#point-set-topology
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before you ask, its my professors own notes that we're using as a textbook
i dont think you have to, its like piecewise closed
and therefore closed
i guess you still need to prove that its piecewise closed and i dont think you can easily cheat there hmm
you're saying to show like the part of the graph where x > 0 is closed, etc. and then take a finite union of closed sets?
i was gonna say that the graph = R , and since Y is a topo space then R is closed
yea
the graph is not R
that's the range
the graph is specifically the set ({ ( x, f(x)) : x \in \mathbb{R}})
josemom2
yea that's the part that seems annoying to me
it seems plausible to show that you can fit open balls into the complement of the graph, but seems pretty involved geometrically
er i guess open rectangles would work too
actually not too bad just very annoying grunt work
oh you can do hmm
you can cover the area of an arc with two closed rectangles
so that x > 0 is an embedding into a closed subspace
and therefore closed
ye, i guess the difficulty is conserved by just having to check various details of any approach
can't you just use the theorem mentioned here, applied to R^+ and R^- separately? Then the graph is the union of the three closed components and therefore closed
You could also define g(x, y) = xy. It's a continuous function and the preimage of {1} is exactly the set {(x, 1/x) for x != 0}. Then add the single point at zero (which forms a closed set) and it's done, I think
At least assuming the Euclidean topology
dang these are all great solutions
i don't understand any of them lmao
sorry for leaving again i had a topology midterm that i probably bombed LMAOOOO
Thingoln's solution uses the fact that if f is continuous and S is closed then the preimage f^-1(S) is closed. Have you covered that property?
So the idea for all of these solutions is that we look at f on x > 0, x < 0 and x = 0 separately. Since 1/x is continuous on the positive or negative reals separately, we can use these properties
is your class not proof based ?
Tbh, I don't know how to do it without being this detailed. It's either this or just vague handwaving as I see it
oh i just saw this, this seems like it would work
i have one last example that i need help on if thats okay with yall? i'm a bit confused about visualizing nonhausdorff spaces
i apologize for being unclear before
Visualizing non-Hausdorff spaces is hard in general, I don't think anyone has any great tips there
just have some examples
Generally a space is Hausdorff if it has an abundance of open sets, so if you're looking for a counter example, you should look at a space with few open sets
hm
e.g X in the indiscrete topology
true
well X with at least two elements
mhm
i just dont really know how to draw the picture too
like we have two topological spaces and we want to find two continuous maps such that f(x)!=g(x)
try to look at where you use hausdorfness in your proof of (a)
What do you know about indiscrete spaces? Like, what kind of maps into it are continuous?
what can you not do without the assumption that Y is hausdorff
i know nothing about indiscrete spaces lol
oh wow active, the first time i got that here in the years ive been here
yes
if a map X -> Y is continuous then the preimages of opens in Y have to be open in X
or the preimages of closeds has to be closed
f^{-1}(U) either ought to be empty or the whole space in either case
yeyeye
this narrows down your class of continuous functions quite a bit
i can only think of like. empty to empty or the whole space mapped to the other whole space
You can take an arbitrary function f to the indiscrete space Y and check manually whether it is continuous
well, the singleton sets {y} of Y can be closed
how are we going to get like, the dense subset?
Since you know what the open sets of Y are, it should be easy to check if f is continuous
im so confused LMAOOOO
What's the definition of continuity?
for a topological space a function is continuous if for every open set V in the codomain, its preimage in the domain is also open
so we need two of those
Yep, now what are the open sets in the indiscrete space Y?
empty set and Y
I want you to establish some properties of indiscrete spaces first, the problem becomes very easy once you've done this
also i now realize i had the roles of the domain and codomain mixed up which made this slightly more confusing
Yep, and what are their preimages under f?
It doesn't matter the topology of X. You can compute the preimages explicitly btw - what is f^-1(Γ) for example?
the empty set?
like the preimage is the empty set
no
Yeah, I mean f^-1(Γ) is the empty set
ye
Dunno what you're saying no to, I think you misunderstood 
What is the preimage of the other open set in Y?
oh i did i misread i thought you said "any other preimage?
thats my bad
Oh I see, no worries
its all of X
Yep, which is always open
yep
So the conclusion is that f is continuous, right?
yep
That is, every function f : X -> Y is continuous if Y is indiscrete, no matter the topology of X
There is a space with the dual property, every map out of it is continuous, I'll let you figure out what it is on your own
Yeah, it vaguely just means "reverse the arrows" etc. There's a more rigorous meaning to it, but it's not important
hrm
Hmm, so I guess you want to find an appropriate X for your counter example now. Any suggestions?
