#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 157 of 1
just add the complement to be safe
might be necessary
especially for general spaces aka not schemes
So, I'm not tired because I'm thinking about mathy things.
My physics-PhD friend and I are trying to go through "The Geometry of Physics" by Theodore Frankel. We got to this page about submanifolds:
I'm wondering if anybody would be up for talking it out with me so that I can try to associate this with an actual example or two.
Because I'm having a hard time trying to see what should fit where with, say, a parabola in R^2 or a helix in R^3.
@random slate so think in terms of linear algebra
If you're trying to solve a system of linear equations Ax=b where A is a matrix, well let's say the A is n x m where n < m and A has rank n
Then solutions to Ax=b will be an affine subspace of R^m of dimension m-n
If the rank decreases, then the solution space becomes a higher dimension
Now if we switch to the smooth case, we're trying to solve F(x)=y
And the idea is that if the derivative has max rank, you sorta expect that locally you're playing the linear algebra game from earlier, and that you're getting a tangent plane of the right dimension
Okay -- I think I get that at least conceptually
If your derivative matrix dies off you now have too many tangent vectors. So imagine the graph of |x| in the plane
But what I'm trying to do is tie all the variables to an actual example of a submanifold -- like, say, what goes where when I want to be able to show that the helix (cos t, sin t, t) is a submanifold of R^3?
So in general you can't always play this game, some manifolds aren't given in this form globally
But lemme see about the helix
I know at least you'd have n = 1, r = 2, because n is supposed to be the size of the "input space", and n + r is supposed to be the size of the overall ambient space
I know that earlier, the function F was described in terms of implicit functions and eventually was used to define the differential
So R^3 -> R^2, I guess you know x^2 + y^2 = 1
But then they switched from F: R^n -> R^r to F: R^(n+r) -> R^r
And sin(z) = y
So let's say we have F:R^3->R^2 given by F(x,y,z) = (x^2+y^2-1,y-sin(z))
Ooooh. Hmm.
I'm not sure why those two equations in particular. I can see at least that the first is satisfied by any point on the helix, and the second is true as well, but there seem to be any multitude of other equations you could have chosen
Actually hmm that might be a double helix actually, nothing is preventing x=-cos(z)
But it does seem that a curve in R^3 should be an intersection of two surfaces
(I would imagine you'd use a helicoid and a cylinder but I dunno if that helps)
Can a helicoid be described in terms of a single equation?
I don't know cylindrical coordinates lmao
If it would be easier to do a different example that's fine
I just want to do something that's not like ... a line
But hmm I guess a way to rectify my earlier attempt would be to use tan
Well, circle in the plane is x^2 + y^2 = 1
Alright, I'd be fine with doing the circle in the plane instead
So you have a map R^2 -> R given by F(x,y) = x^2 + y^2
Derivative is (2x,2y)
Which is surjective whenever (x,y)≠(0,0)
Okay, so F is going from R^2 to R, and you've said it's equal to F(x,y) = x^2 + y^2, since the points on the circle an be written as F(x,y) = c. What would a sample y_0 be in this case?
Would it be a point on the circle?
A sample (x_0,y_0) would be
Oh their y_0 is my c
By their notation y_0 would be a point in the image, so a radius
Ohhhh.... so then y_0 might be, say, 4, and then F^-1(4) would be the set of all points such that F(x,y) = 4
Yup
So y_0 is being used to define "level curves" of sorts
Yeah this theorem is saying when the derivative is nice, then level curves are submanifolds
BTW lemme show you the previous page
I want to make sure I'm understanding how the differential works here as well
Thank you so far, this is coming together
But yeah so as a counterexample just to make things clear, F(x,y) = y^2 - x^3
The level curve at 0 isn't a submanifold, it has a sharp point
Oh interesting
And the idea is that (0,0) is a point where the derivative of F is not surjective
I'm not entirely sure I'm understanding what the derivative is here
Jacobian matrix, (2y,-3x^2)
In terms of F_* at least
Hmm I see
I'm not used to non-square Jacobians
But I guess that's because we're taking R^2 to R^1
Just the matrix of partial derivatives. The point is that such a matrix defines a linear map the way all matrices do
This is the "linear approximation" of our smooth function
Alright. I do understand that idea that at each point you've got a tangent space, and vectors can live inside that tangent space
So say you were looking at y^2 - x^3 = 1, which should be a submanifold
So that's gotten by setting "y_0" = 1
Sure that's fine
Yeah it's using x's for all inputs and y's for all outputs sorta
Expressing things as y^1 = f_1(x^0,x^1,...,x^n), y^2 = ..., etc
Also F_* lmao
Nobody called it a pushforward
I'm pretty sure it technically is but like
Nobody does that
Df
So F^-1(c=1) is basically that curve, and it's nonempty, so we're good
Let's call "x_0" b as well
So for all b in F^-1(c), we need to look at F_*: (R^2 at b) -> (R^1 at c)
So, that's taking 2D vectors attached to a point on the curve
And taking them to ... 1D vectors attached to c somehow?
It seems weird to have a copy of R^1 attached randomly to c=1
Yeah they're doing something which is irrelevant now but will matter later
But okay ... so say I have the vector <-2,1> attached to the point (2,3) on the curve
Where will F_* take this
0
Errrrr
Wait no
Okay so y^2 - x^3 = 1, your point is on this curve
So now the gradient is (-3x^2,2y)
In this case (-12,6)
Okay ... so ohhhh
I see why you're doing the inner product
That should be the projection sort of, or a scaling of it
So if we're looking at the tangent vector (-2,1), the inner product gives 30
So <-12,6> is pointing in the direction of the tangent space
To our curve at that point
Uh, I'm not totally sure about that geometric interpretation
Tbh I don't think about a lot of linear algebra this geometrically, in my mind it's like, a linear approximation
Something something tangent vectors are orthogonal to level curves I guess?
