#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 154 of 1
you get that 5 and -5 are zero units apart...
Yep
Lol
Let $a, b, c \in \mathbb{R}^{+}$ such that $ a \geq b \geq c$ and let $S$ be an ellipsoid given by the equation $ (\frac{x}{a})^{2} + (\frac{y}{b})^{2} + (\frac{z}{c})^{2} = 1$. Let $ \gamma : \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}^3$ a smooth curve such that $Im(\gamma) \subset S$ and $\gamma '(t) \neq 0 \forall t \in \mathbb{R}$. Find the minimum value of the curvature of $\gamma$ at a point, on varying $\gamma$.
emme:
So we fix a point and we find the curve that has the minimum value of the curvature at the point fixed, among all the smooth curves on the ellipsoid.
So I think that the curves that minimize the curvature are the geodetics, am I right?
Okay gonna think out loud about topological groups a bit
Join me on this adventure through wonderland
So if H is a subgroup of a topological group, so is its closure
@honest narwhal yap that's true
Okay perfect
Ugh while I'm here it's impossible to just focus on things
Okay so now if H is normal
Dami:
If we define the metric $d(q,p)=1-\frac{1}{1+|q-p|}$ on $\bbR$ then is $\bbR$ bounded?
Whoever:
@coarse kestrel boundedness is not a Topological property
It is a metric property
You can just take the metric min(d, 1)
And that makes any metric space into a bounded metric space
The metric defines a Topology
What phrase?
Not really
A topology is a way of studying when points are “close” to each other
A metric is another notion of such a thing
Oh
Quite naturally, a metric can define a topology as a result
You know what an open set is right?
A Topology on a space is the set of all the open sets
We want that to have certain properties
For continuity reasons
Sorry @coarse kestrel
Yes
Since no one has talked for 7 minutes I'm hijacking this
Okay so I didn't commentate here but I went through the proof that quotients of topological groups by closed subgroups are topological groups
(Where we require topological groups to be Hausdorff since we're decent human beings with a moral compass)
Now time to learn a bit about some "classical" Lie groups except for now just the topology
So M_n(R) is just R^{n^2} and it's a topological group because limits
a_n + b_n -> a + b and -a_n -> -a
That should do it I think since continuity is controlled in metric spaces by limits of sequences
determinant is continuous since it's a polynomial
So GL_n is open
Matrix multiplication and inversion is continuous because polynomials and Cramer's rule and all
SL_n is a closed subgroup since det^{-1}(1)
Works for R, C, and apparently GL_n(H) is okay but that takes work since no determinants... should I care?
So the map A -> AA^T - I is continuous
Since it's also a polynomial
(The fact that shit's a polynomial will eventually imply that we're Lie groups because regular values but let's not be impatient guys)
O(n) is closed since it's preimage of a point
And it's bounded in operator norm
So it's actually compact :0
U(n) too
Though I guess my "eventually it'll be a Lie group" may not carry over to say it's a complex manifold since you need to conjugate
Actually U(n) is a compact subset of C^{n^2} so it's def not a complex manifold because max modulus
I’m gonna start hijacking category theory
And apparently there's a quaternionic spin group
Fuck do the quaternions actually matter?
Give me a dm once you’re giving lectures dami
I’ll come out to see one as a meme
I feel like they will be hilarious
It depends on how much I prepare and how ambitious I am
I have had some ambitious lectures which were epsilon suboptimally prepared
And those were a fucking time
Actually did I?
I had one lecture where I tried to cram 2 hours of stuff into 1
And that didn't go well
I've been disorganized in various rants, also I at one point gave an impromptu math club lecture which was disorganized but it wasn't too fast at the beginning so... 🤷
👀
however bad those lectures may have gone, i've done worse I feel
Okay so
We have a map f:O(n)->S^{n-1} by f(A) = A(0,...,0,1)^T
We can think of O(n-1) in O(n) by block matrices
Just stick a 1x1 block with the entry equal to 1
Obv works
And then O(n-1) fixes (0,...,0,1)^T
In particular f(AB) = f(A) if A \in O(n-1)
So this descends to a map O(n)/O(n-1) -> S^{n-1}
And now we wanna say this is a bijection
I guess visually you can sorta see that O(n) acts transitively on S^{n-1}
I'll make a note to think about doing this rigorously
But okay so if you fix (0,...,0,1)^T, then yeah you have to be in O(n-1) because just look at the matrix entries, bottom right thing has to be 1 and since we're in O(n) yeah
So this is a bijection, O(n) is compact so so is O(n)/O(n-1), and then S^{n-1} is Hausdorff so this is a homeomorphism
And next up is continuous group actions so before proceeding I should think about the transitivity of the action
OHHH
Okay so
We want to say that if v is a vector of norm 1 then we can find an orthogonal matrix whose last column is v
But that's just finding an ONB of R^n including v
Which we can do
Gram-Schmidt or just say restrict to orthogonal complement
Either way lel
Okay time for actions of topological groups
So G(x) is the orbit and G_x is the stabilizer, for reference
Also called isotropy
Also we call the action effective if it has no kernel
(Also continuity is G\times X -> X, not G->homeo(X). At least not a priori)
So if X is Hausdorff and G is a compact topological group, then the map G/G_x -> G(x) is a homeomorphism
Orbit-stabilizer gives that it's a bijection and then G(x) is Hausdorff since it's a subspace of X, G/G_x is a quotient space of G so it's compact
Oh wait this makes my earlier shit easier
Obviously the stabilizer of (0,...,0,1)^T is O(n-1) because look at the matrix
Okay and yeah same for U(n), the inclusion works since you're sticking 1 so no conjugation
U(n)/U(n-1) is S^{2n-1}
And yeah same for quaternions
O my goodness
Okay so time for some Stiefel manifold thing
So k-frame means k orthonormal vectors
And V_{n,k} is the set of k-frames in R^n
So the set of nxk matrices A such that A^T A is the kxk identity matrix
So that's its topology
It's pretty Hausdorff
And O(n) acts on it, I guess by matrix multiplication on the left
Since that's what makes sense
I guess I should confirm that it spits out the right thing
So let's say M \in V_{n,k} and A\in O(n)
nxk matrices is R^{nk}
And this is a subspace
So (AM)^T AM = M^T A^T A M = I
So this is an action because multiplication and it's continuous because polynomials
We'll see what I'm looking at since I'm not sure yet
I'm just going along with Bredon
So O(n) acts and it should act transitively because... Hmm...
