#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 139 of 1
Many times , the genius isnt in proving theorems but rather making the correct definitions such that they truly characterise the "exact" properties you want to model. And generalisation is just a consequence of this action.
@quartz horizon @storm wadi i hope this helped , again , these are my views , they could be wrong altogether aswell , please take with a grain of salt
This entire response was very well written
Well, one can make the case for some concepts and principles in engineering school.
But this doesn’t really add or take away from anyone’s points
An object c in a category C is called detecting if for every monomorphism f: a -> b that is not an isomorphism there exists a map h: c -> b that doesn't factor through f
so in Set, 1 is detecting since for any strict injection f : a —> b, we can choose an element x of b not in the image of f as our map x : 1 —> b that doesn’t factor through f.
but 0 is not detecting
Yep
There is a related notion of a separating object, an object c of a category C is separating if for every pair of distinct morphisms f,g: a \to b there exists a morphisms h: c \to a such that fh ≠ gh
A separating object in a balanced category is detecting
Maybe this should be in #category-theory
hmmm how is it related to logic?
Topos theory , but if you want a much more directly related answer , open sets characterise the truthability of any statement in that open set
For further readin , read topology via logic book
Is there a nice reason that monics in Top are topological embeddings (i.e. homeomorphisms onto their image)?
thanks for the reference!
Monomorphisms aren't in general embeddings in Top
for example, letting DX be the discrete space with the same points as X, consider Id:DX to X sending every point to itself. This is a monomorphism independent of X.
Omgg, of course...! Thank youu!!
no problem
I actually have another quick question! How about continuous maps with left inverses??
Those are called continuous sections I think, you can probably find a good bit of info about them by searching for that
I don't think they're all embeddings but I can't think of a counterexample off the top of my head
I'll have a search! Thanks again haha :))
the topological embeddings are precisely the regular monics in Top
If you restrict the domain your left inverse of f to im(f), don't you get a two-sided inverse just from set-theoretic properties?
two-sided set-theoretic inverse sure
but it may not be a two-sided continuous inverse
these are split monics
otherwise known as retracts
in Top, extremal monomorphisms are subspace embeddings
extremal is the weakest kind of mono/epi stronger than an ordinary mono/epi
Thank you guys!!
Just to be sure, if the left inverse is continuous, then it's an embedding?? So I guess the statement is that continuous maps with continuous left inverses are embeddings
Yes this is true
I assumed continuity of the left inverse was implied
Otherwise it's just another way to say injective
Which is in turn just another way to say monic
This is a really beautiful way of describing it. I will certainly come back to this thought going forward as you're right it certainly captures the essence of abstract math. Category theory sounds really interesting too, hopefully I can take a course on it soon. And thank you for taking the time to help improve my conceptual understanding!
couldn’t think of a counter-example either
i feel like there should be one tho
"What is closeness ?"
does it have to do with https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Separated_sets ?
also, what might "precisely" mean in the last sentence of "precisely separated by a continuous function"
wikipedia seems a little verbose (not always precise) and scattered (too many pages linking for one definition)
In topology and related branches of mathematics, separated sets are pairs of subsets of a given topological space that are related to each other in a certain way: roughly speaking, neither overlapping nor touching. The notion of when two sets are separated or not is important both to the notion of connected spaces (and their connected component...
is this a correct argument?
Looks good to me
Though what decade was this book written in if it says "separated" aha
Ok yeah maybe just a bit peculiar then
also - is there a nice way to package "clutching datum" in a categorical way?
i guess a standard example for this would be the clutching datum of the charts of a manifold together with transition maps..
That's effectively the same data as a TOP(n)-valued 1-cocycle on the manifold M where TOP(n) is the group of germs of homeomorphisms of (R^n, 0)
In general I suppose you could describe a groupoid where objects are homeomorphisms between open subsets of R^n
Then an atlas on the manifold is exactly a Cech 1-cocycle valued in this groupoid
But do you really want to think this way?
idk, do i?
"No"
so how should i think of clutching datum
On a case by case basis depending on context.
I wouldn't massively worry about this anyway like I wouldn't say this is particularly standard terminology but related stuff comes up all the time like descent data
Just here it is kinda funny in that these are just sets (or later topological spaces ig)
If I have a map f: X -> Y (f is a quotient map in my case but I dont think that matters) where we are restricting f to U which is a subset of X, then do we assume the topology on U is just the subspace topology U of X?
yes
Is this by convention? Or is this forced upon us in some way?
in general it's safe to assume a subset of a topological space is meant to be interpreted as a subspace
subspace topologies satisfy a special property: it's the coarsest topology on the subset such that the inclusion map from subset to set is continuous
one reason this is desirable is that since any map restriction can be made by composing the inclusion with the original map, then as long as the map is continuous, the restriction is also continuous
on the flip side of that, if U is endowed with some other topology, the inclusion map U -> X may not be continuous, and now your "restricted" function may not be either.
I'm having a little bit of trouble with understanding local trivializations of vector bundles. pi^(-1)(U) and U x R^n being homeomorphic makes sense but the other conditions are a little confusing intuitively even though I could state them
Something about linear isomorphism of fibers to R^n
Idk if this is the right channel btw
to add onto this
assume that we want the restriction to be continuous, and we equip some topology U' such that the inclusion is continuous to make this true. Since U is the coarsest topology on the subset such that the inclusion map U -> X is continuous, U is coarser than U', meaning the identity map U' -> U is continuous, so we can "factor" the inclusion U' -> X as U' -> U -> X
so, if we want a restriction to preserve continuity, then every topology we could pick for the domain to give a continuous inclusion can be factored through the subspace topology, making it the "minimal" topology to do this. (you could probably find discontinuous inclusions that give continuous restrictions, but that would likely depend on the codomain of the map, whereas continuous inclusions do not depend on the codomain to make restrictions continuous)
You'd want the homeomorphism U x R^n <-> p^-1(U) to commute with the projections of U, at least
The says fibers are mapping to fibers. Since you're working with vector bundles you'd want this fiberwise map to be a linear isomorphism and not just a homeomorphism
The final point being the distinction between vector bundles of rank n and topological fiber bundles with fiber R^n
There are examples of vector bundles which are isomorphic as topological n-plane bundles but not as vector bundles due to Milnor but it's not quite trivial
Yes of course
What do you mean fibers mapping to fibers
Point is you want the diagram with pi^-1(U) -> U x R^n and the projections to commute. In other words the map restricts to maps pi^-1({u}) -> {u} x R^n, and these two guys are called the fibres over u of the maps U x R^n -> U and pi^-1(U) -> U
it might help to think of this in the "indexed" point of view as well?
