#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 135 of 1
oh i guess it could be
i was thinking in the wrong direction
you can go from pseudometric to metric by quotienting
My favorite example is taking R^2 and taking the quotient which sends the open unit ball to a single point. Then this space is not even Hausdorf
i see
how do you show that the space isn't pseudometrizable?
If you let p be the squashed open ball, and q be a point on the unit circle, then p has a neighborhood that doesn't include q -- namely {p} -- but every neighborhood of q includes p.
Thus neither d(p,q)=0 nor d(p,q)>0 are possible.
I think something is pseudometrizable iff you get something metrizable after identifying indistinguishable points.
So for example having distinguishable points that can't be separated would be an obstruction
does the poincare conjecture work for (>3)-d spheres?
Yes, and the proof is very cool for d>4.
what about d=4
The proof for d>4 was by Smale using h-cobordisim. It is a really cool proofe.
The case d=4 was by Freedman though I don't know what his methods are.
@queen prism why the sweat? this is an extremely obvious followup question
The number 4 makes every dif topologist sweat
what's so bad about it?
many theorems that work in every other dimension break down for d = 4 because it's right on the line between low- and high-dimensional geometry/topology
allegedly this has something to do with the fact that 4 = 2 + 2 = 2 * 2 = 2^2 = …
it's because 4 is the number of death
For d>4 spaces can be too complex but there's enough room to do stuff
for d<4 spaces can be "simple" even if there's no room to do stuff
For d=4 everything is hard and there's no room for anything
My favorite d=4 fact is that R^d admits only one smoth structure iff d≠4, and for d=4 it admits infinitely many.
I read about this in Loring Tu's book but I still have no idea what it means 🥀
means if you take two overlapping smooth charts from two different smooth structures on R^4 they will never be compatible
(that is to say you cannot smoothly transform one coordinate system into the other)
no i mean I get that
its just that I haven't got the point where I've come across that theorem yet so just trying think about how that would be the case breaks my mind a little
It is probably better to understand the exotic sphere case in Milnor's famous article "on manifolds homeomorphic to the 7-sphere"
I don't know much about 4-manifold. But in this case I think these is a clear example of how this phenomena presents. Basically it is saying that you can "parametrizes" smoth structures in some way while showing that them being homeomorphic is easy to prove using some condition. In this case Milnor uses Reeb spheres.
I wonder if this comes down to a difference in terminology, because the way I learned it (from lee) there are infinitely many smooth structures on any R^d, say, the two on R^1 generated by the atlases (atlii) A = {(x -> x)} and {(x -> x^3)}
but in every R^d except for R^4, they are diffeomorphic to one another
I did read that people on this server consider his definition of a smooth structure a bit sus
I mean, yeah, being more technical I should have added "up to diffeomorphism".
(I'm doing a lot of complex geometry and seeing x->x^3 being an atlas made my brain hurt)
There's probably a way to talk about "maximal atlas" and taking some sort of equivalence classes. Honestly, I wouldn't think about it that much.
what happens with x^3 in complex geometry?
I mean, z^3 is not inyective in the complex plane
oh true
Like, I think the word is "compatible atlas", but i don't know the technical details
I don't think that's equivalent. Otherwise a smooth structure on a connected manifold would be uniquely determined by any single chart which is surely not the case
Y is compact. Pi: X cross Y to X is closed map idk how to do this by lmtube lemma
just by definition really
Prove the complement is open using the pointwise def
of the image of a closed set I should say
So wikipedia says that the neighborhoods of x have to contain at least one open neighborhood of x in order for the space to be locally connected at x. If I'm trying to determine the local connectivity of a subset S of the plane, then the "open neighborhood" only needs to be open with respect to S itself, right?
Ie, consider a unit square in the plane, S. S is intuitively locally connected at its corners.
I can select the first neighborhood N1 as a closed disc with radius 0.1. This neighborhood is closed with respect to the plane, however it is plain not a subset of S.
Then I can select the "open neighborhood" N2 as the intersection of a tiny, open disc and S? Yielding a quarter disc. Which doesn't contain the tiny disc's part of the boundary but does contain the points that were on S's boundary.
With respect to the plane, N2 is neither open nor closed. But its plain open with respect to S, right?
And this is the "open" the wikipedia definition of local connectivity needs? For every neighborhood N1 around x, theres a neighborhood N2 of x which is a subset of N1 and open with respect to S?
or where am i going wrong lol
This definition of "locally connected" is for an entire space, not for a subset of the space. You can view your unit square as a space in itself if you give it the subspace topology -- that means you've forgotten the rest of R², and your N2 open according to the subspace topology.
So it doesn't look like you're going wrong.
so a similar argument can prove that the red region inherits a subspace topology that is locally connected? At any point in the red, there will exist a disc open in the plane that, when intersected with the red, will still be open in the red? Which always indicates an eligible N2?
Now this seemingly implies that the union of the open disc and some subset of the unit circle is always locally connected in the inherited subspace topology, which feels weird but i guess is fair enough.
Yes, those examples are locally connected.
There are spaces that are connected but not locally connected, but they need to be weirder than this. The standard examples would be the comb space and the Warsaw circle.
if anything, ive been messing around with the inverse, lol. I've basically been trying to figure out a good way to specify subsets of the plane that have nonzero area and are sufficiently "nice", but ive been trying to not impose pretty much any restriction on the boundaries.
Ie any filled jordan curve would be good, any interior of a filled jordan curve would be good. Any disjoint pair of filled jordan curves would be good. The epigraph of y=x^2 would be good. Any points of the boundary can be taken out and still be good.
Perhaps you'd want a condition such as "the interior of the closure of A is the interior of A"?
"And nonempty" would be a useful addition, since 'non-zero' area was desired requirement
For the purposes of this question, a manifold is defined to be Hausdorff (so no line with two origins) and paracompact (so no long line).
Every differentiable manifold can be realized as a subset of R^n for some n, hence is not just Hausdorff, but actually perfectly normal (T6).
Can a mere topological or piecewise linear manifold fail to be perfectly normal?
you can embed any topological m-manifold in R^{2m + 1}
It works for topological manifolds too? I knew it worked for differnetiable manifolds because Whitney.
yea, some dimension theory stuff i think
I guess it's nice, but also a little disappointing. I want to know in what ways topological manifolds can defy expectations set by differentiable manifolds.
this is from Munkres topology
Thanks!
Is every subspace of R^n T6? I don't think subspaces generally inherit separation axioms, but maybe it's the case for T6 spaces?
At least every subspace of R^n is T5, because T5 is a hereditary property.
I see
tbh I have given up trying to keep track of separation axioms, and it doesn't help that all of them have multiple names 
And they have stupid names. "Perfectly normal", "completely normal", "normally perfect" etc. etc... And apparently perfect sets don't have anything to do with perfect spaces 😭
I think any metric space is T6
So yes
At the very least, every closed subspace of a T6 space is again T6.
a space $X$ is T6 iff its T1 and for every closed subset $A\subseteq X$ there is a continuous function $f:X\to[0,1]$ with $f^{-1}(0)=A$. Then if $Y\subseteq X$ is a subspace and $A\subseteq Y$ is closed, we have $A=E\cap Y$ for some closed set $E\subseteq X$. Pick a function $f:X\to[0,1]$ with $f^{-1}(0)=E$. Then $f|_A^{-1}(0)=A$
Blake
Ah, I didn't know that characterization of T6 spaces.
wikipedia supports this
the last sentence says that perfect normality is hereditary, so every subspace of a perfectly normal space is perfectly normal
so what exactly would a cotopology be like
I think there's multiple non-equivalent definitions depending on how you define a topology on a set(even tho the meanings for a topology are equivalent)
a cotopology is a collection of closed sets, that is closed under arbitrary intersection, finite union, and has the empty set and the entire set
You could for example define a topology on X as a subset of Hom(X, {0, 1}) which is closed under the binary operation f+g(x)=min{f(x), g(x)}, and the arbitrary operation taking a set of morphisms from X to {0, 1} to their maximums point-wise, and it contains both constant morphisms
Idk how to phrase that more... categorically?
Then you could probably reverse some arrows and whatnot
ok let's state the question more properly
what type of object's category would correspond to the dual category of topologies
with the morphisms between those types of objects being at least somewhat function-like (so a function preserving something or whatever, a homomorphism you know)
Gelfand duality seems to be the closest thing I can find to what you're asking, but that's a subcategory of Top
A bit off-topic for a channel called point-set topology, but the category of point-free spaces (aka locales) is usually built by first constructing its opposite (i.e., the category of frames) and then dualizing. A locale is the same thing as a frame, but a morphism of locales is a morphism of frames in the opposite direction.