Okay so given two sets of k orthonormal vectors I guess you can complete each to orthonormal bases of R^n
And mapping one over to the other should be orthogonal?
Let me just be sure in my mind one sec
Oh lol yeah I was doing it out but that's easier thanks
Okay so yeah action is transitive and the stabilizer should be a copy of O(n-k)
Yeah I guess if you play with the entries in your mind this works
I guess you don't need matrices, just say it's a map which acts on the orthogonal complement however it wants
But it has to fix these k guys
So up to a base change it's a copy of O(n-k)
The story ends there pretty much, now O(n)/O(n-k) is V_{n,k}
Since compact and Hausdorff etc
And yeah there are analogies in the unitary and symplectic cases
Also I totally thought for a hot minute that the analog of orthogonal for quaternions was spin since it's written Sp(n)
But no it's symplectic
Also turns out what I said works for special orthogonal/unitary groups, that's pretty easy to see
But H doesn't have determinants so no special symplectic group
Also with Stiefel
You can flip signs so transitivity should still be okay
And then including 1 will keep special things special
Okay time for some problems
Oh wow, component of the identity in a topological group is a closed normal subgroup
Okay closed duh
Um i don’t want to interrupt the conversation (so ill delete this message afterward) but I have a question about constructing a compact set with countable limit point in R, where should I ask?
Like, countably infinite?
Countably many limit points in R
Well the thing is some say countable = countable or finite
But I guess in this context that would make the problem stupid
Yeah, countably infinite
Hmm, I guess you want a bunch of convergent sequences
$E_n:={\frac{1}{k}\cdot \frac{1}{(n+1)n}+\frac 1n|k\in\bbZ^+}$
$\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty E_n$
No
Whoever:
Yeah
Okay now you're good
Yep, now is this infinite union a possible candidate?
Yeah I can see that working, like if every 1/n is a limit point kinda thing
Yeah
And it’s closed, because it contains every limit point
And it’s bounded
So I think it’s compact in R
Wait
I'm not sure about the details here
Whoever:
Oh that makes more sense now
Lol ok
Or does it actually?
Idk that’s why I asked
I mean I'm adding 1/n to E_n and then adding 0 so that shouldn't be an issue
Ok
I feel like this should work
But I also feel like there might be other problems

Just adding one convergent sequence and its unique limit point shouldn't add any other limit points
The basic issue is proving that the only limit points are 1/n
Oh
Yeah that's what I was thinking originally
That’s so much better
How is it compact tho
I can see that it has countable infinite many limit points
Sniped me
So something shitty you can do is make a set with countably many limit points that's closed in (-infty, 0), and then take e^ that set
That's clever
And then add in 0 and 1 or something
very clever actually
I really like that actually
e^(-n+1/m) haha
I'm declaring it the official answer to this question
Anyone caught using other answers will be shot
e^(-n+1/m)
Survivors will be shot again
with a camera
Because e^ (-infty,0) is way too clever
@gritty widget because that requires no thought, I had to think for a sec why that had only countably many limit points
Um
But even my mom had the epiphany immediately once liquid told me the answer
@gritty widget no the point is you pick countably many convergent sequences in (-infinity, 0)
Then you push it across
Oh oh
He meant that e^x where x in (-infty,0] is not countably infinity
Thanks
@honest narwhal sorry for interrupting your long lecture tho I understood nothing you said
Oh ok
But yeah back to that
So why is the connected component of the identity a normal subgroup? 
Don't spill it yet if you know already but if you wanna think with me do join
It's gonna be something cheesy I can feel it in my soul
So let's say g is in the connected component of the identity, g^{-1} is because continuous and connected etc. If g and h are
Then oh yeah product of connected sets I guess
And yeah
Okay
Yeah if you multiply the connected component by the inverse of g, g will get mapped to the identity, so the connected component will get mapped inwards
And congugation fixes the identity
So I guess the same thing will happen there
Next problem, surjective hom G->H, kernel is closed normal subgroup, and if G is compact then G/K is homeomorphic to H
Which is just tilt your head for a microsecond
Closure of {g^n} is a subgroup if you're compact, what about if you're not?
