#point-set-topology
1 messages Ā· Page 159 of 1
Yes in the finite case
Yes in the locally finite case, iirc
(meaning every point had a nbhd that intersects finitely many members of your cover)
No in general
Take any T0 space and a function out of it. It's continuous on each point set {x}, and these form a closed cover of your space
But in general they won't be continuous
Have you heard of the gluing lemma? @rugged swan
Suppose A, B cover X and A\B is contained in Int A, B\A is contained in Int B
nbhd ?
ok
Anyways under the conditions there, a piece wise continous function on A, B is continous, and the conditions hold if A, B are closed
B cover X means that X subset of B ?
No
I didn't studied topology in general yet (only in metric spaces) and I'm learning algebraic topology x)
A, B cover X mean that they're subsets of X whose union is X
You should probably learn more general top. before AT
I mean I skipped most of it
oh I didn't see the "," lel
I didn't bother with all the separateness or tychonoff or anything
But you still need basic topology
I know how topology works but it's technical
Yeah it is lol
But you need to know basic theorems in topology
Facts about connectedness/local connectedness/compactness/that stuff
The book Topology and Groupoids does general topology with a view towards AT
mh
I'll look at it
I have a topology cours in the second semester but I can wait till the course lel
who wrote your book ?
Ronald Brown
Yup
btw I didn't hear of the gluing lemma
Is this correct for symmetry?
yes
Idk why but a paper suggested that the desired homotopy is g(s,t) =h(s,1-t) so was kinda confused
this depends of your definition of homotopy
the idea is that you can transform continuously your first path to your second path
the "transform continously" is in your first variable here
because you ask for h to satisfy h(0,t) = y(t)
and h(1,t) = y'(t)
(by varying your first variable, you go from y to y')
in the paper you read, the author's definition of an homotopy was h(t,0) = y(t), h(t,1) = y'(t)
btw, it is more common that the "transform continuously" variable is the second
I think.
All papers I've read use the second variable definition
@rugged swan the gluing lemma is what I stated above
The thing you started out asking about
Here is an example of the lemma
^
The thing you originally asked about is false if I is infinite and follows from the gluing lemma when I is finite
ok ok
What would f_hat will be in this case?
no š¦
@sleek thicket w8
your lemma is weird
if I take A = ]0,+oo[
B = ]-oo,0]
and X = R
we have A\B = A subset of Int(A) bc A is open
but B\A = B isn't subset of Int(B)
bc Int(B) = ]-oo,0[
Yes? That's means it doesn't apply
And that's good
Take f to be x on B and x+1 on A
I didn't understand what's the exact statement of your lemma then
I've read that if AUB = X and A\B subset of Int(A), then B\A subset of Int(B)
No
The condition is that all three of those hold
And the result is that you can define continuous functions piece wise
oh ok
Meaning that for any continuous f defined on A and g defined on B which agree A intersect B, there is a unique continuous function h defined on X which equals f on A and g on B
Does that make sense?
yep
Is a path just a homotopy of points?
lol
you can see it as a function h(u,t) = y(t) yes
where h(_,t) is a path for fixed t
(this is a constant path)
@floral gust yes, this is a nice way to think of it because it generalizes to higher homotopies
We can think of points in X as functions from a one point set into X
So a path is a homotopy between two of those functions, with chosen start and end
And then a path-homotopy is a homotopy between two of the paths with fixed start and end paths
And so on
locally path connected connected semilocally simply connected
Did I miss anything?
Sometimes you want to throw in hausdorff when doing cover stuff
But yeah thatās normally sufficient
For like universal cover etc
I have a dumb q
Let B^n be the closed n ball
We have a map F : B^n -> R^(n+1){0} given by F(x1,...,xn) = (x1,...,xn, sqrt(1 - Σxi^2))
And a quotient map q : R^(n+1){0} -> P^n
Is the composition q ° F a quotient map?
Oh wait it's not surjective is it
For some reason I thought it would be but now I doubt
It surjects onto the copy of P^(n-1)
It is
Geometrically it's image is a paraboloid
Which intersects every line at least once
Let p : X -> Y be a quotient map and A a closed saturated subspace of X. When is Y the adjunction space of X and p(A)?
It holds in the case where A is the union of all nontrivial fibers
Which is what I nerd
*need
I figured out how to show that P^(n+1) is obtained by attaching an n+1 cell to P^n
By general results about pushout squares
Feelsgoodman
Why do we denote loops based at point p in X by Ī©(X,p) instead of Ī©(p)? Doesnt the fact p is in X makes it much more useful to use the latter?
Uh
Consider A subset X both containing p
Whatās Omega(p)?
