#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 143 of 1
Yes
A set $\mathscr{B}\subseteq \tau$ is a basis if every $U \in \tau$ is of the form $\bigcup_{i \in I} B_i$, for $B_i \in \mathscr{B}$
Nico
I'm afraid I'm still not getting your confusion.
The elements in the subbasis $\mathscr{S}$, they aren's in the basis described here
Nico
Or are they?
Each of them ends up being in the basis too, by setting n=1.
Nico
Might be, but that's not a problem.
The entire topology is a basis (as well as a subbasis) for itself too.
(This is not like in linear algebra, where a "basis" can only have one size).
That's probably where my confusion comes from
So a basis for a topology is kinda like a generating set for a vector space?
So a basis is kinda like a generating set with union, and a subbasis is a generating set with union and finite intersection?
Yes.
Right
Another way of looking at the subbasis is that you're saying "I have these sets that I want to be open -- which other open sets do I need before it qualifies as a topology?"
Yeah
Right, and then he says that every basis is also a subbasis
How does that make sense?
Conversely, if S is a sub basis, then the collection of finite intersections of elements of S is a basis
That's kinda this definition, right?
I'm not immediately seeing why it wouldn't make sense.
But the finite intersection isn't a defining trait of the basis, right?
No, but if you have a basis, then every element of the basis is still a finite intersection of basis elements -- namely itself!
"Finite intersection" can also mean "intersection of a single set", which means the set itself.
Nico
Then by definition of a topology $U_1 \cap U_2$ is in our topology
Nico
But why does that necessarily mean that it is also in the basis?
What is the definition of a basis of a topology I think start there
Also, maybe stupid question , but is the empty set in every basis?
it doesn't need to be
U1 cap U2 is not necessarily itself in the basis, but it must then be the union of other basis sets.
For every $x \in X$, there must exist an open set $U$ in our basis $\mathscr{B}$ such that $x \in U$
Nico
no, not enough.
because to achieve the empty set as a union of basis elements, you can take the empty union
No that was local basis for x
Ok nevermind
I'm stupid
local basis is defined differently
I’ve kind of wondered to what extent you can use this trick for measures
how do you mean?
If an empty union gives an empty sum you get mu(emptyset) = 0
But usually I check mu(emptyset) = 0 explicitly
We defined basis as: a set of open sets B is a basis if every open set in X is the union of elements in B
A nice alternative definition is the following
Because I don't understand this subject at all
And I keep coming here with stupid questions
I mean I found point-set topology really hard, too
B is a basis iff for any open set U and any x in U, there exists a B subset U which contains x
Same
You don't actually need to check this if any set has finite measure at allz
Do any of you guys know a lot about the Lebesgue integral? If so, do you need a lot of topology for it? For some reason, the second chapter of this course is the Lebesgue integral and I'm kinda tired of topology for now
One problem with learning point-set is that finite examples of topologies are either trivial or weird, so it demands more of the imagination to think of simple examples of many of the concepts.
I’ve learnt a lot about the 1D lebesgue integral recently!
I think, there is a decent amount of topology that’s helpful for it
Damn
Compactness especially is vital
So I need to finish topology before looking at the Lebesgue integral?
Well finish is a strong word
I only have a decent understanding of the absolute basics
Lemme think about what exact topology was needed
Still struggling to remember all the definitions, even
Ok, here’s one result you’ll definitely need
You don't need all of abstract topology, but in particular topological notions in R and R^n will be vital.
Let $(C_n)$ be a sequence of nonempty closed bounded subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ that is decreasing, so $C_{n + 1} \subset C_n$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty C_n \neq \emptyset$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Ok nice
For R, that is tho
This statement is used in showing that you have a premeasure on the half-open intervals
A thing you use to make a measure
In this case the lebesgue measure
You know what, I'll just finish all of topology and then start with the Lebesgue integral
another useful statement is that any open subset of R can be written as a countable disjoint union of open intervals
Better change that to "finish this particular topology book". There are arbitrarily deep rabbit holes within "all of topology".
I saw this theorem that said "V is an open and connected set in R iff V is an open interval"
Yeah, I'm not planning on doing a phd in topology anyways
A nice way of saying this is that “a subset of R is connected if and only if it is an interval”
This is used as part of the topological proof of the intermediate value theorem
I'm not seeing the intermediate value theorem in this course, I think
Or at least, there's nothing in my syllabus labelled as the intermediate value theorem
There is stuff about path connectedness tho
Do you prove that “continuous image of a connected set is connected”?
Yes
So this gives a proof of the IVT
Let $f : I \to \mathbb{R}$ be continuous, where $I$ is an interval
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Thus $I$ is connected, meaning $f(I)$ is connected, meaning $f(I)$ is an interval
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So if we choose $y$ between $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ for some $a, b \in I$, then there must exist a $c \in I$ with $f(c) = y$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
This is (essentially) the IVT
Let $\mathscr{S}$ be a subbasis of a topological space $(X, \tau)$. Then $x_\lambda \rightarrow x$ iff for every $U \in \mathscr{S}$ with $x \in U$ there exists a $\lambda_0 \in \Lambda$ for which $x_\lambda \in U$ for every $\lambda \succeq \lambda_0$
This is true
Nico
Oh
The proof is left as an exercise to the reader
Right right
Literally half of my syllabus btw
So, have you met the definition of net convergence?
Yes
Could you spell it out? There are two versions I can think of
$x_\lambda \rightarrow x$ if for every $U$, neighbourhood of $x$, there exists a $\lambda_0 \in \Lambda$ such that $x_\lambda \in U$ for every $\lambda \succeq \lambda_0$
Nico
That's what's in my syllabus
Ok nice
For the forward implication, I'm guessing to just apply the definition of net convergnce
I think, then, this will be a helpful warmup exercise
Suppose $x_\lambda \to x$. Then for every open set $U$ containing $x$, there exists a $\lambda_0 \in \Lambda$ such that $x_\lambda \in U$ for every $\lambda \geq \lambda_0$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Can you prove this?
Just the definition of net convergence?
More explicitly, please
The definition of net convergence references neighbourhoods, but this references open sets
Uhm
Well we can just take a neighbourhood of x
And take the intersection with U and that neighbourhood?