it's all correct although i think you can simplify a couple of steps by using the fact that the projection maps are continuous
Yes
particularly, for $\prod_{j\in J}$ is closed $\Leftrightarrow$ for all $j\in J$, $A_j$ is closed, you can show the $\Leftarrow$ direction by
$$\prod_{j\in J}A_j=\bigcap_{j\in J}p_j^{-1}(A_j),$$
which are all closed
Convergant
There's also a characterization of continuity in terms of closure which you could probably use to do the question in the provided order
yeah that works for one direction of the double inclusion, although it doesn't really simplify that step because we seem to already have that the arbitrary product of closed sets is closed
i misunderstood what you said lol
yeah
Oh damn that’s very nice
Could you explain a bit more?
it's the characterisation that $f:X\rightarrow Y$ is continuous iff, for all $A\subseteq Y$, $f^{-1}(\overline{A})\supseteq \overline{f^{-1}(A)}$
Convergant
so if you think about the double inclusion proof at the end, one direction can be done with this characterisation

Interesting
Thanks for this, I’ll rewrite the solution to make it more efficient
I’m learning algtop but I want to shore up my point-set foundations, so I’m really grateful to get advice regarding that
fits the name lol
Yeah part of the reason I’m learning algtop is to get access to higher category theory
since we're here, would anyone mind having a look at my proof that every metric space is regular and normal? my professor invited me to send it to him but i havent heard back after a week lol
that works yea
for a cheat solution, consider the function f = d(x, F) / (d(x, F) + d(x, G))
its continuous from X to I, 0 on F and 1 on G, preimages of [0; 0.5) and (0.5, 1] are disjoint open sets containing F and G respectively
cheat solution indeed lol but i like it
very slick
my original idea was to prove that $d(F,G)>0$ but this is actually false unless you assume they're also compact
Convergant
This even shows metric spaces are T6
I.e. perfectly normal
can i get a hint for this proposition
i know how to show that 1 implies 2 and 3, and that 2 and 3 imply 1
but i don't know how to show 2 implies 1 or 3 implies 1
if f is closed then i at least know that Y is T_1
oh this is a fun one, I remember doing (3) implies (1) let me look and see if I can find a good hint
oh the way I did (3) implies (1) was by first establishing (2), so (2)\implies(1) should be easier
yeah that i don't know how to do...
you want to use some of the separation properties for a compact hausdorff space
i know compact hausdorff spaces are normal
in particular normality should help
so if i take $y_0 \neq y_1$ then $f^{-1}(y_0)$ and $f^{-1}(y_1)$ are disjoint closed subsets of $X$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
thus i can find disjoint open neighbourhoods of them
yea that's the first step, then there's one nontrivial step after that
you need to use these new open neighborhoods and basically make better ones
hm...
that interact better with the map
so i have $U$ and $V$ disjoint open neighbourhoods of $f^{-1}(y_0)$ and $f^{-1}(y_1)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the only way i can see to use f is closed is like
or well not new open neighborhoods in X, but open neighborhoods in Y
$f(U^c)$ is closed, and $f(V^c)$ is closed
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the idea is that f(U) might not be open because you can't just take complements and use the fact that its closed
but you can define a neighborhood that is smaller than f(U)
and plays a bit nicer
Which using f being a quotient map means $f^{-1}(f(U^c))$ is closed and $f^{-1}(f(V^c))$ is closed
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so... $f^{-1}(f(U^c)^c))$ is open and $f^{-1}(f(V^c)^c)$ is open
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
maybe this is what i want?
it might be, I defined them more explicitly in the thing I'm looking at but its possible it simplifies to that
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so, since $U \cap V = \emptyset$, we have that $f(U^c)^c \cap f(V^c)^c = \emptyset$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so hm, is it sufficient to use $f(U^c)^c$ and $f(V^c)^c$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this I believe is correct
since the whole pre-image of y_0 belongs to U
I think gives you that y_0 is in f(U^c)^c
ah, and then we can use $f^{-1}({y_0}) \subset U$, so that ${y_0} \subset f(U^c)^c$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this is what I had written which is similar but not an abstract quotient map
then, i want to show that R closed implies f closed
for f to be closed, i need that if $C \subset X$ closed, then $f(C)$ is closed, i.e. that $f^{-1}(f(C))$ is closed
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
now, $x \in f^{-1}(f(C)) \iff f(x) \in f(C) \iff \exists c \in C, f(x) = f(c)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
meaning $C \times X \cap R$ is as well
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
since X x X is compact hausdorff, C x X intersect R is compact, meaning pi_2(C x X intersect R) is compact, thus closed
yeah that sounds right
and... i think that is f^{-1}(f(C))
f^{-1}(f(C)) is the image of C x X \cap R under the right projection since its just the stuff equivalent to C
yeah
ok so that should show R closed => f closed
f closed => Y hausdorff
and then the final
it's interesting that this Q required the right adjoint
I did a lot of thinking ab this a while ago trying to get a nice classification of the closed *-subalgebras of C_0(X) for X locally compact hausdorff
if you assume that your subalgebra doesn't vanish anywhere (i.e., each point in X there's some function f\in A with f(x) nonzero)
then closed *-subalgebras correspond exactly to proper equivalence relations (or closed equivalence relations, if X is compact)
where a proper equivalence relation is one where the quotient map is proper (closed + pre-image of compact sets is compact)
but the locally compact case was a total headache
i wrote it up
Capitalize your Hausdorffs!
Don't wanna drift too far off topic but I have noticed people writing Abelian as abelian...
I guess it's an honor when your name becomes recognized as an ordinary word?
I suppose boolean is Boole
having one's name an uncapitalized adjective is the highest honor a mathematician can possibly get
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/44946/why-is-abelian-infrequently-capitalized damn I realized I was missing a word after the fact
Is it bad that I’m having to look up a lot of point-set results
I’m getting stuck on lots of propositions in Dieck’s book
Like this
Could possibly be
Have you tried using this?
i solved it already
What's the solution?
Say K is not contained in any Xk, then for each i pick an xi in K that is not in Xi. Then K\{xi} gives an open cover of K
ah got it thanks
i think you have to do a little more than this
Like argue that points are closed in X you mean?
A set is closed in X iff its intersection is in Xi for all i
Oh yeah, derp. I meant
K \ {xi : i > n}
And - how do you know that’s open?
Because the complement is closed
Because in Xi it's a finite union of closed points
why?