I treat this as if it's the default topology channel smh smh
Any hint for part b?
these are free homotopies, so the base points can move
can you topologically define differentiability? i made an attempt but it's probably wrong.
Not really, at least by what I would understand by "topologically", since you can have non-differentiable homeomorphisms etc
Any definition has to interact with various smooth structures
circular logic...
How is that circular logic lol
MY ATTEMPT WAS
Ah lol
basically THIS FUNCTION GRAPH IS DIFFERENTIABLE IF ITS A SMOOTH MANIFOLD but there was more.
Whyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyyy
töpölögy
not really, differentiability is fundamentally about linearity and you don't have any notion of linearity in a topological space
yeah what i did was not only circular logic, it didn't even involve TOPOLOGY.
the graph of x^1/3 is a smooth manifold yet x^1/3 is not differentiable at 0
(if you don't believe me it's a smooth manifold, rotate the graph by 90 degrees and look at it again)
What's the joke lol
manifold just likes to laugh at his own messages
based tbh
Clopencry
Maybe I'm missing something super obvious, but I've no clue what the retraction here is supposed to be... never heard the term "projecting from a point", only projecting as in projection onto a factor. The image isn't really clearing much up for me either. Anyone know what retraction is meant here?
$J^{n-1}$ here is ${1}\times{I}^{n-1}\cup{}I\times\partial{}I^{n-1}$
colimit
the radial projection from the origin is a function R^{n + 1} \ {0} —> S^n taking x to x/|x|
does that help?
Oh ok I think I get it now
It maps a point on the n+1-cube to the unique point the line from P to that point meets the subspace right?
yea
for another example, there is a radial projection that gives rise to a retract of the solid cylinder D x I to (D x {0}) U (S^1 x I)
you project from a point above the cylinder, on its centerline
That one's pretty easy to visualize too
thanks
LicensedDumbass
so in the discrete topology a set is not compact iff it is infinite
so it is enough to show that if a set is infinite then whatever ultrafilter it can be found in has to have a finite set
but then if an ultrafilter consists of only infinite elements you can definitely enlarge it into a bigger filter by adding a finite element (finite subset of any arbitrary thing inside your filter), so it cant be an ultrafilter.
so this is the basic issue, the resultant topology is not compact iff you can find a noncompact open set that has no compact open subsets
so there are some non discrete topologies that still work to make the resultant topology compact (any topology on a finite set for instance), discreteness is just a condition that absolutely guarantees this @crimson terrace
also, I don't think X not being discrete implies that beta(X) is not the SC compactification
Sorry I don't think I understand what you mean by "whatever ultrafilter it can be found in... End of msg"
Yea I'm not sure about that
What I was trying to say that it's necessarily true
Like an infinite set can't be in an ultrafilter no?
no
can you restate to me how the topology on beta(X) is defined again
that might help
By specifying the base opens to be [A] where [A] is the set of all ultrafilters containing A
in the case of the discrete topology there is a better description, can you do it
ok let me think of how to say this lol
Because we've only talked of filters containing finite sets
Hmm okay yeah I guess a filter can include an infinite set
wait, base open?
Like the basis of our topology
no no no, that doesn't sound like the right definition to me
because if you define those sets to be the base open sets then beta(X) is homeomorphic to X when X is discrete
i am confused, someone has made a mistake
Only if X is finite
I am unconvinced, you are defining the principal ultrafilters to be open
I mean
pretty sure its like that everywhere
so with this definition, if X is infinite discrete then beta(X) is never compact
I am pretty sure we proved this here
on an intuitive level, the reason is that for discrete spaces an ultrafilter converges to a point iff its a principal ultrafilter
so when you form beta X you only adding what is needed
okay yes I got that
and beta(X) adds a point for those free ultrafilters
but adding those points, wouldn't it give rise to some extra ultrafilters?
whereas for instance [0,1] is compact but it has tons and tons and tons of free ultrafilters
so when you form the set of ultrafilters its just gonna be massive
yes but the topology on the stone cech compactification is designed in such a way that it forces the space to be compact
in particular it isn't discrete
hmm can you maybe elaborate on how?
Because I tried to look at beta(beta(X)) but it gets messy real quick
my favorite way uses some functional analysis, im not sure if there's an easier way
looking at beta(beta(X)) is not the right way
I guess there's a proof up there
I figured
let me remember the definition of the stone topology
Open sets are pebbles and
Is this some Hanh-Bannach idea?
not quite, you can identify the stone-cech compactification with the set of multiplicative linear functionals from C_b(X) to the complex numbers
together with the weak* topology
and then by Banach-Alaoglu its more or less immediate that the stone-cech compactification is compact and hausdorff
if X is discrete, say $\mathbb{N}$ to be concrete, then $C_b(X)=\ell^\infty\mathbb{N}$ is just the space of bounded sequences
Blake
Hmm so
When X is discrete, our compactification is adding points for those free ultrafilters, which turn out to be not much, and even after adding them, the excess ultrafilters still converge to some of those points
When X isn't discrete, this (always?) goes wrong because this addition of ultrafilters becomes too much (how? is it because the new ultrafilters made by the extra points end up not converging?)
when X isn't discrete, you are adding too many ultrafilters basically, far too many
the idea is that intuitively a free ultrafilter should correspond to a "place where a sequence can escape to infinity"
however this is only true for discrete spaces
since for a space with a topology, its possible for free ultrafilters to converge
but on a discrete space, free ultrafilters never converge
so every free ultrafilter corresponds to a "point at infinity" in some sense
ahhh okay I see I see
and when we quotient out with the Hausdorff quotient for any topological space, we are relating those escaping to the same "infinity"
well you don't need to quotient if X is discrete
perhaps I'm misunderstanding what you mean though
Sorry let me make it more clear
if X is not discrete, we end up adding far too many
what the haudorff quotient does is relate two filters that diverge to the same infinity point
then every multiplicative linear functional $\varphi:\ell^\infty\mathbb{N}\to\mathbb{C}$ corresponds in a natural way to an ultrafilter on $\mathbb{N}$: Let $A\subseteq\mathbb{N}$, and consider the characteristic function (or characteristic sequence I suppose) $1_A$. Since $\varphi$ is multiplicative, we have $\varphi(1_A)=\varphi(1_A)^2$ which implies $\varphi(1_A)\in{0,1}$. Then you can show the set of all subsets $A$ with $\varphi(1_A)=1$ forms an ultrafilter.
Blake
oh I might not be aware of this hausdorff quotient thing
let me send a ss
suppose that X is infinite discrete.
Then for every point in X, its principal ultrafilter is open, and the singleton {x} is contained in a principal ultrafilter iff the principal element is x.
So if i take the union over all the principal ultrafilters, then that is an infinite open cover for beta(X) that has no finite subcover.
what am I misunderstanding?
is this a way of taking a quotient of the set of ultrafilters to obtain the stone-cech compactification
yep!
ah yes then you're exactly right
you're basically fixing the issue of adding too many ultrafilters
any ultrafilter that converges to x in X should be identified with the principal ultrafilter I believe
yeah that makes sense and is quite a nice intuition I think
the set of principal ultrafilters does not cover beta(X)
unless X is finite
I see I see that makes a lot of sense
When we say going to a point of infinity, we are just saying no convergences. Now, the way classify if two ultrafilters go to the same infinity point is by checking for all compact hausdorff where f^tilde goes to
yeah
is there a specific reason we are checking only compact hausdorff spaces?