Yeah
I feel like this part is what might be relevant
And sorry if I'm being frustrating, but the thing that helps me the most here is when I can take a concrete example with actual equations and actual numbers and see where everything fits
Yeah I guess I just think about things differently
Maybe that means I won't make it as a mathematician 😂 but whatever hehe
So numbers tend to just not do much work for me at all
To a degree I think about examples but more like, idk in the service of pictures rather than computations
And lol we'll all find out in due time whether we're good enough to make it in the subject, in that regard I say let the future stay in the future
The really annoying thing here still btw is that it starts off with F: R^n -> R^r and then for this big theorem it suddenly switches to F: R^(n+r) -> R^r 😠
So I've been building up this intuition the whole time and then it's gone
But I at least do understand the role that "y_0" or c is taking now
Yeah this is making me think that physicists aren't to be trusted with notation
But okay. Let's run with the inner product thing for now. It seems that that inner product should be onto, logically
Pick the right vector and you can get any inner product you want
Whereas if you'd started with c=0, then at (0,0) you'd have a point where that Jacobian is <0,0>
And that's not surjective yeah
And any inner product with that will be 0, so you no longer have an onto map
I wonder why they didn't say "not identically zero" instead of "onto"
Because it seems that being identically zero would be what would cause your problem
But perhaps there are also other ways bad things can happen.
Nope surjectivity is actually what matters
It's just that the image of a linear map to R is either identically 0 or surjective
Yup
Having something like, a fold between planes, would be equally bad
This really has helped
I'm gonna report back to my friend and have him help with some of the other computations, since he's the one who does the physics and is supposed to be used to this stuff XD
👍
It seems also that r is the number of "parameters" that can be used to define your curve
In a way, like what matters here is the difference in dimensions
Think rank-nullity
In this case we've had, r = 1 because once you know you've got a curve of the form y^2 - x^3 = c, you only need to know the value of c to be able to tell which curve you're looking at
Whereas with the helix, you'd need to know two parameters -- the radius, and the initial phase
codim (ker T) = dim (im T)
huh
Not relevant
I just thought of it because of "think rank nullity"
Rank nullity is very relevant, if your derivative is surjective this is literally the statement of the dimension of the preimage of a regular value
Like at tangent spaces
yeah sorry I just meant the fact that you could write it using codimension
I just thought it was cute
Yeah I think that makes sense
I see how the concepts of linear algebra are making sense here with dimension
Yeah, pretty much it's that linear algebraic stuff gives you dim of tangent spaces
But that's gonna be precisely the dim of the manifold itself
Thank you a bunch @honest narwhal
No problem! And yeah I should prob get going tomorrow's gonna be a long day grading calc 2 midterms 😭
We're gonna meet up at fucking 9AM
Such bullshit
Mornings don't exist smh
It's always 5 PM somewhere
And I wanna be there
Actually no that's wrong
I'm pretty sure time zones are in increments of ≥ half hour, right?
So at this very second it's either n:20 or n:50 in any location
shhhh

@honest narwhal not true, there's at least one time zone that's a quarter hour offset https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nepal_Standard_Time
Nepal Standard Time (NPT) is the time zone for Nepal. With a time offset from Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) of UTC+05:45 all over Nepal, it is one of only three time zones with a 45-minute offset from UTC. (The others are Chatham Island Standard Time, with an offset of UTC...
A web app that works out how many seconds ago something happened. How hard can coding that be? Tom Scott explains how time twists and turns like a twisty-tur...
topology prof, after missing the edge case of n=0 for the severalth time in a row: "can't we just work in dimension 5 and up?"
Tbh people who point out those edge cases deserve the electric chair
Like if you interrupt a lecture with “what about the empty set” I hate you as a person
Esp in topology
ah but here it was actually kinda relevant I feel like
it was about the homology groups of Sⁿ and he made a huge mess about the proof, which, as much as I understood it, kinda relies on the base case because it’s “inductive” in a sense
cause if I recall correctly we showed that $H_n(S^n) = H_{n-1}(S^{n-1})$? don’t have my notes with me, except that there’s some messy things for n≤1
Sascha Baer:
you wanna use reduced homology to do n = 0 which is dumb
just forget 0 and start from 1
well, for S¹ we only know the first homology group because of hurewicz’s theorem and because we happen to already know the fundamental group, we never looked at the higher ones; also we did it in a more general settings of deriving it via the axioms of homology, not making any assumptions about e.g. the underlying groups and what not
and in that case you kinda need 0 because for 0 we had an axiom telling us about the homology
Just remember that H0 is connected components and move on
afaik the way we proved it you couldn’t get the H_n(S¹) directly from the H_n(S⁰) so you either would have to work them out differently or do the thing with the reduced homology
but it was such a mess, I think I’ll hve to read a clean proof of it elsewhere
the proof actually ended in “exercise: fix this”
so like
yea
Good tbh
It’s not that bad
Fix it
Esp if you’re working over fields
Or even Z tbh
we’re not working over anything we just deduced it from the axioms of homology, which did not include an “over fields” or “over Z”
it includes an over Z
Yeah if you’re looking concretely at S^n you’re almost certainly doing liked, singular