Hmm
Oh I guess like
Oh wait hmm
Obvious counterexample is R I guess
To being a subgroup
Is that not the case
Hmm
Addition let's say
Oh yeah you're right
Idk what I was thinking
Goodnight
Oh btw I decided not to take the Algebra quals @honest narwhal
Goodnight
Gonna focus on Topology
And yeah prob not a bad idea
Once I get through this I'll prob focus on algebra and then study for topology in the day between the two tests
I'm not really really under pressure here
I'm semi under pressure because I need permission to take an algebraic Geometry course
Which is probably bad I should feel more pressure but it feels far since I've got some shots
Oh rip I can just take whatever I want
And I need to show them I know some Algebra and Topology for that
And that I won't get stuck on the quals
Sometimes even later
And when the current chair took over he purged a bunch of students
So I don't have as much freedom as I would want
Have you looked at Pontryagin's Topological groups book btw?
Wait purged meaning kicked them out?
Yeah
And no I'm reading Bredon
Wait so was it like, a technical time limit to passing quals but they let it go?
Or was he like okay effective immediately anyone who doesn't pass by the end of second year is out
Oh okay that makes more sense
And it hurt the grad program a lot
I thought they originally didn't have a real time limit and then they changed their minds and knocked people off
Which would've been a bit dickish
Oh really? Wait how?
Oh I guess grad program makes sense
I was like wait you judge departments by their profs
But I guess if the students are slow and not getting postdocs that looks bad
I think the quality of your cohort is a big thing as well
A lot of people are the type who get their PhD so they can get a cushy job in a small college teaching
They've been trying to change that recently though
Go to conferences and all
Oh that's a bit of an uphill climb
Since you gotta either attract the good ones who were previously like nah or you gotta beat ambition into your people
So they can attract good people
A big problem is also money
Their funding is shit
And it doesn't look like that's going to change anytime soon
I mean yeah my point is that whatever the circumstances are a change has to be made if you're not currently getting who you want
That's fair, hopefully they're trying to implement changes
It seemed like they were from talking to the grad director
Tell them to give you a ton of money to go to conferences and represent them
Gotta go to sleep now, good night
See you
Let $E$ be the set of all $x\in[0,1]$ whose decimal expansion contains only the digits $4$ and $7$. Is $E$ countable? Is $E$ dense in $[0,1]$? Is $E$ compact? Is $E$ perfect?
Whoever:
did you figure out if E is closed yet
then you can use Heine Borel
and whether it's perfect should be easy as well
yes?
Do you have a question
For any neighborhood of x, you can always find an x(n)#x in the cantor set that is in that neighborhood. That is what they explained in the paragraph "To show that P is perfect, "
Yes that is the definition, every point is a limit point
But I don’t understand how x is a limit point
Because every neighborhood of x has a point different than itself which is in P.
Or do you mean that you didn't understand why that is true?
So you didn't understand the paragraph "To show that P is perfect, "
?
Every does it say every neighborhood?
"Let S be any segment containing x."
@coarse kestrel
What's the book?
Rudin
Fair! I should have known lol
I'll take another look at it. I don't remember the definition for perfect
Every point in the set is a limit point
I guess I can use this to prove that stupid set with digits in decimal only containing 4 and 7 is perfect
You know that the Cantor set is perfect right?
You can construct a homeomorphism between this and the cantor set
😐
What exactly is homeomorphism
@dim meadow
How can I prove this set is perfect
homeomorphisms are isomorphisms for topological spaces

Ok I got another proof
So I can just do something like
Let $x\in E$ and $\varepsilon>0$ be arbitrary. Select $n\in\bbZ^+$ such that $\varepsilon>1/10^n$. Then just change the $n+1$ digit of $x$ from 4 to 7 (or 7 to 4) and let this number be $x’$. Then $|x-x’|<1/10^n<\varepsilon$
Pretty trivial I would say
Whoever:
Ugh
yeah that works
If your two points are x,y then show that for every k in (0,1) there must be a point z such that d(x,z) = k d(x,y)
that would work.
let's suppose no such point existed for some k
Then consider part c, the ball with radius kd(x,y) around x. x would be in the set A, and y would be in set B, so they aren't connected
asking a question is an effective way to learn
Tru
Solving problems yourself is important also
Well
I tried every problems the best I could
I’m not like asking every question in rudin ch.2
Nope I’m going to stop at 23 I think I had enough of this
OK this is kinda stupid, but does topological space ∅ have 2 distinct covers? one cover is the empty cover ∅ (our space is equal to union of all elements of cover ∅), the other cover is {∅}
If ∅ is the entire space, then you can only use subsets of ∅
um... all elements of the empty cover are subsets of ∅
Exactly. {∅} isn't one of them
by {∅} I mean open cover which consists of 1 subset, the whole ∅
See I'm getting 2 different covers, one with 0 elements and the other with 1 element
There can't be a cover with one element, because there's no such thing as an element
Not in the empty space
No, I mean there is cover which consists of exactly one subset
Every topological space X has cover which consists of just 1 subspace, the whole X
Hmm, wait I think I see what you're saying
Interesting find. Why would that be a problem if it has two covers?