Because the first i points are in Xi and the others are not
Well, the others are not anyway
It was chosen to not be in Xn+1
all you know is that x_{n + 1} is in K \ X_{n + 1} right
So then it's not in Xn
ah I see, then that should work
huh i guess this is more or less the proof that topologically compact spaces are (a subcategory of the) categorically compact
exactly
That’s neat
in this case the inclusion K --> X has to factor through a finite stage because thats how unions work
And for a more general map, the image is a compact subset of the codomain
And thus the inclusion of the image has to factor through a finite stage
yes
Which I think means the map itself does
are you aware of the weird thing with categorical compact spaces containing more than topological compact spaces
Yes
yeah exactly since the map factors through its image anyway
Though the result here required each X_I to be regular
Yeah, you won't be able to say much categorically about spaces unless you restrict your notion of what a space is
any weakly hausdorff space will satisfy this condition though and that's not too much to ask for from a space
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
ye exactly
(maybe this is blasphemous in the point set channel but algebraic topology basically defines a space to be compactly generated weakly hausdorff)
one question i have is that
is there any way to define that notion of space without first developing topological spaces?
not sure
You can define spaces in general via locales
I need to get ready for class rn so can't think about this more but you might get some mileage out of CW complexes which can be defined more combinatorially, especially since attaching maps only matter up to homotopy and often boil down to degrees of sphere maps
That is to say, instead of looking at a point set X with power algebra P(X) and a topology O(X) that is a subset of P(X)
You look at any poset K and a suitable subset L of K
With these "union of opens is open" etc. properties
I'm sure you can get slightly more abstract definitions of compactly generated and so on
Or maybe K is a lattice or a complete lattice, something like that
And L (your locale) has all infinite joins and finite meets and the top and bottom elements
Idk if it's the right framework for compactly generated spaces in particular, but it's a way to think about point set topology without the point set
Sometimes called point-free topology or, very charmingly, pointless topology
>point-set topology channel
>no set of points
😌
Yo these guys pop up in topos theory, where they're the lattice of subterminals
There's an even vaster generalization called a Grothendieck topology (you know shit gets real when it's named after Grothendieck), where you replace the lattice with a general category (which does not need to be posetal or anything) and you replace "open covers" (which survive into the picture of locales) with "horrible generalization of open covers called Grothendieck topology" and then you celebrate because it's so abstract
But the thing is, I'd bet that there's a good notion of compactly generated for those spaces
And it also makes bad spaces good
You're arrested due to charges of blasphemy for mentioning algebraic topology in this sacred channel
what does categorically compact mean?
i mean in the sense of a compact object in a category
So preserving filtered colimits
Oh wait this is bad notation, I am saying that X is compact if Hom_C (X, -): C --> Set preserves filtered colimits
so sneakily viewing X as the functor it corepresents via Yoneda
ah okay
and in a cruel twist of fate, there are more spaces that are compact in the category of (nice) spaces than just those which are compact topological spaces
like categorically compact is a strict generalization over topologically compact?
yes, a topologically compact space is compact in the category
actually now that I'm writing this I am not sure which category, but it's either a suitable category of spaces or the homotopy category of such a thing
Top is really poorly behaved lol
If I make a statement about spaces, it is most likely to be correct in the homotopy category of CGWH spaces
actually categorical compact objects in Top are just finite discrete spaces, so it's way more restrictive
ah cool
Oh I guess you can detect this in Set where this is obvious
nice
does the thing I am saying only work in the ∞-category of spaces/anima 🗿
yeah mostly an anima thing, it definitely simplifies the categorical definitions
damn, too ∞-pilled for this
@quartz horizon sorry I need to amend my statement to you. This is the claim that compact objects preserve these specific colimits but they don't preserve all filtered colimits (see above)
and this is a shadow of the fact that you can compute homotopy colimits of a directed system of inclusions as just usual colimits
so compact objects in the ∞-cat of spaces, which include compact reasonable spaces, will preserve these too
@tacit wren thanks for the correction
all good man, category theory notation is a minefield anyway
Isn't exercise 20 ii) (the dense set part) wrong?
consider any non-empty topology which has a disjoint singleton free basis.
What could they have been meaning to ask?
Or infact any topology in which there is a basis with a non-singleton element disjoint from all others
if A is dense in X, A’ = X because every point of X is a limit point of A.
so A - A’ = A - X = 0
that's not what dense means though
The obvious subset of Q is dense in [0,1] u {2}
but 2 is not a limit point of it
well "limit point" normally means accumulation point
(A - {x}) \cap U is non-empty for any open U containing x
yes
A is dense in X if cl(A) = X
ye
So yeah I agree the exercise is wrong
what’s the best way to fix it
Probably a separation property...
yea, you don’t want any open points i think
well open points aren't the issue
hold on, sorry
(in fact we would prefer them since such X is irrelevant)
this is partly a granularity issue tho.
we don’t want our open sets to be too big
and just stop shrinking at some point
like, then you run into the issue that you have an open set which is disjoint from all others
I'm pretty sure you need hausdorff
was literally just typing that
t0 isn't enough
then i think my original argument goes through
like, if A is dense in a Hausdorff space X, and x is in X, if we take some open neighborhood W of x and any other point y of W, we can separate x and y with disjoint opens U and V, resp., and now A \cap (W - x) is non-empty because it contains A \cap (V \cap W).
i still think you can’t have open points either, because if W = {x}, it won’t work. maybe i’m overlooking something again.
well the assumption is that X has no isolated points
so
we are given no open points
this still feels like a strange correction to the question
why?
idk it feels like the sort of thing you wouldn't forget to write down as an assumption
does the case when A is open work without the Hausdorff property?
yes
yea, that is kind of weird then
if U is open in A and contains a in A, then U is also open in X so contains another point (X has no isolated points), and that point is in A so a is not isolated in A either
i think you can fix it if you require points to be closed.
let U be an open nbhd of x in X, A dense in X.
U must have another point different from x because X has no isolated points.
if points are closed in X, then A \cap (U - x) is non-empty by density.
and so A’ = X
the cofinite topology on an infinite set is an example of a non-hausdorff space where points are closed.
so X needs to be T1
Could someone check these proofs to see if there are any problems?
Im more concerned with problem 11 as I wrote 10 much more quickly
i don't think the reason why the two open balls are disjoint should be omitted in number 10. same with 11.
otherwise, it looks solid.
Yeah, thats what I was concerned about. I get why that statement is true for the euclidean metric, but im unsure on how to prove that they are disjoint in some arbitrary metric
you need to use the triangle inequality
Ok I think I see it
to prove that for y with d(y,x1) < d(x1,x2)/2, you can't have d(y,x2) < d(x1,x2)/2, you need prove that d(y,x2) >= d(x1,x2)/2
oh i see
Could I stop you there
i was tunnel visioned on the centers
yea
These are homework problems, so I'd like to get it done myself, just needed a little hint
ofc
Thanks for the help!
I have no clue what hausdorff is
X is Hausdorff if given any two distinct points x and y of X, there are disjoint open sets U and V containing x and y, respectively.
most nice spaces are Hausdorff, for example, metric spaces are Hausdorff
So basically everything is distingiushable
all singletons are closed.
