#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 136 of 1
(So there may be self-loops)
You can generate an equivalence relation S from this as follows
Pretend the edges are undirected, and say aSb iff a and b are in the same connected component
directed edges means direct edge from a to b or via chain of edges?
Direct edge
You can unfold this to say that aSb iff there’s a sequence x_0 = a, …, x_n = b where either x_k R x_(k + 1) or x_(k + 1) R x_k for all k from 0 to n - 1
(You need a bit of a special case for n = 0 to ensure S is reflexive)
so here relation is i1(x) = i2(x) ?
Yeah, and then you generate an equivalence relation from that
okay, thank you
does anyone else experience a existential terror from topology?
like a feeling you get just like from geometric dreams
If I think too long about spaces like the long line
me when I cant make arguments just from using sequences
Hello, I was wondering if ideally I should learn real analysis before doing a dedicated course on point set. I’m reading on abstract algebra right now and find it quite fun, so I wanted to go on and improve to point set topology, then algebraic topology.
I think it helps a lot to have done some real analysis
Topology tends to be more “soft”-style I’d say
Yeah, that’s what I was thinking. What in real analysis do you usually use for topology
Intermediate and extreme value theorems are quite helpful
Also they give lots of metric space intuition
It’s mostly examples and intuition
Like IVT/EVT are good intuition for things about connected/compact sets
And metric spaces are a “prototypical” example of a topological space
Makes sense. Thank you, and I’m pretty sure abstract algebra isn’t really used in point set? Just asking because I’m learning it right now
Not that I remember, at least
Not really
Mathematical maturity always helps, but it’s definitely not a requirement
Alright, thanks
You can use group theory for some good examples of stuff in pointset
But of course it doesn't drive the actual theory, otherwise its just algtop
Sorry dude
You get invited to get it :/
😭
I'll put in a good word for you at our next meeting
tysm, this means so much to me.
analysis is a much more pleasant subject when you study it from books titled "point-set topology"
tbh yeah, the essence is probably clearer there
I don't know how to prove this can anyone help??
is this just A inter union_(s in S) s = union_(s in S) A inter s?
anyway, this is probably best in #proofs-and-logic
Does $\prod \overline{A_{\alpha}} \subseteq \prod \overline{A_{\alpha}}$ require axiom of choice to prove for an infinite collection of sets ?
(Nvm found the answer, gonna leave it here in case anybody ever uses the search function. Equality is equivalent to AoC)
Keywords:Munkres, Theorem 19.5, axiom of choice, closure, Cartesian product
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3814769/munkres-thm-19-5-and-axiom-of-choice
phoenixperson
If I have a metric space M and a subset S, what exactly does it mean for the metric to be restricted to points in S?
My current thought is that if there is a ball for M that contains points inside and outside of S (center at a point in S), then that same ball using the restricted metric will only contain points in S and the points outside of S are ignored. Is that the correct interpretation?
Nice
it means looking at S as a metric space with a metric inherited from M
the fact that the subspace topology and the topology from the inherited metric are the same is a (albeit trivial but still) separate fact
i guess thats kind of splitting hairs
That is what I'm trying to prove! I guess what was throwing me for a loop is that if S has an isolated point, then there is most assuredly a ball in M such that in the subspace Topology that single point is open. But I guess this "isolated point" from the perspective of S is also open right?
For instance if you make a ball in the restricted space that only contains that isolated point, it doesn't contain any neighbors of said point because they belong in M \ S (which don't exist in the restricted metric)
The metric is a function M x M -> R
You restrict it to a function S x S -> R
sure
Let X and Y be sets. Suppose f is a function from X to Y and S is a subset of X. The restriction of f to the subset S is the function f|S from S to Y, defined by (f|S)(x)=f(x) for all x in S.
I am familiar with the following way to describe a topology:
Given a set X and a subset B of P(X), verifying B is a basis thus determines a unique topology.
In one of my classes, my professor wrote “this space X has the topology determined by neighborhood basis: “blablabla”.
I am unfamiliar with “neighborhood basis” and can’t find a good resource to learn about them.
In particular,
-
what axioms does a set B of P(X) need to satisfy to be a neighborhood basis, and
-
why does specifying a valid neighborhood basis determine a unique topology?
I am struggling to answer these questions or find clear definitions
From few of what Ican find online , it starts from a topology T and then defines a neighborhood base given a topology, but I can’t find a clear definitions where you start with X, define a neighborhood base, and show it creates a topology
A basis of neighborhoods at x should be a set of neighborhoods such that every neighborhood of x contains a basis set. The only thing needed here is that the intersection of two basis sets at x contains another basis set at x.
A basis of neighborhoods for the entire space is then probably a basis for each point.
But I am confused what the definitions are if we don’t actually specify a topology.
This definition seems to require we first say what the neighborhoods are. But I don’t know what the topology is. I only know the set X
A set is a neighborhood if it contains a basis neighborhood, and is open iff it is a neighborhood of all its points
It is like I said: the intersection of two basis neighborhoods (at x) should contain another basis neighborhood (at x)
I am still confused as it seems we are defining basis neighborhoods in terms of neighborhoods, and neighborhoods in terms of basis neighborhoods. But without a verified topology, it’s not clear what neighborhood is
Like with a basis, there are are axioms to verify that are independent of a topology. If a subset of P(X) satisfies these axioms, then the basis corresponds to unique topology
I don’t know what the analogous axioms are for “neighborhood basis” or even what neighborhood basis is if you don’t have an already specified topology
I'm not sure why you're confused, but I can try to spell it out:
A basis of neighborhoods of X is a collection of sets such that
- Each set contains x
- The intersection of two sets contains another set in the collection.
Once you have this basis you define a neighborhood at x to be any set which contains one of the basis sets.
Then once you have a basis of neighborhoods at each point you define a set to be open iff it is a neighborhood of all its points
So the axioms are "the intersection of two basis neighborhoods at x should contain another basis neighborhood at x"
Which is the same axiom as for a usual basis
So a couple questions about this construction
-
How do we know that defining open sets in this way actually determines a valid topology? This should probably be a straightforward definition chase
-
Is this definition of neighborhood consistent with the usual definition of neighborhood? Also probably a definition chase right?
-
Is there a reference where these definitions are clearly stated?
that is not enough for a nbhd basis
Just working with these, I’m getting stuck on proving finite intersections of open sets are open
Then what is the definition?
A great mystery
Every textbook I can find only states it
Like so
I mean, what I said uniquely specifies a topology
How do you show finite intersection of open sets are open with what is stated from ur message
That’s the only part I can’t verify
Say U and V are open.
Consider z in UnV, then as U and V are neighborhoods of z they contain basis sets. Let's call them Uz and Vz. Then
UnV contains Uz n Vz which contains a basis neighborhood. So UnV is a neighborhood of all its points (aka open)
yea, that one makes sure that different points have the same opinion on what nbhds are
BP2 seems to specify that the neighborhoods be open. Which seems kinda against the point of a neighborhood basis, as then it's just a basis
its not a basis because a basis is just a family of sets, nbhd basis is assigning a family of sets to each point
Different points agreeing on what neighborhoods are seems to kinda go against the point of neighborhoods
And indeed the union of neighborhood bases assigned to all the points will be a basis for the topology as a whole
(and conversely, given a basis for the whole topology, you can take "all the basis sets containing x" as a neighborhood basis for every x)
The motivating problem I am trying to show that this is actually a topology
I just wanted to understand all the definition being used
Anyway if that's the case then I guess it's easy.
A neighborhood basis is just a basis with some extra information you should ignore
So to show a map is continuous, you can verify just on the basis elements. Similarly, you can verify on the neighborhood basis elements?
sure
For trying to show that something is a TVS
From this result
they are useful for constructing intricate topologies
much easier to think about
and check
than the intersection condition
Yep, thinking locally is often more convenient than thinking of the basis as a whole.