Hmm... The dense subsets there are a little too dense for my taste π I'm sure it works, but I can't think of an example rn
I would pick a much smaller space, so it's easier to think
maybe like X=[0,1]?
Yep, good choice π with what topology?
Oh wait, I thought you meant X = {0, 1}. I don't like [0, 1], it's still too big
oh then we'll go X={0,1}
With a finite space it's much easier to see what the dense subsets are etc.
What topology on {0, 1}?
indiscrete maybe?
Good, now what are the dense subsets of {0, 1} in the indiscrete topology?
Yeah, that's one of them, but remember we want to find two maps that agree on a dense subset and disagree on the rest
Do you remember the definition of density?
that the closure equals the whole space
Yep, and do you know how to find the closure?
intersection of all the closed sets
That's one way, another is that the closure of S is the smallest closed set containing S
true
So now it should be possible to enumerate the dense subsets of {0, 1}
ig for a concrete example, compute the closure of {0} in X @novel stump
certainly its not closed since its complement {1} is not open in X
would it be {{0},{1}}?
Yeah, I guess you don't need to enumerate them, but just find one dense set other than X itself
Exactly, plus X of course
(and X itself)
ah
So now you should have all the ingredients to construct your counter example
lovely :')
Let me know if you need more guidance! But take a look at the problem and make sure you know what you want to construct, and what properties it must have etc. It's good to have it all in front of you
The clearest example for me is the line with the double 0. You can take two real lines and identify the every point except for zero. Then you have two different ceros 0, 0' whose open sets containing one always intersect the open sets containing the other.
i can only think of like, let f send X to X i think??
and then we want G to be mapped to another open thing such that f(x) != g(x)
why would that satisfy everything tho?
or well be a good counterexample
for a non-hausdorff spaces. But the graph of the identity is non-close
hmm interesting
what's the dense subset you're working with?
X
X as a dense subset of X?
i thought X is a dense subset of X
.\
yeah it is
but you want f and g to be not equal. If f and g agree on X, then they are by definition equal
i thought that that was a dense subset of X
{{0}, {1}} can't be a dense subset of X, because it's not a subset at all
im so confused
did you not say it was previously?
sorry that sounded snarky
i mean i thought you said it was previously
{0} and {1} are dense subsets, so I thought you meant the collection of those
ohhhhhhhh
but you see how {{0}, {1}} is not a subset of {0, 1}, right?
not really but i kinda just want to be done w this assignment LOL
hmm, I get that, but this is kinda important to learn (not just for topology). What are the subsets of {0, 1}?
0 and 1
(btw, set theory is often one of the hardest parts of point-set topology for beginners, so don't feel bad if that's what you struggle with!)
oh i got a C- in set theory i know i struggle with it a lot unfortunately
is 0 an element or a subset of {0, 1}? It's important to know the difference between element and subset
yes, {0} is a set, while 0 is an element. The elements are what is listed between the curly brackets: a, b, c are elements of {a, b, c}
sorry
no worries
so {0} is a subset of {0, 1}, since every element of {0} is an element of {0, 1}
does that make sense?
yep
so im not sure what our functions would be then... like i guess we can do {1} but that just gets mapped to the emptyset i think?
im not quite sure what im doing
hmm, I feel like you're struggling a bit with the concept of a function? {1} cannot be mapped to the empty set, every function must output something for any input
then idk how im supposed to make a continuous function from {0,1} to {X,\empty}
wait, why is the codomain {X, \empty}?
it's the topology of an indiscrete space, but it's not its actual elements
don't be sorry, this is the place for learning 
So you understand the idea of a topology? We have a set of elements X, but to turn it into a topological space, we must also have a collection of subsets of X, call it T, satisfying certain rules. So to give a space X the indiscrete topology means that we give it the set of subsets T = {Γ, X}. This means that the only open sets of X are Γ are X itself
yeye i understand all of that
i just didnt know what to use for our codomain
bc i thought we had our codomain to be those two sets
so when I've been talking about an indiscrete space Y, I haven't been talking about a particular space, just any space with that topology
the topology is {Γ, Y}, not the space itself
yeyeye
so I haven't actually decided what the codomain should be, sorry if that was unclear π
its okay!
but a good choice is again to just pick the smallest space that is not completely trivial (and give it the indiscrete topology)
so can we also use {0,1}?
yep, excellent choice
May I suggest {2,3} instead, just to keep things minimally confusing?