Which one?
Any one that fully contains U?
Such as…? Like, how do you know one exists
What I am asking has nothing to do with subbases
It is this statement I am asking you to prove
Ah
Well can't we take B(x,r) for a certain r > 0?
This will surely have a nonempty intersection with U
We’re in a topological space, not necessarily a metric space
Ah, right
Though it’s not a bad intuition
Do we have a local basis for x?
I think you’re getting a little off-course, so let me help
Suppose $U$ is an open set containing $x$. Then $U$ is a neighbourhood of $x$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Can you prove this?
Either U is a neighbourhood of x, or it contains a neighbourhood of x?
I want you to prove specifically that U is a neighbourhood of x
That's our definition of neighbourhood
It… sounds like a circular definition? Are you sure?
$V \subseteq X$ is a neighbourhood of $x \in X$ and $x$ is interior of $V$ if there exists an open $U$ with $x \in U \subseteq V$
Nico
Ok, that’s the definition I’m familiar with
Using this definition, I want you to show that if U is an open set containing x, then U is a neighbourhood of x
Because $x \in U \subseteq U$?
Nico
Yes, that works
Happy with this result now?
So now since we have a neighbourhood, the conditions are met for the net to converge?
Well, we’re assuming the net converges to x already, so that’s not what we’re trying to prove
We’re trying to prove that the net eventually lies in U
I don't understand what else we need to prove for this statement to be true
So the way I’d do it is
Let U be an open set containing x
Then U is a neighbourhood of x
Thus, by the definition of net convergence, there exists a lambda_0 where for any lambda >= lambda_0, x_lambda in U
But we had that already?
We needed this step
Isn't this just enough to conclude that this is true?
No, not quite
Because if $U \in \mathscr{S}$ and $x \in U$, we just proved that $U$ is a neighbourhood of $x$ and if $\lambda_0$ exists such that $x_lambda \in U$ for every $\lambda \succeq \lambda_0$, then $x$ converges, because every neighbourhood can be written as the union of intersections of elements of $\mathscr{S}$?
Nico
You know what, I'll ask about this later
So this shows one direction
The library is closing in 5 minutes
If x_lambda -> x then your subbasis statement is true
Now you need to show the other direction
It’s an “iff”
No, we did not
We showed that if x_lambda -> x, then for every element S of your subbasis containing x, x_lambda is eventually in S
We have not shown the converse
I.e. you have not shown that if, for every element S of your subbasis containing x, x_lambda is eventually in S, then x_lambda -> x
Sorry, but I really have to go
They're basically kicking me out
That’s ok
I might catch you this weekend, if not maybe monday
Is the order topology on R^2 using the dictionary order comparable to the standard topology on R^2? My thought was yes, cause the set of rectangular regions forms a basis for the standard topology, and for any point inside a rectangular region we can embed it inside an interval of the type on the right
Yea, so any open set in the standard topology is an open set in the dictionary order topology (why?)
But not the other way around (why?)
||Both of the two above dictionary-order opens are counterexamples.||
i know its a standard result that if a topological vector space V is hausdorff, then V is locally compact if and only if V is finite dimensional
Is there a version for if V is not hausdorff? Are there any non-hausdorff, infinite dimensional topological vector spaces that are locally compact?
dumb example: take any infinite dimensional V with the indiscrete topology. The vector space operations are both continuous because the codomain is V in both cases, and the indiscrete topology is even compact
...fair enough. Anyone able to say anything about stronger topologies?
afaik any TVS where {0} is closed is already Hausdorff, so all counterexamples are of the boring form where the topology is just indiscrete on some nontrivial subspace
the quotient by this subspace cl({0}) is a Hausdorff TVS and hence finite-dimensional, so the only thing that can go wrong is really that cl({0}) is infinite-dimensional
Hi, the other day I asked for help in one of this channels and I've been struggling to understand the structure of the set, I know a base set is a familiy of neighborhoods, and so, I don't understand why shouldn't enclosure all the base inside another brackets
To leave it like this
This is to do with set builder notation
If I write ${2n \mid n \in \mathbb{N}}$, what set do you think I’m describing?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the even numbers
Mhm
We have a function $\mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Doing $n \mapsto 2n$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
No, it’s all the even numbers
This set is the image of that function
Similarly, we have a function $\mathbb{N} \to P(\mathbb{R})$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
The codomain is the powerset of the reals
This sends $n$ to the interval $(x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n) \subset \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So, what set is ${(x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n) \mid n \in \mathbb{N}}$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
that should be the powerset right?
Of what? This set isn’t the powerset of anything
This set should be (x-1,x+1)
No, that’s not correct
Maybe this alternative way of writing the set will help
${S \subset \mathbb{R} \mid \exists n \in \mathbb{N}, S = (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n)}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Can you explain your logic?
If I know that S = (x - 1/n, x + 1/n) and start going through the naturals I start with the set: (x-1, x + 1) and ending with (x,x), because x is inside the set (x-1,x+1) I would say that the set is (x-1, x+1)
Ok but what if S = (x - 0.5, x + 0.5)
Then clearly S doesn’t equal (x - 1, x + 1), right?
This is true, but I don’t see how that’s relevant
Yes, $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5) \subset (x - 1, x + 1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
However it is still true that $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5) \neq (x - 1, x + 1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
mmm, I think of this as being an open set
This is still true, after all
You asked me about what set was that
I am asking you what the set ${S \subset \mathbb{R} \mid \exists n \in \mathbb{N}, S = (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n)}$ is
and so I think it's the open set {(x-1,x+1)} even though now I know is bad😅
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Ok here’s a concrete question
Is $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5)$ an element of this set?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
That is a subset as you said
I always confuse in what is an element and a subset when I start going with families and so on
If I let $A = {S \subset \mathbb{R} \mid \exists n \in \mathbb{N}, S = (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n)}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
It is completely false that $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5) \subset A$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So I don’t know what you mean here
i was refering to this
This is true, but $A \neq (x - 1, x + 1)$
Could you elaborate why it is an element?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
It follows from the definition of set-builder notation
$S \in A$ if and only if $S \subset \mathbb{R}$ and $\exists n \in \mathbb{N}, S = (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Now, do you agree that $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5) \subset \mathbb{R}$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
is S a set?, because of it being a capital letter
Please answer my Q first
It being capitalised has nothing to do with it
yes, for n = 2
???