Sure, if you're saying "take a basic neighborhood of x", you're essentially saying "take a basis set containing x", but having the explicit connection to x is often useful
also there can be basic sets that contain x that you dont want to take into the nbhd basis (for example, you want to keep it countable)
Yeah, thinking in terms of a neighboorhood basis lets you specify certain basic sets containing x
I was told they are relevant for functional analysis
Yesterday
Someone here said you can’t always do everything with just a basis
Yes, the weak and weak* topologies can be quite conveniently described in terms of neighborhood bases
This is more often phrased by defining them as "the weakest (coarsest) topologies in which certain maps are continuous", but such topologies lend themselves nicely to the neighborhood basis language
they were talking about nbhd basis, not the regular kind of basis
oops
this is only true if we restrict the neighborhood bases to open sets right?
they are usually meant to be open sets yea
otherwise its unclear how to make an appropriate coherence condition
Hi I have a question about TDA. If one uses a deterministic rule to make multiple point clouds, can one say the homological features of the point clouds are only due to the deterministic rule applied to make them?
Cooked phrasing holy crap
I mean, the point cloud is due to the process you use to make it yes....
Though different methods of computing e.g. persistent homology can produce sightly different features even for the same data
it seems like all the classically equivalent characterizations of connectedness are no longer equivalent if we reject the law of excluded middle.
my base characterization of connectedness is not disconnected, where a space is disconnected if there are two non-empty, disjoint, open subsets which cover the entire space
for example, chain conectedness implies connectedness, but i don't think you can prove the converse without LEM
if the only clopen subsets are the entire space and the empty space, we can prove that X is not disconnected (so it is connected), but i don't think we can prove the converse without LEM
if the only clopen subsets are the entire space and the empty space, we can prove that the space is chain connected, but i don't think we can prove the converse without LEM
i just find this weird
wondering about anybody else's thoughts
i have zero intuition about what dropping lem looks like, but i think it makes sense. like you mentioned, a lot of these characterizations pivot on the fact that connected means not disconnected (or at least the proofs ive seen do). i guess the way i think about this is that mutually exclusive conditions "collapse" and so any "auxiliary" characterization of either condition becomes meaningless.
yea, i think that the usual definition of connectedness being defined “in the negative” is playing a role here.
something i find interesting is like, most of the actual content of the proof can be done constructively. for example, if you set out to prove that connectedness implies chain conntectedness, you will be able to construct a set that is inhabited, open, and whose complement is open, all constructively, but you won’t be able to conclude that this set together with its complement union to the whole space without LEM
do you mind expanding on what you mean by ‘mutually exclusive conditions “collapse”’?
The conditions where if you have one , you don't have the other?
or maybe you mean examples?
like, normally you have that "either a space is connected or disconnected". but when that isnt logically true, its like pushing in the base of a house of cards
okay, i see what you mean
and so auxiliary characterizations of connectedness, for example, become meaningless because their proofs of equivalence rely on LEM
yeah basically. or at least i think thats the case, since like what it means to be connected is fundamentally not disconnected
doing constructive topology sounds kind of awful
The characterisation I know is “Hom(X, -) preserves coproducts”
Wait, I've actually never heard of that.
It’s equivalent to the usual characterisation
Are you saying X is connected iff Hom(X, \sqcup Y_i)=\sqcup Hom(X;Y_i)?
Because I don't think that works.
It feels like it ought to work classically. Which direction feels off to you?
My issue is that it looks like it's true for all X.
Oh wait.
No.
That's products, not coproducts.
Mhm exactly
Ok, now it intuitively makes sense to me.
It does make the empty space not connected, which I suppose is a feature. :-)
I'm not following, what's the generalization of this statement to an arbitrary category?
I suppose it amounts to defining what "connected" might mean in other categories (or at least those other categories that have coproducts).
Ok, yeah, I see.
I think I've quickly read that, don't remember coming across this though.
On the other hand that definition would make it pretty hard for a pointed space to be "connected" ...
A pointed space is connected iff the space you get by applying the forgetful functor is connected, obviously.
But yeah.
Yeah, and the "preserves coproducts" definition doesn't appear to produce that, unless I'm tripping...
I'd be surpised if it did.
Hom(X,Y_1 \sqcup Y_2) is definitely not the union of Hom(X,Y_1) and Hom(X,Y_2).
Because you can "bend" X around the basepoint.
Yes, exactly.
So that suggests we shouldn't be quite so fast to generalize that definition to other categories.
Yeah, although it looks like it's in some way the fault of the basepoint, so maybe if there's some fancy way to forget basepoints categorically, then we could adapt this?
I have no idea how you would do this though.
Or perhaps I was just unlucky to pick just the wrong topology-adjacent category to test drive it with.
Is that book good
yeah
Second countable spaces that aren't hereditarily second countable...
Iirc you can have second countable spaces that aren't separable too
Wait actually idk this might be true without AC and LEM nvm
<@&268886789983436800>
time to hunt
Thats neat
Yas
You are so lucky , I cant get my hands on it .
yea munkres personally went up to his door and hand-delivered the book to him
munkresclaus
I think the proof will be better written if you’re more direct about which set is the closed set in K cap Y
Like, say upfront that the closure of E in Y is cl(E) cap Y
Also you might want to specify whether the interior and boundary are taken in the relative topology or in the original topology
Oh yeah I didn't even see that. I assume for this context its the original topology, right?
I mean, it's your proof
Also, how is relative topology defined in your case, and what is corollary 1.2.11?
I'll send screenshots, one sec
I think the proof should avoid the whole int cup boundary thing but thats just imo
Sorry about the highlighting lol
I guess I included it as a kind of bridge between K and E
It’s not wrong per se but you’ll have to be crystal clear about this sort of detail
Which I think introduces more of a headache than the proof is worth
On topology of $\mathbb{R}^2$, because of the Heine-Borel theorem, any closed and bounded subset is compact, right? But say I have the unit square and cover it with open sets such that after the $n$th open set there is still $\frac{1}{2^n}$ of the square uncovered. With all these open sets every point of the square is covered, but then there can be no finite subcover of the square so it isn't compact. So is such an open cover just impossible?
TorusField
what exactly do you have in mind? for simplicity just describe the analogous construction with [0,1]
Ah trying to describe it for 1 dimension made me realize why it doesn't work for my original 2 dimensional thought experiment: There's this little "corner" that remains which you can't cover with an open set without then opening the opportunity for a finite subcover
wdym
did you mean (0,1/2), (1/2, 3/4), (3/4, 7/8),…
Not quite
For [0,1] I could have the open set $(0 - \epsilon, \frac{1}{2})$, then $(\frac{1}{2} - \epsilon, \frac{3}{4})$, $(\frac{3}{4} - \epsilon, \frac{7}{8})$, and so on. But what I just realized is that nothing here would cover $1$, and if I ad hoc'd an open set for $1$ I would have to cover a little less than 1, which would make a finite subcover possible.
TorusField
Or I suppose the epsilons are not necessary after the first one, but same idea
sure
(From May's Concise) When May says "when this holds," is he saying "when X is weak Hausdorff" or is he saying "when g(K) is closed for an individual K" ?
Nevermind, thought of a counterexample for the second interpretation
(from munkres) maybe a dumb question but for part (d) is he saying that parts (a) and (b) additionally necessitate that X is/isn't a complete metric space? or is he saying its an alternate condition to it being compact in the case of (a) but not (b)? or is he saying something else?