sure!
yeah, good idea
i have 30 minutes until i need to leave
so we want to find two functions f, g : {0, 1} -> {2, 3} both with the indiscrete topology, that agree on a dense subset, but are not equal
no worries, it won't take that long I think
heck yeah
yes
and f and g must be continuous, but as we already established, they automatically are
yes
so what's the next step? Any thoughts?
we need to map a dense subset to different values in Y
hmm, we want them to agree on a dense subset, which means they should take the same values on that subset
is x + 1 a well defined function from {0, 1} to {2, 3}?
there are just 2 elements in the domain, so it may be easier to define each value instead of using a formula
so 1 -> 3 and 0 -> 2
okay, and the other function?
1 -> 2, 0 -> 3
do they agree on a dense subset?
how can you make sure they do? (this is where it's useful to know exactly what the dense subsets of X are)
well {1} is a dense subset and gets mapped to both 2 and 3
or a different question: how can you make two functions that agree on any non-empty subset? Like, what does it mean for two functions to agree on a subset?
i do not know what it means, i think it means theyre equal?
yeah, they take on the same values on that subset, ie. f(x) = g(x) for each x in that subset
i see
okay now im even more confused
bc i thought we just wanted to find two maps such that they dont agre
or do we want it to agree but f isnt g
yeah, a counterexample here means that everything in the premise is true (except Y being Hausdorff), but the conclusion isn't. So they must agree on a dense subset, but f != g
yeah basically
what's stopping you from trying a few maps? There are only 2 elements in the domain and codomain, so there's not much to try
i mean like. map 1 to 2 and 0 to 3. map 1 to 3 and 0 to 2, those are the only two maps i can think of
there are more maps than that between {0, 1} and {2, 3}
1 maps to both 2 and 3? That's not a function
then im out of ideas lol
you don't have to map to different elements in the codomain. We're not restricting ourselves only to bijections
then i guess {0,1} mapped to 2 would work
(Is X also indiscrete here?)
yes
Yeah, if you mean f(0) = 2 and f(1) = 2
i do
yeah, I wasn't sure if you were mixing up sets and elements, because it should be clear that mapping 1 to {2, 3} isn't a function
so anyways, you have one function, what should the other be?
maybe 1 -> 2 and 0 -> 3?
okay, do they agree on a dense subset?
yeah bc 1 still gets mapped to 2
nice π I think that's it, it's clear that f is not equal to g. Does all this make sense?
mostly, ty :]
no problem, feel free to ask if anything is unclear 
I think I sort of get what this question is going for? but I don't really understand why they define e like that, and then go on to say that phi is where x_j=0 for almost all j??
surely the closure of phi includes (1,0,0,0,0,0,...), (1,0,0,0,0,...) ... which isn't a null sequence?
e_j is the sequence that is 1 at position j and 0 otherwise
phi is the set of all sequences such that x_j = 0 for all but finitely many indicies j, or in other words, it consists of sequences which are eventually 0
i think null sequence means a sequence which converges to 0
ah okay I think I was confused at the notation, I thought that x_j=0 meant that for a particular sequence, the jth element is 0, but now I'm thinking it means that the jth sequence is entirely made up of zeros
thank you!
no, itβs not the jth sequence
x_j is the j-th coordinate or j-position of the sequence x
like
maybe the e_j is confusing you?
"almost all" is evil terminology
it looks too much like measure-theoretic "almost all" and it's not equivalent over N iirc
ah! okay so the idea here is that if I go far out enough into the sequence, I go past all of the non-zero elements, I'll have only zeros and so it converges to 0 ?
yeah okay, I guess its called e because it is like a basis?
yeah it generally just confused me because it defines it, and then doesn't mention it for the actual problem π
yes
if you are interested btw its from Meise and Vogt "Introduction to Functional Analysis"
here is my solution: ||let y be in the closure of phi and π > 0. there is some x in phi with |y - x| < π or in other words, there is a natural number N such that for all j > N, we have |y_j - x_j| = |y_j - 0| = |y_j| < π||
oh ty! and thank you for spoilering, i'll have a try and then compare π
If we have a metric space X and a subset A of X such that we have this strictly decreasing chain $$ A \supset A' \supset A'' \supset ...$$ What is the maximum length of the sequence? Here ' is taking the limit points of the set.