You're asking if it can
It doesn't seem to contradict the definition
Empty sets are weird
*set
Someone admits to two covers here
https://www.google.com/amp/s/amp.reddit.com/r/math/comments/9zzbmc/what_is_the_strangest_property_of_the_empty_set/
84 votes and 86 comments so far on Reddit
is it correct to say that the pullback of a (1,1)-form (e.g. a hermitian metric) by a holomorphic map is zero? because of the (0,1) part? or am I making a naive mistake?
this might be a basic question for this channel sorry if it is, but I've seen Euclidian space refer to R^n, n in N, but do we also assume Euclidian geometery when refering to a Euclidian space, does it vary?
ok yeah nevermind I forgot about that, so its just R^n for some n in N right, like we just have that and maybe field structure?
(I can't recall if R^n is a field, I guess no particular structure is assumed with just the term "Euclidian Space" though?)
with scalar multiplication and vector addition if anything, idk maybe thats nonstandard
ah ok thanks
Yes it is, but R^2 isn't the same
of course I meant with some multiplication, since none was giving in the first place
to answer the original question, I would say it depends on the context
sometimes people mean euclidean in the geometric sense
Thankyou seoin
other times it's in a topological sense, as in the term "locally euclidean" being used to define a manifold in only the topological sense
Well all R^n can be given addition and multiplication that make it a field
that's famously known to be false for n>2
please be direct
what is the multiplication on R^3?
mhmm
R^n with the usual addition
ok so we just dont have multiplication with Rn, n > 1?
Like we have scalar mult in linear algebra I know that at least
Bijection doesn't mean isomorphism though
just not in field theory I guess
this kind of confusion is exactly the kind of problem @fleet rapids asked about initially. Jan is considering R^n as nothing more special than a set of continuum cardinality, I was implicitly considering it at least as an additive group
oh got you
I mean all I'm saying is that R^n is given scalar mult in linear algebra but I guess if we only care about isomorph in abstract algebra then I guess thats why it wouldnt matter
I just wanted a more direct answer to my questions is all
ah because then we're taking from 2 different sets I see
so I'm thinking of vector space not abstract algebra ones like group/ring/field
hmm fair enough
I guess the connections between abstract and linear come up a lot when you get to field extension theory right?
e.g. minimum polynomials and max number of eigenvalues, etc.
well you shouldn't forget about the scalar multiplication... ideally you would like your prospective field multiplication to be compatible with it
because Stephen was mixing up the scalar multiplication with the product
I said the scalar multiplication isn't irrelevant even in a field
you can have all these structures existing together
for example in the nice fields you're familiar with like R and C, they have both a field multiplication and a scalar multiplication
I'm not sure what Q has to do with anything, they are acted on by all real scalars
umm I guess I was just noting that you need 2 different sets, so the scalars would form a field if we have the vector space Rn, but Rn cant itself be a field
at least not with scalar mult
@fleet rapids right, with the usual addition except in the case of R or C
So you do need 2 distinct sets to have a vector space right? Or can they be the same, b/c if they need to be distinct then fields and vector spaces are disjoint
whats happening in here
you need a scalar field and an additive group for the scalars to act on, yes, but they can be the same sure
because any field is a 1-dimensional vector space over itself
ah ok that makes sense
but wait what you were saying before seoin
with except in the case of R or C, is that where R or C is the vector space or the field with scalars?
as vector spaces, over R
your question was about making vector spaces into fields, so those are being considered as vector spaces here
ah ok R and C are fields and vector spaces over themselves, but R^2 and higher Rn arent fields with the ususal addition and scalar mult
field multiplication in R^n
would be multiplying 2 vectors together, and getting a vector
Sorry about the algebra overload in the topology chat by the way
scalar multi is totally different
was my fault
its not a big deal
is the field multiplication in R^n something like dot/cross product?
There isn't any field multiplication
(not binomial multiplication right?)
Except for a couple of cases
I'm trying to figure out what Sigma meant here
dot product returns a scalar
We don't
i was testing some but couldnt get one
hmm
This is a very famous fact
maybe try prove it doesnt exist generically?
so were saying theres no vector multiplication that gives a field for Rn n > 2 right?
^
ok thanks
I should prove some of these things to myslef more, just about time though ususally
I think this sort of thing is hard to prove
so what kind of math area would that be in roughly if we can pick a category?
hmm ok thanks
well I learned something new from this conversation:
R^n actually does admit a field structure with the usual addition, for any n
because they have the same dimension over Q, they are all isomorphic as additive groups
so using any bijection with R or C you really can make (R^n, +) isomorphic as a field to R or C
it's just that the scalar multiplication isn't compatible (and hence no contradiction to the result we were all thinking of)
i guess
So I'm pretty sure he means group with addition
I mean a field multiplication compatible with the additive group structure
But the fact that you can't add multiplication means it can't be a field.
compatible with the usual additive group structure
we had been talking about this an hour ago, but when we all said it was impossible to find a field structure compatible with the additive structure we weren't careful enough
of course the real result references normed division algebras, not just fields
it turns out they can be made into fields without changing the addition
I was even the first one to make that misconception
Oh. Ok then xD.