Which requires a group G (normally taken as Z due to universal coefficient)
(Or singular in disguise like cellular or simplicial)
Our definition was:
A homology is a functor from pairs $(X, A)$ where $X$ is a top. space and $A \subseteq X$ to graded groups together with natural transformations $\partial_* : H_p(X,A) \to H_{p-1}(A) := H_{p-1}(A,\emptyset)$ satisfying five axioms (named homotopy, exactness, excision, dimension and additivity, I don’t feel like typing them all out)
Sascha Baer:
and we defined $H_0({p}) =: G$ the coefficient group and then the theorem was that $H_p(S^n) = G$ for $p = 0,n$ and $0$ else
Sascha Baer:
Okay, once you have that you can do stuff
if I understood correctly what we’re doing now is just assuming the homology we defined at first satisfies all of these axioms (we’ve shown about half of them I think and the rest’ll come later) and now we’re defining CW-complexes and looking at how we can determine their homology groups
You prove all the axioms
we will but later
Oh, oof
he decided he wanted to show some applications first
so as to not make it too dry up ahead
so for now we’re basically just looking at what one can do with a thing satisfying the axioms and occasionally assuming the “usual” homology satisfies them
I don’t think that’s all that out there tbh
like as long as it’s clear we’re making not-yet-proven assumptions but are actually proving them later I’m completely fine with that
Sure
I think my main issue with the course is just a lack of good lecture notes. he doesn’t follow any book very closely (well, he mostly follows bredon but with some deviations anyway)
and the part we’re covering is like some chapters in the middle of bredon, too
idk why he’s not using hatcher, he said he was gonna use it last semester
but he changed his mind for some reason
yea it’s mostly a time thing tbh
idk where to take the time from to revise after lectures
so far I’ve not liked what I’ve seen of bredon
though there’s definitely merit to it being what the prof follows
what’s bad about hatcher tho
that said I looked at the proof in bredon and basically, he seems to do the thing where he leaves out non-obvious things without saying that they’re not necessarily obvious, but this is fine since the prof spent a bunch of time on those details but messing up pretty much everything that actually was in the book instead :P
sure I mean graded abelian groups aka graded Z-modules
the emphasis is on, this is over Z
or on abelian
Okay so
There's a notion of a group acting smoothly on some manifold
Actually nvm my question is stupid
glad you arrived at the answer on your own
I was basically confusing what one might call a "smooth action of a Lie group" with an action of a general group by diffeos
no one thinks youre funny
matqew:
soft square topology
that much is obvious but google didn’t give me a definition cause I just tried to look it up
it’s probably defined earlier in the book
well looks like they define the open sets next line
basically like a soft ball topology but instead of disks that don't contain their boundary they're squares
what’s the soft ball topology?
actually I didn't read the next line I just realized
soft ball, just another name for open ball, here I'll just define that now
I know what an open ball is, but that’s just the standard topology
and if you define it via squares it’s still the standard topology
so I doubt it’s that
yeah I agree it will be the same topology
well, ok I guess I was just going to make up something that was going to be like the R^2 version with the squares on the distance chopped off, but yeah probably best to find where they define it earlier in the book
does the course follow a book?
not really
no
soft ball topology is standard topology
maybe soft squares is like std but with a different norm q_q
okay yea in that case I think merosity is right
yea it would be induced by the manhattan metric I guess
wait no
the supremum metric
but it’s the same topology
eh same shit a norm gives a metric, and a metric gives a topology
$d_\infty(X,Y) = |X-Y|\infty = \max{i = 1,\dots,n}{|X^i - Y^i|}$
i mean the answer sheet goes on to draw this lol
Sascha Baer:
matqew:
and uh yea the \R is a nonstandard macro I defined it for texit :P
you can specify your own preamble
oop
I use it so often that I just define that everywhere
it gets very old to write \mathbb quickly ^^
so it'd be like $U \in \mathcal{O}_{\text{sst}}$ if $\forall p \in U:\exists r \in \mathbb{R}^+: B_r(p) \subseteq U$
wiat no
for each p in U
^
yea. and you can quite easily show that this is the same as the standard topology
matqew:
ye it is
because you can fit balls inside squares and vice versa
Trivial question for big brains like you, but consider two subspaces of R^2, one is two circles, one inside the other, and the other is two circles, but this time next to each other
What is a good way of distinguishing these subspaces? They are clearly homeomorphic :(
Is it that no homeomorphism of R^2 can map one subspace to the other?
what do you mean with the two circles inside another exactly?
like, a ring?
oh wait do you just mean like, the circles themselves, not filled?
like two copies of S¹?
yeah just S^1
if so, the first one separates ℝ² into three regions, two of which are not simply connected and one of which is, but the second one has two simply-connected regions
I think so. let f: ℝ²→ℝ² be a homeo which maps the concentric circles onto the separate circles, take U to be the ring between the two circles including the circles themselves. Then, because homeomorphism and boundary commute, we must have that δf(U) = f(δU) = {the two circles}. Now, because U is connected, f(U) is too, so f(U) is ℝ² \ the two balls, but this is no longer compact, contradiction
so yea, there does not exist a homeo from ℝ² → ℝ² which restricts to a homeo between the two circles
the argumentation is not perfectly rigorous but you can fill in the gaps it’s not particularly interesting :P
Nice & cute
Is the argument for inclusion correct?