and the reason the stone-cech compactification is the "largest" compactification is b/c you are adding "all possible points at infinity"
I guess my intuition tells me that they are the only relevant ones but yeah
oh fuck, I know why I made the mistake I reversed the inclusion on the poset of open sets
you can justify it via the universal property, or another way to see it is that compact hausdorff spaces kinda "classify convergence" in some sense
thats a bit vague though let me think about it for a second
I see so other extreme is the one point compactification where we group all limit points that are not in the set at a single point *
yeah exactly
That would be great
well for one it certainly is enough to do the thing I mentioned earlier
that is, if Q is an ultrafilter on X that converges to some point x
then f(Q) will be equal to f(F_x) where F_x is the principal ultrafilter at x
and f is any function into a compact hausdorff space
ah ok ehre's why
pushing forward an ultrafilter is only really well defined for compact hausdorff spaces
f here is f^tilde? the pushforward of the filter defined by f
yeah
OHHHHHHHHH
b/c compact implies the pushforward ultrafilter converges
and hausdorff implies it has a unique limit
and this makes the equivalence relation work even for ultrafilters that don't converge
ah okay so it is a suitable way to classify these infinites
the intuition would be that if Q and F both get pushed forward to the same limit point in every compact hausdorff space, then they should both count as the same "point at infinity"
but now i have one more question
how do we know that there isn't some more general way to relate ultrafilters so that two ultrafilters can be classified as different infinite points
I think there you would probably want to refer to the universal property of the stone-cech compactification if you have seen it
also I think its hard to really come up with a better way to relate ultrafilters
I guess you could say, maybe require that the pushforwards must always converge to the same point if they converge when being mapped to any space
that might follow from this, but im not entirely sure
but I guess for one reason or the other you no longer get compactness due to being too large
or I guess have the same set of limit points if the space isn't hausdorff
I think this follows
p sure it actually might follow using the stone-cech compactification on the target space funnily enough
but what I wanted to say was since this compactification is the largest, it must be the case that any other way we try to get a more general breakdown of those points at infinity, we must get a space that is too large to be compact
does this follow by the universal property?
oh you mean like an even larger compactification
yep
I think it would violate the thing I mentioned previously where you would have an ultrafilter that converges to x but isn't identified with the principal ultrafilter
and I think that kinda breaks things
that's my thinking but I guess maybe in theory you could come up with a relation that doesn't impact that property
ah ok here's an issue
for every compact hausdorff space includes itself
actually wait this might not be an issue let me think
oh yes it is an issue
if X is a compact hausdorff space, then x=y in X if and only if the images of x and y are the same under any continuous map into another compact hausdorff space are the same
which is basically completely trivial because you can just take the identity map to itself
so philosophically, if we want to built a compact hausdorff space then this property ought to be preserved with the points
that is, if two ultrafilters have equal image in all compact hausdorff spaces, then they ought to be the same if we want our compactification to be compact and hausdorff
if that makes sense
i guess technically we're talking about maps out of X instead of beta(X) so this isn't technically true its more like philosophically true
also this is more or less the proof that the universal property characterizes the stone-cech compactification by the way
ahhh I see! So it's to guarantee that beta(X) is compact hausdorff
was planning to read it tmr but this got too interesting to pass 😅
if Y and Z were 2 stone-cech compactifications of X, then you would obtain a maps from Y to Z and from Z to Y using the universal property, and you can show using some uniqueness trickery that both compositions are the identity
another way to think about the universal property is that if you have any compactification of X at all, then the stone-cech compactification necessarily maps surjectively onto that space
p sure that at least if X is sufficiently nice, every compactification of X must be a quotient of the stone-cech compactification
hmm but doesn't that show that a SC must be of the "same size" but doesn't address whet
if X is bad then the map from X into the stone-cech compactification might not even be injective and things are weird
well that shows its the largest compactification
👀 that's pretty cool
since every other compactification is a quotient
ah okay
in the analogy this would be seeing that the stone-cech compactification puts the minimal restrictions on identifying ultrafilters
if you tried to identify less, then you would lose being hausdorff or compact
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wallman_compactification for more general spaces you may want to look at this
In mathematics, the Wallman compactification, generally called Wallman–Shanin compactification is a compactification of T1 topological spaces that was constructed by Wallman (1938).
OHH wait last thing
its because we are mapping to hausdorff and compact spaces and since f is continuous and the pushfoward is the only map we have, we must make this identification otherwise we are saying that the sapce we are mapping to is either not hausdorff or compact
the wallman compactification I believe doesn't have to be hausdorff so it can be larger
but its more restrictive on X
but I think this shows why any other identification fails (which is basically the universal property lol i should've given it a read)
That's everything I have
thank you very much for your help! Have a nice day 
I’m confused by this passage
I don’t quite understand what the restricted Cartesian product is.
I’m looking at this question here, and it just doesn’t make sense to me. If P is the Cartesian product of the
family of projection maps indexed by M, is the domain not the M fold Cartesian power of Φ?
It seems so to me but I don’t know
so in general if we have a collection of sets and functions between them the best we can do is defined the final function to be the individual ones on each component
It’s just that in this passage it seems like the Cartesian product H of the family of functions is itself a function between the product of the domains and the product of the codomain.
but that makes the cartesian product of functions very inefficient - think about it, for every function we are introducing a whole new coordinate, and that ends up multiplying the size of the domain
if you keep stacking this over and over again the domain is going to explode in size
so, you can try and be a bit more efficient, and if there is overlap between the domains just resue the same thing again
and that is the restricted cartesian product
so what does that look like, let's say f(x) = 2x and g(x) = x+1.
Then the cartesian product of the functions is (x,y) -> (2x, y+1)
but we don't really need the domain to have two variables
we can collapse everything nicely into x -> (2x, x+1), which is the restricted cartesian product of the functions
This is still very unclear to me lmao
When I read this page, it seems that the Cartesian product H of the family of functions is itself a function between the product of the domains and the product of the codomain.
So if I have a family of functions with the same domain, shouldn’t the domain of the Cartesian product be the Mth Cartesian power?
yes
but the domain of the restricted cartesian product is the domain once
think about the most extreme case, we have the same function f from A to B 10 times
then the cartesian product is A^10 -> B^10
which is very redundant
all the information we really want to know is, how many functions there are, and what everything gets mapped to
so the restriced product is just A -> B^10
In this passage the restricted Cartesian product is defined by composing with the diagonal injection.
you can even restrict it on the codomain even further but that is not how your textbook has defined it
yes, so in this case the full thing is A -> A^10 -> B^10
where the last thing is the original cartesian product
I’m guessing in the problem statement then I should be taking the diagonal injection to be from Φ to Φ^M
and the diagonal injection at the start is telling you that all 10 copies all actually take in the same inputs
dont think about the diagonal injection lol it's a waste of brainpower
it's just x -> (f1(x), f2(x), f3(x), ....)
adding in a x -> (x, x, x, ...) -> (f1(x), f2(x), f3(x), ....) in between just complicates it in your head
I think I understand where I went wrong
I know you said ignore this lol
But this is what I have for that exercise so far
using f to denote something inside Phi is scuffed
but yeah youre basically there
finish him
what book is this?
General Topology by Hu.
thats some in depth set theory if ive ever seen such a thing
It’s a good book
I was also taking notes from chapter 0 of “rings and categories of modules”
Abbott or Costello alt account spotted
Hello! Quick question about Urysohn Lemma. It is said for example in Munkres, that the choice of the intervall [0,1] is arbitrary and the general case follow from that. Is it because we could for the general case just define the sets U_p for whatever we need. For example then we don't just do the counting for rationals from 0 to 1 but rather from maybe 5 to 20 or whatever
Once you’ve got [0, 1], that makes it much easier to construct other maps you might want
Because you can just define your map by X -> [0, 1] -> Y
Where Y is sufficiently nice/explicitly defined
You could redo the entire proof for a different interval, but you could also just say, construct a 0-1 separating function g using the standard version of the lemma, and then set f(x) = 5+15g(x).
Oh yeah okay! Thanks 🙂
hi so I'm new to topology and I was wondering about the product topology, I know that the product topology of two circles is a torus but when we do the product we get 4d points? ((a1, a2), (b1, b2)) -> (a1, a2, b1, b2) which if I understand correctly is topologically a torus but not geometrically?
is there simple and direct way to project this 4d structure into a 3d torus?
(without using trig functions in the projection)
why don't you want to use trig functions?
well the most intriguing part to me was the idea that a structure like a torus can emerge from a simple binary operation between two simple structures
I'm looking for the simplest way possible to do this
the most simple projection
I may be wrong here but from an information pov, isn't the "circle-ness" or "round-ness" information of the torus encoded in the two circles that make it up?
if that's the case then doesn't that mean It's possible get the projection of the torus without using trig functions to add any more of this information?
what I'm saying is it feels a bit like cheating (I know It's not)
I guess you can just do vector addition, like:
(a1, a2, 0) + b1*r(a1, a2, 0) + r*(0, 0, b2)
Where r is whatever you want the smaller radius to be. 1/3 would probably be good.