XDStar
I know it can be 1 or 2.. but i can't think of anything else. As soon as we get a discrete set in the sequence we then get the empty set after
I think also taking the set {1/n + 1/k | n,k in N} U {0} makes it 3? but I'm not sure
I think that idea could be extended to happen more times, and make the sequence arbitrarily long
that was my thought too but is this even true?
Are you using a different definition of limit point than the one I'm familiar with? Like, aren't the limit points of for example [0, 1] exactly [0, 1]? Maybe you're thinking of isolated points
your example looks true to me, the first set of limit points is all the 1/n, and then those have limit point 0, right?
yeah that's the idea
its the standard definition i believe.. every nbhd of x in X intersects A in a point other than itself
yeah, then [0, 1]' = [0, 1], which gives an infinite sequence AFAICT
it has to be strictly decreasing
the limit points will be [0,1] then the sequence is no longer strictly decreasing
it's constant
so doesn't work I think
actually what I donβt quite see about your 1/n + 1/k with 0 idea is why we donβt get all the limit points βin one stepβ
I don't understand
hmm, aren't the only points in A' \ A the isolated points of A? Which disappear after one application of '
oh, nevermind. I see the first taking of limit points gives 0 and all the 1/n, and then the second just gives 0
so yeah, how about 0 with 1/n + 1/k + 1/j, etc?
You can make as long a finite sequence as you want by starting from the right end of the sequence and making A^(n) a singleton. Then for each k, make A^(k) from A^(k+1) by adding a sequence converging to each isolated point in A^(k+1). With just a small bit of care that will make the derived set of the result the A^(k+1) you already have.
isn't the inclusion the other way around? We have A strict superset of A'
that makes sense yeah
could it be infinite?
yeah, but I'm probably wrong, it's too late at night for topology rn 
Now take the first set in each of those finite sequences, squeeze it into (0,1) by something like arctan(x)/pi, and put all of these squeezed first sets next to each other. That will give you a sequence of length omega.
I'm always a bit hazy on the historical details, but I believe this is one of the earliest uses of ordinals/transfinite induction
It would be neat if Wikipedia had stated how large the rank can be (or what is known about that question). Obviously it cannot be an ordinal with larger cardinality than continuum, but other than that?
I'm still trying to understand this π but thank you @alpine nest @gaunt linden !
Why is that obvious?
Apparently for Polish spaces it has to be countable: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4937051/the-countability-of-the-cantor-bendixson-rank-in-polish-spaces
At least for a strictly decreasing sequence it's obvious, and I don't think a point can enter the sequence more than once.
I guess I still don't see exactly why it's obvious
Ah, that may be because I had somehow convinced myself we were working in R rather than an arbitrary metric space. π€£
Seems vaugely plausible, but idk what the argument would be exactly
My gut tells me that if you start with an ordinal space, you can get the rank as high as you want
The sequence is decreasing, at least past the first step. Up until the rank is reached, each set in the sequence will be missing some point that was in all of the previous sets contain at least one point that will be gone from the next. Once there's been more than continuum steps, there can't be any more points left to remove.
Assuming the set was continuum in size to begin with you mean
Yes, but as I said, this was under the assumption that we were working in R.
Yes then I agree it is obvious
Still though, being a metric space is also quite restrictive
thats just the meat of the proof of cantor bendixon really
well one of the proofs
the cool one
(condensation points are not cool)
yep
there is this
Whatβs degree?
Let X be locally compact and Hausdorff and R an equivalence relation on X that is (1) a closed subset of the product X\times X and (2) each equivalence class is compact. Is the quotient map X -> X/R necessarily closed?
This has been annoying me I think it should be true but I can't quite see it
does this work as a counterexample? Let $X = [0, 1] \times [0, \infty)$, and identify each $(x, 0)$ point with $(x, \frac{1}{x})$ for $0 < x \leq 1$. \
$X$ is locally compact Hausdorff, and I'm pretty sure the equivalence relation is closed since its the union of a diagonal set in a hausdorff space and a "graph" set that's parametrized by 1 value. i think the only problematic area is if we have (0,0) as the first point in a product, but i think then bc 1/x is unbounded near 0, you can always force your neighborhoods to exclude the relation curve. this might be wrong so maybe check that :( \
now let $S = {(x, 1/x) : 0 < x \leq 1}$. by quotient map defn, $\pi(S)$ is closed iff $\pi^{-1} \pi(S)$ is closed. but the preimage of $\pi(S)$ is the union of (0, 1] with the (x, 1/x) curve, and this is not closed since (0,0) is in the closure
wow horrendous
snowflake
Yeah I think you're right
Here's why I'm interested: Let X be locally compact Hausdorff and consider the space $C_0(X)$ of continuous complex valued functions on X vanishing at infinity. A subalgebra $A\subseteq C_0(X)$ is nondegenerate if there is no point of X where every function in A simultaneously vanishes. Given such a subalgebra, you can form the equivalence relation $R={(x.y):f(x)=f(y)\forall f\in A}$. If A is a closed *-subalgebra, then A should be equal to the set of all functions that obey the relation R. This has a very short and nice proof if the quotient $X/R$ is locally compact and Hausdorff. You can show that this holds if the quotient map $q:X\to X/R$ is proper (i.e., it's a closed map and each equivalence class is compact)
Blake
I can prove that if X is compact, the result holds. I also know by Gelfand duality that if A is isomorphic to $C_0(Y)$ and since it is nondegenerate the inclusion of A into $C_0(X)$ must come from a proper nap $X\to Y$. However, it's not entirely clear to me that this map has to be surjective. I also don't want to directly appeal to Gelfand duality.