Sorry I am having a little trouble following (you should really avoid using so many symbols in your proof) and never use \wedge
I’m not sure I follow the main point of your argument
Namely, the step
Well
You show that a set U in the basis is a subset of an open set
This doesn’t really show it’s open
Oh sorry it should be equal instead of subset
I could not avoid the inclusion of f without going obstruse since it is set-theoretic definition chasing
I'm having trouble with a really simple problem about irreducible spaces
I'm trying to show that if X has an open cover by irreducible subspaces, then it if connected iff it is irreducible
irreducible => connected is obvious
For connected => irreducible, I think I reduced it to showing that if X is connected and X = Z union W for proper closed subsets Z, W, the intersection of Z and W is disjoint from any irreducible open set
Which might be false idk
Or that Z/W is the union of all irreducible opens it contains
Which is the same as saying if an irreducible open is not contained in Z, it is disjoint from Z
Figured it out
It's super easy if you use irreducible iff every nonempty open is dense
Is this possible because empty set cannot be in the topology because the emptyset is not inside the second collection of sets
Indeed But it is not in the second collection
And for emptyset to be in the topology, it must be in both collections
Oh indeed sorry. I confused it with something else.
np
One more thing. To show the space itself is in the topology, I have to show infty is in the second collection. But I cannot see why is that possible
Since X\A is open whereas for infty to be in the second collection, X\A must be compact
Ooh is this the one point compactification of a open subset?
No what you want is that (X\A)+{∞} ∈ ℱ_Y
So you need to either show that (X\A)+{∞} ⊂ X\A and moreover that it is open, which clearly is impossible because ∞ ∉ X\A so the inclusion is false.
Or, you need to show that you can write (X\A)+{∞} = [(X\A)+{∞}]\C for some compact C ⊂ X\A. I claim there is such a C.
Because both of them can be in the first collection (atleast a priori)
I think you are confusing inclusion and membership
Yeah this is literally the one point compactification of an open subset
Just show one point compactifications work in general
And you're done
Yeah you're right, sorry
@floral gust what you think you want to prove is that (X\A)+{∞} ⊂ ℱ_Y, so you what you are right now thinking about is to prove that ∞ is in one of the two sets, but this is not the case, what you actually want to show is that (X\A)+{∞} ∈ ℱ_Y and this has nothing to do with proving that ∞ is in either set
At least that's what it looks like to me, maybe I just didn't understand you
@gritty widget Is it because emptyset is closed and a closed subspace in a compact space is compact. Thus empty is compact. And since empty is in the second collection we have Y\ empty is in the second collection
Infinity is in Y\C
@floral gust yes
Perfect. Thanks!
@floral gust have you seen one pt compactifications before?
Yes. I have!
Btw is there not a much weaker version of the given claim where X just has to be locally compact Hausdorff?
i feel like there has to be a better way of writing down the one-point compactification properly
No, X doesn't have to be anything
It has to be locally compact hausdorff to become hausdorff
For one point compactification?
You can one pt compactify any space
0.0
It just looks shitty
but all decent spaces are locally compact anyway
Ah okay okay!
and semilocally simply connected
Of course
and contractible
One point compactification is stereographic projection plus some other examples nobody cares about
Why is that a space you contemplate?
It's not
It's just an example
It saved me on quals though
Cause if you one pt compactify a manifold minus n>1 pts you don't get a manifold
But I have yet to see it actually be really useful
Outside of the standard stuff
I use one point compactification often
Like D^n -> S^n
I guess that's not really a 1pt
No
yeah nevermind
You're thinking R^n to S^n
Or open ball
D^n - S^{n-1} -> S^n
I was
One more question regarding the previous question. We know that P and R are compact iff P | - | R is also compact. But this is in contradiction since for us it is given that X\A | - | {infty} is compact but X\A being open in a Hausdorff space is not compact where |-| is a disjoint union
I don't know the context but I would be surprised if X\A |_| {infty} has the disjoint topology
Oh nvm. I think the topology on the disjoint union is different which let it becomes compact Hausdorff
It has the disjoint union Topology iff X\A is compact hausdorff I think
Why don't the closed intervals [a, b] for a < b form a basis for R?
Basis elements are open sets
well yes but we could define the closed intervals to be the open sets in this topology right?
Sure, but it won't be the standard topology
That's not what I'm asking, I'm asking why they don't form a basis
Oh I'm dumb
It's because [-1, 0] intersect [0,1] = {0}
Which doesn't contain an interval
Np
The job was to found the right homotopy between the standard circumference (cost,sint) and this
This was my shot
I feel like it does not work because of small s and t where I'm starting "behind" (1,0)
Is it true? If yes how should I work for "stop" and "start" a curve in that way? Not asking for the right homotopy only for a "way" to formalize the start&stop motion, thanks
I mean, I wrote that I feel like it does not when t and s are small
It should not be continuos but I'm unable to prove it rigorously
It seems to me like after the "stop" at (1,0) my curve starts from behind if s and t are small enough
Because I cannot get past the -2tpi
Endpoints should be ok
Sigma0 and sigma1 are ok
Does that say spi?
Continuity is missing ( I think)
@gritty widget if you're checking continuity shouldn't it suffice to take the limit at s*pi
Not really
Because both of the functions in your piecewise are continuous
What I fell I'm missing is the right motion as I start the curve
I fell like it stays at (1,0) then "teleports" behind and start the regular motion which should be the right one
I think that too lol
So your homotopy, call it h
You need h(0) = (cos t, sin t)
Or you could say h(0, t)
It won't because
Let me check
Maybe I'm just having a hard time reading this
Is s the thing ranging from 0 to 1?
Problem are in the "pasting" process of the two interval when t,s are changing
Yes, it is
T is between [0,2π]
I think
I don't think you even need to, they're homeomorphic
No, I think the formula is wrong, I'm looking for the confirm
Ah
I think I have the right one, but I want to understand why this does not work
@digital nova they do actually form a basis
But not a very interesting one
They generate the discrete Topology
@sleek thicket
(sorry, this was from the question before)
It's ok
Only if you allow a = b
It happens that it is behind as I was saying right?
Well there's just this odd jump from (1,0) to whatever happens at t = pi/2
All I know is it's not (1,0) or close to it
You break continuity of h(1/2, t)
While cos(s(2t-2π)+(1-s)t) works right?