Tbh itās much more common to see p dropped
And just use OmegaX
With basepoint being implicit
How does one reads this diagrams
Uh the top and bottom
Are like the end results of homotopy
And the middle describes the homotopy
Hi
Does anyone here like, fully understand spectral sequences
Iāve been like bouncing them around, and I get the general concept
But the specifics of how the differentials/gradings/resultions work out
Has been elusive for me
@ me if you are willing to ELIU for me
Actually Iām just gonna write stuff
OK
So
what do we have
A bunch of Z-bi-graded pages E^r
W differentials
Such that $d^r: E^r_{p,q}\to E^r_{p-r,q+r-1}$
MaxJ:
That is, they are diagonal bios
Bois*
Ok
So we want $E^r_{p,q}\cong H(E^r_{p,q})$
MaxJ:
Where we define $H$ in the obvious way using the differentials (grading H doesnāt really make sense here I guess bc it would be a nasty formula with the bigrade a
MaxJ:
If $E^r_{p,q}$ stabilizes we call it $E^\infty_{p,q}$
MaxJ:
Jesus this is so much data
I should take like, a few hours this weekend
And write up a nice set of notes on this stuff
is the plural of complex complices or complexes?
This stuff sticks
*sucks
Like a year from now I'm going to have learned spectral sequences and think they're great
But they just look at annoying
Can someone help me
Side length of square is 2cm. I need to find the area of the shaded area
Vvithout calculus
Can you do it
is this a joke question
no, because
- matrix - matrices and index - indices exists and are commonplace
- I didnāt look up the etymology of complex to realize it was actually complexus in latin; I assumed it was complex all the way down
I have trouble learning them
Bc I donāt have any real reason to rn
No immediate applications or paper to write or anything
I feel like machinery needs to be used to be truly understood
I'm planning to do sheaf and group cohomology this year (definitely sheaf, maybe not group) so I'll find a reason
AG prof blew my mind
Apparently the cocycle condition is a shadow of a simplicial object
im taking a course on manifolds using Lee's smooth manifolds book next sem
what should i read beforehand
o I had thought that would a higher level than Lee's book
Yeah the first book of that series is roughly equivalent to Lee's smooth manifolds
And Spivak's calculus on manifolds is basically a precursor to the first book of that series
i see
Can somebody explain how this proof works? I know that a group isomorphism = bijective homomorphism. Since the function is continuous, it induced a homomorphism. How does the above proof convinces that it is also bijective?
Thatās one equivalent def
Functions that have an inverse are bijective
The much more natural definition of isomorphism
Or homeomorphism
Or whatever version of iso you want
Is that itās invertible by a function of the same type
So the fact that the homomorphisms has a (full) inverse
Tells you that itās an isomorphism
This is very important for understanding situations like this, the general term is that pi1 is functorial
And this is how we think about isomorphisms in categories
So the proof should just require one to write that since the function is homeomorphic it admits an inverse, and since it is continuous it induces a homomorphism. Thus it induces an isomorphism. Would this be correct?
One last edition
Observe that that the induced homomorphism of identity is identity
And so the inversion property is preserved
Just getting bidirectional homomorphisms isnāt quite sufficient, and in nonfunctorial settings would actually be false
How would I show the independence
if you can show itās an integer then showing itās continuous would do it (havenāt thought through it tho)
like show the righthand side is continuous in t
and always an integer
Showing it's an integer is just like when is e^a = e^b right?
Oh lol I read it as "independent of choice of lift"
wouldnāt it depend on the covering map tho
I assume thereās some underlying assumption that the cover is like $\R \ni t \mapsto e^{2\pi i t} \in S^1 \subset \C$?
Sascha Baer:
btw is that the same degree as in degree via homology?
or, well, ends up being the same
I am really struggling with AT because I donāt have the time/energy to read up on the things I couldnāt follow in class
Iām like⦠following the general ideas but failing to understand a lot of the details
@QuickMaffs we need a little bit more context
and I just know itās gonna come back to bite me
That's where I'm at with AG right now
I need to do a bunch of really messy stuff this weekendb
That the prof was like "okay do this on your own"
Or else I'll get totally lost
well this week Iām mostly preparing for a midterm in another subject so even less time
and diffgeo+TAing is eating up the rest of my time
also I disagree, four dimension better
And understand the classification of surfaces
And so an algebra take home midterm by Wednesday
And do a computability theory mditsrm tomorrow
This is the full question
Yeah I have shown that it is an integer
Okay, well let g(t) = f'(t+1) - f'(t)
Where f' is the lift
This is continuous on R
And is integer valued
Right?
yep
What can we say about g from that?