Hey guys, I asked a question in beta regarding a circle that circumscribes three other circles. Could anyone here give me a hand over there? :)
figured, sorry
So much quieter and less junky
So one thing I can do is to say that two paths f,g:[0,1]->X are equivalent if there's a homotopy H such that H(0,t) = f(0) and H(1,t) = f(1) for all t
The picture you should have in mind is that I'm basically sliding one curve to another smoothly
That's actually what I had in mind
Nice
But yeah given two spaces X and Y, we say they're homotopy equivalent if there are maps f:X->Y and g:Y->X such that f\circ g is homotopic to the identity on Y, and g\circ f is homotopic to the identity on X
And we kinda say two spaces are the same if they're homotopy equivalent
Makes sense
For example, the punctured plane is homotopy equivalent to the circle
The map from the circle to the punctured plane is just the inclusion, and the map back is the map x/||x||
The idea being that you can kinda "slide" the identity map on the punctured plane to the x/||x|| map
Yeah I actually had to do a problem very similar to that
So here's something cool. Let X be a space and let x be a fixed point. I'm gonna take the set of maps f:[0,1]->X such that f(0) = f(1) = x
So basically these are loops at x
Given two loops, I can concatenate them. If you think of [0,1] as time somehow, them a loop is tracing the path of a point. So I just go around one at double the speed, and then the other
If we identify homotopic loops, then this actually becomes a group operation
So we call this the fundamental group of X at x
Denoted π_1(X,x)
If X is path connected, it turns out that this doesn't depend on X, so you just get π_1(X)
This is the start of algebraic topology
Turns out homotopy equivalent spaces have the same fundamental group, so one way to distinguish spaces is to compute these and show they're different
For example, the sphere has π_1 = 0
Which means any loop in the sphere can be contracted to a point
Sphere as in the standard one in Euclidean space? Or something else?
You can see this visually for nice loops
Yeah standard one
But if you think of the torus, you can see that a "vertical" loop, sorta ring shaped, can't be contracted
So it has a non-trivial π_1
Hence the two aren't homeomorphic
Does this make sense at least visually?
It's all good
But yeah so, this kind of thing ends up going very far
So if you give me a loop, that turns out to be the same thing as a map from the circle into your space
You can use quotient spaces to make that formal, since the map e^{2πix} going from [0,1] to S^1 is a quotient map identifying 0 and 1
That actually clarifies a lot
So I can define π_n to be the same construction but I instead consider maps from S^n into X, again a priori I send a fixed point in S^n, say the North Pole, to x\in X
But it turns out this is very hard to compute, and a lot of algebraic topology is using heavy algebra tools to learn about these
Ah cool
There are also other objects you can associate to a space, each with their own associated geometric notions
Here is an interesting theorem: if X is a topological group, meaning it's a group such that the group operation X\times X -> X is continuous as well as the map sending a point to its inverse, then its fundamental group is abelian
I don't learn about abelian groups until next week 😂
(Well formally, I have seen this word so many times that I have looked it up.)
If your professor says to give examples of abelian groups, say "the fundamental group of a topological group!"
Also turns out π_n is abelian for n>2
He was my topology teacher, so I will ;)
But yeah there are other things you can associate which are much easier to compute (computing all the π_n for even the 2-sphere is still an open problem)
:O
π_1 is pretty easy though
But yeah you have these things called homology and cohomology groups (for each natural number n), and it turns out these have a very similar structure to other types groups you can associate
And one thing people care about is the structural relation between these theories
Which geometrically seem like they have nothing to do with each other
The differential topology side basically uses the smooth structure that comes with a manifold
For example, if you give me two compact n-manifolds that don't have an "edge" (think of the boundary circle as the edge of the disk, but that the sphere doesn't have an edge), I can define the degree of a smooth map between them
With manifolds?
Yeah
Oh actually you need to have a notion of orientation (so the Mobius strip doesn't work)
But yeah so, given two maps from such a manifold to the n-sphere, they're homotopic if and only if they have the same degree
This is not an easy theorem
(Basically a degree k map is one which is usually k to one, except maybe at bad points
But yeah in a nutshell when you introduce these elements into topology you get weird connections between things that you don't expect
Differential forms and triangulations and pairs of pants and vector bundles and these π_n groups all have to do with each other
And that's something I like
Go for it. We'll see if I can stretch the answer out to become unreasonably long :P
"So that stuff is mostly setting up toward other things. A lot of current topology is along different lines" (referring to point-set topology)
So what is point-set topology setting up for?
A lot of it is really a backdrop for other areas of math, especially analysis
It's sort of convenient to be able to phrase things in terms of topological spaces and continuity
For instance, uniform convergence can be thought of as convergence in the metric space C[0,1]
There are some other things, you can define some very weird topologies which are useful but don't have a nice geometric notion
So I feel a lot of the importance of point-set topology is providing a language for other areas of math
But if you talk to a topologist nowadays they really don't care about bullshit like [0,1]\times [0,1] with dictionary order
😂
Maybe one day I'll take another topology class
It's a shame that class is the only topology class that they offer. I don't think most nearby schools offer anything more advanced
Probably edit/delete that message because information
But yeah one book I like is Rotman "Introduction to Algebraic Topology"
Hmmmm... I'll do it just to be safe
If I end up doing topology in grad school it'll be with this one guy who tries to adapt stuff you can do for smooth manifolds with solution spaces to polynomials that aren't necessarily smooth
For example, the solutions to x^2 + y^2 - 1 form a circle
Wait, do you start grad school soon or are you already in grad school?
