
(not techncially a set)
as I see it, a circle oughn’t have a boundary or something has gone wrong
No, its more like the degree of the map going from the boundary of the disc attached to the cells it was being attached ( quotient the remaining space to a point)
And boundary of a circle, shouldnt it be like two points ?
which two?
l0 u0
why those
because they were used as our 0-cells
think more topologically. the boundary of a complex is defined in such a way that it’s always the thing that you’d intuitively want it to be. those two points clearly lie in the interior of that circle, so they can’t be boundary points
the boundary isn’t just the skeleton of one dimension lower
it’s only “exposed” bits of it, so to speak
you know, like a boundary
yes, the boundary is 0
I wouldn’t call it the empty set per se because complexes aren’t really sets (they’re functions into your space)
well, actually no, sorry, that’s for Δ-complexes I think CW-complexes you do see as sets
Oh okay then might be stupid but for clarification why i couldnt have the first one to be u0 +l0 and the second to be -u0-l0?
I’m confusing formalisms here
well, sure, but what really distinguishes the two? you can slide around one to get the other and suddenly the signs changed?
but each has a clearly defined “front” and “back”
so you just say the front has positive sign and the back negative sign and it all works out
how are the boundary maps defined ?
Oh okay, lastly, for the last complex, why did the signs changed. Using just one orientation, both of them should yield u1 +l1, no? Or is it the same boundary argument?
point is the boundary is just defined to be alternating in sign because then everything works
what do you mean with the signs changed?
like d2u1 = -d2 l1?
I would say that if we were talking about simplicial complexes yeah
for the top one, orientation is one way round, for the bottom one it’s the other way round
like, it literally is, for one it goes clockwise for the other counterclockwise, just based on how the arrows are drawn
How so?
CW complexes are definitely the kind I’m least familiar with, we did most of algtopo with Δ-complexes
same