Blake
Ok actually the specific result I mentioned you can actually show using the one-point compactification, however it doesn't quite give you a clean correspondence between "nice" equivalence relations and *-subalgebras which is more what I want
I guess a precise formulation is the following: Which equivalence relations on a locally compact Hausdorff space X can arise from a nondegenerate *-subalgebra of C_0(X)?
for $\mathfrak{B}$ to be a basis for topology $\tau$ on $X$, its required that for any element x of $X$ that's in the intersection of two elements $B_1, B_2 \in \mathfrak{B}$ there's another element $B_3 \in \mathfrak{B}$, such that $B_3 \subsetneq B_1 \cap B_2$ and $x \in B_3$. Well, if it's true, then we have another intersection of two elements of $\tau$, namely $B_3 \cap B_2$ (or $B_3 \cap B_1$) such that $x \in B_3 \cap B_2$. But then since its a basis we require that there's another element of topology, namely, $B_4$, such that $x \in B_4$ and $B_4 \subsetneq B_3 \cap B_2$ etc. So for any element $x \in X$ and a basis $\mathfrak{B}$ of topology $\tau$ in $X$, we always have a shrinking element $B_i \in \tau$, leading us to thinking that any element $x \in X$ ultimately is contained (among many other $B_n$) in $B_i$ such that $B_i={x}$. Is that true? The whole idea though is based on that we always have a proper subset contained in the intersection of two others, meaning it's always shrinking
nezhivoy
another distracted question on topic, I've seen a couple of different definitions of a topology basis, this one above (+ another condition) and that B is a topology if for any subset A of X we have that A is a union of elements of the chosen topology
i guess at some point we prove that they're equivalent? or are they like used in different settings or something?
B_3 isn't required to be a proper subset
even if it is, what you say need not be true
the property you talk about is true in the standard basis in R^n for example
except R itself i guess
but i didnt use anything except the definition of a basis i guess
definition of the basis just says subset not proper subset
yeah it's just that notation is different and I've seen this definition somewhere used without the low bar
yep. understood
well i guess there are different standard bases, i mean idk open balls with rational coefficients
or something
without the low bar just means subset too
not proper subset
unless specified otherwise, only crossed bar means proper subset
is the usual convention
Consider the open sets $B_n = (-1/n,1/n)$ in $\mathbb{R}$. Then $B_{i+1}$ is always strictly contained in $B_i$ and all contain 0, but no $B_i$ is equal to ${0}$
Jussari
btw following this definition we have that for example $A \subseteq X, A={x}$ (singleton), then we have that $A$ is a union of the elements of our topology. So we have that for every such A there's a single-element subset of topology. I might be missing something here
nezhivoy
actually this is not true, if there two balls with the same center and different radii then the property is not true
i guess maybe hmm
You must have misread, only open subsets need (and can!) be unions of basis elements
oh, seems true
I'm not sure I'm following what you're saying, but if {x} is an open set, then would need to be one of the basis sets yes
that's a nice example, thanks
nah i misread indeed, thinking that any subset of X has this property
oh i know how to make a base for R^2 with the needed property, take a point in each integer square and take open balls with radius 2 with centers in those points, then take half-integer squares, and pick balls with radius 1 with centers in (unpicked) points, etc etc
i think that works
There's two ways to look at bases. Either you're given a topological space $(X, \tau)$ and want to find a nice description for their opens, i.e. a basis of $\tau$. Or you're given some \textbf{set} X and some collection of subsets ${ B_i}$ of $X$ and you want to find a (as small as possible) topology $\tau$ on $X$ s.t. all the $B_i$s are open in $(X, \tau)$, i.e. the topology generated by the $B_i$s
Jussari
that's kind of analogous to a basis in linalg
trying to find a subset that describes the whole vector space conveniently
The first case corresponds to this definition: you choose some collection of opens and verify that every open is a union of them
In a sense a basis for a topology is akin to a spanning set for a vector space
Afaik thereβs not an analog of βlinear independenceβ for topologies
seems like that
In the second case, if the B_is fulfill this definition, then you get a topology on X by declaring a set U to be open iff it can be written as a union of B_is.