I think he's saying the second of those because im pretty sure R isnt compact anyways but im not sure and wanted to double check
the result (a) holds even with the weaker assumption that X is complete
if X is only complete, part (b) doesn’t necessarily hold.
ah so does compactness also imply completeness then?
in a metric space, yes.
if X is a metric space, X is compact if and only if X is complete and totally bounded
makes sense, thanks
Does completeness even make sense outside metric spaces
Or maybe I am thinking the opposite way around lol as in you are saying it works for any metric space
i think he specified because compactness does make sense outside of them
i think in uniform spaces there is a notion of completeness using cauchy filters
but like
O inch resting
i hadn’t had that in mind when i made the comment. i suppose what i said was a bit redundant
it is an awesome text
can someone explain how a circle can fit the definition of 'topological space'?
There are several ways to describe the topology of the circle. One perhaps simple one could be: an open arc is an arc of the circle (the set of points between two other points) not including the endpoints.
The open sets are then unions of open arcs.
The circle is a subspace of $\mathbb{R}^2$
L
indeed, so you could maybe start by trying to understand how the plane is a topological space
It’s a metric space
And every metric space is a topological space
and what is a metric space
if you consider all “open balls” centered at a point p = (x,y) with radius r, B(p,r) = {(a,b) | sqrt((a-x)^2 + (b-y)^2) < r}
where p ranges over all of the plane, and r ranges over all positive real numbers
this forms what’s called a basis for the standard topology of the plane
and this is also how to get the standard metric topology associated with a metric
a metric is like a “distance function” on a set
the standard distance in the plane is the prototypical example
we declare a subset U of the plane to be “open” if for every p in U, there is some open ball B(p,r) contained in U
for example, the half-plane {(x,y) | x > 0} is open
R^3 and R^n in general have a topology in the same way, by using the higher dimensional distance function, which comes from the generalized Pythagorean theorem in the same way
wait, a ball is a set of distances from a given point??
oh b is a basis
is that what B means?
Topology (2nd ed.)?
a ball of radius r centered at x with respect to a metric d is the set {y : d(x,y) < r}
yes
its the set of all points less than a distance r from x
what is y an element of
or i suppose
what is the set a subset of
if that makes sense
like what's y
whatever the metric is defined oon
what is that for R2
its R2
points in the metric space x lives in
yes
i got no clue
i think im js gonna read the book
im still so far from understanding what a topological space is
reading a book is definitely a good idea
let alone a category or functor
i already mentioned i was mainly looking for that but it did get buried so
munkres presents everything really well
no, B(p,r) in the notation I used means a single open ball of radius r centered at p. But I was talking about the collection of all such balls
and that is a basis
in full generality its just a set and a collection of subsets of this set that meet certain conditions
a topological space is just
-
a set S
-
a collection C of subsets of S that satisfies certain properties
we call a subset open if it belongs to C
a basis is a way of representing C in terms of a smaller collection, such that each set in C is a union of sets in your basis
i highly advise doing analysis in R and metric spaces before jumping into general topology
im just trying to do category theory
why
you dont need topology to do category theory
as someone who studied it a lot in grad school, I don't recommend trying to learn it before first doing some abstract algebra and topology. It's possible, but you won't be able to appreciate many important and exciting examples of things
it's true you don't "need" to, but I really wouldn't recommend it
I want to learn category theory and need to do topology first rather than abstract algebra

ah sure, a group is an object whose delooping BG is a 1-truncated ∞-groupoid whose higher homotopies are contractible
homotopy theory ahh
yea it's not strictly necessary but categories make a lot more sense the more math you're familiar with
Tbf the reason they came here is because they wanted to learn about sheaves
Exactly
I would not try to do this
see blake's message
my question is still “why”
fair enough
wtf am i doing here
That’s cool and all, and it should stay interesting, but going into category theory while saying you’re far away from understanding what a topological space is tough
ok so you would recommend using abstract algebra instead of topology?
ohh i know a little abstract algebra
Since that’s where category theory came from, yea
thats way easier than topology
Awodey has a book
ok but how do i learn category theory from abstract algebra then
the wikipedia page heavily pulls from topology
there are no shortcuts to climbing a mountain
for then you will be able to see, my child
so
ok yeah i have no idea what you're on about
lol im kinda joking with you. the way that you learn category theory is by going through and learning linear algebra, abstract algebra, topology, etc
there are no short cuts
ok so i DO need topology
also im not learning the entirety of category theory mostly just sheaves
in fact im probably going to stop at sheaves
whatever the case
hm. since you are trying to "speed run" sheaves, take about a week or so, figure out what a topological space is, then come back and digest the wikipedia definition of a a sheaf bit-by-bit
i know basic abstract algebra (ish)
i dont know topology
i want to know sheaves
where do i start
ok
thank you
can C be a set
what else are you thinking it could be?
if S is a set, then the powerset of S is a set. subsets of sets are sets. since C is a subset of the powerset P(S) of S, then it is a set
set is kind of a loaded term
munkres?
munkres yeah
at least the first half ideally
hmm. it would probably be a good idea to read the first few chapters
ideally is a fun word
you can skip the manifolds section if you want
which ones exactly
the ones before the algebraic topology part of the book
ok cool
the first 2 are sufficient for speed running the defintion of a sheaf, imo
the first chapter will improve your set theory
the second will introduce you to the notion of what a topological space is and what continuous functions are
uhhh ok
oh dear
but like
im just estimating
i could be totally wrong
i don't know your schedule
i don't know how much time you are putting in
collections can kind of be whatever you want, whereas sets mean something more precise
then i think it's more precise to say that collection is a loaded term
what c squared said
do i have to do the practice problems
mm what i mean is that collections are kind of intuitive whereas sets do imply more things about them
absolutely
ffs
this is hilarious
im not really gonna argue about this though since i dont really know what the contention is
oh, i didn't mean for it to be an argument lol
my b
maybe argument is a loaded term loll
set
so your goal is just to understand the definition of what a sheaf is... for personal satisfaction?
i'm not trying to discourage you or anything, it's uh. just kinda funny like, i have been able to get through an undergraduate degree in math without knowing what a sheaf is
ish?
it just kinda piqued my interest and i wanted to look into it more
potentially good to use in other context where rejecting lem is important and/or helpful
im not even a math major lol
you could probably come to some kind of grip with the sheaf of continuous functions on R reasonably quickly
it's the simplest example I know of
ok
idk how to explain
more of a propositional logic concept
probably better to ask in #proofs-and-logic
lowkey tho this is very right. even if you speedrun learning definitions you cant do anything with them unless you have seen all the surrounding theory
the best prerequisite for category theory is linear algebra
smtg smtg why climb a mountain if you're blindfolded at the top
Hi people. I'm just having a look over Willard's General Topology for chapter 9 on uniform spaces. It starts with the following definition:
but somehow I am stuck at the first remark. And the second too, for that matter...
How would we prove it? Maybe I'm just too dumb but I can't quite figure it out. I'm just starting with uniform spaces, and any tips would be appreciated!
anyways @rugged nexus idt anyone is trying to discourage you from learning what a sheaf is, its great that youre interested. the point is that taking shortcuts means you miss out on a lot of other really interesting math, and means that you wont be able to fully appreciate sheaf theory. so it is good to eat your munkres vegetables
ime when people recommend not cutting corners its coming from experience haha (myself included)
@rugged nexus If you're interested in sheafs for their application to computer science, you might look at "Topology via Logic" for learning topology
https://pages.jh.edu/rrynasi1/FoundationsOFMath/Literature/Topology/Vickers1989TopologyViaLogic.pdf
I don’t think this is fruitful for your mathematical foundations whatsoever at this stage
Δ=Δ(Χ), which is the diagonal relation on X, if I’m not mistaken
Yes. I am mostly fine with the definition. But I'm not sure how to use it to prove the first remark (D in script D ==> D inv in script D)
Yea…the way the passage is phrased makes it seem like the statement follows immediately from (a), which doesn’t make sense
But actually I think that is just labeling the remarks
I see
I also was having a look at Kelley and he on the other hand listed remark (a) as part of the definition of a uniformity. 35.2(d) was not in definition, on the other hand. So that's what made me think, maybe those two facts can be used to prove each other
but I can make peace with taking it for granted I guess
But 35.4(b) is no good. How do we arrive at $E\circ E^{-1}\subseteq D$?