Yeah I can see that g must be constant everywhere but a proof doesnt come to mind
Prove that the following is equivalent to connectedness of X:
All functions from X to a discrete space are constant
continuous
all functions are continuous fam
youāre continuous
I won't even look at discontinuous functions
Analysis is bullshit because it has functions other than rational functions
And R is X in my situation?
Complex analysis is on thin fucking ice
Yes it is
But the general result is good to know
And easier to prove because you don't need to worry about the specifics
Okay perfect. So I have that connectedness of R <=> continuous function from R to discrete (in this case integers) is constant => deg_f(t) = deg_f(k) and thus independent
Yeah, exactly
Thanks!
Np
The connectedness thing?
Oh wait you can actually do it more easily on R
Just write down "intermediate value theorem lol"
Which is what all connectedness arguments are in their bones
Btw how would I argue that deg_f(t) induces the discrete topology on Z
We dont know that a priori?
Well like
g is a function into the real line
And is continuous
Right?
Because it's integer valued, it induces a function R -> Z
And by the "characteristic property of the subspace topology", this function is continuous as a function into the subspace Z of R
So really the point is that the discrete and subspace topologies on Z coincide
which follows from the fact that you can easily draw some open intervals around each element in ā¤
so each point is open
Sorry, I still dont see how it follows. What I am given is that deg_f(t) is a map from (R, t_std) to (Z, t_unknown). Once I show that t_unknown = t_discrete I can argue that deg_f(t) is continuous and it is a map to a discrete space thus it must be constant.
Now I understand the point that if deg_f(t) is a map from R to the "subspace" Z of R then I can just say that it maps to (Z, t_sub) = (Z,t_discrete).
So my question is, what allows me to just say that Z is a subspace of R (that is it is endowed with subspace topology) and not, lets say, indiscrete topology?
@sleek thicket
No that's not what you're given
You have a function deg
Forget about it
Define g : R -> R by g(t) = f(t+1) - f(t)
Ah okay
We know that f is a map from R_std to R_std so g is also a map from R_std to R_std. However, the domain is just Z so it maps to the subspace Z. Which has the discrete topology. Correct?
Thanks! And apologies for the constant bother
So like we know f(t+1) = f(t) + n for some n
Right?
And g(s+1) = g(s) + k
Then g(f(t + 1)) = g(f(t) + n) = g(f(t) + n-1 + 1) = g(f(t) + n - 1) + k
Do induction
You'll get g(f(t)) + nk
@floral gust
Oh yeah lol
I'm stupid
Didn't you prove uniqueness?
Oh no you didn't
And shouldn't
Okay so really what we want is that deg f is indepent of lift
Okay so like
This is all I have and the only context I have are the path lifting theorems
Your definition of degree is bad
You see why?
You don't know that deg f is independent of choice of f hat
But should that matter?
Well it means deg f isn't a function of f
It's a function of f along with a choice of lift
And so g' ° f' will lift g°f
Just paste the two diagrams together
That specify f' and g' are lifts
Okay so check this out
Let f' and f'' lift f
Consider the function s(t) = f'(t) - f''(t)
What can you say about s?
Hint: same trick as before
You see my concern and solution?
Any two lifts differ by a constant integer value
But that gets killed off in the degree
Yes, concern being it is possible that upon changing the lift, the degree might change. And the concern is resolved by proving it doesnt
Yup
So you get to choose the lift for g°f
And by putting the diagrams for g and f together, the composition of their lifts lifts their composition
Okay so I will have that h'(t+1) - h(t) = deg(g o f ) = g'(f'(t+1) ) - g'f'(t) and the remaining I can handle
THanks!
I think you're missing a prime but yeah
What class is this for?
I think we're doing a similar pace
Topology
Except mine is like two weeks earlier because we start super late
Intro?
Because if so, nice
Yeah
Although the prof tries to make the classes fast paced so we covered almost all pointset in first two weeks
Ye....... Book recommednations?
I am trying to balance it with Lee's Introduction to topological manifolds but that gets advanced real quick
That's what I'm using /shrug
I learned originally from Topology and Groupoids
Which is weird
People like Munkres
Munkres has a bad interface š¦
Like I dont like the formatting of text
which makes it idk bad for me
munkres formatting is bad?
@floral gust long story short i was gifted nitro on the condition that i put "physics > math" in my name
so i did this
doing "physics >= math" would break the terms
Technically yes? I studied stuff on my own though
It's supposed to be approachable for grad students whose undergrads didn't have a topology class
So wait are you a grad student?
No but the undergrad topology course is a joke
Ye... honestly...
Like thanks for these pathological examples I will never ever use.....