the statement i put does not reference $n$ at all, so i don't know what you mean
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i am just asking whether $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5)$ is a subset of $\mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yes it is
ok, good
now, do you agree that $\exists n \in \mathbb{N}, (x - 0.5, x + 0.5) = (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n)$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yes
you would also be forced to conclude that $(x - 1, x + 1) \in A$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in particular, $A$ has at least two elements
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
because $(x - 0.5, x + 0.5) \neq (x - 1, x + 1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah
do you see why this is false, now?
that set would look like: {(x-1,x+1),(x-0.5,x+0.5),(x-0.25,x+0.25), ... , (x,x)} right?
yes
there's no (x, x), but otherwise correct
i think what you were doing is the following
A is a collection of subsets of R
so in particular, A itself is not a subset of R
but i think, for some reason, you'd convinced yourself that $A \subset \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and so implicitly what you were doing is $\bigcup_{a \in A} a$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
because it is true that $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty (x - \frac 1n, x + \frac 1n) = (x - 1, x + 1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but this is not what A is
well, I was thinking the set aboug being just the first case: (x-1,x+1) and just considering A like (x-1,x+1)
said differently, $A \not \in P(\mathbb{R})$, but $A \subset P(\mathbb{R})$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
in fact $A \in P(P(\mathbb{R}))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
when I start seeing collections, families and so on I start getting a mess in my head
it's helpful to remember that in set theory, everything is a set
it's perfectly reasonable for sets to contain other sets
so long as you're careful with set-builder notation, you'll be fine
the main thing you were doing is, if $\mathcal{F}$ is a family of sets, for some reason you were replacing this with $\bigcup_{a \in \mathcal{F}} a$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but $\bigcup_{a \in \mathcal{F}} a \neq \mathcal{F}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
what is true is a slightly different statement
$\bigcup_{a \in \mathcal{F} } {a} = \mathcal{F}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this works for any set, and just says that "any set is a union of singletons"
but $\bigcup_{a \in \mathcal{F} } {a} \neq \bigcup_{a \in \mathcal{F} } a$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
okay
so
Now I understand that this represents set of neighborhoods and so it doesn't require another {}
yes, so this would be ${(x - 1, x + 1), (x - \frac 12, x + \frac 12), \dots, {x} }$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
because {(x-1/n,x+1/n)} end up being a collection of sets that has an union with a set {x}
in this case, $\bigcup_{a \in B_x} a = (x - 1, x + 1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but of course, this is not what $B_x$ itself is
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
B_x is this set, which in particular has countably infinitely many elements
whereas this set has an uncountable number of elements
it's helpful to remember the identities $x \in P(a) \iff x \subset a$, and $x \in {a} \iff x = a$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I have to fight with the confussion between elements and subsets when talking about collections or families😅
yeah you very much just need to trust what the set builder notation tells you
Ill work on that, anything you recommend?
Maybe ask in #proofs-and-logic ?
thanks for the help and time 🙂
Hey there I was wondering if any1 could help me prove this result:
Let $Q \coloneq \bigcap_{k\ge 1}k^{\mathbb{N}}$. Show that $Q$ is not a $G_{\delta}$ subset of $\mathbb{N}^{\mathbb{N}}$.
dan
The question right before it was this, which I think might be helpful to this problem:
Let $X$ be a complete metric space. Prove that a subset $Y\subseteq X$ is comeagre if and only if $Y$ contains a dense $G_{\delta}$ set.
dan
to me Q just seems like its equal to {(1,1,1,...)} and so is the intersection of the open sets {1}xNxN..., {1}x{1}xNxNx..., ...
did you mean something like union instead of intersection?
Oh god yeah my bad
Lmao
Union
I think it can be solved by remarking that Q is dense in the Baire space and thus if it’s a G_delta set it would be both meagre and comeagre since each k^{\mathbb{N}} is nd but the Baire space is Baire so it’s necessarily nonmeagre which implies that it has no meagre and comeagre sets
But we didn’t see that nonmeagre => no meagre and comeagre sets in class, i just got that from wikipedia
You could probaby use just the baire category theorem. Q is meagre and dense as you noted. If it was G_delta set, then by baire category theorem, Q is comeagre. But this means that N^N = Q U (N^N\ Q), both of which are meager which is not possible
Ohh right I kinda forgot that meagre sets form a sigma ideal haha
Thanks for your help
is there an example of a non-hausdorff space where the intersection of any two compact subspaces is compact?
oh
i guess there should be a small example with a weird topology on the integers
i guess the integers with two origins works
Some set with the trivial topology?
ah yea. i guess you just need any set with more than one element and that works
this was inspired by the question of whether or not, in a lattice, the meet of two compact objects is compact
my first instinct was yes because in a hausdorff space this is true
the intersection of compacts is compact
try cocountable topology on R.
any compact subspace must be finite. So their intersection is finite, and thus compact.
would be interesting if there is some sort of "hausdorff" condition for a lattice, or some characterization of those lattices where the intersection of any two compact objects is compact.
just for completeness, here is an example where the intersection of compact opens is not compact https://math.stackexchange.com/a/229821/803927
Btw for schemes this is called quasiseparatedness and this is a common condition to care about
(Because this condition is equivalently saying that you can write any intersection of open affines as a finite union of open affines)
which condition? that the intersection of compact opens is compact?
Yes (given that you have a scheme)
too bad i don't know what a scheme is 
its an object in the category of schemes
uh morally schemes are to Spec(some commutative ring) as manifolds are to R^n
except that your ring can vary over the cover
im going to take that to mean that it locally looks like a ring
don't know what Spec is either
fair
alg geo scares me
c scared
me too, I'm currently learning this stuff
my condolences
Spec of a ring, as a set, is the set of prime ideals
and there's some canonical topology
and a sheaf you can put on top of that which remembers all the data of the commutative ring
Spec R is the functor Hom(R,-)
Sorry lol
woah what? ring homomorphisms out of R are the same as prime ideals of R?
a scheme is a space that locally looks like the set of prime ideals of a commutative ring endowed with the zariski topology
Like if a manifold was terrible
wdym "if"
i think they mean life if a manifold was terrible
a manifold is already terrible
oh i misread it whoops
Tat was a bit of a joke message but the point is like there is a "functorial" perspective on schemes which is that you can study functors {commutative rings} -> {sets} and some of these can be thought of as representable by geometric objects. One pleasant thing about this is that it is easy to come up with examples. Like take the equation { x^3 = 5 } and taking solutions to this equation give you a functor as above. It turns out that this functor is actually corepresentable, in this case by the ring Z[x]/(x^3 - 5).