Naman
Yea i dont quite see how it follows either, and i know you would rather not leave things to the imagination lol
Yes!!
Maybe I am jumping straight to this section and that's the issue. And in fact, Willard lists some sections as dependencies for this one... but I checked them out, I've already studied majority of them in my coursework last semester
I suppose I'll just keep trying, and hopefully something will click someday
If we have set A that is countable, and an onto map f, then the image of f(A) is also countable correct? To me this means that f(A) has at most the same amount of elements as A, so this would be true. However, my book defines a set to be countable if there is a bijection from a countable set to another.
you can say “at most countable”
what is your definition of countable?
it might mean that it has to have exactly N elements
countable might mean "countably infinite or finite" or it might just mean "countably infinite"
ah sorry. Yeah, the author means countably infinite (or less) here.
And they say that countably infinite means that the set has the same cardinality as N. And having the same cardinality means that there is a bijection between the sets.
To me this means that f(A) has at most the same amount of elements as A
note that this is a special property of countable (or, more generally, well-orderable) sets, it is not a theorem of ZF for arbitrary cardinalities
its a form of choice (naturally weaker than full choice) called PP (partition principle)
So you are saying it DOES result from ZFC tho?
yes
This is all good to know! Thanks for the clarifications 😄
im not trying to take shortcuts i just have no idea what counts as redundant for this scenario
again the first thing i asked for was a textbook or something like that
if they're ever lacking i can make it up in other ways
It’ll be much easier to learn after learning both abstract algebra and point-set topology
And there’s a lot of fun stuff in both of those
what exactly do u mean by abstract algebra
cause i already know the groups/rings/fields stuff
Oh well if that’s the case, category theory should be relatively understandable
At least the basics
Have you worked through all of the important theorems?
wdym work through?
For example the isomorphism theorems
i only did the ones for vector spaces
Also if you are doing category theory before linear algebra you should ask yourself why
yeah that's fair
I hated linear algebra, It is obviously more than critical in retrospect - and that has always moderately annoyed me.
It's math's "practice this simple thing over and over again until you get it"
oh i absolutely loved linear algebra
You're lucky!
I wish I loved how it was presented to me
It took me a long time to see the beauty
3b1b's videos helped a lot
The "don't underestimate linear algebra" moment for me was when I tried to model rotations without linear algebra. Given the data of two angle axis pairs (θ₁, l₁), (θ₂, l₂) - how do you find the resulting rotation and axis? But wait, how'd we even know a rotation is just a rotation about an axis?
Without linear algebra (and especially without the help of quaternions) this problem is a nuisance.
point-set topology doesn't feel very linear
neither does set theory i guess
are you lumping this in with combinatorics?
it's linear if you squint your eyes enough dw
@ aluffi
its very wide
none the parts that are needed for the other areas of math are deep
you can put all the lectures in a bin except like the first three and pull them out in a random order and it will be fine
Compactness is a very cool concept
Society if compact spaces were precisely the compact objects in spaces
this is why homotopy theory is better
don't you still need to include retracts if you do this in S
ye like retracts of finite CW complexes
but that is already a class that appears naturally so it's ok
X compact space iff X is a compact object in the poset of open sets in X.
i did strang lin alg does that count
reddit seems to hate strang lin alg and im tbh inclined to agree
i dont think it even mentions linear maps
i think strang gave a more computational approach
which is fine
because the target audience probably wasn’t people going into pure math
depends on what for. but it's never a bad thing to revisit and review concepts
fair enough
Hello guys, happy weekend. I got a problem concern connectedness in topological space. A subset $S\subseteq X$ is connected provided there are no two non empty disjoint open subsets $A,B$ such that $S=A\cup B$. I wonder ``is there any topological space $O$ such that there exist a subspace $U$ and $V\subseteq U$ connected in $U$ but not connected in $O$? '' All subspace is equipped with the subspace topology. Thanks in advanced!
Tanxs
I googled it and AI gave a counterexample: ``let $X=(0,1)\cup (2,3)$ and $Y=(0,1)$ so Y is connected in Y, then take $A=(0,1.5)$ and $B=(1.5,3)$ we have $A\cap B=\emptyset$ , both open in $X$ and $Y\subseteq A\cup B$, this implies Y is not connected in X." However I find this explanation not valid since $A, B$ is not both non empty, indeed $B\cap Y=\emptyset$.
Tanxs
If V was not connected in O, we would have opens A, B in V (in the subspace top w.r.t. O) that are disjoint, non-empty and cover V. But then A and B are also open in the subspace topology of U: there exist opens A', B' in O that satisfy A = A' \cap V (equivalently for B) so A = (A' \cap U) \cap V and the term A' \cap U is an open subset of U by definition of the aubapace topology, so A is open in V in the subspace top w.r.t U
So this is impossible
Your definition is not quite right.
A topological space is connected if it is not the disjoint union of two open subsets.
A subset of a topological space is connected if it is a connected subspace. The property is not relative, S is not connected "in X", it's just connected.
Also the definition you wrote would imply any non-open set is connected, which would be weird.
Your definition said that S was connected if it could not be written as a union of two disjoint open sets. If S could be written as such a union S would be open
How would this implies non open subset is connected? Another equivalent definition of connected is "a space is connected if and only if its only clopen subset is empty set and itself." Consider the statement: ``if a subset $C$ is connected then there are no disjoint proper non empty subsets $A,B$ such that $C=A\cup B$. Suppose the assumption and consider contradiction. That is we take such clopen subset $O\subseteq C$ then we can make $A=C\setminus O$ and $B=O$, this complete the proof. The converse of this statement is obviously true.
Tanxs
@opaque scroll
Take for example {0, 1} in R. It cannot be written as the union of two open sets, because it's not open.
My point being that connectedness is a property of a space, not a set
You seem to have the right definition in mind. But since the definition only depends on the space, a question like V being connected in U but not in X wouldn't make sense. V is V whether it's in U or X.
But you can verify that ``a space is connected iff its only clopen subset is empty set and itself.'' With this fact we can in turn show that "a space is connected iff it cannot be union of two disjoint proper non empty subset."
Yes, both the definition you've written here are correct
I know, but considered R and its subspace Q. Singleton is connected in Q and R simultaneously and I wonder is there a counterexample
What does "connected in Q" mean?
I mean, when subspace is involved we usually add ``...in (that subspace)'' right? Like open in XX, closure in XX
If "connected in X" just means "connected", then
"connected in Q" implies "connected in R"
Because both just mean the same thing
These are things that depend on a bigger space, but connectedness does not (they are relative whilst connectedness is absolute)
Let's say $\mathbb{Q}$ with Euclidean topology and $O\subseteq \mathbb{Q}$ with subspace topology. By totally disconnected property of $\mathbb{Q}$ the cardinality of connected subset is the cardinality of $\mathbb{Q}$. What about cardinality of connected subset in $O$? Can this number bigger than cardinality of $\mathbb{Q}$?
Tanxs
A subset of O is also a subset of Q...
Like if you have a subspace of O, that's also a subspace of Q.