Stronger than this
yes, Hausdorff implies all points are closed, and the converse is false by the example i gave here
yea
That's why it's named point set
The other one is algebraic topo
It's continuous
Kinda
töpölögy
Hi, can anyone help me with a topology question, I know this should be obvious but idk how to prove it rigorously.
By Jordan curve theorem a closed curve splits the plane into two connected components when removed. So let's say I have two closed curves X and Y. Suppose that X separates the plane into A and B. Suppose Y separates the plane into C and D.
Now suppose also that the curves intersect at exactly points, lets call these points p and q. Then the whole thing looks like 4 paths between p and q, which are disjoint except for at p and q. So let's say we take the path from X that lies (apart from p and q) in C. Let's take also the path from Y that lies (apart from p and q) in A.
These paths together form another closed loop. So by Jordan Curve theorem I understand that it splits the plane into two regions when removed. But how do I actually prove that these regions are AnC and BuD?
I'm sure this is like a one-line observation that I just don't see 🙁
that doesnt seem true in case the curves touch internally
an ellipse inscribed into a circle or something
but we can ask for that to not happen, in that case uhh
OK, lets add the condition that A not subset of C, A not subset of D, B not subset of C, B not subset of D
And vice versa
Ie C not subset A etc
its shorter to ask for p-q paths to lie in different halves
Sorry , wdym?
You are saying its shorter than my condition?
OK anyway yeah if they DONT touch internally then how do I prove this rigorously?
B \cup D is connected, its easy to see that it doesnt intersect this new path, A \cap C is also connected and doesnt intersect the new path
therefore its the separation that we are looking for
to see that they dont intersect the path we need to use the conditions we imposed on them not touching internally or externally
that is, we need to say that the four p-q paths lie in A, B, C, D respectively
(p-q paths of X lie in C and D, p-q paths of Y lie in A and B)
Sorry, I am not understanding why the proof follows from this
B doesnt intersect the new path because one half of it is on B's boundary, and the other half lies in A
The new path being the closed loop?
ok wait so B is disjoint from Z and since B is connected it must be in one side of Z
same with D
and AnC
OK makes sense lol thank you kindly
I am trying to find an counterexample such that C is closed subset of R under standard topology and C is not convex and dist(0,C) not attained in C
dist(a, C) is attained in C \subseteq R^n for any closed C and any point a
in any LCH metric space even
Hi. Sorry I'm still confused 🙁
Why must AnC be connected?
And why must BuD and AnC lie on opposite sides?
I understand I am probably being very slow, I would appreciate it if you kindly clarify
So my thought is we dont actually need AnC connected. But we consider a vertex in AnC and we try and get from it to BuD without touching Z. We can escape AnC by either escaping A or escaping C. If we escpe A then still in C so the part of X we must have touched is the part in Z. Same for escaping C.
But there's an obvious hole in this: we could escape both AnC at exact same time. Idk even if this is the right approach or not, I really feel like there's a much better way to do it....
Elementary thing that I am struggling with. Given a manifold, a compact subset K, and a finite open cover U_1, ..., U_p, find a refinement of the cover to U'_i such that U'_i is precompact
the hard part here is obtaining just one precompact set for each i and that still being enough
My thoughts:
(1) wlog assume the U_i are precompact, by intersecting with some bigger precompact open set U containing K.
(2) try to find some smaller balls that are still enough to cover U_i cap K and such that each ball is compactly contained in U_i. Then the closure of the union will be compact as a subset of the closure of U_i, but the problem is that it's no longer guaranteed to be contained in U_i (because U_i cap K is no longer compact so not guaranteed to require finitely many)
despite each ball being compactly contained in U_i
using something like paracompactness is not desired because I'm trying to prove it roughly
any manifold has a basis of precompact coordinate balls.
true, but how do I get enough of them to find a compact set contained in each U_i such that the unions of the compact sets still cover K?
U_i cap K isn't compact, which takes out what I would like to do
each U_i is the union of precompact opens
yes, but when I take their closure it might leave U_i
like the interplay is
(1) I need enough of them to still cover U_i cap K
(2) I need the closure of these to still be contained in U_i
wait, why do you need (2)? i thought you only needed a refinement of precompact opens
ah good point, my question didn't strictly require that. Anyway what I'm actually trying to do DOES require that. More specifically, in the functional analysis class I'm in I'm trying to prove existence of partitions of unity in R^n (that's why don't use too much manifold theory) and the statement of the problem is:
"given any open cover of a compact set K by U_1, ..., U_p, find Theta_1, ..., Theta_p with Theta_i compactly supported inside U_i summing to 1 on every point of K"
I've already proven that a bump 1 function exists for an arbitrary pair of a compact set contained inside an open. The thing that's bugging me out here is the constraints that I find exactly one function in the partition of unity for each original open and that it's compactly supported in U_i, and that the points where one of them are positive cover K still
ah okay
like my strategy is basically: just find functions where the points they're positive cover K, then I can divide by the sum to get something that's identically 1 on K
open to an easier way of doing it tho
bc that's the problem statement as written this time not hiding stuff lol
and you only need to do it on R^n?
yeah
it's the same thing tho lol
i saw the proof for manifolds first it's lowkey easier once you've already shown paracompactness
i suppose I could directly prove paracompactness for R^n
but I don't think that's what he's looking for/it shouldn't be necessary?
idk, I could mimic the manifold proof verbatim obviously but it feels like I should already have enough using just the structure of R^n and existence of bump functions & that I'm only being asked to do it for compacts
i have an idea. but i don’t want to answer prematurely. going to write some stuff down; im a bit rusty with partitions of unity. maybe somebody else more familiar will be able to answer before me
what's the q?
@fallen canyon
you can prove this for any locally compact sspace
let me find it in my notes and see iif I can give a hint
this is the kind of thing you need right? just to be sure
my hint would be to use induction
i mean why is this hard - -is this fancy q on refinement?
sry just curious if there was a trick here
the question is to find a partition of unity for a compact set
I wouldn't say its crazy hard but it is a bit annoying there's moving parts
even with this lemma getting a partition of unity takes a bit of a trick to combine functions in the right way
I think there are a few ways to do it though
ya shrink to refined cover and then normalise
The question is to show that you can shrink with the same number of sets
What's the "shrink lemma"
here its only for finite partitions of unity for compact sets which makes things a bit simpler I believe
though I think the induction argument for finite covers can just be replaced with zorn's lemma and it works in general provided you put the right assumptions on
let me really try to be precise here - -and not be an a-hole
this is the q?
sorry I knew I was overreacting as soon as I typed the comment. You're not being an a-hole (more likely I was). I was just lashing out. Yep that's it
so youe mention para compactness so did ya define it yet
Yeah - open covers have countable subcovers
that's lindelöf
that not paracompactifited refinement
paracompact is the thing guaranteeing partitions of unity i think?
so locally finite refinement yeah
Yeah it just means im terminally online and talk a lot lol
so i have to be careful here because i am not a mathematician per say -- just a math ohd and phys post-doc
paracompact is every cover opwn has local finite refine; linfloff is the countable sub -- in this instances no paracompact stuff is needed
if you only need partitions of unity for finite covers over compact sets you don't need paracompactness or anything
The lemma Blake shared is enough for my purposes yeah
np, I apologize for lashing out and thanks for the help all
bro is being cooked by eth zurich
what course is this btw ?