Other way round
If you hand me a random topological space I will generally be happy, but if you tell me it can be given a manifold structure then I will think lesser of the space
Fibre product of smooth manifolds hmmm
Like if terrible was a manifold?
But also like we often needn't rly think of schemes as topological spaces
is there some reason to say fiber product instead of pullback lol
colife if coterrible was a comanifold
Habit lol
To flex their ability to spell correctly
beacuse that's what AG people say and we're cool and everyone should listen to us
oh that is kind of cool actually
Yeah I didn't even say fiber [sic.] product
Im too woke for this. I will call these pullbacks and also directed limits are just colimits to me
my question was deliberately worded
Directed and inverse limits are a mistake and we should get rid of the terminology
(Unironically)
WOKE GEN Z GENUS STUDIES PHD IS DESTROYING AMERICA \silly
Now I feel even sillier
there is a reason to call it a fibre product iff a) there is a reason to call it a fiber product and b) you hate democracy and freedom and oil
ohhhh so if you are american
Saw smth like this recently where someone was talking about not being able to get a job despite a degree from Cambridge and someone commented about how when they hear cambridge they think top engineer or medic, not humanities
Ragebaited me lol
AG mostly with a sideline in thinking tropical geometry and matroids cool. As for what in AG, well i've spent the last year thinking very hard about some moduli spaces of ideals in matrix orders that show up in deformation theory stuff -- more generally i don't know exactly what i wanna do for phd
and thankfully i don't have to decide yet because lsgnt
I could’ve joined you but I forgot what a vector space is in my interview 👍
hehe
This is v cool tho!
I also do deformation theory lol
honestly no clue how i got in lmao
I got waitlisted which I honestly take as a win after how badly I bombed my interview
tbf the thing i flubbed was constructing a genus 2 curve which i had seen before and should have been able to do but couldn't recall lol
Nah you deserve it 
but that isn't something that's entirely trivial so i guess they didn't mind too much lmao
Me when the uh
Me when uh something something hyper elliptic
also it helps being already based in london because everyone at lsgnt kinda already knows me
or well has at least seen me
Do you know who ou're gonna work with? Without doxing lol
no
Doesn't y^2=f(x) where f(x) is a degree 4 polynomial work hm
Oh or are you just about to start at lsgnt
Yeah I forgot that like normal subgroups exist in my Manchester interview and they let me in lol, I forgot groups are shit
ye currently in masters
Ah nice
Draw two donuts
i drew so many pictures
Ngl I am lucky I managed to do AG stuff without my AG being assessed
that's the secret to geometry interviews lol
I spoke about semi simple algebras in mine lol
Cause I am homotopy theory
tbf i got into 2/4 places i got interviews and the latter two i didn't get were both for "no funding" reasons
I feel like age wise I'm the oldest but career wise the youngest lmfao
i am apparently decent at interviewing
Lol realising I did some geometric stuff and never drew a picture I think rip
you did not give the people what they wanted
Lol
Who did you interview with at LSGNT out of curiosity?
67
(If you feel comfortable sharing)
shepherd-baron and sivek
he does very neat stuff
he also told me to read sga 4.5 in that interview tho so idk how to feel
Ah nice
AHAHAHAAHAH
what a legend holy shit
Why is that bad
Based
Irony you know what I find funny
Hilbert thm 90 seemed a bit pointless when I first saw it cause it is often stated in a slightly random way
fr*nch and also it's the one where deligne etale cohomologies all over everything
But it is a goat
thm 90 my beloved
Yes those are both good
it came up in the interview actually lol
I like it but also hate it just because of how sneaky it can be
nice lol
like
he asked me brauer group stuff
I was reading Milne's algebraic groups book
Pain.
and he used some very nontrivial corollary of hilbert 90
He now has an errata on his website from me and a friend because of that LMFAO
Yeah it feels like a thing where people just say by hilbert 90 to mean a family of theorems lol
bro
'd themself
I said I wanna read SGA3 but my friend didn't wanna
tho what I don't like is how strew all about the place the theory of algebraic groups is
there truly is no good source
especially for finite flat stuff
read it bro
Yeah Idk lol
ur a bad influence but I love you so this'll pass
Idk if it is about target audience idk
luv u too buddy
I have friends doing alg groups who don't rly know schemes / don't like them but then as an AG-y person it feels sad for there not to be a good accessible book in modern language (imo)
something something be the change \silly
Ig you can just take Milne's notes and do the somewhat easy adaptations and it's decent
tho tbf my main opinion about algebraic groups is that "algebraic groups" is actually the worst named thing in math
I'm just glad Milne doesn't just work over C
finite commutative stuff also seems so incredibly rich but nobody really talks about it
Milne is a shit writer lol
like Deligne has so many interesting results
Lol yeah and p-divisible group
god yeah
somebody told me to go read like Bhatt's work to understand p-divisible groups LMFAO
This is similar but not even as clear it is AG
What lmao
i liked his fields and galois thery book but yea a lot of his stuff is painful
Learn p-divisible groups by viewing them as a special case of prismatic F-gauges
yeah I asked about Dieudonne theory and p-divisible groups and someone told me like "do u know prismatic stuff" lmfao
fppf.