I'm not really sure how you would use trig functions to improve this...
interesting
why this particular choice of projection?
I mean, it's just the standard embedding of a torus in R^3.
You take a circle and rotate around and axis
Like you draw a circle around (1, 0, 0) with radius r. Then spin that around the z-axis. That's the formula I wrote down
Is it true that any simply connected subset of R^2 is contractible?
this feels like a thing I should be able to prove or disprove but me and another grad student can't figure it out 💀
Apparently not
I found an MSE post explaining it
ahh very interesting, so the Warsaw circle isn't contractible but it is weakly so
hmmm
this was the second thing I was thinking about. Can I get such a space that isn't weakly contractible
ah cool so these will always be weakly contactible
I'm looking at these notes:
Lecture notes for Math 581: Topology 1
I don't understand the point that Proposition 1.4.3 is trying to make
From Proposition 1.4.1 I can see that the intersection of any nonempty family of topologies on a set X is also a topology on X.
I can also see that the topology generated by a family of subsets of a set X is the intersection of all topologies on X that contain the family as a subset.
But I don't understand what exactly the first part of the proof of 1.4.3 is saying. Is it not already obvious from 1.4.1 that the topology generated by a family is indeed a topology on X? Like it seems apparent since we proved that the intersection of an arbitrary family of topologies on X is a topology on X.
it's giving a characterization of the topology generated by the subbasis
definition 1.4.2 doesn't quite say the same thing
1.4.2 already implicitly states that tau(l) does form a topology, which follows from 1.4.1 as you mentioned
In the proof of Proposition 1.4.3 is the first paragraph just saying that tau(l) is a topology on X?
not quite
that's the subsequent development
the first serves to show that the family of sets mentioned in 1.4.3 (which apriori has still not been shown to be a topology) will necessarily be contained in tau(l)
i guess to simplify how much stuff is "floating around", denote the family of sets in 1.4.3 by tau'
the goal is to show tau' is a topology and tau' = tau(l)
Lmao I'm still trying to clarify the first two paragraphs exactly. I can see from the statement that we are trying to give a characterization of tau(l).
But I'm very confused as two what those two paragraphs are saying
Like, it's clear that tau(l) is a topology on X
yes, that's not part of 1.4.3
Hence it contains the full set X and the empty set since X and the empty set belong to any topology on X
Then it says "Moreover, any topology on X containing l contains all unions of all possible intersections of l"
yes, which shows tau' subset tau(l)
how is "family of subsets" of X defined in this text?
I see what you're saying. They could've wrote "Suppose tau' consists of the empty set, X, and all unions of all possible intersections of nonempty finite subfamilies of l. Then because (.......) we have tau' is a subset of tau(l)"
I see it now. Since tau(l) is the smallest topology on X that contains the family l of subsets of X, if tau' is a subset of tau(l) that is also a topology, then it is equal to tau(l).
This is what you were saying
When they say that it's clear that X and the empty set are in tau in the second paragraph, I don't quite understand it.
Why do we have to say "together with X and the empty set" if they're (purportedly) already elements of tau
munkres defines subbasis as a family of subsets of X that cover X
i think this part is missing from the statement of 1.4.3
Well that definition is not the one I'm familiar with lmao...I thought subbasis is just a subcollection of the topology such that the finite intersections of open sets in this subcollection form a basis.
that's the basis generated by the sub basis, no?
Well I think a given subbasis for a topology can generate more than one basis for the same topology
how?
I'll have to come back to this after I understand the content more
Ive been trying to show that if X is a topological space, a metric space and X is Lindelof, then X is second countable.
Ive not really been able to nail these details down. Things that I have thought about:
1.) Any subset of X is also Lindelof (so any open sets of X have countable covers)
2.) Given some cover of X that is formed from balls, there is a subset of these balls that form a countable subcover. Tho Im not able to show that this new set of balls is actually a basis (I havent been able to explicitly show that a random open set in X is a union of this collection)
3.) Maybe trying to take the contrapositive of this might somehow be easiser (assume X is not second countable, show that X is not Lindelof)
4.)I could try and show that if X is Lindelof then X is Separable... since I have previously shown that Separable implies Second Countable.. but I was hoping to actually prove things more directly
Anyone able to offer any thoughts that might help out?
try building up a basis via a countable union of countable covers
given a metric space, can you tell me a basis for that metric space? just any basis, doesn’t have to be countable yet
Sure. How about the collection of all the balls. So for B_r(x), r can be any real number and x is any element in X.
okay, so if we apply the lindelof hypothesis, we get a countable subcover. but the sets may not form a basis, since they may not be downward closed under pairwise intersection, .e.g., B_r(x) \cap B_r’(x’) may not contain a ball in the countable cover from applying the lindelof condition
so we want to be able to control the radius of our basic open sets, in the sense that we need to be able to choose them as small as we like
Ah so maybe we restrict the values of r to be rational?
well, that isn’t going to give us any extra control immediately
because we already had all real values of r
we want to be able to say that there is some r’’ such that B_{r’’}(x’’) is contained in B_r(x) \cap B_{r’}(x’)
so if, for example, r = 1, and r’ = 1/2, we know that there is some radius r’’ > 0 such that B_{r’’}(x’’) is contained in the intersection
but
it might not be in the open cover that we were given by the lindelof condition
so we should probably apply the lindelof condition again, with a cover of balls of small enough radii
Does this logic sorta introduce some recursion here? because these new "small enough" balls can be intersected with each other to introduce another new collection of balls?
I think you'd want to do it one rational at a time and take some sort of union after
basically what josemom was saying
i think i might be explaining what i want to say poorly
the solution i have in mind is to ||apply the lindelof hypothesis to the collection C_n = {B_{1/n}(x) : x in X} for each n||.
||the union of all C_n forms a basis for X||
yeah ok that's what I had in mind as well
but the idea is like, ||i want my collection to be downwards closed under intersection, and the usual open set in the intersection of basic opens that i get from the basis {B_{r}(x) : x in X and r > 0} almost gets me this||.
||i just need to keep throwing in (countably many) successively smaller sets one stage at a time||
Awesome. Ill noodle on these thoughts for a while before looking at your solutions. Thanks all!
I'm not really a professional, but if I were you I'd prove it this way :
Given a sequence $$(x_n) _{n=m}^{\infinity}$$ which is contained in E, and converges to $$n_0 \in E$$
By definition of convergence, for every neighborhood P of n_0 \text{there exists N such that for all} $$k \geq N, x_k \in P$$. Because
all of the points in the
sequence are in E, every
neighborhood of n_0
intersects E. This implies
that n_0 is in the closure of
E, implies E = E closure,
implies E is closed
Mατchα
I'm not really a professional, but if I were you I'd prove it this way :
Given a sequence $$(x_n) _{n=m}^{\infinity}$$ which is contained in E, and converges to $$n_0 \in E$$
By definition of convergence, for every neighborhood P of n_0 \text{there exists N such that for all} $$k \geq N, x_k \in P$$. Because
all of the points in the
sequence are in E, every
neighborhood of n_0
intersects E. This implies
that n_0 is in the closure of
E, implies E = E closure,
implies E is closed
```Compilation error:```! Undefined control sequence.
l.50 Given a sequence $$(x_n) _{n=m}^{\infinity
}$$ which is contained in E, ...
The control sequence at the end of the top line
of your error message was never \def'ed. If you have
misspelled it (e.g., `\hobx'), type `I' and the correct
spelling (e.g., `I\hbox'). Otherwise just continue,
and I'll forget about whatever was undefined.```
This is so annoying but I hope you get my point
yes this works too, but I am not sure whether the logic of my proof is correct
yes, I got it.
Honestly I'm not very sure, I don't really understand your proof. Maybe you could rewrite it?
okay
I tried to use the equivalence of a and c in my proof
In my proof I first assumed that E is closed and then I had to prove a statement for every convergent sequence in E, so I assumed xn to be some arbitrary convergent sequence in E, from this can I conclude that there exists a sequence in E which convergest to limit xn? If I could conclude this then using (c) and (a) I can conclude that lim xn is an adherent point of E, which by definition means lim xn is in the closure of E, but as E is closed, lim xn must be in E, which concludes the proof of the first implication
This is the defintion of closure
Okay, thanks!