FA2
Yeah I don't think it's true in a general LCH metric space
maybe you need like sigma compactness or something
it follows in R^n by the heine borel property
but yeah I think sigma compactness would be enough
maybe
actually I'm not even sure about that
what is sigma compactness?
countable union of compact spaces
oh
take R with metric bounded by 1, adjoin a copy of R with metric bounded by 1 such that distances between points in different halves are 100, adjoin another copy with distances to it from outside being equal to 100 - 1/2, another with 100 - 1/2 - 1/4, etc
take C with points in each copy except the first one and a from the first copy
then dist(a, C) = 99 but its not realized
what do you mean?
but the space itself is locally homeomorphic to R and sigma compact and locally compact and all that jazz
i love you guys naming things - perfectly completely nothing-to-see-here normal space that Hausdorff would let into his Haus.
Who's even naming ts bruh
Section 5 3) is obviously false, consider for example the constant empty function, what extra assumptions should I make for it to be true?
And another way it is false is that the indiscrete topology gives a subset of the conditions of any other topology, so any function which works from some topology also works for the indistinct topology
I need recommendations for introductory books on topology
munkres
Any other one? This book is so expensive in my country
all books are free
Yeah but I want a physical copy
is it just me or does urysohns lemma feel very "choice-y"
im somewhat skeptical of being able to pick out that many neighborhoods
engelking if you hate yourself
kelley is a bit more gentle
and as a bonus, it has a treatment of a set theory stronger than zfc in the appendix
print it out
any thoughts on willard?
seems like it has somewhat strange ordering
its somewhat nice that it does a little alg top, but i think its better to just read may's book for that
right, I think I'm gonna buy kelley then
wise choice
also the exercises are quite fun
iirc he makes the reader develop the theory of filters
that looks good!
can you show me the proof in your book?
it uses DC
it is independent from ZF + CC
"Real Analysis: Modern Techniques and Their Applications" by G. Folland
I understand the idea perfectly, though I don't understand why continuity is needed here. I get the $g(V)\subset U$ and $g'(V)\subset U'$ is due to continuity, but even then aren't $g^{-1}(U)$ and $g'^{-1}(U')$ both neighborhoods of $x$? It seems like I can just take their intersection and have a common neighborhood of $x$, then produce $y\in A$ etc.
bluepianist
that's essentially what they're doing
$g^{-1}(U)$ needn't be a neighbourhood of $x$ if $g$ is not continuous
Jussari
thanks chatgpt
“Gauth
Also i didnt fully use “gauth”
I elaborated it so I can get better grammar and reword it easier
dont copy and paste llm outputs to answer questions here
LLM answers are strictly against the rules.
Hu General Topology is good so far in my experience. Kasriel is good.
why is the product topology not just defined as a product of the open sets in each component? i.e, let's say we have top spaces X_i, and we want to define a topology on prod X_i over i. why are the open sets here not just tuples (U_i)_i in I, where U_i is open for each X_i? (apparently what I defined here is the box topology? i'm so confused)
it doesn’t satisfy the universal property of the product in general
interesting
the main thing you want in the product topology is for each of the projection maps to be continuous, the product topology is basically the minimal topology where this happens
If you take the pre-image of an open set under one of the projections, you get a big product where all but one factor are equal to the whole space
so then taking finite intersections of those sets
oh huh this doesn't happen in the box topology?
you get the product topology
the projections are still continuous in the box topology it's just far too strong
Another way to see this is that the product topology is the topology of pointwise convergence, so a sequence (or more generally, a net) in a product space converges if and only if each component converges
so for example if you take the set of all functions from R to R (this is an uncountable product of R with itself)
the product topology as mentioned gives you pointwise convergence
the box topology is far stronger, for a sequence of functions to converge in the box topology it must converge uniformly (and in fact, even uniform convergence isn't enough for the box topology)
i see, thank you 
in addition to the above, an arbitrary product of compact spaces isn't guaranteed to be compact in the box topology (whereas it is in the product topology, that's Tychonoff's theorem)
maybe try out the proof that a function given by components onto the product space with product topology is continuous if and only if the components are measurable.
In the proof you will notice that considering a basis with a topology where we constrain on finitely many components allows us to use property that finite intersection of open sets is open (as you know in general arbitrary intersection of open sets may not be open)
but this isn't true in general right?, if projections are continous with respect to box topology, then product topology would be finer than box topology, making it equal (as box is always finer than product) , but this isn't true in general.?
the product topology is coarser than the box topology
thats precisely why the projection maps are also continuous in the box topology
because the preimage of every open set is open in the product topology, and the box topology is finer (has more open sets,) so the projection is also cts in the box topology
I think I got confused between the wording, "coarser" and "finer"
thats kinda what i thought might have happened, no wories
This is a pretty common confusion
I’m surprised no one has given you a counterexample . The function f(t) = (t, t, t, …) is continuous into the space of sequences with the product topology but not the box topology
f : R -> R^N
Obviously this map should morally be continuous so this is why the box topology is bad
good example
Thx it’s not mine tho just the standard one in most textbooks
lol yw
another one is that if you equip ${0,1}$ with the discrete topology, the box topology on ${0,1}^\mathbb{N}$ is discrete (so not compact b/c the set of points is infinite,) but the product topology is the Cantor space, which has a much richer topology and is compact, hausdorff, completely metrisable, etc
Convergant
Also a nice example
It’s nice that it’s the cantor space, it makes sense intuitively but it’s also nice
in general you need dependent choice but for second countable spaces you don't
that makes sense
If we have a map f: R^2 -> f(R^2) such that f(x,y) = (x,y,g(x,y)). The topology on R^2 is the Euclidean topology and the topology on f(R^2) is the Euclidean topology in R^3.
Is f always an open map? I want to say that if g is not continuous, this cant be true, but I have some logic written down that seems to hint at the fact that g could be discontinuous and f could still be an open map.
what are we supposing about g?
g : R^2 -> R and pretty much nothing else
as a simple example, if g is the constant map 0, then f is not an open map b/c $f(\mathbb{R}^2) = \mathbb{R}^2 \times {0}$ is not an open subset of $\mathbb{R}^3$
Convergant
i said this too but i think they mean f(R^2) as a subspace of R^3
Yea, I specifically mean being open in f(R^2).