And if it happens to be connected, then it's a connected subspace of both
A subspace cannot have larger cardinality
I think they mean the number of subsets
Oh lol the set of connected subsets
This question encountered when I try to verify that subspace of totally disconnected space is totally disconnected. So, yeah I knew the answer is it will not bigger than cardinality of $\mathbb{Q}$ but how can we shows this is the case. My attempt is ``if there is a component $C_O(q)$ in $O$ of $q$ which is not singleton, says $C_O(q)={x,y}$ for some $y\in O$ then it will contradict the fact that $\mathbb{Q}$ is totally disconnected since $C_O(q)={x,y}$ is a connected set in $\mathbb{Q}$ ''. But I could not ensure this.
Tanxs
Oh crap I think I got it... connected subset means those subset as a subspace is connected, so yeah if it is connected in $O$ (which mean it is a subspace of $O$) then it will automatically connected in $\mathbb{Q}$ (since subspace of a subspace is also a subspace of the original space)...
Tanxs
Hello i am looking for a graphing software that can graph relation graphs and cant find one. I just need one that can plot points and connect them using differing colored line segments.
this might not be the perfect tool but quiver lets you plot points and color the segments
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
Quiver is the perfect name for such a thing
Quiver meaning “bundle of arrows”, of course
If one has a dynamical process that does not have a preferred or intrinsic underlying geometric structure, is there a way to encode something about this system using a set of points and have whatever it encodes about the dynamical process natural in a categorical sense?
I don't think this belongs here
can you recover a topological space by what each sequence in it converges to?
As in "can you characterize a topology by describing which sequences are convergent, ant to what"?
yes
In general no, for example if you consider R with the discrete and with the cocountable topology, then in both cases the only convergent sequences are eventually constant ones.
aw
You can characterize topology in this way if you generalize to nets (or filters)
But sequences as such will not suffice
ohh
(this is Willard)
I think sequences will be enough to describe a metrizable topology, but I'm not 100% on that
I was thinking of that specific case too
Apparently yes: https://mathoverflow.net/a/36382
:000
this question was basically by convenience cus I see a lot of topologies being kinda described by what mode of convergence they imply
like for function spaces yk
Yep
Convergence in measure and in L^p is in fact metrizable (or semimetrizable if you don't identify functions that only disagree or a null set)
Weak topology isn't metrizable, so I'm not sure to what extent weak convergence characterizes the weak topology
this is very convenient to know then indeed yey
:(
makes sense
I mean, the statement "a sequence converges in the weak topology if and only if <it satisfies the standard definition of weak convergence>" is still true.
But just stating the definition of weak convergence might not be enough to satisfyingly describe what the open/basic sets of the weak topology look like.
I'm reading some old ass french paper on hamornic analysis in locally compact abelian groups and I'm seeing a lot of topologies
not too lot but some
makes sense
yeah you still need nets apparently
For a metric space such that it is not necessarily true that every infinite set has a limit point, would the values that the metric take not be "smooth"? I know this is very informal but I am not sure how I would explain it... Like, the closest points aren't arbitrarily close and the space has alot of air between it
Also, is there a different notion of "compactness" (compactness as in packed together) such that we can have this fake "compactness" while allowing "some air" in between?
I'm not sure what you mean by smooth, but R seems pretty smooth and has an infinite subset without limit points.
This should just correspond to whether your metric space is compact
for some context, my question is motivated by this
aw okay I see
Are there some other measure of how much a set is "packed together"?
Well, I'm not sure what you mean exactly
hmm okay i guess sequential compactness and these other formulations
yeah sorry I guess it isn't really clear what I mean (and I don't have a clear idea of what I am asking)
Thank you!!
condensation points perhaps?
these are points where every neighborhood intersects the set uncountably many times
yes!!! something like that
but I guess this shows that the set is "highly packed"
I guess something more relaxed is useless which explains why it doesn'te exist
If we have a map f: X -> Y, an open set in Y named U, an open set in X named V such that the restriction of f to V ( which ill call f|_V ) is continuous, this implies that (f|_V)^(-1)(U) is open in V, right? Is it also true this inverse image is open in X?
V here is not defined to a a subspace of X, so the only topology to go off of are the open sets in X. So saying that (f|_V)^(-1)(U) is open in V means that this inverse image is just one of the sets that is an element of the topology of X. Is this correct? Maybe there is another way to look at this?
I say that V is not defined to be a subspace of X because this comes from a proof in a book Im looking at, and this proof is BEFORE they introduce subspaces... so hoping to piece this together without subspaces in mind.
do you mean that U is a subspace of X? or do you mean the domain restriction of f to f^{-1}(U)?
Neither U or V are defined to be subspaces. Im saying that "(f|_V)^(-1)(U)" is the inverse image of the f restricted to V acting upon U.
er
i missed where you said that V was open in X
if V is open in X then sets that are open relative to V are also open in X
There is a Proposition in the book that says exactly what you said @warped helm , but with the added condition that V is a subspace of X. 🤔
Im wondering if restricting f to V ends up working the same as calling V a subspace of X
Since (f|_V)^(-1)(U) = f^(-1)(U) n V
right
Yes. Let me post an image to makes things more clear from what the book is saying.
That statement Im talking about is right at the end there
"and is therefore also an open subset of X"
yeah so it seems they messed up the ordering of things if they havent talked about what “open subset of V_x” means
FWIW, I have gotten way further in my book and have had some introduction to subspaces, and I just happened to come back to this proof because it was referenced later on and Im stumbling at this part (tho im wondering if I ever understood this when I first read this now)
So yeah, if we assume that V_x is a subspace of X then f^(-1)(U) has to be open in X (based on the equation at the bottom of my image)
Wasnt sure if there was another way to understand this, but yeah, maybe its just an oversight in the book.
I guess since f^(-1)(U) is open in V and V is open in X, then f^(-1)(U) is open in X if V is a subspace topology (doesnt seem like f^(-1)(U) n V = (f|_V)^(-1)(U) actually proves what we want here.)
how does the book continue the proof after the last equation
since i notice there's a comma
and what is proposition 2.8(g)
is it that U is open if every point has a neighborhood contained in U
yes
then that's how they reconcile the set being open
where is this stated in the book?
The following chapter, page 49
Im still trying to process thoughts here... not totally convinced of this fact yet using the idea that all points in V_x have a neighborhood
Oh excuse me, thats where subspaces are introduced... that proposition is a little after page 51 (if that helps at all)
so the order is just wrong
So I stumbled upon an errata of the book Im looking at and there is some extra clarification for this problem:
Not sure if this topology is standard for function restrictions... but this topology isnt even quite the subspace topology (tho kinda close)
it is the subspace topology
Wait... it is? It says all open subsets of X that are contained in Y. The subspace topology is about the intersection of the subspace with open subsets of the parent space, right?
U cap Y is contained in Y
ohhhh.. right. Exercise 2.5 doesnt say Y has to be open... but the proposition does say this.
So yeah, I think you are correct.
exercise 2.5 does say Y is open
Yw
<@&268886789983436800>
Hi,what book is this from? Thanks
If I'm not mistaken that's John M Lee, Introduction to Topological Manifolds
What’s the contents page?
i think its similar to smth standard like munkres im windering more about exposition
From Hatcher's VBKT. Note that paracompact is defined as paracompact Hausdorff.
I don't understand the last part of the proof, namely the one that claimed that every varphi_gamma is supported in some V_k.
Also in the last line gamma and k are switched lmao.
Ig you could add a V_infty, and it would still be a disjoint union of opens contained in some U_alpha, right?
No, V_infty would be empty.
Wait, we're overcomplicating things, just take a new partition of unity wrt V_k 💀.
Yes it is John Lee's introduction to topological manifolds (as others pointed out) 2nd edition.
This is from munkres calculus on manifolds, I have no clue how this holds. I do have something in mind but if what I say doesn't make sense then you may ignore it.