It's a good exercise to verify that this really is a topology on X
you mean that these unions of B_is form a topology on X?
Another important exercise is to check the following: Suppose you have a topological $(X, \tau)$, and some basis $\mathcal{B}={B_i}$ of $\tau$ (in the sense of the second definition you posted). Then $\mathcal{B}$ is a basis for a topology on $X$ (in the sense of the first definition you posted), and the topology generated by $\mathcal{B}$ is $\tau$
Jussari
Yeah
disjointness, kinda
maximal disjoint families of open/basic subsets are important in pointset
Most spaces dont have pairwise disjoint bases though
I canβt think of bases that consist of disjoint subsets
yeah that's what i was seeking. does that work the other way around? to show that it holds "iff"
Unless youβre working in, say, a discrete space
In which case singletons suffice
Yeah! You can check that $\mathcal{B}$ is a basis for the topology it generates!
Jussari
well not bases, but if you think about like boolean algebras associated with spaces, there independence makes sense
and if you pull it back you would be looking at disjoint families of open (or regular open) sets
pullback hmhmhm
btw are there any nice books on general topology? I've seen a million good books on analysis, abstract alg and linalg, and they all seem to explain the things in the same way, and then looking at topology books.. first, there aren't as many of them, second, they're all really different in how they teach the subject. maybe any recommendations?
If youβre into cat theory you could check out Tai Danae-Bradleyβs βa categorical approach to topologyβ
i mean, munkres?
is peoples go to really
i would argue it doesnt teach most interesting parts of pointset, but an average person is not interested in pointset
if you want to actually know what the subject is about, i would read Kuratowski
Engelking is a good source but very dense
unfortunately im not yet good at cat theory, and they are serious about it. the books heavy on colimits, actively uses cat theory theorems and stuff
i think the best way, if you have enough mathematical maturity, is to pick up engelking and not slack on the exercises
and kuratowski to kind of understand the why of it all
by mathematical maturity what do you mean exactly?
btw i read some bourbaki on topology and they seemed nice
i know its an encyclopedia but still
the ability to reconstruct the point of definitions and theorems from their statements and proofs
Lmao
like.. to understand what's going on basically?
more or less yea
understanding the mathematical substance of a given construction, proof, or method
theres a wiki for it https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mathematical_maturity
lol
they define it as "fearlessness in the face of symbols". people are so scared of symbols lolol
I think Kelley is a widely used reference
I only skimmed part of it back in the day so canβt really speak to how nice it is
I've found General Topology by Stephen Willard and it seems nice. I'll look Kelley's up
Yep, Willard is solid
if you will happen to want more advanced stuff but are not ready to read the handbook, nagata's modern general topology is a good choice
alternatively, everyone should read gillman
eh, i dunno. from what I've read on topology, it seems that among mathematicians the opinion on topology is rather the same and is that topology is more or less just a language for formal description of the notion of continuity and as a science is already long ago βdoneβ (meaning that there are no active researchers and discovery in the field)
so having this impression i think I'll just have to master the βlanguageβ
i mean of course there are reasearchers and discovery, but yeah its no particularly alive
this doesnβt sound accurate for the entire field of topology
it sounds more like of a description of point-set topology
we are talking about pointset yea
what they rsrching then ?
stuff? idk
pointset is a very haphazard field, because "topological space" is a very weak condition
so there is a lot of stuff to research, but relatively few big research questions
C_p theory is somewhat active
https://www.tiktok.com/t/ZTrY9EfQ5/
idk if this is novel but this seemed cool
365 likes, 51 comments. β#fyp #fypγ· #math #stem #calc #apcalc #calculus #apcalculus #linearalgebra #algebra #topology #mathmajor #sequence #sequences #sequencesandseries #integrals #derivatives #research #functionalanalysis β
so i understand this proof, but dont undertsnad this picture circled in red
could anyone help me understand whats happening here
is it just showing X and the homotopy H between h and the constant point? what are the lines extending out from the point
Yes, and the lines are the same lines drawn in the other two pictures.