But if you look at the equation y^2 - x^2(x+1) = 0, it has a self-intersection
So, my first semester of grad school is starting in a couple weeks
Just that I don't yet know who my adviser is gonna be and all that
So one thing I can do is to say that two paths f,g:[0,1]->X are equivalent if there's a homotopy H such that H(0,t) = f(0) and H(1,t) = f(1) for all t
well for path-homotopies we also required that the endpoints stay fixed under the homotopy
as opposed to any old homotopy which could move all points about
we just impose the coherence conditions that the left and rights loops are contractible 
Pretty sure I mentioned that either earlier (this continued a convo in chill) or later
Two dimensional beings: "In three dimensional universe the mobius strip wouldn't have to intersect"
How does a mobius strip in 2D look like 🤔

Uhh worth noting that this isn’t “a Möbius strip in 2D” in any topological sense
Like it’s not homeomorphic to a Möbius strip
How do you state the property of mobius strip in terms of topological properties?
like how do you use topology terms to say mobius strip only has 1 surface
It is the only nontrivial line bundle over S^1
Is how I would say it
Oh wait
That's not what you meant
Non orientable is a good word, although it doesn't describe what you are saying
In fact non orientable is kind of THE Mobius band property
I am talking about the Mobius bundle, not the band actually
Nonorientability is exactly the property you’re talking about
Is every continuous curve is a closed set in R^n with respect to the standard topology?
Not a space filling curve
Actually, I’m not sure if you could actually fill Rn w space filling let me double check
Wait when you say curve
Can we even define a curve that fills R^n though
What’s your domain
R
I want to say yes but a proof isn’t immediately clear to me
I'm not sure how to exactly phrase my statement. I'm just doing an exercise in topology where I have to prove that a line is closed in R^2, as well to the circle, ...
So my intuition says that if we have a reasonable curve ( like continuous)
then it is closed
Ok 1) I was wrong you can’t fill Rn with a “space filling curve”
- the statement is that img f for f: R\rightarrow Rn is closed
For f cont
I see, thank you vm !
Still, I think this might only be true for curves parameterized by closed domain
But I can’t realllly think of why
I’m gonna sit on it
hmmm, makes sense
The curve doesnt have a boundary when the domain is not closed
at end point
Let f(t)=(t,t) for t in (0,1) be our curve. Then we have (0,0) and (1,1) as our limit points ( every open ball should cut the curve). The curve clear doesnt contain these points, so it is not closed. It is not open either, as every open ball centered at a point on the curve will contain a point outside the curve ( I think this fact can be generalized to any other curve as every curve is 1-dimensional while space has >=2 dimension). For curve R->R this degenerates to open sets.
But what funny is, the precise definition of a curve is a continuous function whose domain [0,1] as per Wikipedia https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Space-filling_curve
In mathematical analysis, a space-filling curve is a curve whose range contains the entire 2-dimensional unit square (or more generally an n-dimensional unit hypercube). Because Giuseppe Peano (1858–1932) was the first to discover one, space-filling curves in the 2-dimensio...
So if we accept this definition then I guess it is true
Yeah
I was just coming to point out that it wasn’t true
Yeah haha this is obviously not true now that I think about it
But yes curves normally come from closed intervals (which are compact)
Which is why I asked what your domain was
@marsh forge you can fill R^n with R very easily
Just tile R^n with I^n's
And use space filling curves I -> I^n
In fact there was a interesting thing I found a while ago
Huh?
A function g:R^n -> R^m is continuous iff for every continuous map f:R -> R^n we have g°f is continuous
You can’t use I as the domain tho
?
Wikipedia requires a space filling curve have domain I
Not R
That’s why I said that
Oh lol
Yeah I know you can do it w R
#geometry-and-trigonometry perhaps is better
I made up a problem
nowhere dense:
but there are always infinitely many, you can't chose n, n is indexing only
the problem is that they may be really small balls
I think he's talking about R^n
ooh right
For part 1 you can just take a countable dense subset of S^n-1 and attach one ball at each point. Then shove each ball in a tiny bit
Part 2 looks like it would involve some actual (basic) Geometry so I'm not going to do it
@covert oyster is part 1 right?
Oh I guess you would project inwards from that set of dense points and put the ball on the corresponding point on the sphere of radius min(1, 1/r) where r is the radius of the ball
It's right! 
Part 2 is not so geometric
Actually I would say part 3 is more geometric
Or maybe there is a more geometric solution for part 2 as well, we will see
Was the first thing I said right btw?
I made the change because I wasn't so sure
Oh it definitely wasn't right
I think it wasn't right yeah
Just take balls whose circumference sums to a small number
Or something
And you can prove that wouldn't work
The problem is similar to the construction in which you put over each rational number an interval centered on it of length 2^-n (n here comes from an enumeration of the rationals)
This doesn't cover all the reals
Mm so I think you didn't solve part 1 correctly now
Yes, you need to explain that choose
r sounds better
But you need to choose something bigger than r
Otherwise 0 is in the ball
Nah I don't think you do
You shove it in r/2
And when you pull it back to the sphere I guess it's lower bounded by some constant
Is what I want
Yeah that is what I want
I don't want to figure out the constant rn lmao
Alright have a gn
Bye
Was this your solution btw?