What is the definition of "closed set" you're working with here?
this one
Sorry to interrupt if you're all having a conversation about something, but I'm trying to start topology and I want some good material, and please, don't give me introductory textbooks, I can handle higher level.
munkres is a good starting point
Munkres prob
Is that high level?
yes
Something else? Because I know that one book can't cover everything.
I don't want an introduction, I want something that is terse, proof-heavy, abstract, and generalizing.
thats like
Maybe “topology: a categorical approach”…?
why do you want terse?
i understand the rest but specifically wanting terse is strange
Learning math isn't about showing off by reading "hard books"
munkres is rigorous and general
It trains my brain for mathematical understanding, which I think I will need for later, naturally terse subjects, it isn't for showing off.
“naturally terse subjects” 🤔
are you sure you know what “terse” means?
ok i suggest you try reading tom dieck then you give up and read munkres
in math introductory doesn't mean basic or without rigor
it just means like... teaching you the subject
an advanced topology book would be a book covering advanced topics for people who already know all of the basics
also you don't need to read terse books to train mathematical thinking
in fact the opposite is often goood
what no half of munkres is waxing philosophical
a better written book will explain what the key tricks and key ideas are
Ok then, all notes taken, I'd suppose Munkres it is, but what should I follow it up with?
Tbh in general I feel maths books are too terse
I’m much more likely to end up thinking “would adding one more diagram have killed you?” than “why are you spending a page on a 3 sentence proof?”
real analysis, measure theory, topology
for functional
linear algebra
as well of course
What will i need in topology for that.
basically everything up to the algebraic topology section in munkres
also nets idk if munkres covers nets
you were posting about real analysis the other day so honestly I'd do that before even doing topology
he does briefly
more as a supplementary topic though
in which you do most of the development in exercises
ah ok fair enough
Believe me, I am doing everything simultaneously, it may look like a mess, but I think it'll help me see how it all clicks in the end.
munkres does cover nets iirc in one of the supplemental sections
i don’t remember which one
the first one
and not as a supplement
it's in the first chapter
Topology & Groupoids by Ronald Brown
Would you have an exemple of a Gdelta of a Baire space that wouldn’t be a Baire space (I proved that if it is dense it is a Baire space, and I want to be sure it’s not true in general)
There's an example here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3003831
The upper half-plane but with only rational points on the x-axis is Baire, the rationals on the x-axis are its closed subset (thus G-delta, because we're in a metric space), but aren't Baire
Thx !
I'm trying to show that a countable product $X= \prod_{\alpha =0}^{\infty }X_\alpha$, $X$ is sequentially compact if and only if all of the $X_\alpha$ are also sequentially compact, where each of the $X_\alpha$ are topological spaces.
calebuic魏凯布
I’m trying to figure out how to word this to pull a convergent subsequence of (s_i) out
You want to choose your subsequences more carefully than that
I’m not sure how to explain more without just handing you the solution
Essentially the problem is you want them all to converge simultaneously, but you’ve currently only got them converging individually
Let me think about this some more. I see the problem now.
Thanks
how does one attain this handwriting 🙏
I think simply writing a lot and intentionally
With enough practice you can attain this handwriting
day 0 math: beautiful writing
day 365*10 math: unreadable
mine was unreadable from day 0
Based
at what point
hi new to topology
what does it actually mean to say two lipschitz equivelant metrics produce the "same" open sets?
it surely doesnt mean an open ball wrt to one metric is equal to the open ball wrt to the other
you can fit open balls of each respective metric inside the other
I.e. they have the same set of open sets
i see i guess that makes sense. with intuitive notions of distance and metrics this seems obvious i guess non lipschitz equivelant metrics dont seem intuitive to me
ohhh yeah that makes sense
an open ball in one metric is a union of open balls in the other metric
Could have the metric on R^n where distance between any two distinct points is 1
This is very different from the usual one
so if you have a ball in the metric (d_1), (B_{d_1}(x, r)), for each (p \in B_{d_1}(x,r)) you can find a ball in the metric (d_2) such that (B_{d_2}(p, \epsilon) \subset B_{d_1}(x, r) ) and vice versa
josemom2
yeah its just spaces like this are just hard to conceptualize
Ye
ah okay i see. so is there also always a ball of a different raidus in the other metric thats = to the ball in the first? no right
think about R^2 and open disks versus open rectangles
within each point of an open disk D in R^2, you can fit an open rectangle R around the point that sits inside the disk
for each point inside an open rectangle, you can likewise find an open disk that contains the point and lies within the open rectangle
ah okay that makes sense, cause a union of open balls isnt always a ball
but any open set in one space is also open in the other, just not always a ball ✅ ?
you can write the ball as a union of open rectangles
they won't necessarily have the same open balls but they will generate the same open sets
i see that makes sense
i get why you can fit each open set in or around an open set in the other (from the LE defintion), but how does that imply an open set in one can be written as a union of open sets in the other?
Let (\rho) be the euclidean metric on (\mathbb{R}^2), that is for two points (x ,y \in \mathbb{R}^2) we have [ \rho (x,y) = \sqrt{(x_1 - y_1)^2 + (x_2 - y_2)^2} ] and let (d) be the square metric on (\mathbb{R}^2), that is [
d(x,y) = \max { |x_1 - y_1| , |x_2 - y_2| }. ]
Let (x) be a point in (\mathbb{R}^2) and (B_{rho}(x, r)) be an open ball around (x). For each (p \in B_{\rho} (x ,r)), we can find an open rectangle (B_{d}(p ,\epsilon_p) ) where [
p \in B_{d}(p, \epsilon) \subseteq B_{\rho} (x, r). ] It follows, as you should check, that [
B_{\rho}(x,r) = \bigcup_{p \in B_{\rho}(x,r)} B_{d}(p, \epsilon_p) ]
josemom2
there's nothing special about the 2 in R^2 here, the same argument works for any natural n
oh for each p right that makes sense then
thank you so much !!
the technical details are to actually show they're equivalent
i.e actually saying that such an epsilon_p exists
but this is a readily seen estimate from the definitions of the metrics
which exists because theyre lipschitz equivalent right
we get that from the constants bounding the two metrics?
proof that discrete metric always satisfies triangle inequality
for any x, y, z in M (the space), lets say x = y
then d(x y) + d(y z) = d(y z) = d(x z) >= d(x z) thus it satisfies the inequality
and lets say that x != y
then d(x y) + d(y z) = 1 + d(y z), which is trivially greater than or equal to 1 (since value of d can't be nagative)
and as the value of d can be 0 or 1, d(x z) should be less than or equal to 1
combine both together, we get d(x y) + d(y z) >= 1 >= d(x z) thus it satisfies the inequality
(it was in my exercise... seems correct)
Seems all correct to me 
Since I work with pdfs of books, and by consequence can't find included exercises, could anyone tell me where to find exercises that accompany munkres?
Most textbooks have exercises in them
I’d be very surprised if Munkres doesn’t
PDFS
Yes
PDFs of a book are usually identical in terms of content to the book
Ok then, I suppose I'll look.
Munkres seems to have them at the end of each chapter
And are all the previous exercises from findable textbooks or websites?
Wdym by previous exercises?
Those shared here.
Some exercises people ask about here will be from books
Some will be from problem sheets set by professors
Some will’ve come about more “naturally
Ig potentially by definition
I’ve seen bad digitisations
But most (especially for well known stuff) is well done
Im thinking about what locally Euclidean means. What my book says about this property of a topological space, is that every element of that space has a neighborhood that is homeomorphic to a subset of Euclidean space.
Lets say we have a topological space X and a homeomorphism f : U -> B_r(x) such that U is an open subset of X (and B_r(x) is an open ball in R^n)
Since f is continuous and there are an infinite amount of other balls that are contained in B_r(x), then the inverse images of all these balls are also open in X.
So if we have space that is locally Euclidean, it's never really that there is just 1 neighborhood that has a homeomorphism (for every point in X), but rather an infinite amount of said neighborhoods. Is that correct?
If you have a neighborhood that is homeomorphic to R^n, you can just take some open subset of that equivalent to (0, a)^n for arbitrarily small a to get arbitrarily small neighborhoods homeomorphic to R^n yeah
This is true even if you have only some points contained in that neighborhood, not necessarily locally Euclidean everywhere
-# homeomorphic to an open subset of*
Are the elements of the subbase of the weak topology open?
Elements of a subbase are open by definition.
So disjoint union topology is co-product in category of topological space?