It could be that I dont have a firm grasp of what it means for an the image of f to use the euclidean metric in R^3...
So assuming that f(R^2) is a subspace of R^3, if f always an open map, I dont see how Convergant's example disproves my thought. 
it doesn't, in fact obviously f(R^2) is never going to work because it's by definition open in the subspace topology
I've been thinking about it a bit more and honestly not gotten very far. my first thought was to choose a really pathological function like Conway's base 13, but that actually would make f an open map... lol
I do think with a horribly behaved enough g you would be able to find a counterexample, but I haven't found it yet
Well thanks for digging! I felt crazy thinking that any map would work, so if others out there arent immediately disproving me, I feel slightly better about my thought.
Event if its ultimately false.
hm ok i have a weird idea
take the unit ball in R^3 and look at cross sections in the same plane
for each line y = c have f map that line to a space filling curve that fills up that cross section
hm idt this will work actually
Yes it will always be an open map; the image of an open set U under f is the intersection of U x R (which is open in R^3) and f(R^2), so f(U) has to be open in f(R^2) by definition of the subspace topology
g can be any function
that doesn't quite seem right
the g part of the function is also only applied to U
however I believe it's still right because f is invertible and the inverse of f is just the projection onto the first two components, which is continuous
actually nvm you are right
because g is a function, so the intersection with U x R takes care of the fact that g is only applied to U
ok im glad its this simple 
thank you
Depends, but usually you have to show that for any element x of the set some small ball around x is contained completely in the set as well
wait I use triangle inequality
should i just send question
Probably if you want help for the specific problem
i think the C1 part is for the second part
do I use the definition of an open ball
Let x in U. Because U is open there exists an open ball around x entirely contained in U
What happens to that ball when you subtract a from every element?
i wanna say the center of the ball is shifted by a
bc x is the center of the open ball contained in U right
sry im literally just learning topology on top of this course
Exactly if you can show this you're done
oh nice
i like use euclidean metric/ triangle inequality right
I don't think you need the triangle inequality
Yes, so you know that open balls are open. But here you just need to show that the shifted ball is actually an open ball around x - a. To do this, take any value y in the ball around x and look at the distance between y - a and x - a, what do you get?
Let me rephrase. Your goal is to show that there is an open ball around x - a completely contained in V. I claim that shifting a ball of radius r around x by - a gives a ball of the same radius around x - a
This ball will then be contained in V if we choose r sufficiently small, because U is open
waitone second
To show that my claim is true, you need to verify that: the distance between some y and x is the same as the distance between y - a und x - a
Can you verify that this is true?
No this is just the definition of an open ball around a
The edited equality is not well defined. What is y?
i wanna show this contained in U right so do i just take an element in the ball and show it is also an element of V or is that not sufficient enough
i think i made a mistake
Can you show that this is true?
y can be literally any point in R^n
I'm literally just stating that shifting by a constant doesn't change distances
like the metric is invariant
Try to write down what the distances are
like d(x-a, y-a)= d(x, y)
Yes
To see this is true just look at the absolute value expression that d(x-a, y-a) evaluates as
Yes that's right and if you simplify it becomes...
Yes, okay. So know you know that d(x,y) < r is equivalent to d(x-a,y-a) < r so from there you can conclude
Yes
Wait, not the same
But the translated ball is also an open ball
Of the same radius
oh
so really what we’re saying because they are if the same radii
then V must be open as well
not just radii, also centers match
this is somewhat of a dumb exercise imo 
dont even prove things directly just write down the clear homeomorphism g : U -> V
its my analysis class
the second part is this
ive never taken topo
lowk
has homeomorphism been defined for you
Wdym? If i shift the ball of radius 1 centered at 0 by 3 the resulting balls are disjoint
which title for Pugh
real mathematical analysis
W. Rudin, Principles of Mathematical Analysis Ch.2
Not sure what you mean. Can you give any examples? My course followed it and I didn't find any such problems. Proofs also make clear statements and take the optimal path.
Maybe the later parts are very bad, but I thought especially the topology section is written very well
browder, amann escher
mainly lots of the things in "exercises not in rudin" featured in these notes
Are you saying that the number of exercises in rudin is not sufficient? The question was asking for which books cover the basic theorems, and I thought rudin does so.
well yes, the exercises make you check a lot of details that rudin doesnt
is this good
how to continue the proof can someone give a hint or something regarding it
can you recall the definition of the product topology?
Sure its defined to be the topology generated by U \times V where U is open in X and V is open in Y
so what does it mean for M to be open
well the thing there is no basis for M_x this is the thing that making me stuck if we know that ther is a basis or its not mentioned
i cannot say that V is a basis
but if that is the case then the union of V will equal to M_x and thus M_x will be open
so this is what makes me stuck
the only the definiton that i know being open means that M is inside T_y
like this is the only definiton in my book
i mean there are other definiton sure
but those are basis releated
M is equal to the union of U x V
sure that is true i agree with that since U \times V are basis
for the topology generated by T_x\times y
so what can you now say about M_x?
M_x is also the union of V maybe
but not sure if that is a valid argument
but this seems to me the case
im not sure whre you want to get ):
maybe it is easier to think about M_x as instead p(M)
where p(S) = {y in Y| (x,y) in S}
what this really is is a function that we are applying to M
yes
sure but is there something relatble to the projection function regarding open sets that im missing
this is set theory
if a set S is the union of X_i
and I have a function f
what is f(S) equal to
im not sure if what i said right
I don't understand what you mean here
Could you elaborate because I do not get it and it’s to late now
😃
$M = \bigcup_{\alpha \in \Lambda} U_\alpha \times V_\alpha \implies M_x = \bigcup_{\alpha \in \Lambda} (U_\alpha \times V_\alpha)_x$
HChan
OMG this is so smart
You have just fixed the x
And get all others y
I have two disjoint countable intersections of open sets F and G, assume all closed sets are countable intersections of open sets, show there exist two countable intersections of open sets A and B, such that A U B is the whole space, A is a superset of F and B is a superset of G.
Does anyone have a weak hint?
I am not even sure if this statement is true
just let A and B both be the whole space?
am i missing something
maybe you wanted A and B to be disjoint as well?