Lol
cuz I was reading Moonen's book on abelian varieties
and they don't talk about Dieudonne theory since that's incomplete
so I asked where can I learn about this
Yeah you should start with basic stuff like Scholze–Weinstein first
And then move on to prismatic dieudonné theory
I'm actually reading about rigid analytic stuff rn for my thesis :)
Because p-adic heights bring me pain 😔
i keep alternating rapidly between feeling like all that stuff is cursed as fuck and is proof that math is haunted, and equally feeling that its really cool and neat and interesting
I do wonder what p-adic geo will look like in 20 years time lol
I feel like the stuff I'm doing rn is pretty cursed because genuinely it seems like magic
but Mihyong Kim somehow came up with it
non abelian chabauty scares me
even like classical chabauty is magic
Nice
"this method doesn't work for R, but we made it work for Q_p and it's the most efficient way we have today of finding rational points on curves"
Minhyong left my uni just before I swapped to maths
undergrads will be thinking they need to look like this in order to be good enough to phd \silly
he's at edinburgh now right?
lol what did u do before
Ye I think though he may have moved again
Did physics for a year
LMFAO same
my condolences
Yeah I vaguely thought about swapping before I started
I did some p adic dynamics stuff at one point and err

I really wanted to do like
mathematical physics
but I kinda started hating physics lol
Yeah lol
It’s a very funny thought that probably the most applied/physics person in my college at the start of our degree is now the most abstract nonsense person lol
just AG so hard that you can start talking about applications in physics and mean string theory \silly
I was thinking like everything I was doing was so far from math that it was a bit weird to do that before math physics lol
many such cases
though personally i have been consistent throughout
im cool like that
I’ve become slightly less pure maths inclined, but not by much
i nearly took statistical mechanics because it seemed neat
went to two lectures
bailed super hard lol
was taught by a physicist tho idk what else i was expecting
I took QM2 for supos for this reason
I did not take it to exams
Statistical mech ah lol
here people take qm for free points because it is aggressively Just Linear Algebra™
well qm1 is
I considered taking it, but it was taught by someone well known to be transphobic so errr
qm2 is a bit more interesting
One day I need to go back to thermo cause I could never understand it fully and then realised it's cause nothing was defined properly lol
Yeah same here
That’s why I was suckered into QM2
UK moment
I've gotten dragged into some pretty interesting AI work cuz it pays well so now I'm learning a shitton of like dynamical systems stuff on the fly LMFAO
and it's not even like LLM crap
blocked banned filed for restraining order \silly
I liked this gif and my computer started lagging for like 30s straight
my computer is lagging super hard but this is because i have had sagemath enumerating invariant lattices in Q_(19)^4 for two days now and it still hasn't finsihed
and at this point it's too late to stop
Lol
I had to do shit like that for my topic before this but my advisor saw me come to the meeting and said "you hate this topic don't you" and I said yeah and he said "well then let's find you something more interesting"
I wonder what it would’ve been like if Cambridge had a more typical master’s thesis
i mean this is not a calculation i have to run, it's a calculation im running because i have nothing better to do with the cpu time and my room is kind of cold \silly
Can you calculate how much sanity I’ll have come October?
Generous :3
actual reason is because im letting the computer run while i try to solve the problem with my brain and whoever finishes first gets a cookie
Hmmmmm
Do computers like cookies?
I solved it can I have the cookie?
only if u can gib proof that wahl orders are not closed
The solution is ||3||
<---- topologist
Nooo stat mech is awesome
David Tong has great notes on it online
am I the only one who doesn't like Tong's notes
I haven't used it
So far I have mostly read from Bowley-Sánchez (very physics oriented) and for lattice models I think Friedli-Velenik is pretty neat. But I'm not the right person to ask about this, and I don't like Tong's notes generally, not just the statistical physics ones
tong's notes are absolutely goated
(mostly)
This was like the one physics course I did well in and i think it’s largely because I was taking stats at the same time lol
Gg lol
One day I will understand cumulants better
Bro, Tong is the literal goat.
Hi, would this be an appropiate drawing for the following problem:
Let A be a open set in a metric space (X,d). Suppose that we eliminate a numerable amount of points from it. Would A still be open?
Red x are the points that are eliminated
yeah
My principal idea is that in this case it wouldn't be open because you could eliminate all the points from the bigger open ball of x, therefore there will be an isolated point with no open ball
am I right?
wait numerable means finite? or just means countable?
numerable means infinite but countable
Do you get to choose which points you remove?
Can you post the original wording of the question
mmm, so u mean something like the open interval (-1,1), and u exclude the points 1/n for every integer n?
so that u cannot form an open ball around zero?
(cuz u excluded arbitrarily close points near 0, at least the picture u drew looks like this situation for 2D case, instead of 1D)
surely it depends on the metric? for example in the discrete metric A \ {your points} would still be open since literally every subset is open
mmm
thats the original wording
The problem is in spanish
but well, Ill post it anyways
I already proved the first part
yes
well
more likely
yeah, ur intuition works for standard euclidean metric.
suppose you have an open ball, remove all the points of the open ball except the center point
This exercise is for generic metrics
there is no metric given
you can likely just pick your favourite metric space
wdym
oh sorry
the question just presents some metric space
so if the claim fails for one of them i think youre fine
^^^ but this can change if u use different metrics
I meant ^^^. Replied to wrong message
but
in the discrete metric there are only points at 0 and at 1
right?
no? you can give any set you want the discrete metric
the discrete metric takes only values 0 and 1
you can put the discrete metric on any set you like
but, for the discrete metric, it only gives values 0 and 1, therefore if I remove all the values <= 1, except for the point in the center, that wouldn't be considered an open right?
so i can understand correctly, you're saying that for example the set {5} isn't open in the discrete metric?
for example, yes
it is open
for example, the ball of radius 1/2 around 5 in the discrete metric is {5}, because every other point is distance 1 away
I see
my professor just told me that I have to search for one metric that doesn't satisfy this, and therefore I would have proven
yeah thats what i wouldve expected
cool
in fact, you can say more, in the discrete metric every subset is open and closed
yeah, he told me that proving that for every topology it's not impossible but almost impossible xD
so it's perhaps the most useless metric lol
an explicit counterexample can be written using say R with euclidean metric or something
im now in class but ill try to do it afterwards
yeah id suggest doing it, its not too hard
not too hard😔
Ah okay I guess the wording is just kinda ambiguous then. Try finding a case where it remains open and a case where it doesn't.
For which one, it remaining open or it not being open anymore?