Yes
Okay thank you
can someone explain the "by elementary topology part"
here's the whole thing
https://people.math.osu.edu/costin.9/6212/tychonoff.pdf
If m is not in F, then X \ F is an open neighbourhood of m which doesn’t intersect F
(Tbh I think literally just explaining it would’ve been shorter and more enlightening than what theyve said)
Equivalently: those intersections of preimages of the O's are basic neighboorhoods of m in the product topology. If every basic neigbhoorhood of m has nonempty intersection with F, then m is in the closure of F. But as F is closed, being in the closure of F is the same as being in F.
im trying to prove that in a first countable space $X$, $x \in \overline A$ implies there is a sequence $x_n\to x$ in $A$. the general proof i wanted to do was create a countable basis at x, and order it to be decreasing wrt inclusion, so $B_1 \supset B_2 \supset \cdots$. but im not sure if that is valid? my intuition is that a countable basis is a bunch of sets that shrinks down to be smaller than every nbhd of x. so could we wlog pick it to have a largest (and second largest and third largest etc.) set?
isabelle
it is unclear that you can order an existing basis to be that way
but you can transform any countable basis at a point into another one that is decreasing wrt inclusion
mmm
yeah i can see that transforming an existing one wouldnt work, cause like ${(x-1/n, x+1/n)} \cup {(-n, n)}$ is a perfectly fine countable basis with no largest element
isabelle
but my intuituion is that the increasing sets are like, extra and can be removed no problem
(countable basis of x=0)
wait what? shouldnt any nbhd of 0 contain (-1/n, 1/n) for some n
oh sorry yeah i probably didnt do the notation well
ok yeah i think i understand, a general basis isnt well-ordered wrt inclusion but you can just pick one that is
ty !!
well its less pick and more transform, you have to make one explicitly i think
by taking intersections
right yeah
mm that makes sense
like make a new basis where the nth element is the intersection of the first n from the original basis? or something like that
yea exactly
Poetic justice
I working on a problem the say let x and y be distinct points on a metric space M. And I am to prove that there are disjoint open sets U and V in M such that x$\in$U and y$\in$V
I'm wondering if I could use the fact that their intersection, which is the empty set since it's open and a subset of M we can show that there exists such sets U and V
Or I would have to explicitly construct a V and U instead?
Can you actually write down what you mean here?
It doesn’t make sense
You should try to construct U and V using the metric
Okay. I mean using the fact that the empty set is open, and is a subset of M. And the intersection of finite open sets must be open as well. Hence there must exist 2 disjointed open sets such that their intersection is empty but they
I will try and do that. Thank you
There are not necessarily two disjoint non-empty open sets that their intersection is open
If you have only a topological space, it fails (and even if your metric space has only one point, it fails)
Thank you.
I think I should mention that there are two distinct points we know of in the metric space in the exercise, x and y
drawing a picture might be really helpful here
Thank you
Althought this is quite simple as is, it is interesting that Hausdorffness can be rephrased as “given points x, y, there is a neighborhood U of x such that y is not a point of closure of U”
Indeed this view ties Hausdorffness to unique limits closedness of compact sets and hints at generalizations in function spaces
never thought about it like that
mildly interesting thing I recently realised: usually, when people talk about "locally closed set" they mean a set A ⊆ X such that each point x in A has a neighbourhood U in X such that A ∩ U is closed in U, or a set satisfying one of many conditions that are equivalent to that
but analogous to how the right notion of things like locally connected and locally compact is "each neighbourhood of a point contains a smaller neighbourhood of that point that is compact/connected/whatever" and not "each point has a compact/connected neighbourhood", also can also happen that the property you actually need is "each neighbourhood of a point contains a closed neighbourhood"
and if you think that through, that condition is actually just equivalent to... the space being T3?
Lol
I'm surprised I've never heard T3 spaces getting called locally closed spaces anywhere
Isn't that a different notion though to the point where it may be confusing
Idk maybe I've misunderstood what you mean
it is different, the same way that "a set where every point has a convex neighbourhood" is different from the notion of a locally convex vector space
Yee sure
I realise now that I have only ever thought about locally closed stuff in the context of AG where T3 never happens unless you are discrete or smth lol
the only reason it came up to me was some technical stuff I'm formalising in lean, where I had a function f and two sets A, B such that B ⊆ ∂A\A and f is "continuous at x within A" for every x ∈ B in the sense that the filter of all intersections of neighbourhoods of x with A tends to the neighbourhood filter at f(x) along f, and was wondering whether that meant that f had to be continuous on all of A ∪ B
the only proof I came up with so far requires that the space codomain of f is locally closed in this sense
try drawing boobs
Me when someone asks me what diagram demonstrates that a space is Hausdorff
In those cases I tend to draw balls
What about the points though 
pointless topology
tfw Grothendieck topology has no points so it's really a pointless topology /j
Careful if grothendieck was alive he would put you on his manifesto
Balls
open or closed?
clopen
well that just means it's all of space
Are balls necessarily connected
Not in an arbitrary metric space
Consider the discrete space
Totally disconnected balls
is there a disconnected metric space where every metric ball is connected
No
Take disjoint opens U, V
Take x \in U, y \in V
Then B(x, 2d(x, y)) intersects both U and V so is disconnected
oh right
is there a connected metric space where every metric ball is disconnected
yes, I have an idea in my head lemme think of the correct words to type it out with
our space is going to be a subset of R2, and it is the union of two smaller spaces, the first is (R\Q) x R and the second is {(f(n),n) : n \in Z} for some bijection f: Z -> Q
R/Q is chosen arbitrarily with AOC?
We take Y = {(x, y) \in ([0, 1]/0 ~ 1) x [0, 1] | x = 0 or y = p/q is rational in lowest form and x < 1 - 1/q}
this works
wait no this is R \ Q
setminus
I'm not 100% sure this works but it feels like it does
surely that's not connected, its a subset of R x Q which clearly involves points from multiple connected components
with the metric i expect you would use this is totally bounded
so if it's connected, a large enough metric ball will be connected too
you're of course correct, I meant R\Q x R
I'm sorry for being sloppy
it's like, a line at each irrational, and then an integer point at each rational
oh nice
yeah that sounds like it would work
is there a path connected metric space where every metric ball is disconnected
i was just typing that out LOL
here is another one, in similar spirit.
the standard map t |-> (exp(2 \pi i t), exp(2 \pi i a t)) for a irrational has dense image in the torus.
the image is path connected since it is parameterized by the real line, but each open ball (with the subspace metric inherited from R^3) is disconnected, save the ones which completely contain the torus.
the fix is to glue infinitely many of these spaces together in a row so that the resulting space is unbounded.
ooh thats cursed
lol
im not sure i understand how to interpret the coordinates but i can picture it
they look complex
i guess im thinking of this space as a subspace of C^2 and R^3 at the same time
but i should have just chosen one
so we can inheret the metric from C^2 and nothing changes
like, the map is R -> S^1 x S^1 subseteq C x C
alternatively, we could just pass through an embedding of the torus into R^3, so
R -> S^1 x S^1 -> R^3
is every discreet space hausdorff? if so why?
well think about what a discrete space means
every subset open
So if you have two distinct points and want to separate them, it's enough to just separate them by any subset
in other words if x and y are distinct points in some set, can you find two disjoint subsets one containing x and the other containing y?
sorry my keyboard broke wait
did hausdorff mean for every distinct points, you can find neighborhood for the points, such that their intersection is empty, does every neightborhood have to be this way?
shit feels a lot more different when you are
not just googling stuff and looking at wikipeida
Not every neighborhood, just need existence
ohhh then that makes sense
i am so afraid of saying stuff that are wrong or dont make sense, so much so that i recorded my heart rate after asking this and i got 127 bpm.
examples to non-t2 spaces?
One is the cofinite topology on an infinite set
That's a topology where the open sets are sets where the complement is finite
if the set is infinite, how can the complement of any subset be finite?
well for example the subset {2,3,4,...} of the natural numbers has complement {1}
so the complement of some, although not all, infinite subsets, can be finite?
another question, if every point of a set is isolated, does that make it discreet?
so a point x is isolated if and only if {x} is open right
this was another thought i had
If all of the singletons are open, you should be able to prove every subset is open using the axioms of a topology
an epsilon ball around x contains only x?