I mean like I appreciate weird spaces
But like
Do we need to teach all of the separateness axioms in depth?
I just don't really get the priorities
And those neverending prefixes.....
Idk, I like Lee's approach of "everything is nice but also you need to know the conditions"
Like people should leave a course understanding locally path connected vs locally connected and why they aren't implied by the global versions
But that's not the point
If you know what I mean
Yeah exactly like the focus is so much on irrelevant stuff like imo topology should be sort of built only as far it is useful and required for algebraic or maybe maybe geomteric topology
If I would never see Lindelof in algebraic, dont teach it. Maybe just include it as a small text box. Devoting a full chapter and a week doesnt make sense
Like thanks for these pathological examples I will never ever use.....
I like pathological examples
they help me actually understand what can go wrong
sorry just trying to figure out if the above is the right transformation rule for the gammas
because it doesn't seem like they transform like (1,2) tensors
and this is on some smooth mfd with a connection blablabla
that looks roughly right, I scratched out a little derivation but I wasn't careful since I'm tired
they aren't tensors, so it's to be expected
that's why they call them Christoffel symbols not Christoffel tensors
hi, do you have any good references for non euclidean geometry ?
what sort of?
i had a nice book on hyperbolic geometry
but it's just one type of non-euclidean
idk if it's what you want
I need to do a course for undergratuate students, I'm thinking about Galois theory because I know this domain but I thought also about non euclidean geometry that I don't know, maybe a little introduction would be great
hm thx
non euclidean geometry is really related to projective geometry ?
I didn't know that
well if it's geometry but not euclidean then it's pretty much non-euclidean geometry
ok, I wanted to do a historical approach like introducing the euclidean geometry axioms and look at what could we do if we change the 4th axiom
i think we used this https://www.springer.com/gp/book/9781852339340
This book helps readers grasp the concepts and techniques of a beautiful area of mathematics. Includes full solutions for all exercises....
doesn't require much pre-knowledge on anything
and it starts with stuff like what happens if you poke the parallel postulate
How can I show this without using homotopic maps have the same degree
I mean just lift a point up and argue that at least one of its preimages is contained in the image of the lifted map
if it has degree ā 0 then itāll cover either [0,1] or [-1,0] so you can find a preimage in one of those two
Oh I am not given [0,1] or [-1,0]. I am just given the lifts from R to R
@midnight jewel
[0,1] and [-1,0] are in fact subsets of ā
Iām treating 0 as the starting point of the path in ā here, you can also just like, name it x or whatever
in which case youād cover either all of [x, x+1] or all of [x-1, x]
the importance is just htat if the degree is nonzero, then youāll have an entire preimage of S¹ in the image of fĢ
As in degree ā 0 => Ļ(f'(R))=S?
Iām saying you take a point x in S¹. its preimage under Ļ is a set of the form {y + n | n ā ā¤} for some y. Using exercise (b) and the intermediate value theorem, you can now show that if the degree is not 0, one of those must be in the image of fĢ, which will show that x is in the image of f
Is the length of the vector projection of a onto b always less than or equal to the length of a?
It makes sense but Iām not 100% sure
A hypotenuse is always either equal or greater than its base by Pythagoras theorem
Great thank you
Iām not sure, that looks foreign to me.
i found this interesting thing and i cannot understand why it happens
we know that pi = 180 degree
cos(180) = cos(pi)
but if you do
cos(180*180) it is not equal to cos(pi * pi)
why does this happens
But you answered my question. It was what I had suspected, just needed a little reassurance haha
@floral gust yeah that looks good
And sounds like what the other person was outlining
Although I really hate that you have k + n and k isn't an integer
):
Any ideas for the converse as well? (I really hate my TA for introducing degree theory when we havent even done lifting properly)
Show there exists a degree 0 surjective map from S1 to S1
Yeah
I'm not going to use a result about it
Okay
Well the degree is measuring what power of the generator you are
Considering a map S^1 -> S^1 as a loop
This breaks a little because you can move around the basepoint
But do you see what I mean?
Yeah I see your point
So let's think about how you can have a loop which is nullhomotopic but goes around the circle
Well
Why did we need homotopy to define the fundamental group in the first place?
Yeah so basically finding a surjective nullhomoptic function right?
concatenation?
Right so concatenation of paths isn't a group operation
But it is on homotopy classes of paths
What changes?
The endpoints ?
The fact that for two paths to be homotopic they must have the same endpoints?
@sleek thicket
So what I'm thinking is inverses
Take a loop that goes around the circle once
That's not nullhomotopic
But if we concatenate with its inverse it is
And the image will still hit all of those points
Does that make sense?
Yes it does.