Can I do something like taking an open cover omega of {x} X B,
then for each of the open sets consider the R^m part of the set or something which forms an open cover of B in R^m,
which gives us an finite subcover of B and then we consider the R^(m+n) versions of those sets that we took from omega,
then adjoin it with an open set in omega that contains x to finally get a finite subcover of {x} X B
then for each of the open sets consider the R^m part of the set or something
by this I mean if pi_i is a projection function then considering pi_m(W) for W in omega or smth
nvm what I had in mind is not gonna help for compactness
compactness is a topological invariant
what should x X B be homeomorphic to
the set of points (x1,...,x_m+n) where (x1,..,xn) = x and (x_n+1,....x_n+m) in B?
oh..
Yeah
Alright makes sense, ty
Also while there is practically no difference between them, R^(n+m) and (R^n) X (R^m) are different sets right
they're different sets but there's an obvious bijection between them
alright, thanks
product of compact sets is compact
Here they were basically building up some theory to prove that only
i see
Ah yes, using Tychonoff to prove that {*}xK is compact.
.
You dont necessarily need tychonoff since its just a finite product
Still, the meme applies.
is a cinema compact
Depends, is it complete?
Maybe it's not metrisable though
who is that 💀
Serge Lang
So something Ive been grappling with is when Im asked to show that 2 topologies are equal. In my head there are 2 routes for this. Let my 2 topologies be T1 and T2
1.) The sort of "set theory inclusion approach." Show T1 includes T2 and vice versa to show that T1 = T2 (so they have all the same elements)
2.) The homeomorphism approach. Show there exists a homeomorphism between T1 and T2
To me, #1 means these 2 topologies are literally the same thing (same elements). #2 feels like a lesser condition where the elements might be different, but they "behavior" the same way (I know Im packing a lot of details into the word behavior here...)
Anyone have thoughts that might help with these perspectives?
My motivation right now is that Ive been asked to show that Product Topologies are "associative." In other words, I need to show that X1 x X2 x X3 is "equal" to X1 x (X2 x X3) etc etc...
At the moment, it feels like I can't actually use the #1 approach because that would mean Im trying to say elements of the form (a,b,c) are exactly the same as elements of the form (a, (b,c))... which are not structurally the same (even though I just want to say they are the same and it seems kinda trivial)
So I guess Im sorta "stuck" with using method #2 where I make a homeomorphism using canonical projections to map between these different things.
Am I approaching this correctly, or am I being dense?
You’ve identified a good distinction here
My preferred approach would be to use the universal property here
Approach 1 can’t work
Approach 2 can, but often you want something a little stronger than “they are homeomorphic”
You want them to be homeomorphic by some canonical map
Are you familiar with the universal property of the product?
Maybe that is the same thing as the "Characteristic Property of the Product Topology?"
It’s likely similar, but let me state the version I like
Given two topological spaces A and B, what the product space A x B “does” is the following
If you have a continuous map $f : Z \to A \times B$, then you can unpackage it to a pair of continuous maps $g : Z \to A$ and $h : Z \to B$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
By writing $f(z) = (g(z), h(z))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
And the reverse is also true - if you have a pair of continuous maps $g : Z \to A$ and $h : Z \to B$, you can package them into a continuous map $f : Z \to A \times B$ defined by $f(z) = (g(z), h(z))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So, what the product topology “does” is let you package and unpackage continuous maps
In a natural way
Yeah, that seems to agree with the definition I have on my end. So composing a homeomorphism using this idea is probably the best I can do, right?
Well, you can approach it in a neater way
There’s a general result from category theory which says that if two objects “do” the same thing, then they are isomorphic
So what you can do is the following
Take an arbitrary topological spaces $Z$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then continuous maps $Z \to (A \times B) \times C$ naturally correspond to pairs of continuous maps $Z \to A \times B, Z \to C$, right?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
By the universal property
But those naturally correspond to triples of continuous maps $Z \to A, Z \to B, Z \to C$, again by the universal property
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I’ve just “unpackaged” the map Z -> A x B
Now we can start doing some repackaging
These naturally correspond to pairs of continuous maps $Z \to A, Z \to B \times C$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Which naturally correspond to continuous maps $Z \to A \times (B \times C)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Did you follow all that?
Yeah, I think I do follow the high level thoughts here, I suppose Im not confident in the rigor here (though I believe you)
I don’t blame you for being a little concerned about the rigor
The missing piece is defining what “natural” means here
Have you come across this notion beforehand?
Once you do, this argument is fully rigorous
Natural being similar to the word Canonical?
I have zero experience with Category theory, but it sounds interesting 😄
Kind of, but in this case it has a formal meaning!
You should intuitively think of “naturality” as a categorification of “orthogonality/independence”
You have two different operations that are “independent of/orthogonal to” each other, in the sense that the order in which you apply them doesn’t matter and gives you the same result
For example, algebraic structures have “internal” operations like the group operation, and “external” transformations like homomorphisms
They aren't the same, for method 2 what you want to do is show that specifically the identity map is a homeomorphism
These are independent of/orthogonal to each other, because f(xy) = f(x) f(y)
Of course if two topological spaces are homeomorphic that's it's own thing, but for showing two topologies on the same set are equal it's not sufficient
In fact, homomorphisms are defined to be orthogonal to the internal structure of your algebraic objects
Another good example is precomposition and postcomposition
Associativity tells you that $(f \circ g) \circ h = f \circ (g \circ h)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
You can view this as saying that postcomposition (by f) and precomposition (by h) are orthogonal/independent operations
You get the same result regardless of the order in which you apply them
Do those examples make sense?
I definitely need to take a second to digest these thoughts! I gotta run to work but I will be back 😄
Ok
Ok, yeah what you are saying definitely makes sense, now that I had a bit to think about it. Thanks for shedding some light on Category Theory related fun.
For the specific example I highlighted above, I dont believe I can use an identity map here. I think the best I can do is have some canonical projections to construct a homeomorphism.
To me, an identity map is one that outputs w.e input is given to the map. So if Id is our identity map, and x is an elements of (X1 x X2) x X3, then Id(x) is another element of (X1 x X2) x X3 and NOT an element of X1 x X2 x X3.
Maybe canonical projections fall under the umbrella of what you mean by identity? (so a homeomorphism that is composed of canonical projections really DOES mean 2 topologies are equal?)
yeah for product topologies the topology would not be equal
so you would need to exhibit a homeomorphism
Thank you!
So we can relate this to the product topology now
The key idea is that packaging/unpackaging is orthogonal to/independent of precomposition
So if I have $g : Z \to A$ and $h : Z \to B$ and $\alpha : W \to Z$, then $(g, h) \circ \alpha = (g \circ \alpha, h \circ \alpha)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Can you see why this is true?
Are there any steps to seeing why those 2 concepts are independent?
you just need to check the equality of functions
by which i mean, demonstrate that $\forall w \in W, (g, h) \circ \alpha = (g \circ \alpha, h \circ \alpha)(w)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I haven't thought through exactly how to accomplish that, but that seems reasonable.
it's mostly just unfolding definitions
you know that the definition of function composition is $(\beta \circ \gamma)(x) := \beta(\gamma(x))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and the definition of packaging is $(g, h)(x) := (g(x), h(x))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Ah yeah, I think I see this coming together. Question for you, I like to really dig into a subject when I'm learning, so do you have any recs for intro category theory books? I'm a self learner if that gives you some perspective.