In a metric space yeah that's what it would mean
but there is no metric in topoolgy
In topology an isolated point is just a point where {x} is open
oh makes sense
Which you can convince yourself is the same as the metric space definition
For metric spaces
boundry points
yeah
anyways so if every point of a set is isolated
does that make it discreet?
yes, since every single point {x} will be open
isolated gives you a neighborhood U around x such that U doesn't intersect A at any point other than x
O is open in A iff O = A \cap U for some U open in X
therefore {x} = A \cap U
yeah we already covered that, I think they just need the last step
and for that you just need to use properties of open sets, namely that the union of open sets is open
book: munkres, wilson sutherland intro to metric spaces and general topology
i think covering metric spaces first will be best
i started by reading wikipedia articles and i know i didn't learn much.
(in fact i think a good course in analysis in R and R^n should ideally come first)
they told me there were no prereqs other than basic set theory
who is "they"
and while that's technically true, i would not reccomend it
much of the techniques you use to actually prove things are probably best learnt in concrete settings
any good video sources that are free?
not really that i know of, most videos i've seen on youtube are just eh
what is the best?
a class
second to that, a textbook
if you can find a lecture series that might be good
MIT OCW
sure, that's probably good
if my adhd let's me
@pastel pumice there's also this free online textbook "Topology without tears" https://www.topologywithouttears.net/
it's not great in my opinion since it doesn't cover some "big" and intricate examples like munkres does, but it has a very easy going coverage of basic pointset material
with a magic trick i am going to get munkres for free as well
i mean this is technically true if and only if someone has enough mathematical maturity
do i
idk
clearly not
how do i know lol
no offense, but i dont think so
i know
but this is why i say you should check out metric spaces and perhaps analysis in R first
i just don't think "only set theory" is good advice
yeah metric spaces motivates why we should care about general ones
good examples as well
get an analysis book
the sections are perfectly fine, but they're a bit brisk since they assume you've seen analysis
rudin has metric topology on chapter 2 (btw i dont recommend this), and i heard abbott has these in the last chapter or something
idk about other analysis books
metric spaces first, yes, but analysis on R firster
tfw proceeding with metric spaces by force
really you just want to be able to draw pictures
the real line and the plane are good places to do this
n = 3 if you're a good artist or something
R^4
n=4 if you're built different
it's okay to say wrong stuffs
you can just fix what you have in mind as you try to learn
it's very normal to think/say about stuffs in the wrong way and that's not the wrong thing to do
That's what math is all about
bruh
There technically are no prerequisites other than set theory, but many examples needed in topology would be understood better with a firm background in real analysis.
One early example I can immediately think of is showing that the collection of half-open lines determined by the rational numbers, indexed by the rational numbers, forms a countable sub-basis for the real line R, showing that R satisfies the second axiom of countability.
Topology Without Tears is a good book I’d say, and if you work through the appendices (for example, working through the appendix on equinumerosity prior to chapter 2, as advised) you can get away with it.
I’ve been working through “Introduction to General Topology” by S.T. Hu, and so far not much real analysis has been needed, although some of the basic examples, such as understanding the usual topology on the real line, is needed.
Keep in mind though, that although I haven’t worked through a full real analysis book (I’ve been reading Stancl’s “Real Analysis and Point-Set Topology”) I had already worked through a good amount of group theory and basic mathematics, such as sets, maps/functions, binary relations and Cartesian products, partially ordered sets, Peano’s axioms, cardinality, quotient sets, and the Axiom of Choice and equivalent formulations of the statement, such as Zorn’s Lemma, the Hausdorff Maximal Principle, Zermelo’s Theorem, the Well-Ordering Theorem, and other statements.
Another option is “Introduction to Topology” by Mendelson, which kind of builds up ideas from analysis in tandem during the metric spaces chapter. I’m still working through this too though.
IMO, the bare minimum you should have is some familiarity with the field and order properties of the real numbers, properties of the absolute value, and understanding the Archimedean Property and Completeness Property of the real numbers. It’s also nice to have seen some construction of the real numbers, such as Dedekind cuts.
Yea Abbott goes into those details in the final chapter
The interesting thing is that this book has a whole sub-book on topological groups 😍
how can this exercise be requested at a point where the author explicitly says they have not explained how to topologise a subset of R^n using the standard topology?
I know what the subspace topology is, but when the author makes a point that they have not explained it, I don't know how this exercise is supposed to make sense
have they mentioned anything about sets that are open relative to a subset A of a topological space ?
It says Euclidean metric topology, I think that’s the construction for both
adding to this ^, if you take any point p on S^1 then the set of all points q on S^1 with d(p,q) < r is just a way to say B_r(p) \cap S^1
which is the sort of open set you would "expect" to see if the subspace topology were mentioned explicitly by the author
They have remarked that given a topology on X, the collection of open sets contained in a particular open set U \subset X is a topology on U, i.e. the special case of the subspace topology on A \subset X where A is open in X
Oh I somehow didn't register that the author says "with the Euclidean topology"
But this doesn't really fix the issue. At this point in the book it's not clear what "the Euclidean metric topology on S^1" means
Sorry, I don't understand what you mean
A subset Y of a metric space X is a metric space in it's own right. A ball of radius R around a point p in Y is the set of all points q in Y with d(q,y) < R
Yes
Oh
So you mean that we don't know how to equip S1 with a topology, but we're expected to know how to equip it with an induced metric and what the metric topology coming from that is?
I mean, it's not even an induced metric, it's the same metric
Does induced normally mean something else?
Well, on a pedantic level it's not because the domain is different
I live on the pedantic level
Probably not, but induced still makes it sound like it's a new object somehow
Which it is but only on a very pedantic level
idk how else to phrase it beyond "it's the natural thing to do" since all you're requiring is that the points that are less than R away just also live in Y
though it's weird if the author hasn't mentioned it
That is fair, ideally there would be at least a mention that if you have a metric space, then any subset of it, equipped with the same metric, can be considered a metric space in its own right
I think this is the intended interpretation
yeah
He does!
I just forgot or missed this
Anyway thanks for entertaining my pedantry everyone lol
Tbh I think it’s simpler than that
if you just think of the Euclidean metric as a metric, and apply it to points in S1 by interpreting them as points in R2, you get the metric topology on S1
You don’t really need to think of S1 as any sort of subset or subspace topology, you just apply the same basis construction to points in S1 and consider distances between points in S1
Since it tells us that the S1 points are really just R2 points, nothing here is added machinery
they're the same tho
if the subset has induced topology from a metric space, its topology is induced by the restricted metric. notice how they both have "induce"
thats literally kinda the definition of a subsp[ace topology
yes
yes 😭
liberal snowflake
right

what you’re saying is basically what I’m getting at, subspace topologies are super natural in their construction, especially for metric topologies
naturality mentioned?
Have I shown that the closed unit ball in R2 is a topological 2-manifold with boundary?
Put $B\coloneqq{(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2;:;\Vert(x,y)\Vert\leq 1}$ with the usual topology. Since $R^2$ is second-countable Hausdorff, we only need to check that every point q in B has a neighbourhood which is homeomorphic to an open subset of $H\coloneqq{(x,y);:;y\geq 0}$. Define the map $\varphi:B\setminus{(0,0),(0,1)}\to H$ by $$\phi(x,y)=\left(\frac x{1-y},\frac1{x^2+y^2}-1\right).$$ This is a homeomorphism. Hence, it is a local homeomorphism, which verifies the claim for all q except the origin and (0,1). For the origin, consider that the open ball of radius 1/2 is a neighbourhood of (0,0); translating by one unit upward verifies the claim for q=0. For q=(0,1), first apply reflection across the x-axis (a homeomorphism), then use the homeomorphism $\varphi$.
person2709505
I should find phi^-1 and show it's continuous, but that's not hard
And the first coordinate of phi is wrong. I should replace x and y by x/r and y/r, where r is the norm of (x,y). I'm just doing stereographic projection to all the closed spheres of radius 0<r<=1
for the part in 25 where i'm supposed to say that K is separable, can't I just use the result of 24?