I don't know you have to show me the whole homotopy
@dim meadow that's why I originally said it formed a basis
Oh I see
Someone please help explain? I have no clue :/
Does anyone in this server even do geometry
Can we just rename this to topology and redirect geometry to hopf lmao
@marsh forge differential geometry
Sorry mb.
Liquid likes geometry
@potent sky what he was saying was that no member of this server really does much geometry, everyone here is more into topology
So that we could just call this channel topology and avoid having people come with 9th grade shit
But yeah Liquid likes geometry for sure, I know SashaMomo is doing diffgeo right now so this could end up being a good place for her
Shamrock likes geometry as well
@honest narwhal #topology-and-diffgeo ?
I'll see if this becomes a thing. When this was named advanced geometry we were plagued by this
@honest narwhal the thing about diffgeo is
everyone who knows what it is knows what it is
and high schoolers have no idea
True, just that in principle this isn't restricted to diffgeo. Geometric group theory, for example, could happen here
And this is the first time I've seen someone come with high school geometry in a long time
mm then maybe it is not a problem after all
Let $\omega, \sigma \in \Omega^1(M)$, then, for some $X,Y \in \Gamma(TM)$,
\begin{align*}
(\omega \wedge \sigma)(X,Y) &= (\omega \otimes \sigma)(X,Y) - (\omega \otimes \sigma)(Y,X) \
&= (\omega \otimes \sigma)(X,Y) - (\sigma \otimes \omega)(X,Y) \
&=(\omega \otimes \sigma - \sigma \otimes \omega)(X,Y)
\end{align*}
oprah winfrey:
whoops overthinking it
@honest narwhal I'm also doing diffgeo rn
or, well, suffering through it, is probably a better description
Can somebody please review this? Especially the notation for dealing with quotient space
Please lord stop using symbols for and/or
Also the piecewise function doesn’t make sense
What does x=A mean
You define f on X not X/~
Ie you define a function f on X that descends to a function f’ on the quotient
You have to show this is well defined on eq. Classes
You keep switching between talking about f as a function between X and Y and also X/~ and Y
Ie f^-1(U) is not a set in X its in X/~, you have to show that this is homeomorphic to the obvious set in X
Actually, never mind, you just seem to be playing kinda fast and loose with thinking of elements of X/~ as eq classes and as elements of X
Ie you treat the trivial equivalence classes as being “just elements of X” instead of technically eq classes
But if your prof doesn’t care then I guess its fine as long as you understand it
I think the rest is fine but its gross to read so I probably won’t
Yeah I am a bit confused about how I can represent the equivalence class which is equal to the set A
Actually, never mind, you just seem to be playing kinda fast and loose with thinking of elements of X/~ as eq classes and as elements of X
Yes I am doing exactly that. But my TA is notational pedant. So I want to make sure what would be the precise formulation
And what about A?
So if you want a function from X/~ to Y
You say f([x]) = [x] if x \notin A and f([x]) = \infty if x in A
Then you have to show this is well defined
What that means is that if y,z are in class [x] then if x in A, y,z are also in A
Which is obvious
And if y,z are in [x] not in A, then y=z=x
Then this map makes sense
Alternatively you can define g: X -> Y in such a way that it induces a map on X/~
How would I write A \not\in U where U is an open set in quotitent space?
As in what notation should I use such that it is apparent that A over here refers to an equivalence class
@marsh forge
Yes I realize that. But for x \in A, [x] = A
If x \in A then pi^{-1}([x])=A
No
[x] does not equal A
Ever
A is a set
Well actually I guess on a purely set theoretic level you’re correct, sorry
I’ve never really thought about it like that
Yeah I guess [x]=A is fine but I don’t think its very common
Yeah because [x] ={y | y ~x} ={ y | x=y or x,y \in A}
I think this is because A has a topology but we don’t think about [x] having a topology
That makes sense tbh
But anyway yeah, on a set theoretic level this notation is fine
So I should use pi^{-1}([x])=A and this subsumes the topological properties by preseriving it via the function?
On some level kinda
But its more that like, we think of [x] as a point
Even if its technically a set
So it’s just weird to put = here
(The category theorist would say that [x] is not regarded as a topological space itself so the sentence [x]=A is meaningless but whatever)
Yep Yep thank you. I will rework the proof now
Anyway the main point is to distinguish eq classes from honest-to-goodness points notationally
Anyway the rest of the point set work looks ok at a glance
Wait so can you clarify how the piecewise funcition look like?
It depends how you want to write it I would probably say
f:X/~ -> Y
f([x])=x if x \notin A
f([x])=\infty if x \in A
Noting that for x\notin A, the class [x]={x} and for x\in A the y\in [x] if and only if y\in A
oh Yes that basically means pi^{-1}([x])=A
Hence this map is well defined
Yeah that’s equivalent
It’s just nice to use language that is easier to read
Minimize symbols where possible
The thing is my TA is very "ThaT sEnTEncE iS noT clEar". So if I use language it becomes unneccesarily long real quick
And I obviously reply it is clear from the context and then he says, well i know that because I know you and I know the solution. Someone else who doesn't know either would get confused.... So yeah... I have to go full notational pedant to prevent any ridicolous charges of unclarity
Trust me, your TA is wrong
Writing things out their way is far more confusing for the average person
That’s why no professional mathematicians write like that lmao
Yeah but then again he is grading so 🤷
May not be a bad idea to try and just get the class and/or prof to go to him and be like "You're a cretin"
A and C are open in d_sup, C only open in tau metric
Can someone help me find closure of A and C sets with those two metrics?