Awodey's "category theory" is great
anyway, the formal proof goes as follows
$(g, h) \circ \alpha = (g, h)(\alpha(w)) = (g(\alpha(w)), h(\alpha(w))) = ((g \circ \alpha)(w), (h \circ \alpha)(w)) = (g \circ \alpha, h \circ \alpha)(w)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
since this holds for all $w \in W$, we obtain $(g, h) \circ \alpha = (g \circ \alpha, h \circ \alpha)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so packaging commutes with/is orthogonal to/is independent of precomposition
intuitively, packaging happens on the codomain side, while precomposition happens on the precomposition side
unpackaging also commutes with precomposition, but this is a little easier to show
if you have $f : Z \to A \times B$, then the unpackaged functions are just $\pi_A \circ f : Z \to A, \pi_B \circ f : Z \to B$, for $\pi_A : A \times B \to A$ and $\pi_B : A \times B \to B$ the projection functions
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so this boils down to associativity
$\pi_A \circ (f \circ \alpha) = (\pi_A \circ f) \circ \alpha$, and similarly $\pi_B \circ (f \circ \alpha) = (\pi_B \circ f) \circ \alpha$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
does that all make sense?
Hello everyone,
I have been trying to construct a countable topological space (base space is countable) that is not first countable, but I have not made much progress so far. I can see that this isn't possible in metric spaces and I also tried to exploit some necessary consequences of first countability, but they seem harder to use constructively than the definition itself.
A small hint or nudge in the right direction would be very much appreciated.
I'd probably pick a point and try to construct an uncountable set of subsets containing the point such that no subset contains another
idk if that's possible but
that's probably where I'd start
and then if you can do that, maybe try to build a topology from that
Ok Ok, i was also thinking something similar to declare all sets around a point to be open..( i mean not singletons)
yeah the problem with that is that then every set around the point contains the singleton, so you have a finite base
@lament steppe so we can go through this argument again
When i say “naturally”, you can read that more formally as “commutes with precomposition”
And all of those statements hold rigorously because we’ve shown packaging and unpackaging commute with precomposition, hence are “natural” operations
The upshot is that we have a natural bijective correspondence between continuous maps $Z \to (A \times B) \times C$ and $Z \to A \times (B \times C)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Not only are these sets in bijection, but the bijections we use commute with precomposition
Do you agree with all of that @lament steppe ?
This means you want to construct unctbl sets of disjoint sets in a ctbl space which isn't possible right? (Actually finite intersections is possible but not disjoint).
The construction that I was looking for has one example as Arens-Fort space (as given in Steen and Seebach)
They don't need to be disjoint
I think this is kinda what happens for the fort space
oh. I thought when you said no subset contains another, you meant almost disjoint, except the point in context, but that would be same as saying it is disjoint because this would imply the we get an unctbl family of disjoint things.
Here's the example....
a family of sets can each not contain each other while still having a lot of overlap, for example the sets $\mathbb{N}\setminus{k}$ for $k\in\mathbb{N}$ almost completely overlap but none of them contain another
Blake
anyway I think the fort space construction is a bit better because it proves non-first countability using a concrete sequence example
a simpler example, imo, is \omega_1 + 1 with the order topology, where \omega_1 is the first uncountable ordinal
That's not countable though
Guys, that existence of Z_{i} confuses me; it says it's because of the topology of the subspace.
the subspace topology on a subset S of a topological space X is given by {U cap S : U open in X}
Yeah pretty much. I feel a tad out of my element because there is a lot here and category theory seems a bit intimidating, but I think I grasp what you are saying!
The final step is using what’s called the yoneda lemma
You can think of it as saying precomposition and postcomposition are “orthogonal complements”
We have a map taking $f : Z \to (A \times B) \times C$ to $f^T : Z \to A \times (B \times C)$ which commutes with precomposition, meaning $(f \circ g)^T = f^T \circ g$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
But that means $f^T = (\text{id}{(A \times B) \times C} \circ f)^T = (\text{id}{(A \times B) \times C})^T \circ f$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
In other words, “being orthogonal to precomposition” is equivalent to “being postcomposition by a fixed map”
Similarly, we have our map $g : Z \to A \times (B \times C)$ to $g^T : Z \to (A \times B) \times C$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Which has to take the form $g^T = (\text{id}_{A \times (B \times C)}^T) \circ g$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Then, we know that $(f^T)^T = f$, since these correspondences are inverse to each other
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
That means $(\text{id}{A \times (B \times C)})^T \circ (\text{id}{(A \times B) \times C})^T \circ f = f$ for every $f : Z \to (A \times B) \times C$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Applying this to $f = \text{id}{(A \times B) \times C}$, we obtain $(\text{id}{A \times (B \times C)})^T \circ (\text{id}{(A \times B) \times C})^T = \text{id}{(A \times B) \times C}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Similarly, using $(g^T)^T = g$, we obtain $(\text{id}{(A \times B) \times C})^T \circ (\text{id}{A \times (B \times C)})^T = \text{id}_{(A \times B) \times C}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
So this gives us the isomorphism between the two spaces! And completes the proof
Lmk if you have any Qs @lament steppe
i like Pseudo's approach, in fact, this is my preferred method too, but it might feel like it has a high barrier to entry, just because of all the categorical jargon. i know that is how i felt when i first started learning category theory, at least.
your method 1.) only works with two topologies defined on the same set. but, as you have noted, (X1 x X2) x X3 and X1 x (X2 x X3) are not the same sets, so approach 1 isn't even applicable!
method 2 is really the only way to go, as far as topology is concerned. "equal" in this context really means homeomorphic. you could potentially have this same discrepancy when working with, say, groups. two groups are literally equal if they have the same set of elements and the same group multiplication, but two groups can be isomorphic without having the same underlying sets, e.g., Z and 2Z are isomorphic as groups, but 2Z contains only the even integers.
here is a more elementary approach:
there is a function a : X1 x (X2 x X3) -> (X1 x X2) x X3 given by a(x1,(x2,x3)) = ((x1,x2),x3). we want to show that this map a is continuous. my advice would be to write a as a composition of continuous functions.
there are a few functions here that we know are continuous:
- the projections X x Y -> X and X x Y -> Y are always continuous,
- if f : X -> Y and g : W -> Z are continuous, then the product function f x g : X x W -> Y x Z is continuous
- if f : Z -> X and g : Z -> Y are continuous, then the function (f,g) : Z -> X x Y is continuous (this is the characteristic property)
you can use these facts to decompose a as a composition of continuous functions.
a has an obvious inverse, and you can decompose this inverse into continuous functions in a similar manner
Thanks for clarifying! What you have outlined here is essentially what I have worked out on my end (tho I was definitely taking for granted the 3rd bullet pt when constructing my homeomorphism so its nice to be able to point that out in my proof.)
This might be a nicer approach actually
The main thing for my approach is understanding naturality
Would you say that’s the main piece of “categorical jargon” i introduced?
Are connected hausdorff spaces necessarily path connected? Context, I'm trying to construct a path between any two points in a (connected component) of a smooth manifold
I don’t think so
No
The standard topologist’s sine curve should work
Yeah that would do it
That is possible to do
But it does need “locally path connected” (which is implied by manifold)
yea, i also didn’t mean this as a jab either ha
Oh dw I didn’t think it was
but yea, this was how i showed that a few categories were monoidal,
i.e., that the associator is natural
connected + locally path connected => path connected. my fav proof of this is via chain connectedness
I like the proof that goes let U be the set of points reachable by x. U is clopen. We win.
(Clopen and nonempty)
I mean yeah.
does this proof work? im not very used to working with nets so id appreciate any feedback
hello how do you get that x U contains at most finitely many x_i ?
and what do you define as a chain? you mean x_a, x_b, x_c, x_d form a chain if a <= b <= c <= d in your directed set I ?
thats the part I dont understand sorry
by definition, a convergent subnet is one where every neighborhood of some limit contains infinitely long chains of (x_i)
i think?
no that doesnt sound correct to me
hmm i mean the definition im working with is that x_i converges to x if the net is eventually in every neighborhood of x
yeah
so if the net is eventually in U, then it contains an infinitely long chain? since there exists some a such that for every b>=a, x_b is in U
do you know what this word "cofinal" means in directed sets?