Actually thats kinda what I had in mind to consider a piecewise function in which the first half is exponenital in forward, and the second half is exponential in backward
Yeah, I think that's the same thing
@floral gust the image you posted is pretty much exactlt what I said with some details filled in, yea
Oh yeah that's what I wanted to ask! Thanks!
you ask a question
Okay so like
Because I can't understand fiber products
I'm gonna think about applying them
Instead of the construction
In my class we looked how if you map Spec k -> A^1 by sending the point of Spec k to some point a and map A^1 -> A^1 by squaring, and then take the fiber product, you get Spec k[t]/(t^2 - a)
This is easy because we're working with affine varieties
But in the case a = 0, this is actually false. The fiber product is just Spec k because we're working with varieties and the reduction of k[t]/(t^2) is k
So it's either two points or a point with fuzz
Does this generalize in the obvious way?
Suppose you have a point a of Y and a morphism f : X -> Y. Define g : Spec k -> Y to pick out a. Is the fiber product of X and Spec k the fiber of f over a?
Suppose everything's affine, X = Spec B and Y = Spec A, so f makes B an A algebra (let Ļ be the map A -> B)
So a is really a maximal ideal m of A
And really f takes a maximal ideal n of B to its preimage under Ļ
Then f^(-1)(m) = { n maximal ideal of B : Ļ^(-1)(n) = m}
And the fiber product of X with Spec k is the spectrum of (the reduced ring of) B (Ć)_A k
Okay so if we choose presentations B = k[x1,...,xi]/R and A = k[y1,...,yj]/S, then as A algebras, B = k[x1,...,xi,y1,...,yj]/(R + S + (y1 - Ļ(y1),...,yj - Ļ(yj)))
So like I guess B (Ć)_A k is k[x1,...,xi]/(Ļ(y1),...,Ļ(yj))
Ugh I need to write this out more formally, I'm not confident in that
yo does an embedding of one manifold in another have to be a smooth map
like an embedding of one smooth manifold in another
yeah every map in the context of a smooth manifold is assumed to be smooth
damnit
ok i have a problem that says that there's an injective, closed immersion between smooth manifolds f:M->N
and i have to show f must be an embedding
so it's not enough to show that f is a homeomorphism onto its image?
i also have to show that the inverse of f on its image is smooth?
(by the way, does that happen to follow immediately from anything :p)
apparently this is some kind of well known thing or smth, at least according to this post: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1950646/when-is-a-smooth-homeomorphism-a-diffeomorphism
because we want stuff like x -> x^3 to be a closed embedding
wait why is homeo onto its image enough?
for the definition
we just say that's what closed embeddings are
we don't require diffeo to its image
oh, but according to this post diffeo follows
no it doesn't
oh ok
i wasnt in class when they defined precisely what an embedding was
the answers clears it up: there are immersion homeos that are not diffeos
gotcha, thanks
hm can anyone explain to me why the bottom line on page 3 is true
it says Z = g^{-1}(0)
but g is not even defined on all of Y
actually ig my question is
if Z is a submanifold of Y then why does there exist a smooth map g : Y -> R^(y-z) such that g^{-1}(0) = Z?
the chart has been picked around a point "a" in the image
so that 0 corresponds to the point you want
yes
it is implied here that (0, ..., 0) corresponds to a
as well as (c1, ..., cz, 0, ..., 0) corresponds to Z
wait so "a" is chosen in Z intersect f(X)?