what's the book?
check out Viro et al. "Elementary Topology. Textbook in Problems" -- it's very nice, basically they give you a path by smartly scheduling lots of problems for you to prove, and then eventually you will be able to prove some non-trivial theorems, all by yourself: https://www.pdmi.ras.ru/~olegviro/topoman/index.html
it's also free, and even Allen Hatcher likes and recommends it
I've solved many problems from that book and I can attest that it was a fun way to study general topology (unfortunately I got distracted and stopped at some point)
I've already been using it for some time and i like it too. But i saw the homotophy stuff on the screen above and wanted to ask specifically for a book that contains homotopy theory. And Viro isn't usually recommended for algtop afaik
mm, but your question was explicitly about general topology
not about algebraic topology
i was inquiring about homotopy theory
not sure I can parse that from that message above: "btw are there any nice books on general topology?"
oh man, sorry, i thought you were responding to the message above
but anyway π
this one
no, that's for Jack to answer
i should've paid more attention lolol
thanks for Viro though, it really is a good source
i like rotman for algtop
I've bought myself Armstrong "Basic Topology", it looks like it's an undergrad book that focuses not only on General Topology, but also on Algebraic Topology, and does it quite early, so I am looking forward to that, but haven't started it yet
Munkres
what did they say? π
I think it had to do with unconventional notation/terminology
I haven't read it though so idk
ah, fine, terminology is not so important to me π
I am reading books that define f . g = g(f(x)) and still survive
superhuman
thats normal
functions should be applied on the right
right so shouldn't it be f(g(x)) ?
it should be ((x)f)g
yeah, it makes sense: f goes first in that "f . g" combo, so should be applied first
and you are right @tender halo , that book also uses "xf" to denote "f(x)", so it's consistent
life if functions composed from left to right
so f . g = xfg
are you a native speaker of English? Some of mathematicians prefer to write topology via fancy descriptions and intuitive methods like theyβre writing novels . they prefer to let u imagine how an object is folded/bended/torn up/ twistedβ¦instead of mathematically claiming it, maybe hard for non native or those do not like intuitively thinking.
you can find this rationalization and many more in my new book "why hatcher is not an abysmal F tier textbook"
I am not, but I think I am quite proficient π at least I know and can imagine what "folded", "bended" or "twisted" means
in general I am not as good with geometry as with algebra/analysis though, but that has nothing to do with my command of English language...
thatβs fine
, maybe i should rephrase,I just wonder if you accept this style .For me i like set-theoretically discussion like we treating a topological space purely as some sets meet some conditions instead there are really some vivid examples in geometry.
it is up to you though, for those who care about knots in our real world this is really important
I don't know, depends on a book and concrete examples. In general, illustrations of some kind often provide additional insights (Pugh wrote in his real analysis book: beware of books without pictures)
i d like to read it 
"properly discontinuous action" is the worst name ever
there's also two inequivalent definitions of it and I never know which one people mean
one requires every point to have a neighbourhood U such that U is disjoint from gU for all g β 1, the other just requires it to be disjoint for all but finitely many g
I would call the latter "properly discontinuous" and the former "properly discontinuous and free", but some people don't
topology & groupoids covers some basic homotopy stuff, but idk if that's what you want
Do you have a hotkey bound for topology and groupoids 
what a great idea 
I have nlab added as a search engine into my browser
yet don't use it because it's so slow that using a standard search engine and clicking on the first nlab link is faster anyway 
https://ncatlab.org/Please_dont_download_the_nLab.html I was gonna say
tbh I should start doing this tho
why is the nlab set up so poorly π
I was reading the compact Hausdorff page earlier and thereβs a bit that just says something like βyou already know what a compact Hausdorff space is so letβs have some funβ and further βthis is probably also equivalent but I havenβt checkedβ
Unserious website
i tried contributing and this is the way that you have to get access to the pages
yea the authors can be funny
oh that's a different tier of funny
either i kept getting the wrong answer or they set it up wrong
i never ended up contributing
yea, but this was months ago. i might try doing it again, but it was such a pain to just get to this point
the nlab wonβt have a native dark mode for the foreseeable future
join the light side 
aghhh the contrast 
I was considering doing that 


do you mean contributing to the backend? because to edit articles you don't even need an account, let alone a hard to obtain password
ah, I see.
regarding this though, the nlab can actually be incredibly helpful at getting ideas across and finding you references
you just need to keep some healthy skepticism about what you read there - if it seems like it's too strong of a claim and might be missing some assumption, there's at least some chance it is
it's more like getting a peek at the lab notes someone took just for themselves than a carefulles curated encyclopedia - there might be some missing pages, a lot of stubs and some mistakes, but it's also a really condensed way of seeing how others (at least a certain kind of people) think about a topic
It feels like breaking the fourth wall
you see shit like this and realize people use that website to learn math
nlab has actually ruined a generation
For me it has been excelent for studying infinite categories. but, it is clear that it is not meant to be use for learning stuff for the first time.