I'm confused about the last sentence. I understand how X would be T1 (as a subset of a Hausdorff space) but what allows for it to be completely regular?
compact hausdorff spaces are normal
and therefore their subspaces are tychonoff
I dont' really understand the topological definition of a quotient space
what dont you get?
(And what is the wording of the definition you don't understand?)
ust idk how to interpret it
we want to define the operation of gluing points together and what the resulting space looks like
Hi, I have the following example for proving that function is continous between metric spaces, such spaces are: (X,du) and (X,d*) where d* = min{|x-y|, 1-|x-y|}
It says that X = [0,1) and the function is f(x) = x, and that is not considered continous for f: (X,d*) -> (R, du). It chooses epsilon = 0.1 and wants to prove that there is no delta such that: f(b(0,delta)) is a subset of b(f(0),0.1).
My question is the following, why does the proof take this interval of x: (1-delta, 1) intersection [0.1,1)?
this is the example I'm talking about
cuz we want to make the error bigger than or equal to the epsilon, which is 0.1 (so contradiction) .
and so, why intersection and not just say, I dont know, (epsilon, 2epsilon)?
Can you compute the metrics d*(x,0) and d(x,0) for every x in (1-delta, 1) \cap [1/10, 1)?
To be more specific, can u compute the upper bound of d*(x,0) and the lower bound of d(x,0) for such x?
The example in the image u uploaded is just saying that every x in (1-delta, 1) \cap [1/10, 1) gives the contradiction for continuity. Can u see that?
yes u can, as long as u take the intersection with (1-delta, 1)
why the intersection?
okay, so we first want d*(x,0) < delta. Do u agree?
yes
now delta is arbitrary, so suppose delta = 0.1. Now what happens if u pick x = 0.5? It is still in the interval (0.1,1).
u don't get d*(x,0) < delta
I see
that is why we r taking the intersection with (1-delta, 1) to ensure the upper bound delta. Can you see why?
Yeah, but I don't get why it has to be the intersection xD
now X = [0,1) consists of nonnegative numbers. Using this fact, can u simplify d*(x,0)?
(1-delta, 1) \cap [1/10, 1)
I mean, for delta = 0.1:
(0.9, 1) \cap [0.1, 1) -> This is equal to (0.1,1)
Why the intersection?
why not just say that set
cuz the intersection forces the upper bound of d*(x,0) to be delta.
Can u derive that?
I'm sorry im not seeing it
I even have a picture on my book
But i don't get it
d*(x,0) = min(|x|, 1 - |x|) = this equals to ?
use the fact that x is nonnegative and x lies in (1 - delta, 1) to derive the upper bound.
|x|
well
it will depend on x
xD
right?
actually, I don't need to do that.
Since delta is arbitrary, do u agree that delta can be made arbitrary small?
yes sir
in that case, we get x \geq 1 -x. Do u agree?
cuz x lies between 1 - delta and 1 (since delta is very small, u will get 1 - delta to be very close to 1)
now use this fact to derive that d*(x,0) = 1 - x
So you are saying that, because 1 - delta < x < 1, then x >= 1-x
yeah
mmmm
every time I look at it I get more confused
but, translating it to stupid facts:
1 - delta < x < 1, Means that x is arbitrarily small
How then if x is arbitrarily small it can be that x >= 1-x, as smaller the x, the bigger 1-x is
Since we can make $\delta > 0$ arbitrary small, suppose $\delta \leq 1/2$. Now we are given that
$$
x \in (1- \delta, 1),
$$
so $1 - \delta <x <1$. This gives $0 <1 - x < \delta$ and $1 - x < 1/2$. Moreover, $1 - x < 1/2$ implies $x > 1/2 > 1- x$. This means
$$
d_*(x,0) = \min{ |x|, 1- |x| } = \min{ x, 1 - x } = 1 - x.
$$
Euiseok (Class of 2100)
from this, can u conclude that d*(x,0) < \delta?
let me think about this😅
mmm
but that is not true?
I mean
1 - 1/2 < 1/2 < 1 -> 1/2 < 1/2 < 1?
but well, i get the point of that part
okay
I got it
yeah
so this is why we r taking the intersection with (1 - \delta, 1)
Btw, the same thing happens even if \delta \geq 1/2, but we don't need to consider this case, since \delta can be made arbitrarily small.
Yeah I do get this but I still think, let for example x in (0.1,0.4), then the min{x,1-x} = x
in this case, u instead get d*(x,0) = x
the same reasoning applies here as well
and that is not a problem?
yeah
so you take the intersection (1 - delta, 1) because you want to use 1-x?
yes
(1 - delta, 1) is used to force the upper bound d*(x,0) < \delta, and [1/10, 1) is used to force the lower bound |f(x) - f(0)| \geq \varepsilon
in order to get these two simultaneously, u just take their intersection
and u r done
I'm sorry to be redundant but this concept is being hard for me: why picking x is a problem?
um which x?
why to force d* to be 1-x, why not let it be x?
shouldn't you take the union?, if delta is something small, the intersection between 1-delta and 0.1 will never exist
if delta is small enough, then 1-delta becomes very close to 1. So the intersection 1 - \delta is bigger than 0.1, so the intersection can't be empty
mmm
lets say
as before, (0.9,1) and [0.1, 1), the intersection of this would be (0.9,1), right?
yes
so the lower bound will be 0.9 and the upper 1?
$d*(x,0) < 0.1 and d(x,0) \geq 1/10$
S0S4 - Feel free to ping
yeah.
I still not get it, let me do write what I've got in my head (apart from cobwebs)
I don't even know how to explain it😅
So the distance is 1-x for a delta <= 1/2. Therefore d*(x,0) < delta
so lost
more lost than a octopus in a garage
right?
and what does the range of x has to do with that
nice caligraphy
Do u understand now? Or is there anything not clear?
what the hell, how you manage to do that so clear
I mean
I get that clear seeing all the rest
but for an start, I wouldn't even imagine I had to pick that intersection
but again, what is the need of the intersection if 1-delta,1 will be always bigger than epsilon,1?
okay, this is not a good answer, but yeah
u also have the situation when \delta \geq 1/2, which we just ignored (since the delta can be made arbitrarily small).
In that case, it's the opposite.