J is cofinal subset in I iff for every i in I there is some j in J with i <= j
so for example the odd numbers is cofinal in N
yeah im familiar
but N is not cofinal in N U {+infty}
Im just thinking because I dont see how this relates to what you are saying, subnets have to be cofinal like if you wanna restrict x_i to some set J in I then J has to be cofinal to call x_j a subnet
anyway I found it easier to do a direct proof of this exercise, with nets that is
but I wanna try without nets awell just pure open set
i guess just saying that G = K^{-1}K is compact works
oh that's neat
$K \times K$ is compact, and then you use continuous images of compact sets are compact?
smart
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yes
since the map $(a, b) \mapsto a^{-1} b$ is continuous
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
indeed
this honestly feels more illuminating than the net proof
yeah idk why this didnt cross my mind in the first attempt
you might be interested in the concept of "filter quantifiers"
they help formalise this notion of eventually/frequently
Let $D$ be a directed set, and $p : D \to {0, 1}$ be a predicate on this set
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
we say that $p$ holds $\textit{eventually}$ if and only if $\exists d \in D, \forall x \geq d, p(x) = 1$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
we say that $p$ holds $\textit{frequently}$ if and only if $\forall d \in D, \exists x \geq d, p(x) = 1$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
you can think of these as generalisations of $\forall$ and $\exists$ in the context of the directed set
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i see, interesting. thanks 
for example, the convergent sequence definition may be stated as follows
using $\mathbb{N}$ as your directed set
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
$x_n \to L \iff \forall \epsilon > 0, |x_n - L| < \epsilon \text{ eventually }$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
where you can notice that the statement "|x_n - L| < epsilon" is a predicate on N
some useful general properties of these quantifiers are the following
- if p holds eventually and p implies q, then q holds eventually
- if p holds eventually and q holds eventually, the predicate "p and q" holds eventually
- if p holds frequently and p implies q, then q holds frequently
- if the predicate "p or q" holds frequently, then either p holds frequently or q holds frequently
a "cluster point" of a net $(x_\bullet)$ defined on a directed set $D$ is a point $c$ such that, for every neighbourhood $N$ of $c$, $x_\alpha \in N$ frequently
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this is the same as a limit of a convergent subnet
beware that, for sequences, being a limit of a convergent subsequence is strictly stronger than being a cluster point, in general
the slogan is that limits capture the eventual behaviour of a sequence up to an $\epsilon$ of room
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
one thing i'm curious about
do you think there's a way to communicate the idea of naturality without needing to introduce new jargon?
its the idea of there being a "canonical" way to go from F(X) to G(Y) if there is a "transformation" η : F ⟹ G and a morphism f : F → G
though fill in all this in with the context youre trying to explain it in
hmm. im not satisfied with cannonicity
what i mean is: given this information there seems like there would be two obvious ways to get from one to the other
naturality says that these two obvious ways are, in fact, the same
think you mean f : X -> Y here
lmao whoops
all good
Me neither
it is a deceptively hard question lmao
naturality and products are really closely related
i almost want to say that if you understand product categories and maps out of product categories, you understand naturality
the homotopy perspective might be a good way to communicate it without introducing new jargon.
feels like a lot of people are familiar with that idea
(I’m biased but I agree with this)
like, yea, at face value, this is what a natural transformation does
but i don't think it gets across the idea of naturality?
it doesn't give me the impression that there is some mental model that i can create/latch onto with this
Just speaking from personal experience, I think this can work with a little more depth to the idea
Saying it’s a homotopy alone didn’t work for me because it felt too “discrete” to be one
yeah i was thinking about this but i felt it would be too much jargon lol
Since to me homotopy = continuous transformation
i felt this way when i learned about chain homotopies
But if you talk a little about viewing categories as geometric objects, it makes more sense
yea
In that sense, commutative squares are the “filled in” squares
was just about to say this
How would that work in this example though
we had a convo about this a while back
i believe
One important flavour of category is “morphisms generalise functions”
But I’d say an equally important and vastly underemphasised flavour is “morphisms generalise paths”
Viewing categories as a kind of combinatorial model for a directed space
and looking at finer and finer homotopies of paths (higher homotopies) corresponds to going upwards in the hierarchy of n-categories
Mhm
It’s to the extent that I’m tempted to introduce categories this way rather than the standard approach
At least, it feels a bit more compelling to me
just to be clear, you are talking about the natural isomorphism Hom(Z,X x Y) <-> Hom(Z,X) x Hom(Z,Y)?
Yes
I feel like using “homotopy” here might only lead to further confusion
Because it’s in a topological context so there is a genuine topological notion of homotopy
yea, that is definitely a concern
this one has the added difficulty of being a presheaf
we can work in the opposite category, of course, but still
im not sure tbh
then the concerns would become ncerns
would it be a better idea to learn topology (point set) first or measure theory?
point set topology
ty 👍
do open covers need to be given by proper subsets?
or if X is a topological space can I just say that {X} is an open cover of X
Yep
yay
It usually won't be a particularly useful open cover, but it is a valid open cover
yeah
In point-set topology and analysis in general; "subset" typically doesn't mean "proper subset" unless specified
The default inclusion relation is usually weak.
yeah I was looking at the wiki page and it used \subset instead of \subseteq or \subsetneq so just wanted to make sure
Yep \subset in topology almost always means weak inclusion
got it ty
How do I show this defined metric is finite? I don't want use the completeness of R here
Cauchy sequences are bounded
this is an important part of the usual proof of cauchy completeness of R
cauchy sequence => bounded
bounded sequence => convergent subsequence
and then cauchy sequence + convergent subsequence => convergent sequence
If I have a basis for my topology can I write every open set as an arbitrary union of finite intersections of those basis elements?
yes
Cool
Ah nice, I was gonna use that to abstract out the intersections
Didn't realize that worked in general rather than in my specific case
being able to write every open set as a union of basis sets is what being a basis is
or at least its equivalent
Coolio, ty
As bussy beaver points out, if it's a basis then you can express any open set as just union of basis sets; the description you're providing characterizes a subbasis
Also conversely, if you start with any family of sets, then their finite intersections form a basis of a topology (which is the smallest topology containing your starting sets)
Good to know. I'm working on Alg Geo right now and right now the fact I haven't done a proper topology review in like a year is really working against me
but bounded sequence implies convergent subsequence doesn't need completness of R?
sorry, i don't get it
how boundness helps me here
i have to show d(x_n, y_n) has limit
Both the sequences x_n and y_n and bounded on account of being Cauchy
yes
So what can you say about the distance between two bounded things?
i know d(x_n, y_n) is cauchy
Then what's the problem?
but i don't want to use the completenss of R
Hm the proof i know of does
this actually is equivalent to completness
It finds a monotonic subsequence, and then uses the monotone convergence theorem
And that requires completeness cause you use a sup or an inf
you can take that as an axiom but its equal to completness
Yeah there are lots of equivalent forms of completeness
One of the weirder variants i know is the intermediate value theorem
why ‘weird’? i think its perfectly natural
well
i suppose as a starting point it is a bit strange
i suppose in a roundabout way you can prove that whatever the convergent subsequence converges, the original sequence must converge to as well
So how do I show that metric is well defined?
Take two equivalent sequences and write out the definition of the metric I guess
Because if I want to construct R from Q so then how can I use that metric if it is not finite?
I want to show the metric is finite
I mean lim d(x_n, y_n) exists
Then use that the sequences are Cauchy
I.e. write out what that means to get a bound
okay then?