Yes
I forgot to mention that
this is equivalent to this
the qn
What book is this?
james dugundji
can some pls give a hint? i have been stuck on this problem to a long enough extent that i am doubting the validity, sadly this is trivially true for all finite topologies, and i dont have a great intuition for arbitrary infinite ones
so constructing a counter example is a bit difficult
Hi! Can anyone give a hint as to how I should approach part b)? I am currently stuck on the forward implication:
[ x_n \to x \implies x_{n, k} \to x_k ]
If $x_n \to x$ by the above metric, I assume this means that for all $\varepsilon > 0$, there exists an $n_0$ such that:
[
n > n_0 \implies d(x_n, x) < \varepsilon
]
Working with the above condition, then:
[
\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2^{k}}\frac{\left|x_{n,k}-x_{k}\right|}{1+\left|x_{n,k}-x_{k}\right|}<\varepsilon
]
I'm not sure how to prove that $x_{n, k} \to x_k$ pointwise.
Average Math Student
use the fact that if the entire series is less than e, then each term in the series must be less than e 
oh
Yeah didn't think about that 😭
Thanks, I'll let you know how it goes 👍
oh wait
Whoops
So you end up with something like:
[ \left|x_{n,k}-x_{k}\right|<\frac{1}{1-2^{k}\varepsilon}-1 ]
Now note that [ f\left(x\right)=\frac{x}{1+x} ] is bounded from above by $1$, so immediately the metric should be bounded above by the minimum of $1$ or $2^k\varepsilon$. If the $2^k \varepsilon$ is greater than $1$ then the inequality (with the metric, in the previous image) is true for all values of $n$. \
So we have that:
[ \left|x_{n,k}-x_{k}\right|<\frac{1}{1-2^{k}\varepsilon}-1 ]
Now since we know $2^k \varepsilon < 1$, that means that the choice of a new epsilon:
[ \varepsilon_{1}=\frac{1}{1-2^{k}\varepsilon}-1 ]
Will always be positive. \
Since we only want to prove $x_{n,k} \to x_k$ pointwise, it doesn't matter that $\varepsilon_1$ depends on $k$. Therefore the limit is pointwise convergent, as $\varepsilon_{1} > 0$.
Average Math Student
<@&286206848099549185> sry for ping
Hey, so I solved it.
I shall be focussing on (a) since both parts are basically the same.
I wanted to ask where you are getting stuck exactly. That will allow me to provide you a good hint
i am unable to make a construction
by any chance is your soln "consider a family of open set who intersection is H, and take the intersection of those open sets in this family which are disjoint from G"
?
if so this doesnt work
@low stone
Ok, I'm here.
so any hint?
or was that not your soln?
It wasn't
Sorry, I took a while to ponder if they're different or not
was it "take union of (interior of complement of G) and H"?
this also doesnt work (i mean if it does, i am unable to prove it is F_sigma, and i am pretty sure you cant, but dont have an explicit counter example)
Ok, so the hint I will provide you is to think about the complements of G and H. Then, modify those (which are clearly F _sigma) to be disjoint and follow the given conditions.
Is that good enough? Or too vague?
one sec
i dont get it, i have gone along that line of thought before, but it didnt lead me anywhere
something like this, but with F sigma instead of G delta, rite?
Actually yeah that's exactly what my solution is
yeh, i have gone through that thought process but couldnt get a soln
With F sigma sets tho.
Yeah this.
, yeh, i mean that was the obvious trick ig, to make it more symmetric and all
but what next
how will i decompose the space as such
difference of F sigma/Gdelta sets dont give anything nice
i was thinking about somehow "incrementally increasing the sets" but countable union of G delta isnt neccessarrily G delta
so the method i tried wasnt working
The way I did it is basically a neat trick to divide the F sigma sets into disjoint sets which also cover the total set
i mean that is what you need to do, but how did you get that trick?
while still ensuring both are Fsigma?
If M and N are unions of countable closed sets Mi and Ni, then think of the structure which these countable sets make. Then, try to express M union N as a series of unions of sets which are made up of the countable sets from before.
M and N are the F sigma complements of G and H
If I tell you the series I got it will just kind of give the answer away
By any chance did your solution assume that there exists a closed set Ni which doesnt intersect with G or there there is a closed set Mi which doesnt intersect with H?
That's not an assumption, it is clearly true
Like jsut M1 N1 M2 N2 ... works
its not clearky true
thats the reason this doesnt work
if it is clearly true prove it.
are you just taking union of all pairwise unions?
Close.
said intersections by mistake
Ah. You meant differences?
i meant union
difference wont work, cause the differnce of closed sets isnt anything nice
Oh I m blind sorry
No it does work!
how?
the difference of closed sets isnt anything nice
?
Think about it for a second. Like imagine M_0 to be the first element.
Okay, should I just tell you the sequence?
you mean like symmetric difference, rite?
Wdym not anything nice? Difference of two closed sets are F sigma
No, I mean set minus
Why wouldn't it be
why would it be F sigma?
if it is Fsigma, then i would be done
Difference of two closed sets can be written as the union of closed sets
doesnt have to be a countable union tho, rite?
Just think about this. For any two closed sets X and Y, X\Y = X intersect complement(Y)
yes
yes
I am pretty sure it's possible for all intersections of open and closed sets
i dont see any reason for that to be true
Umm... All open sets are unions of countable closed sets?
All open sets are F_sigma
ohhh, i forgot we are assuming that
I assumed we were in R^n
nah, we are in a general topology
but it was given in the first problem to assume that all closed sets are G delta, for the remaining problems
that was stupid

Well we were both wrong
its fine ig
I'm sorry for overlooking that
this shit will happen in life
its fine
i am just happy that now i can solve the qn and move on
5 days
for missing one line
Good luck with the next ones
bye
It seems to be a good book
yeh it is
just terminology is a bit old
and a few (one that i have seen yet) exercise are wrong(/ missing a condition)
but yeh
fun stuff
It's fun in the sense that it has a lot more intense dopamine boosts after solving questions through these kinds of stupidities
yep
thats why i like math, intense dopamine after difficult qn
Hi, I have a question about naming:
Why do we call the elements of a topology like "open sets" instead of just elements?, my book does not specify this, and chatgpt tells me its just a way of naming, but for me it's strange to change the name in this way
we use topology to generalize the notion of "openness" that we know from open intervals from R like (0,1). at this point we go general enough to be able to let any subsets be considered open depending on the topology you use
Also, Im starting in topology, and I don't get the sense of space and sets in the same thing😅
this part of teaching topology is a bit backwards chronologically because historically we used much stronger conditions on what constitutes an open set but we have stripped those away to allow a, frankly, crazy level of generality
wdym
I mean, I'm seeing that a topological space is a (x,t) where t is a topology
yes
And I imagine a space, like, a vector space
or like
in R2 I imagine the space as the typical x, y coordinates
don't worry if you are confused because technical terms will be thrown around ad hoc often without the "why is it this way". it's this way because it works, and you gain intuition as you get further along the course
I see
Yeah, it's feel hard for me to imagine a open set in a space
try to stick to the definitions as much as you can because you will encounter a lot of pathological and counterintuitive examples along the way
For R2 I imagine it as points in the plane, but I cannot imagine a open set of values, i just imagine points lol
yeah
like (1,2) vs [1,2]
yeah
in R^2 the situation is only a bit more complicated. the open sets in R^2 are any sets where the boundary is not included
picture like a disk without its boundary or some blob
I can imagine it like this
but it has no sense for some points
like
in the case X is a,b,c and we are in a discrete topology
the set a is included
but its just a element
not a range of elements
yeah that you'll just have to accept tbh. if the topology says it's open, then it's open, there's no "intuitive" way to think about this
I see
found this online
https://math.hws.edu/eck/metric-spaces/open-and-closed-sets.html
Yeah, here is another doubt
so chatgpt tells me this:
That i cannot imagine it like a surrounding around the set because that only applies in metric spaces, not topologic spaces
for example you can define a topology on Z called the cofinite topology, where the open sets are all sets whose complement is finite. you get really weird results, like the sequence (1,2,3,4,5,6,...) converges to every element in Z. there's no good way to think about this, it's just bashing definitions
wdym? i might need more context than that
give me a second
So, basically, I asked chatgpt:
I imagine this points like having an arbitrary "boundary" around them which is open, but he told me that, this concept of boundary only applies in metric spaces not topological spaces
i think the concept you are looking for is a neighborhood. in metric spaces you get access to open balls centered at your points, which you don't have access to in general topological spaces
does this follow because one of the sets in the intersection is just the topology generated by the basis/subbasis itself?