I see
so thats why is the intersection there
to cover both cases, and choose one that fits for every delta
yeah
but this can be ignored by picking some smaller delta' < 1/2, and pick the x in (1 - delta', 1), which gives d*(x,0) < delta' < delta.
this is crazy man
who invented this

well, thank you very much I have now a clear image
@limber wyvern -> Explicación Ejemplo 1 Tema 3
That is a message for me so I can search this up later xd
Thanks for the effort and time 🙂
Oh that makes sense LOL
A question was
"Find a set of real numbers which has infinitely many derived sets, distinct from each other"
My soln was
let K = {0,1/2,1/3,...,1/n,...}
the answer is
K U (1+ K + K) U (3 + K + K + K) U ... U (n(n-1)/2 + K + K...(n times)) U ...
I am almost certain my answer is correct, but is there a nicer answer?
Your answer is definitely correct
As for a "nicer" answer, you could replace the n(n-1)/2 by just n or n^2
or any increasing integer function at all really
Though, I still think the triangle numbers make sense to be used; it's elegant enough
I meant it as in my answer looks very contrived.
It's been a while since I've even seen the topic of derived sets, but is
n(1+K)
not doable?
I'm assuming the question is supposed to be "Find a set of reals whose derived set is discrete"?
It's supposed to be that if you take the first derived set, second derived set, and so on and so forth, these are distinct
Ah n-derived, gotcha.
I think you can achieve it without sumsets, but it would require a recursive definition
True, I was thinking maybe there was something along the lines of "the set of reals who is base 3 rep only consists of finitely many 2s" tho this doesn't work
I was thinking more along the lines of $A_{0} = { 0 }, K={ \frac{1}{n} \mid n \in N }, A_{n+1}=(A_{n}+K) \cup A_{n}$ and then let $S= \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty}(i + A_{i})$
Ofc it still uses sumsets
and also even more contrived, but this is the form I think it will take
You don't think there is any nice soln?
Might be
Hm
Yeah, I can only really think of more ways to right this type of solution
I like this because it also explicitly makes it clear that you're essentially constructing the set by "undoing" the "derivation" by using the properties of K.
There might be a more closed form for this
I wouldn't even call it contrived because of that.
Yours truly, Almond
I just realized I had made a mistake lol. but nothing too much, just wrote K as X in one instance
What about this: $\ A_{n} = { \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k_{i}} \mid k_{i} \in N } \ S = \bigcup_{i=1}^{\infty} (i + A_{i})$
Yours truly, Almond
A little bit cleaner, but still the same idea
What does an infinite union of numbers mean?
it's a union of sumsets
Ah, I can't read.
issok, happens
@steep wedge I really can't think of simplifying this further
Sorry to disappoint blud 😔
Is (k_i) a fixed sequence of integers?
No, its any naturals
sorry, i couldnt think of a better way to write it
basically I want n arbitrary naturals for each A_n
Ah, so A_n is the set of all possible sums of n unit fractions.
Precisely
Perhaps we can define something recursively. Set A0 = {0} subset [0,1].
Then let A(n+1) be the union of countably many copies of An squeezed and translated so they stretch from 1/2 to 1/1, from 1/3 to 1/2, from 1/4 to 1/3, and so forth.
ooh, this is nice
I like it a lot more than the unbounded ones we have done so far
This wouldn't work, its derived set would be itself (I think)
It would not be it's own derived set
Pretty sure the derived set of A1 is A0.
And A2' = A0 cup A1.
We can simplify it a bit by including An itself in A(n+1); then we should -- by induction -- have A(n+1)' = An for all n.
That's a really clever solution
Exactly, so their union would have its derived set be itself
And any given An would only have finitely many distinct derived sets
No, each derived set would have one less layer of copies
We're still following Almond's plan of translating the Ai's away from each other before unioning them together.
Because each Ai is a subset of [0,1) and has a maximum, they won't interfere with each other after translation.
Never thought I'd see Tropo posting about AI translation...
Boo
Chat, can anyone explain this question?
Here is my reasoning:
A) is not true because x_n may not necessarily converge.
B) is not true via counterexamples (i.e x_n = (-1)^n diverges, but consecutive differences converge)
C) is irrelevant to the definition of completeness
D) is not true, because we don't know this result holds for all Cauchy Sequences?
That is, if we know that any sequence (x_n) with d(x_n, x_(n - 1)) < n^(-3/2) converges, that's great. However, not every Cauchy Sequence has this sort of setup - not every Cauchy Sequence satisfies this inequality. So, it can't be used to conclude anything general about Cauchy Sequences in this space?
Since for a metric space to be complete, we require all Cauchy Sequences to be convergent, hence D) is not enough to say X is complete?
Is my logic for each option correct, or am I missing something fundamental? Thanks.
are you sure about B?
just a forewarning, its late and im tired so i might trip up slightly but the problem seems interesting
I mean yeah I did provide a counterexample so unless there's something wrong with it, then 🤷
Hmmm
I did initially think B as well
The question is about the sum of the consecutive differences
But one of my friends pointed it out
its also late for me and im tired but i believe B is false but your counterexample isnt quite right
oh
Oh wait
Yeah whoops
I added them instead of subtracting them
Yeah thanks for the heads up
thats what i was thinking too
I swear though that this implication only goes one way though
The sum being finite implies that the sequence converges
Your reasoning for D is also very thin.
and why is that?
A Cauchy sequence converges if any of its subsequences converges, so you might try to construct a nice subsequence from a given Cauchy sequence
I don't have the proof in my head at the moment, but this is the theorem that I was introduced to
ah i dont think i knew/remembered this fact lol
Oh okay
So
It's possible that
Ohh okay I see so,
From option D), I can take an arbitrary Cauchy sequence, then find a particular subsequence such that x_(nk) satisfies the conditions in option D?
If so, I guess I need to work on proving that then.
If you did that it would prove D
Noted, thank you!
Okay, better counter example:
x_n = sqrt(n + 1) I think.
sum of sqrt(n + 1) - sqrt(n) = 1
wait
no
It might be worth noticing that
Sum xn - x[n-1] = xn - x0
And that
Sum d(xn, x[n-1]) = Sum |xn - x[n-1]|
For X the real numbers
Okay I think I got it. Just take x_n to be the partial sum of the harmonic series. The sums obviously diverge, but the difference between partials converge.