tes
ok but why does that mean g : Y -> R^(y-z)
the domain of g is not Y right
since c_i is a map from U to R for some U subset of Y
hmm
not sure exactly what they need
but you may extend it to the whole of Y
by extending it by 0
and smoothing out
huh
you get a piece of Z
yea
and you can piece together this argument for different points of Z
actually the rest of the argument is also very confusing
this isn't very well written
maybe try finding another source
at least it's better than the proof of the same theorem here: https://schapos.people.uic.edu/MATH549_Fall2015_files/transversality_handout_Greenblatt.pdf
"construct a map g:Y->R^(y-z) such that g^{-1}(0) = Z"
ah
but the problem is idk if transversality still holds
only locally
it just depends on the tangent space at a point
in the domain and image
like if f : X->Y is a smooth map and f is transverse to some submanifold K of Y then f need not be transverse to Y
but what if the open neighborhood we pick has a wildly different tangent space
it doesn't
the tangent space is a local construction
it's the same on any neighborhood around the point
ok true
ok sure
now i agree that if f : X->Y is transverse to Z a submanifold of Y then for any open neighborhood U subset of Y of a point p in Z, if we let the open neihgborhood V of p in Z be V = U intersect Z, then f is transverse to V
i guess then we can get that f^{-1}(V) is a submanifold of X
but why does gluing together the preimages f^{-1}(V1) ... f^{-1}(Vk) result in a submanifold of X
is there some generic submanifold construction for the union of two submanifolds
i dont even know of a topology that is naturally equipped on the union of two topological spaces
your set is f^-1(Z)
and you are taking open sets on it
and showing they are manifolds
how does a collection of manifolds whose union is a set become a manifold
a topological space which is covered by manifolds is a manifold
why is f^{-1}(Z) a topological space
it's a subspace of X
oh right
man we never mentioned in class that a top space covered by manifolds is a manifold
but i hope it's obvious enough
that i can just write one line about charts covering every point
you can actually glue the local maps into a global map
F should be g o f
well okay but I mean the first part
you can glue local maps into a global map using partitions of unity
maybe not even
er yea it is
in order to make it agree on a neighborhood i think
it's the cleanest way of doing it
ok yea i see
i dont know if the manifolds are paracompact tho
(which iirc is the condition needed for the existence of a partition of unity)
they are
even if they are not you can build a partition of unity
only it's not made up of countably many things
but it's still locally finite
so it works the same
wait huh manifolds need not be paracompact right
they usually are
also according to https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/paracompact+Hausdorff+spaces+equivalently+admit+subordinate+partitions+of+unity, a partition of unity may not be guaranteed if not paracompact
I mean
second countable + hausdorff are the usual conditions
and they imply paracompactness
the manifolds at least in the context im studying them are second countable + hausdorff
yes
oh does it
but dont there exist second countable hausdorff spaces that are not metrizable
and hence not paracompact
dont they have to be regular or smth tho
oh right
damn
i never realized that lmao
wow i've been living my whole life thinking there existed non-paracompact manifolds
usually when people say that they mean they drop second countability
and it's done, rarely
i thought paracompact implied second-countable
oh er nvm
misread
anyway, thanks
yw
oh wait also while you're here, do u happen to know how i can show that if M is a submanifold of R^n then for any point p in R^n, the point q in M closest to p satisfies that p-q is normal to every tangent vector to M at q
i dont really see how to do it in general
in the special case where M is like the preimage under some function of a point or something i think i can do it
nvm think i got it
yeah if it's not then you kinda flow the other way
aka the non perpendicular direction
and get closer
because of dimension concerns, it is a direct sum
(dim k) + (dim n-k) = dim n
implies the sum is direct anyway
you shouldn't take at face value the comments/questions on these websites, only the answers
oh also another question
if Z is a submanifold of Y why does there exist a chart neighborhood V of Y such that V intersect Z is a chart neighborhood of Z?
oh wait nvm i see
yeah these details take a bit of getting used to
you can actually define a manifold by this property
oh wait irght
as a subset of R^n
that follows from the definition of submanfiold that we're using
wait actually idk if it does
it might depending on what it is
for an intrinsic definition of submanifold
if N is a smooth manifold and M is a subset of N equipped with the subspace topology then every open set in M is of the form M intersect V for some open V in N
is it also true that every chart domain in M is of the form M intersect V for some chart domain V in N
yeah
why's this true?
you take a small enough open of N such that it's a chart
and then you keep making it smaller until the intersection with M is a chart
take an open set of M that is a chart
yes
since it's open in the subset topology it comes from an open V of N
yup
intersect this V with a chart open for N
now this is a chart open for N which intersects to a chart open for M
ojhhh
gotcha thanks
ok yea i dont think im gonna be able to write the proof that preimage of a submanifold transverse to a function is a submanifold of the domain
too many small things to write that im not able to keep track of
even after all of this i cant show that a point is a regular value
fukcing hell
wait
is the rank of the push forward of the projection R^n -> R^(n-k) to the last n-k coordinates equal to n-k on any open neighborhood of the domain
wait ugh
rank(AB) = rank(B) right
yea
wait
im pretty sure that it's actually not a direct sum
i think it's just a union
because to be a direct sum we would have dim(Y) = dim(Z) + dim(X)
which is not true; only dim(Y) < dim(Z) + dim(X)
for metrics d: X x X -> [0; inf) set X contains come n-th dimensional points right?
@next eagle what?
So I know that the notation āS can be used to describe the boundary of a set S. Is there a sort of "inverse" operator to ā that takes a boundary and gives the region bounded by it (assuming that a notion of "outside" and "inside" has been defined)?
I guess KIND OF like $\partial^{-1} C$ for some closed curve $C$?