You got the important part
That is ||the radious of the ball doesn't matter because the amount of rays it cover doesnt change once you apply a homothety, hence you just need to find a solution with balls of any size||
Just multiplying by some scalar factor
Haha
How do I prove that R is regular ? ( Euclidean topology)
By definition. For R the closed sets contain all limit points
i think it shouldnt be too hard to find a basis that encloses a point and is disjoint from a set, disjoint from the point directly from definition of reguar
T3 include T2 proof
@coarse kestrel "closed sets contain all limit point"s is a statement that is true for all topological spaces. Hence it can't be used to infer about regularity.
Well for R^n in this case
Oh just R
If x is not in a closed set E then it’s not a limit point and thus there is a neighborhood of x which doesn’t intersect E
It’s the euclidean (standard) topology right?
yeah
So there is an open ball, which is an open interval, or open neighborhood, of x
Can you construct it exactly in set builder notation
I would like a constructive proof
Ok but there really isn’t anything I feel like
Suppose $E$ is closed and $x\notin E$, then $x$ is not a limit point of $E$ and there exists a neighborhood of $x$ that doesn’t intersect $E$, or there exists a positive real number $r$ such that ${p\in\bbR:|p-x|<r}\cap E=\varnothing$
Whoever:
that doesn't quite prove regular yet
just let C be a closed subset, x a point. then there exists an open ball around x of radius r that does not intersect C (just take the distance between x and C)
now B_{r/2}(x) is an open ball around x
and the union of all B_{r/2}(c) for c in C is an open neighbourhood of C
as union of open sets
the intersection is empty because triangle inequality
@rancid shard
@vocal wharf The proof u showed is quite general. As for abitrary set which does not contain x we can do the same: take the union of the open balls which are less than half of the distance between any two points in the set and X. So I suppose this is true not only for closed sets?
In full generality you can do this between any 2 closed sets
That are disjoint
You can't do this without the closed condition because of limit points
@rancid shard
this is also true for open sets, but that's more trivial
open sets are their own open neighbourhood
Nice, I understand now, thank you everyone !
yep (unlike normality!)
(though counterexamples for that are annoyingly difficult)
is there an easier counterexample to normality not being preserved than (0,1)^ℝ as a subspace of [0,1]^ℝ?
(which I know is true but can’t prove myself)
(in particular the step that ℝ^ℝ is not normal I don’t really know how to show)
So normality is true for metric spaces, and subspaces of metric spaces are metric spaces
Because of that easy examples aren't so easy to find
yea, even just an example of a hausdorff but not normal space is hard enough, though I do know a nice one
upper half plane with boundary, basis for the topology are:
•all open balls not touching the boundary
•open balls with center on the boundary but excluding all non-center points on the boundary
this is hausdorff, but it’s not regular: every subset of the boundary δ is closed, but there are no open sets separating (0,0) and δ \ (0,0)
it probably does have a name
yeah or moore plane
Can you do the classification of compact surfaces using cellular homology?
By viewing a compact surface as a cw complex with 1 0 cell, a finite collection of 1-cells and a single 2 cell
And then using degree theory to get the homology
@honest narwhal
So let's talk about CW complexes
Well to start off
Given an inclusion A -> X, we have a short exact sequence of chain complexes 0 -> H_n(A) -> H_n(X) - > H_n(X, A) -> 0
(I'm not going to do exact sequences in latex btw)
This induces a long exact sequence
Which we are going to use for cellular homology
So given a CW complex X, let's look at it's k skeleton X^k
Wait you mean H_n?
Or actually C_n
And just to remember, C_n(X,A) is defined how?
I know it'll be C_n(X)/C_n(A) or something
But is that the definition or a theorem or what?
Definition
Okay, so we know something about H_n(X^k/X^k-1)
So this is the homology of the CW complex which is attaching a bunch of k-cells at a point
Ah, D_n mod boundary is S^n
Yeah
So this is a wedge of spheres?