I mean, yeah, in A in d_sup it's just gonna be f(t)>=0, in C with tau metric integral <=1, same with d_sup? Although not sure how to formally state that besides 'it has to be this way' lol
For A with d_sup, you can say uniform convergence implies pointwise convergence, so if f is a limit of functions which are > 0 at x_0, f(x_0) is the limit of a sequence of positive numbers, and thus is nonnegative. Then if f(t) >= 0 everywhere, f is the uniform limit of f_n = f + 1/n
For C with τ, iirc this is a general result about normed vector spaces, and it might be easier to prove it by forgetting about functions
I'm looking for the torsion of the following curve
Do I really have to explicit that? No one knows any smart method?
Hi, I need someone to verify my answer (if I'm thinking correctly about one thing): In 3-adic topology with 3-adic metric I have set: $$S\left(0,\frac{1}{27}\right) = { n \in \mathbb{Z} : d_3 \left(0,n\right) = \frac{1}{27} }$$ I believe this sets contains of only 27 and -27. Is this set S closed? It has to be, right?
Godel:
It's probably also open but right now I'm just not sure how to state that its closed besides saying its made of just two points (so I guess its cuz its' complement is open?)
tbh i don't know much about p-adics
but you can consider what it means to be a limit point of your set
and show that they are all contained
this is sufficient
Haven't had limit points yet I believe.
is your only def of closed complement of open then?
Wait no, there were others.
Let me check.
Actually yeah I think thats the only one introduced yet
Yeah ok, then my first approach for this type of thing would be along these lines, let me know if this sounds doable to you
You might ask why do I have p-adics and also categories on my 3rd topology lecture, I'm wondering too lol
Take your set, take its complement. Look at a point in the complement. Show that theres some open ball (in the metric top) thats also in the complement. If this holds for an arbitrary point it holds for all of them
then the complement must be open
Ok yeah actually that's obvious theres always a ball in complement I think
Perfect!
Sorry that I couldn't be more specific but I've somehow never had to force myself to learn p-adics yet
It's pretty not fun so far so you haven't missed much.
Yeah I haven’t gotten fun vibes
But its cuz its too abstract for me at the time
I'm confusing myself here, I may be too tired.
Let A be a discrete subspace of B, and B a subspace of C
Under what conditions is A discrete in C?
Depends on your definition
If you take discrete to mean its subspace topology is discrete
then A being discrete in B means that for all a there is an open set U of B such that U\cap A={a} so then U=B\cap V for V open in C so in particular V\cap B\cap A = U\cap A = {a}
If you require that you get a covering then you need a covering
yea I meant the former
and glad that it is always I wrote a proof that didn’t seem to need any assumptions and figured I had to have messed up somewhere
btw if you just enclosed the formulas in dollar signs, the latex bot would’ve rendered the comment nicely
No
no?
ye
If in topological space X each subset is open or closed does it mean that this space is discrete?
take what of what
the other one has to be open though
yes, that's how topologies work
no, it can be none
???????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????????
A set can be not open and not closed right
yes
can you explain what did you mean by those two points and what they prove
it's an example to the answer to your question
it's an example of a space where all subsets are open or closed
but is not discrete
That's called sierpinski space lol, and it's a famous counterexample in Topology
sectumsempra
additional question marks aren’t actually achieving anything apart from annoyance
not math
no, just presentation
still not math
still relevant to discussions
anyway, to clear up the confusion
when they said “no, it can be none” they had misunderstood you thinking you claimed that in a topology, every not closed set is open
where you had meant that the complement of a closed set is open
this does not look like “this is clear” to me
Yo stop being an asshole
nah dude someone bumping into a done conversation just to preach and "clear confusion" where there is none gets that
I'm gonna step in and say let's not
This conversation is over, and in the future do not be rude
Alright at this point I'm just gonna comply then
Is there a g-handled 2-sphere with abelian fundamental group for g>1?
Nope, you can compute the fundamental group of the surface of genus g by Van Kampen
Dami:
@gritty widget Consider the space X ={a,b} with the topology T ={∅, {a},X }. We can verify this is a topology since ∅,X ∈ T and it is closed under arbitrary unions and finite intersections. Now consider the subsets of X
X - Open and Closed
∅ - Open and Closed
{a}- Open
{b}- Closed
Every subset is either open or closed and since {b}∈P(X)\T thus T is not discrete. Thus there exists non-discrete spaces with every set either closed or open.
This is the spectrum of a local ring, but it's probably a lot more understandable by the person who asked the question
I’m frustrated because my algtopo prof keeps making a huge mess out of classes and no one can really follow what he’s saying; last years was really well-organized and has good lecture notes (which I’m reading now, he did things a bit differently - mostly involving much more abstract nonsense and humor)
topologists are just like that
Lee is kind of disappointing tbh
He's a good lecturer but he just proves the stuff in the book
Which makes sense, since he wrote it for this course
Lol for a sec I thought you meant the book lmao
I don't think anyone here is the author of a particularly famous textbook
hmmm, you sure?
It would be pretty embarrassing if someone who knew math saw me shitposting tbh
Oh lol
It's nice being able to namedrop my instructor
He told us in class that he had Munkres for algebraic topology in grad school
?
I'm a student at the uw
University of Washington
Taking the manifolds course
Why do you ask? @civic kraken
Oh no
I'm just lucky enough to be taking a class on manifolds from the dude who wrote the manifolds books everybody uses
Yeah he's surprisingly energetic
isnt he like 200
And is fun to talk to
Yeah
Like seventy something
He's retiring after this year (but also told me he might be teaching the geometry special topics course next year so idk what retirement actually means)
emeritus?
I think I proved something too strong. Can someone check this for me?