DMAshura:
In principle, by the Jordan curve theorem a simple closed curve splits R^2 into two connected components
Each component has the curve as its boundary, and only one of them is bounded
So you could say okay choose that guy given a simple closed curve
But it's never usually thought of as an operator really
It's just like, let D be the region it bounds
Would it be weird to write it as $\partial^{-1} C$ in my notes? XD
DMAshura:
Probably
Lmao
If that were doable then the term "Electromotive force" wouldn't be a thing anymore in physics
Yeah, and all the textbooks would use Ļ š
But hey I just enjoy trying to improve on notation š
I'm gonna think about an easier thing from office hours than locally representable bullshit
My prof claimed that if Z/2Z acts freely on a scheme X, there may not be a quotient scheme of X by that action
So like let's do an easy example
X = A^1\{0} (= Spec k[x, y]/(xy - 1))
So as a topological space, X is cofinite plus a generic point
And like let's say k algebraically closed
Let C2 = { ε, ι }, where ε is the identity and ι^2 = 1
Then C2 acts on X as a space by εā¢x = x and ιā¢x = -x
Oh if we think of X as an algebraic group then C2 is the subgroup { 1, -1 } acting on X by multiplication
We can't do ιā¢x = 1/x because then it's not a free action
And the action of ι is a linear polynomial so its an iso on A^1, and it restricts to an iso on X
So morally the quotient X/C2 should be like an open ray?
Like maybe it's just A^1???
Oh no the structure sheaf has to be weird is the thing?
So let's let Y be the quotient
Y represents a certain functor
The thing which sends Z to { Ļ : X -> Z | Ļ(x) = Ļ(-x) }
I need to poke Y by choosing a good Z
trex:
Omfg I'm dumb
Something still feels off but I'm not sure what it is
Oh I think I know my propylene
*problem
I'm visualizing k = R instead of k = C
Geometrically
idk, the invariants of k[x, x^{-1}] under C2 is k[x^2, x^{-2}], which is precisely what you want
ah
that makes sense lol
Literally every time I do this stuff
I get confused about that
It's been like 4 months since I started doing AG and yet
Okay, time to think about other free C2 actions
There's one on P^1
Which sends z to 1/z, aka swaps the homogenous coordinates
heh I can relate, I remember I spent a lot of time on a question during my Riemann surface exam before realizing that a connected complex curve minus some points is still connected, because it's not topologically a curve
Yessss
It's so unnecessarily confusing
Like it's really obvious if you think for a second
This is still interesting though, since the map z -> z^2 gets weird at 0
Ohhh but I excluded 0
So it's unbad
yess
Lol
Oh, good point
Right and that makes sense when I think about it as z -> 1/z
It'll also fix [1:-1]
(assume char k = 0 I guess. Actually assume k = C)
What about z -> -1/z though? I'm not sure if i can make sense of that in projective coords
Wait no
z = i
Uhhh z -> -1/(conj z)?
Oh but conjugation isn't like a rational function
Idk if I can make algebraic sense of that
well yeah, if you work with Z/2, better not work in char=2
Yeah good point
yeah, this is not C-polynomial
Maybe it works though?
Oh no
It won't be a morphism
Because of what I was saying
If C2 acts by inversion, what does P^1/C2 look like?
We identify z and 1/z
so via -1/\bar z ?
So [x:y] and [y:x]
Well that's what I'm looking for tbh
but probably like P^1
But I was told to look for a free action with no quotient
I'll think about why it's not a scheme for rn
I think the classical counter-example is pretty complicated
Classical counterexample as in complex analytic with no complex analytic quotient?
Or as in the standard scheme example?
standard scheme example
I guess I'll think about weirder schemes then
but maybe I'm confusing this with another counterexample
I'm not sure if he actually wanted me to find it or was just motivating why we would maybe move to more complicated categories of spaces
But it's good to think about anyways
certainly
I think I figured out part of why things weren't working
Like actions of the form z -> p(z)/q(z)
A fixed point of this map is a root of p(z) - zq(z), which exists b.c. we're all algebraically closed here
This isn't 100% formal but still
is this the place for computational geoemetry?
How did he take the derivative of gamma here?
idk how this part works at all lol
thanks in advance š
you're most welcome
<@&286206848099549185> ^
rip
rip
was my question too vague or something
wow I haven't seen a green chalkboard in years
imagine using a whiteboard or using a dry wiping thing on your chalkboard
im not really sure how to interpret all the decorations on the gammas, but it looks like your prof is talking about normal coordinates, where the components of the metric tensor are just the kronecker delta and the gammas disappear at the point; if you look up "normal coordinates" you might be able to find an explanation that makes more sense to you
oh wait is that first subscript like telling you what parameterization the christoffel comes from
Do you have clear why there exist a chart where the components of the transition function looks like alpha^ + cristhoffel?
i mean it's a chart you can do anything
i made macarons:
i wrote the question up more clearly
P is fixed?