That's a better counterexample.
You're closer to something, but the differences between the partial sums just gets you back the series in this case
the consecutive differences of s_n is 1/n and you recover the harmonic if you add these up
yep precisely
oh i guess if youre complete then its clear enough that such a sequence will be cauchy by iterating the triangle inequality, so then you converge. the reverse implication is actually not so clear to me
the naive thing would be to say that if youre cauchy then that series is bounded and then x_n converges, thus completeness. but there are counterexamples to that assertion that the series is bounded
The reverse implication is essentially the same idea as for doing D in the original problem.
(find a nice subsequence)
ahh makes sense
and then nice subsequence which is forced to converge will drag the whole cauchy sequence along with it
oh okay then yeah that's fine, use cauchy-ness to find a bunch of points that are 1/n^2 apart from the next one at most and then that converges
neat
or chef's choice of series with positive and decreasing terms which converges
Like n^-3/2 for example 😉
do we even have a closed form value for zeta(3/2)
i like n^{-2} because we do actually know zeta(2)
Option B)
Counterexample
x_n = (-1)^(n + 1)/(n + 1), this sequence converges.
d(x_n, x_(n - 1)) = |-(-1)^n/(n + 1) - (-1)^n/n| = 1/(n + 1) + 1/n = (2n + 1)/[n(n + 1)]
Because
(2n + 1)/[n(n + 1)] > 2n/[n(n + 1)] = 2/(n + 1), the sum of differences diverges. This means that finite sum of differences are not required for convergent sequences.
Option D)
Let x_n be cauchy. We know that for all eps_1 > 0, we have d(x_m, x_n) < eps_1 for some n1 such that m > n > n1.
Let eps_x = x^(-3/2) for x = 1, x = 2, etc.
By the above definition, there exists n1, n2, n3 ... etc such that the distance between any two terms in the tail of the seqeunce are less than eps_x.
So, the construction of the subsequence is to just choose the n0 + 1th term, n1 + 1th term, etc.
By the conditions in option D), we have constructed a convergent subsequence of x_n. Hence, every Cauchy Sequence is convergent.
I think this does the trick, thank you everyone for your help!
nice, yeah that is a good example for b
also the alternating partial sums of (-1)^i 1/i work, that should converge to ln 2 or smtg
Ahhh yeah that's a nice one too.
Does anyone have some kind of intuition or way to visualize balls in ultrametric spaces?
I tend to visualize an ultrametric space as a tree, and balls as subtrees.
(Really, I suppose, the elements of the space are infinite branches through the tree).
So with that visualization, for example, if two balls intersect is because they are in the same branch, so one is a subset of the other?
And if an element is on a ball, that element is also the center of that ball, you could see this as if the ball collapses all its elements into the "node" it represents on the tree?
Yes: ultrametric balls are either disjoint or one contained in the other.
And every element of an open ball is a center.
Thank you!
(For p-adic integers, there's a pretty clear correspondence here between p-adic numbers and paths through a p-branching tree)
@vagrant sapphire See if you can spell out the isomorphism there
I remember seeing the p-adic integers as an infinite product Z/pZ x Z/p^2Z x ... . I suppose we can think each node of the tree as picking a number in 0,...,p-1 and for each subsequent level we pick again those for each node, so at level n of the tree we have p^n nodes. And a number Will be represented by a path on the tree, something like that?
Yeah but you need some compatibility relations for the product (e.g. if you're 8 mod 9 then you can't be 1 mod 3), so it's an inverse limit rather than a product—the way that the tree is connected together directly enforces this compatibility condition (you can't jump from a node on one subtree to a node on another subtree at the next level)
Oh yeah i also saw the inverse limit notation but i dont know what it is.
And how can that compatibility constraint be expressed with the product notation?
you can't, not really
you're going to need notation to denote the inverse limit
you can describe the inverse limit as a subset of the product in the case of the p-adic integers.
because all limits are made out of products and equalizers/kernels
You mean limit 
Me when direct limit = colimit and inverse limit = limit
Chat, why is any invertible linear map a proper map (i.e inverse images of compact sets are compact)?
Say, from R^n to R^n
nvm it's obvious 
yeah any homeomorphism is proper lol
hi im taking a grad point-set top course next semester for my topology requirement, and i just wanna know
what is the study of point-set topolgoy
I think it is relevant because in biology they use ultrametric spaces for the classification of species, and the space itself is a tree. So "natural" ultrametric spaces are trees, like Baire's or Cantor's spaces, and I know that there also are representations of the p-adic spaces as fractal subspaces of R^2 (the plane)
You can find nice ones on wikipedia
<@&268886789983436800>
It's the study of properties of shapes that remain constant if you're allowed to stretch and bend them
hmmmm
And the formalization of these ideas when you define a shape as a set of points
It's like geometry but stretchy
I thought the purpose and motivation for point-set topology is more general than just to cover geometric notions. Idk lol I haven't studied enough amount of math yet.
that's true but it's not going to mean anything to someone who hasn't studied the subject
since like, yes, the point-set topology you're doing in analysis is not necessarily the "rubber-sheet" geometry of coffis cup = donut
but even then it's the the building blocks for eventually talking about those things
I see.
I think you're underselling geometric notions. We as humans are fundamentally visuospatial creatures in many ways and therefore interpret the world of abstract relationships through a geometric language. Part of the beauty of topology is the ability to use geometric notions to capture the essence of abstract concepts like the prime ideals of a ring, as well as to fundamentally question what we mean by notions of space and nearness, and to classify all their possibilities.
I see. I have never studied algebraic geometry (which I guess u r talking about (?)). Seems like I just need to study more math. So far, I only know very basic analysis lol.
topology is ubiquitous, not just in algebraic geometry, but in logic, manifold theory, etc
I would say topology is used for formalize the idea of approximations
which is very general but also topology is used everywhere so I think it's kinda accurate
Let X be a space, do I have it right that the following are equivalent
i) X is initial wrt C(X,[0,1])
ii) X is initial wrt C_b(X,R)
iii) X is initial wrt C(X,R)
iv) X is completely regular
what do you mean initial here
The initial topologies induced by these families coincide with the original one
ah ok yeah