Let G be a topological group and H a subgroup of G containing some open set U which contains 1. Then H is open. To show this, it suffices to show that for each h in H, there is an open set containing h contained in H. But hU is open, and hU <= hH = H, and h = h1 in hU
I’m reading the previous year’s prof’s AlgTopo notes and so far I think they’re very good
I have found the vectors (1,1,1,1) , (-1,1,-1,1) , (0,-1,0,1) , (-1,0,1,0) which should be perpendicular to each other (correct me if I'm wrong). But I'm wondering if there's an easy way to do this for any dimension.

lol sorry am retard
Topological groups scare me
Like the fact that they induce the same structure on their pi_1
Wilke
Wild*
What do you mean by same structure?
Is π_1(G) also a topological group?
With what, the compact open topology?
I think the point is more like
You have the multiplication on pi_1(G) given by concatenation of loops
You also have pointwise
Oh I might have known this
Someone once pointed out to me that π preserves products and the initial object, so it sends group objects to group objects, so π(G) is abelian for G a topological group
And that's just this but with more words
Maybe
Since π(multiplication in G) is pointwise multiplication, right?
Yeah I know
That's why I thought of it
If you take the multiplication map m : G×G -> G, then π(m) : π(G) × π(G) -> π(G) should be pointwise multiplication, up to the identification π(G×G) ≈ π(G) × π(G)
That's what the last part was
The best argument
Is that pi1 preserves products and therefore group objects
And a topological group is a group object
And an abelian group are the group objects of Groups
Oh wait I just noticed shamrock already posted that
I’ll walk away in shame now
is there a name for a manifold whose ricci scalar vanishes but not necessarily its ricci curvature tensor?
ugh I spent ages on a problem today only to learn they made a mistake in the question
they gave us the parametrization of the torus and we had to prove some things about geodesics, but they messed up
they gave it like this, that last sin(y) should’ve been sin(x)
I only noticed after I went to plot some things to convince myself that what I’m trying to prove makes sense
so much time wasted
Wait
That’s pretty gross
For an AT course lol
Oh wait is that your diffgeo course
is it that geodesics given in the plane by a line with rational slope are closed? and irrational slope means dense?
nah, these were the exercises
I spent quite a while just writing down the geodesic equations, which was good practice I guess but like, tedious
after I noticed the mistake I didn’t have the energy to try again
the circle in exercise (a) is the one at the very top of the torus btw, and the region is the “outer half” of it
and yea it’s diffgeo
ayy I just had a revelation tho (a) is actually pretty easy
the outer half of the torus is a surface of revolution, so I can just apply clairaut’s relation to it, which tells me that if the geodesic ever hits the upper or lower circle, then it must be tangent again; and use the geodesic equations to show that when it’s tangent, x will tend to 0 (i.e. into the outer half)
and (b) will probably have a similar solution but there it’s not a surface of revolution hm
apparently this is the worst thing we’ll ever do in this class
I sure hope so
we’re currently doing classic results of diffgeo, later on we’ll do index-free stuff which is supposedly much less painful
other profs don’t really do this stuff
but hey with the equations above, gauss’ Theorema Egregium has a 1-line proof!
My favorite construction of the torus
Is drawing a fat oval on a board and then adding a small hole
like so?
(drawn with mouse, hence ugly)
(the inner lines should ofc not intersect)
Yes perfect
I'm not sure if this belongs here or not, but does anyone have any recommendations for an algebraic geometry textbook for self-learning?
when i took diffgeo
my prof hated the book so much
we skipped christoffel symbols and the usul geometric proof of gauss bonnet
he ended up teaching us derham cohomology and proved gauss bonnet via triangulations
and then he didnt know what to put on the final so told us to write up a full proof to gauss bonnet (since he just hand waved it) instead
Yeah I don't like the subject of differential geometry
One thing I will be very happy to just never see again
@raw sedge Vakil lecture notes
thanks
What should I know before learning algebraic geometry?
is commutative algebra basically algebra but thinking about what happens when structures are commutative?
some algebraic topology and differential geometry helps
what do you mean?
commutative algebra is the study of rings
because rings are commutative
the study of Z is the most pretentious way to say number theory do you know where I can get a shallow but simple overview of algebraic topology and differential geometry?
number theory isn't really the study of Z but the study of Gal(\bar{Q}/Q)
in particular you care about number rings
of which PIDs like Z are the easiest case
uhh
why do you wanna learn algebraic geometry?
because I want to know a lot of maths
and because I don't really understand what it's about and I'm curious
and because I need something to read
commutative algebra is a good thing to read
I wouldn't rush to do more
I'd take my time with manifolds and algebraic topology
so should I do that first?
if you like algebra, sure
I think I like algebra from what I know so far
then yeah sure
I learned some basic group theory
oh
you might wanna learn more algebra first
basic ring theory and galois theory
from something like dummit & foote
or lang
or uh
any algebra book
AG is at least 40% ring theory
I started reading dummit and foote but some definitions in chapter 2 strikes me as very unmotivated and lacking any intuition
That doesn't get better in AG
imo
You need a bunch of seemingly nonsense definitions
the thing is I'm sure there is some intuitive way to think about it
Like what a sheaf is, what a locally ringed space is, what an affine scheme is, what a scheme is
for all of the seemingly arbitrary definitions until now I could find intuitions
which helps me organize it in my head, and also makes me find it much more beautiful, and makes me better at figuring out how to prove things
That's great, but you should not try and learn algebraic geometry right now
There is intuition in ring theory
But the best way to get that intuition is to do more ring theory
what should I learn before ag except ring theory?