Anyway p should be fixed, so the gammas are just real numbers and do not depend on alpha^i
@limpid mural why does the 1/2 go tho
You are deriving a product alpha^j alpha^k
The notation is a little confusing, the j in. The gamma Is not fixed while the j in the deltas is fixed
I guess
Write down the sum and derive with respect j fixed
Let's say the j in the gammas is now an h
$\pm \Gamma^i_{mk} \cdot (\delta^m_j \alpha^k + \alpha^m \delta^k_j)$
i made macarons:
$\Gamma^i_{jk} \alpha^k + \Gamma^i_{mj} \alpha^m$
i made macarons:
but the lower indices are symmetric bc the alphas commutes
$\Gamma^i_{jk} \alpha^k + \Gamma^i_{jm} \alpha^m = 2 \Gamma^i_{mj} \alpha^m$
because change of indices
i made macarons:
@limpid mural does that look right?
emme:
the symmetrisation is implied from $\alpha^i \cdot \alpha^k = \alpha^k \cdot \alpha^i$ right?
i made macarons:
Wellz the point is that at the beginning you are not deriving $\Gamma_{mk}\alpha^m \alpha^k$ but $\Gamma_{(mk)} \alpha^m \alpha^k$. now I don't remember exactly what is $\Gamma_{(mk)}$ and the symmetry of Christoffel's symbol should be a consequence of the torsion free of the connection
emme:
So or you are assuming that the connection is torsion free or I don't know if the trick with the lower indexes is right
$\Gamma^i_{mk} (p) \cdot \alpha^m \cdot \alpha^i = \Gamma^i_{mk}(p)\alpha^i \cdot \alpha^m$
i made macarons:
i could write the symmetrisation brackets
and i'm pretty sure you can do that with the lower indices
ok ty this helped a lot š
If you are sure then the proof is right, I mean it must be that way It's my fault If I can't see why
Are there some criterions which say when topological space X is metrizable or when it has a countable basis?
smirnoff's theorem if i remember correctly
yup
if I had euclidean geometry questions, would this be the channel to ask them in, rather than #geometry-and-trigonometry ?
I'm only unsure because it's not pre-university, but not exactly advanced mathematics imo
So like, does this make sense to ya'll? I'm not really sure how you map bijective (they said it's homeo) to [1,2] from the unit interval when the function acts like an identity function on R, typo?
This is how they define the set Y
i made macarons:
torsion tensor
<@&286206848099549185>
$\prod_{n \in \mathbb N} [0,1] \subset \prod_{n \in \mathbb N} \mathbb R$
Godel:
Is this open or closed?
It looks closed So I wrote its open during exam but not sure
Why not in product?
wait
i might be talking nonsense
yeah it's closed
if a point is outside your set X, then one component is outside [0,1], so you can find an open ball around it, then take a product of it with infinitely many R's and you have an open set outside X containing your point
so the complement is open
it's not open because you can't make an open set that's completely inside it, because infinitely many components of the open set will be R
Anyone here know anything about shimura varieties?
what do you want to know about them @pseudo pecan
rip geometry
I figured out my issue!
<@&286206848099549185> plz above ^
guess I should start studying topology so this channel gets a little love
do it
topology is so cool
learn point set, then algebraic
and then become a category theorist

reminder that category theory is merely a tool for the superhuman topologists and algebraists
me irl
So tru
I accidentally created one of these
It might be a bad idea to use aluffi for a first course
Because this is what happens
Get them back on algebraic geometry b4 it's 2l8
That's a good idea. I should use vakil as our text and just skip the actual algebra
You can learn ring theory on the way
And groups are easy to pick up in the context of algebraic groups
Actually the person I'm thinking of wants to do AG in grad school
And knows basically 0 AG
Isn't even good at basic ring theory
I am considering linking a term paper he wrote, but that would be a little too far
The first paragraph includes the term "sheafs"
To Him*
Oh he took complex analysis with me and did well afaik
He's not like bad at math
Just likes the fancy seeming things
Our prof for that class is actually cited in Hartshorne
Yeah I see, well I hope he will survive lol
Got his start doing complex geometry and now does like harmonic analysis
Yeah hopefully
I have a prof who did a PhD in AG
And now he does only Calculus of variations
Lol
I feel like AG is gonna break me before I even get to riemann roch or w/e
It's hard and confusing
Yeah, I find it hard too
I need to be more strong on commutative algebra to actually understand what the fuck is going on
It's kind of magic
And do as many problems in AM as possible
Black magic
That's what I always say!