Okay so its homology is gonna be Z^{number of k-cells}
Okay good I still "know" homology
Note also that we have a isomorphism between H_n(X^n/X^n-1) and the reduced homology of H_n(X^n, X^n-1)
This is a previous result which I'm not going to prove
So the deal with cellular homology is that we can make a chain complex whose entries are H_n(X^n/X^n-1)
In other words just Z^{number of n-cells}
And we make the boundary maps by stapling together a bunch of exact sequences
We use the long exact sequence I talked about earlier here
Oh no
This isn't too bad
Let me see if I can reconstruct the diagram chase needed to show this is a chain complex
That's not too bad
Yeah it really isn't
Since it contains \delta_n j_n
Okay right
The next part is showing that this gives you an isomorphism with singular homology
Which is just purely Algebraic
I'll take it on faith for the moment unless there's an idea that's worth knowing
Not really
It's purely follow your nose
It's worth it to do on your own tbh
The really important thing
Like I'm also pretty much black boxing the proof of singular = simplicial until after quals as well, in my mind it's just "the axioms hold"
And the thing that makes this worth it
Is that you can describe the maps in terms of degree theory
:0
This is the sort of thing which is worth going through
So basically the way we do this
Is you take a n cell
Look at the map from S^n-1 to X^n-1
Okay kinda had to steal it but I can thwart the cops
Then collapse all of X^n-1 - a (n-1 cell) to a point
Note that that collapsing is the same as identifying the boundary of D^n-1
So you get a quotient map from X^n-1 to S^n-1
By composing the attaching map from the boundary of the chosen n-cell with this quotient map, you get a map S^n-1 -> S^n-1
Which induces a map on H_n
And the degree of that map is the coefficient for the n-1 cell in d_n(n-cell)
Here's a shitty example of this
Classification of surfaces
Wait something's not type checking in my mind
You can make a compact surface have a cw complex with 1 0-cell, n 1-cells, and 1 2-cells
Sorry go on
So we have an attaching map S^{n-1} -> X^{n-1} along which we glue a D^n
Yes
Btw I'll try to present the proof of this later tonight
Cause I would have to prepare
So you have an n-1 cell e_\alpha^{n-1}
So for clarification the n-1 cell is the image of the interior of the ball
In case that's what was bothering you
Not the image of the closed ball
Oh
So the collapsing of $X^{n-1} - e_\alpha^{n-1}$
Liquid:
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for details. (You may edit your message)
Gives you a disc with it's boundary identified
So S^n-1
So here's a example from classification of surfaces
Consider the surface with 1 0-cell, 4 1-cells a,b,c,d and 1 2-cells
The surface word corresponds to the attaching map from the 2 cell to the 1-skeleton
Let's say the surface word is aba^-1b^-1cdc^-1d
So we can compute the map from H_2(X^2/X^1)
Which is just Z here
The coefficient for the 1-cell a
Would be aa^-1
=0
They are all zero except for d, which has degree 2
So the map H_2(X^2/X^1) -> H_1(X^1/X^0)
Just sends the 2-cell to 2d
So H_1 in this case will just be Z^4/(2Z) = Z^3 \oplus Z/2Z
Because the map from H_1(X^1/X^0) is trivial
Ah so then that works with Euler char
Yeah I think you can get the classical definition of Euler characteristic using cellular homology very easily
Assuming the homology definition
Tbh there's nothing really deep going on in the proofs for cellular homology
They're purely Algebraic
And that's my shitty crash course in cellular homology
@honest narwhal any questions?
Oh so a little detail
I've been saying H_n(X^n/X^n-1) instead of H_n(X^n, X^n-1)
This is fine except in bottom dimension
But for bottom dimension it's just connected component stuff
So it shouldn't really matter
But it actually uses H_n(X^n,X^n-1)
Yeah that's all fine, main question is how do compute degrees IRL in general. Does it match with smooth degree from AT?
n->1 maps at regular values up to orientation etc
Yeah it does I think
I've read that it does in the past
In this case it's much easier than in that case
Cause your only dealing with S^n
And looking at the induced map Z->Z on homology
I need to brush up on my degree theory tbh
But I've been doing it by eye and it's not too bad
Hmm, I guess I'm less familiar with how to compute those degrees as well. If it aligns with difftop degree I'm somewhat happier
If you have something explicit, you can actually compute the map on homology
Oh there are some results for degree theory
You should read
One sec
This sort of thing
Also there's another big result
On 135-136 of Hatcher
I'm not sure how to relate the definition of continuity as preimage of an open set is open with the normal definition in analysis as : for all x and y, if |x-y|< delta => |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon . Mainly because the forward direction of inference makes it a bit awkward for me to prove equivalence
nevermind i got it
for all x and y, if |x-y|< delta => |f(x)-f(y)|<epsilon
that's not the definition of continuity at all
I think that’s uniform
that's just me abbreviating the definition
no
lol
it's you mangling the definition to the point that it is incorrect
It should be something like for all x and y, for all postivie epsiolon, there is a delta st .... and the rest, right ? And for the uniform continuity we will have the delta qualifier right after epsilon
Could u cite me the correct definition then ?
Also, I’d recommend proving the equivalence of the two definitions
You can ask for help ofc but the best way to understand it is to give it a shot
It’s not too hard tbh depending on how much topology you know
i wrote "nevermind i got it". Also I was just being informal but people here seem to be keen on getting everything correct
Tbh your choice of informality was closer to uniform cont than it was to normal cont
So it’s not surprising people pointed that out
As your question is false using uniform continuity
oh i forgot that it might not be true for uniform continuity
thanks for pointing that out
np
kindof a basic question, but Ive seen S^1 used to mean the unit circle, and S^2 for the unit sphere
is there a discrete dynamical system that relates S^n to S^m for n and m in N?
and what gets us from S^1 to S^2, I assume theres no homeomorphism between them right?
well no of course not
i mean
there do exist continuous maps from S^1 to S^2 and from S^2 to S^1
but of course there exist continuous maps between any two topological spaces
so i'm really not sure what exactly you're looking for here
basically just looking for the strongest topological relation between them to explain why they are named almost the same things but with slightly different superscripts
and I thought a homeo is just a continuous inverible map of top. spaces, no?
yeah bc Rm is bijective to Rn
but that directly implies theres a bijection between them
yeah but none that is continuous and whose inverse is also continuous in their standard topologies
ah ok I see my bad
key word continuous
am I correct that homeo is just continuous inverible mapping though?
ok so continuous, invertible, and inverse map is continuous, missing anything still?
so I guess the third requirement is whats preventing S^1 from being homeo to S^2 right?
no that's the definition of a homeomorphism
and no
if anything, the last requirement stops S^1 and [0, 1) from being homeomorphic
S^1 and S^2 can be shown to be non-homeomorphic by other means
A nice proof is removing 2 points from both