What's your background with topology and geometry?
topology - I barely know what it is
geometry - just some very elementary stuff from schools, never learned it deeply
Okay, you need to know topology
And it helps to have background in differential geometry. I didn't when I started learning AG and strongly regret that choice
what is differential geometry really about?
well, I think I'll keep reading dummit and foote for now for the ring theory
then I'll find someplace to learn topology
then differential geometry
then I'll read those lecture notes
@lavish laurel @sleek thicket thanks
well dummit and foote is dry as hell
you can find other algebra books
@raw sedge
if it isn't working for you
any algebra book will do really
there's many good ones
pinter's particularly friendly
I'd rather stick to it cause I started with it, and because it's supposed to be very comprehensive.
it is, but the material is very standard
there's no harm in using various books for a topic
the exercises in D&F are great though
you're right, I should read it together with something else
do you know if I can easily find a PDF of Pinter's?
cough libgen probably cough
what is differential geometry really about?
so the topic list for my diffgeo 1 course is as follows:
Introduction to differential geometry and differential topology. Contents: Curves, (hyper-)surfaces in R^n, geodesics, curvature, Theorema Egregium, Theorem of Gauss-Bonnet. Hyperbolic space. Differentiable manifolds, immersions and embeddings, Sard's Theorem, mapping degree and intersection number, vector bundles, vector fields and flows, differential forms, Stokes' Theorem, de Rham cohomology.
the first few topics (up to gauss-bonnet) are various classic results about “shapes in ℝⁿ”, basically. the second part is differential topology, which I don’t really know a whole lot about yet ^^
but so some things we’ve done so far were various statements about smooth curves in space, submanifolds (“locally flat surfaces”) and curvature
the basics of the subject kinda boil down to “how can we work with shapes that aren’t just nice and flat, but are at least nice when you zoom in enough?”
let . be the definition of a topological manifold
what can you say about this definition ?
-> defining differential manifold
what can you said about differential manifold ?
that's differential geometry x)
Ehh
I'd say differential geometry needs more than just being a smooth manifold
Either a Riemannian metric or some other geometric structure
If you're just working with the smooth structure I think you're doing topology more than geometry
I was joking
just to shoz that with one definition you can say many many thigs about int
Is this correct
my intuition is that for r < 0, we have det(rI) = r^n I and r^n > 0 (in the even case)
also the centers of the groups can't be in bijection for even n
Well because the only normal subgroup of On(R) of order 2 is <-I>, which is in SOn(IR) if n is even
(The argument for this is that a subgroup of $O_n(\mathbb R)$ of order 2 is generated by an element $r$ such that $r^2 = I, r \ne I$. Then, $\mathbb R^n = \underbrace{\ker(r+I)}_{\ne 0} \oplus \ker(r-I)$. The normality of $\langle r \rangle$ implies that $\ker(r+I)$ is invariant under every element of $O_n(\mathbb R)$. Since it is nonzero, it must be the entirety of $\mathbb R^n$, hence $r = -I$)
trex:
Sanity Check
How do we realize RPn as a connected sum a la classification of surfaces
Oh wait
That’s why the sanity seems off
so I get that this metric is just indicating when m isn't n, but why does it induce the discrete topology on N ?
the open balls of radius 1/2 are the integers themselves
I was going to say singleton but if they're confused over the discrete metric already I figured it'd just be jargonizing it
k
lol yes I know what a singleton is
and Ive read a good 100 pages of topology already
Thank you Merosity though
(there's always one person who answers the question in a non-jerk way then everyone else wants to insult to make themsleves feel better, I'm working on like 15 different courses back and forth because of prepping for the mgre and Im on 6 hours of sleep so holy crap Im so sorry if I make a silly mistake sometimes)
ah ok fair enough then
ok so am I correct that induces here means we have open sets of "being distance 0 from n"
then it makes perfect sense, I just didnt process why that would be the induced topology (I guess it wouldnt have been anything else but idk)
thank you (sorry for misjudging a minute ago) that makes sense now
I guess I should've phrased the question in my mind more as "what would the open sets contain" then it should've been clear that they should only contain the singletons
so with Z or N its discrete then right?
if you get what I mean
I guess N would be a subspace (but not a very interesting one)
but then the subspace would just have the same discrete topology, but ah Im rambling
@gritty widget lol
Can someone give me an example of a connected manifold
With nontrivial tangent bundle
Ok so like
I guess my confusion is
Everywhere the tangent bundle is R2
But it’s the fact that TM is not isomorphic to MxR2
That confuses me
Is that because the space Tm
Is much more complicated
Sort of like how a covering space works?
So maybe you're confused about vector bundles in general
I am
So here's a proof that the Mobius bundle over S^1 isn't trivial
You have the canonical 0 section
Take it out of the Mobius bundle
And you get a connected space that is actually just the cylinder
But if you remove the 0 section from the trivial bundle
You get 2 cylinders
It's hard because all vector bundles over a space are homotopy equivalent
And yeah, I guess
Sorry I think of mobius as [0,1]/~
Sorry square that
But anyway
Yes I see the proof
So there's no boundary here
One sec let me look at Lee's smooth manifolds
Ok I think I get it actually
And I'll give a more cogent explanation
Vector bundles being locally trivial is about like
How the surjection map
Only is locally like a surjection map
Out of the trivial bundle
I thought it was thought of as the pair usually but obviously that can be recovere
Triple*
Well yeah
Anyway yes I think you’ve helped a lot actually
I was thinking about “locally trivial” wrong
So yeah, the subtlety is how the whole thing is pasted together
So there's something called a frame
Which is basically n smooth vector fields which are linearly independent at each point in TM
Oh nvm lol
Oh sorry
Yeah ok but that makes sense