Since K is compact, every infinite subset will have a limit point
That works
You get the same proof by following the hint as you’d get by “unfolding” the proof of 24
yeah pretty much\
What's that book?
baby rudin
joy
need a study partner on this course
Is there any practical method to determine the interior of a set?(In normed spaces Especially) In some cases is it obvious, but in other cases it's not clear at all .
now that you brought it up, i suppose an algorithm could use the metric structure and keep adding open balls
to approximate
wait no thats a terrible idea
just like all my other ideas

Not really. You just kind of go by vibes.
in a metric space you have that ((E^\circ)^c = \overline{E^c} )
josemom2
yea but
so maybe computing the closure of the complement is easier
finding a closure is just as hard as finding a interior
theyre like
dual concepts
YES I USED THE WORD "DUAL" IRL IM SO COOL
both can be approximated by sequences
i don't think in general there is an algorithm. but usually, there is some property or uniformity about the set you are taking the closure or interior of that you can take advantage of
maybe there is some notion of a computable or decidable set, where the notion of "having a certain property" or "having a certain uniformity" can be made precise
for those sets, there may be an algorithm
but in general, subsets of a topological space, as you suggested, can be wild and non-uniform
so asking for general algorithm seems kind of hopeless
lets ask the folks in #theoretical-cs whether finding closures is undecidable
by lets i meant you. im too lazy for this
same
👍
Doesn't this hold in any topological space, in fact?
Not really, but a lot of proofs about the interior use the characterization that if E is a set whose interior you're trying to find/prove something about, then x is in the interior of E if and only if there's an open set U such that x is in U and U is a subset of E (i.e. we use the characterization of interior as the largest open subset of E)
So thinking in those terms might be useful
i suppose this is the universal property of the interior of a subset
it is terminal in the poset category of open subsets contained in E, and it is unique if it exists (which it always does). so any open subset U contained in E is contained in int E, and thus int E must be the union of all open subsets contained in E.
"An open set is contained in E if and only if it's contained in the interior of E"?
" int E must be the union of all open subsets contained in E" <- I'm used to thinking of that as the primary definition of interior
yea, i guess i was just thinking of how i would define it in terms of a universal property
i was confused since terminal objects are only defined up to iso but then i remembered posets dont work like that 💀
yea, i think topologies are a nice type of lattice, so it has some good properties here
i don't know much about lattices though
it's just that like, here, we are closed under arbitrary unions/joins
I mean do you even need that? like all that is being used here is that if a and b are isomorphic in a poset category then they are literally equal
well I guess you need it to actually exist, lol
yea, we need it for the construction, but uniqueness is immediate from what you said
my fault lol
my response wasn't responding to the right thing
Like in this particular example second question , I was wondering how would I tell that it is empty if I wasn't ask to prove it
It's hard to use intuition
It’s kinda like
Hard to give without a specific example
If you wanted to prove it, first you toy around with functions to see that your property is preserved under “small perturbations”, then you set up the epsilon delta mess and continue
Interior is the largest open set
So if it is non empty then there is a point in A around which you can fit a small ball
In this small ball you can imagine that independent of whatever direction you petrub the function ( petrub so you still in the vector space) with small enough norm , you should still be in it
If it is the case you can't fit a small ball then there must be a direction to push the function so you can leave the set
Hello, I was wondering if abstract algebra is good enough for starting point set topology. I’m reading Rafael Lopez’s book
You shouldn't need any abstract algebra for point-set, really.
If you progress to algebraic topology, it's a different matter, of course.
just having enough mathmatical maturity, or having some backgrounds on metric topology (at least topology on R^n) is enough to start
no algebra required for pointset
Alright, sounds good. I’m pretty sure a general analysis course teaches that right?
yes
Does anyone have any information for lindelöf space theorem?
what is that
That's what I'm talking about, but I don't understand anything
oh, this one
Can you explain this in the simplest way possible so I can understand it?
we take A and B, use regularity to take open covers of A and B respectively, with the property that the closures of the members of the cover of A does not intersect B and vice versa
so, we have a cover of A and cover of B, but they may intersect each other, we want to shrink them so they dont
because then we win, we will have separated A and B
S and T are new covers that have pieces removed so that they dont intersect
because any S_i cannot intersect any T_j
So, using regularity we place open sets around A and B that do not touch the other set; using the "Lindelöf property" we make these collections countable; then, by inductively shrinking these sets, we obtain two open sets that separate A and B, right?
yea
Can someone please explain what this proof is trying to do?
Why isn't (b) just a direct consequence of theorem 2.2.6? If it is, what are we proving?
youre proving that taking finite intersections of the sets in the subbase form a base, as far as i can tell. the rest of the theorem should follow from 2.2.6 (i think)
But doesn't 2.2.6 guarantee all of that?
T is the smallest topology for which f_i are continuous
which is the same as
T is the smallest topology containing the inverse image of all open (def of continuous)
by thm 2.2.6 the inverse image of all opens is a subbase for the smallest topology containing the inverse image of all opens
I mean the point is, the theorem 2.2.6 gaurentees a sub base but doesn't tell you what it looks like
now basically the proof is trying to show how this is subbase that comes out of the gaurentee looks like
makes cents?
I mean, doesnt 2.2.6/ tell is that any collection of subsets, U, has a smallest topology including it? and also says that given a topology T, a subset, U, is a subbase for it iff T is the smallest topology including it
what you say doesn't line up from what I understand
this is correct
sooo doesn't that hold
its just giving a description of what stuff looks like, as clemens said
the excerpt does say “Part (b), through the subbase statement, is clear from Theorem 2.2.6”
hmm okay but I am confused about one thing
part (b) follows directly from the theorem, which assert that the inverse images of opens forms a subbase of said smallest topology. All of this is included in the package given to us for free by 2.2.6.
But then we go on to prove that the look like the inverse image of opens
are we not getting how the subbase looks like directly? We already know, after applying 2.2.6, that they are the inverse image of opens
bro you are overreading 2.2.6
where is evne the word inverse image or function mentioned once here
its mentioned here
alright so theorem 2.2.6 is somehow an abstract result. To apply it, what do you need?
A collection of subsets U of X.
What is it here? The preimage of the topology under the function
What does the theorem 2.2.6 gaurentee? We have a smallest topoogy containing the above, and know it we are in the smallest topology if U is a subbase for T
now how do we check if a topology containing this preimage set is the smallest topology containing it? We check if this preimage set is a subbase
now they use this characterization of subbase in terms of a basis
from wiki pedia
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Subbase
Okay... but you still didn't answer this
The smallest topology, T, for which the functions are continous is the same as the smallest topology that includes the inverse image of all open sets by definition of continouity.
By the iff of 2.2.6., since T is the smallest topology including the inverse image of all open sets, then the inverse image of all open sets form a subbase.
In here, you are not using this way of writing out T
i guess my question is, where exactly did you show that T is the smallest topology such that the f_i are continuous?
where T is the smallest topology containing the inverse image of opens?
the theorem is about showing it exists
So here are we identify i_1(x) with i2(x) or we identify the set { i1(x), i2(x) | x in X0} ?
the idea that you get it from building up from preimages of opens is correct, but at no point did you actually specify T and verify that its what you want
idk, to me the proof is written a bit confusingly
So me assuming that the smallest topology for which the functions are continous is the same as the smallest topology that includes inverse image of opens is not justified?
tell me about it 😐
i dont understand your question. what do you mean by identify?
Identification
What is equivalent relation here
actually, now that i look at it more clearly, theyre showing something is a subbase and then getting the topology T from that
Where i1(x) = x1 and i2(x) = x2
oops
No
the topology obtained from that subbase will be the smallest topology containing it
i have no idea why they were so like
but all of that is packed into 2.2.6.
poetic about it
@prime elbow
it still requires you to show something is actually a subbase though no?
the theorem is basically characterizing what the topology generated by a subbase is
So that means we are identifying i1(x) with i2(x)
yes, if im understanding you correctly
nop?
the smallest topology such that the functions are continuous is the smallest topology which includes the inverse image of opens
by the backward direction of the iff, the inverse image of opens is a subbase for the smallest topology which includes the inverse image of opens
well actually i dont think this is quite right. because this need not be an equivalence relation. instead i think you have to take the finest equivalence relation that makes $\forall x\in X_0. i_1(x)\sim i_2(x)$ true @prime elbow
rays
then i really dont understand what the author was writing about
I am printing the proof and pissing on it then
Thanks a lot!
idk, it seems like the author wanted to do like a sanity check
since both you and the author acknowledged that it follows from 2.2.6
@crimson terrace what book is this?
Real Analysis and Probability by Dudley
So what is exactly it is?
its the finest equivalence relation that makes i1(x) ~ i2(x) for all x in X0
oops
so what is exactly equivalent relation will be there?
Equivalence relation generated by a relation
Are you familiar with this
ah no