I see
not sure what you mean
Well, I see that I have to start imagining things and stick to the concepts
thanks for ur help @fast yew 🙂
this gets you half of the argument, youd still need to show that in some sense the topology generated by A is the "smallest"
i mean, every set containing A should contain the topology generated by A, and the topology generated by A itself is a set in this collection, so i assumed the intersection equals A
in that if T is the topology generated by A and T' is any other topology containing A, then T is a subset of T'
ah, i misread, thanks for clarifying tho
What i find curious is that, I'm seeing topology in my first year of university. I don't know if thats normal
It's computational math
that follows right because the topology generated by A is all unions of its subcollections and any topology is closed under unions of any subcollection?
so a topological space has a set X of points
and then you can have subsets of X that contain some of the points, right
some of the subsets are open, some of them are closed, some of them are neither
T is just all the sets that are open
yeah i think youre right
it should be a one liner
but you still have to mention it
in R^n, T is all the sets that have the open ball property
(i.e. for each point x, there's a little open ball around it)
but a lot of top spaces (X, T) are really, really weird
alright ty 👍
np
One intuition of open sets I have which works pretty well is "one sided distinguishability"
So like, elements inside are distinguishable from sets disjoint from that open set,
This explains arbitrary union pretty well;
If an element is inside the union, it is inside atleast one open set, if a set is outside the union, it's outside all of them, so there is an open set which contains the element but is disjoint from the set we are comparing to, so we can use that open set to distinguish the element
This also explains finite intersection;
If an element is in the intersection, then it is in all of them, but if a set is outside the intersection, then I can break the set into finitely many parts, such that for every part there is a open set disjoint from it
(Like if you have A,B,C as open sets, and Z as the outside set Z-A, ZintersectA - B, ZintersectAinstersectB - C)
So if i distinguish the element from each part, then I am done, and since there are only finitely many parts, i can just distinguish the element from the first part, then the second part, then the third part and so on until I am done.
Now I'll give a few examples of topologies and how this intuition applies.
In an indiscrete topology, we arent allowed to distinguish anything at all, we just lack that capability
In a discrete topology
We can tell if a element is outside a set, for any element and set, quickly
In the sierpinski topology
{{},{1},{1,2}}
we do have a ability to tell 1 from 2, but we can't tell 2 from one, to make it more clear imagine it like you have a cliff, you have a point at the bottom and one at the top, if you are at the bottom, you can clearly see that the top is different, but if you are at the top, you might slip at any point, and fall to the bottom, this not being able to distinguish where you are and the bottom.
for the cofinite topology, given any finite set you can tell that a point is outside it, maybe you do this just by checking every point in the set, but if it is infinite, you cant, as at any point of time, the element might just be later in the set.
For an order topology, you can basically just notice the fact of a set that it is smaller than or equal to some value, or it is bigger then or equal to some value, so if one set is completely bigger then some element, you can distinguish it, and if some set is completely smaller the some element you can distinguish it.
closed sets in this intuition would just be a set which i can distinguish from
Clopen sets would be sets which I can both distinguish from, and can be distinguished from.
Interior would be set of points in a set that can be distinguished from all sets outside the set
Closure would be the minimal set containing a given set so that you can distinguish any point outside the set from it.
(Or the maximally set so that any point you can distinguish from a given set is also distinguishable from this set)
G delta sets whose elements you could distinguish from outside if you could do countable infinite number of things in finite time (like those popmath videos about supertasks)
F sigma sets would be sets you could distinguish from if you could do supertaks
I kinda like that
points in an open set don't have an identity crisis, but points outside of open sets might
especially if they're on the boundary
This reminds me of like, thinking of open sets as predicates
How does that work?
Well they just like take in an element and output a truth value depending on whether that element is in the set or not
But according to that wouldn't you have all open sets would be clopen? Cause the negation of a predicate is a predicate
Open sets wouldn't just be arbitrary predicates
There would just have to be some predicates deemed open on a set X such that:
The predicate of "being in X" is open
The predicate which no element satisfies is open
If two predicates P and Q are open, the predicate "P(x) and Q(x)" is open
If arbitrarily many predicates P_a indexed by a in A are open, so is the predicate "P_a(x) for some a in A"
I personally think, when thinking of open sets as predicates, it is much better to refer to them as "local predicates", since "open predicate" sounds kinda odd imo
That seems like a weird way of rephrasing the topology axioms?
Indeed it is
I mean instead of saying "subset" you are saying "predicate"?
Pretty much yeah, you're just switching out subset with the predicate of belonging to that subset
Is there any change to the intuition?
Similar(or exactly the same, depending on your POV) to thinking of subsets of X as functions from X to {0, 1}
Yeh
I think it can sometimes help to think of open sets as local predicates, I think you get an inductive-esque definition of compactness like this, but idk any other examples
I havent done compactness yet.
Where local is expressed in terms of open sets? Jk
need help with question 3a), question 2 included for context
i think the only sequences that converge to 0 are the ones that converge to zero w.r.t. the standard topology on [-1, 1] because the neighborhoods of 0 look like regular intervals (a,b)
but idk how to properly show it
ping on reply pls
What exact issue are you getting in showing this? Just applying the definition should work?
definition of convergence?
Yup