I actually tend to find the more niche the idea the better nlab is
I donβt know if thatβs because the people writing take it more seriously or if the niche shit I need to find on nlab is already so fucked that I donβt notice, but still
Probably the second option
I have been misinformed by nlab a few times I think lol
To be fair, given that itβs like open source, pretty advanced pretty niche stuff, the fact thereβs so much coverage of maths, and that itβs generally at least ok (if brain rot) is quite impressive
Like beyond stuff thatβs straight up just recent research ideas, I donβt think thereβs anything Iβve not been able to find on nlab
There's a reason why people quote the stacks project but not nlab
Stacks is even scarier
just interrupting here to quickly post my favourite nlab screenshots I've collected over the years
and the differential equation article of course, I don't have a screenshot at hand
science of logic is a funny one
I should really start a folder of nlab moments
Lol
This comment here is referring to an unpointed homotopy right?
for in this specific case, if we had a pointed (not necessarily strong) deformation retract, it would automatically be a strong deformation retract, which is impossible?
so just a question
disconnected means, vaguely, that you can split the set into two disjoint open sets
but, of course, in actuality, it's the open sets as interpreted by the subset S
so S β© A and S β© B
now is what is needed the disjointness of S β© A and S β© B or the disjointness of A and B, and is there a practical difference?
wdym vaguely
that is what it means
a disconnected space is the one that is a union of two disjoint open sets
ok so it's the former
disconnected subset is a subset that is disconnected as a subspace
the two are not equivalent no
take uhh a normal space that has a non normal subspace
or something
that will break it
basically if the closures of S \cap A and S \cap B are not disjoint it can be bad
?
what
hmm can that happen actually
i feel like it can and im too lazy to think about it
what I was thinking about
was if there was a case such that
- A and B were closed
- A and B had no non-intersecting open supersets (so A and B being an example of normality failing basically)
- A and B had a pair of open supersets such that the intersection of those supersets was disjoint from the union of A and B
basically the question is if there is a disconnected subspace all of which supspaces are connected
well its not the question but uhh if what i say is true
then its an example of non equivalence
and it sounds true
That's totally possible yeah. Consider a space X = {a, b, c} with open sets
{a, c}, {b, c}, {c}, Γ and X.
Then A = {a} and B = {b} are closed, and there are no pairs open neighbourhoods of them that don't intersect. But AuB is discrete as a subspace
hilarious
Probably correct though lol
The start of pointset top is half definitions and getting used to them
Which can be hard lol
I love that little blurb. He doubles down and says "Yeah, the proofs in this book are probably unnecessary before this point, you could do them yourself."
Which book is that from?
Is the complement of the unit ball in an infinite-dimensional normed vector space path-connected?
the unit sphere S should be path connected. your subspace is the image of the continuous map (1,oo) x S β> V given by (t,v) |-> tv
Are there ever any cases where E is simply connected, so the lifting correspondence is a bijection, but it is not a homomorphism? If not, why? and if not, then why not state the theorem that if E is simply connected then phi is an isomorphism?
My guess is that, you can always make it a group homomorphism by defining a group operation on pinv(b_0) based on the bijection with pi1 since pi1 is always a group. Is this correct?
There's no reason to expect a natural group structure on the fibers. Like if you give it one, there's no reason for it to mean anything in relation to the space E.
The case R->S^1 is highly specific if you think about.
Been thinking about this problem from John Lee's book and Im not sure I even understand the question. I think he's asking for me to show that the union of any collection of bases from across all open sets of the open cover can be an element to a new basis that lives on X...
But wouldnt a counter example be that if we have 2 open sets in the cover that overlap we could potentially have an intersection of the elements of this new basis that isnt another basis element (or contain an element of the basis)?
If your 2 open sets of the cover overlap, their intersection is an open subset of both, so it will be attainable using their bases
im having some trouble understanding what your question is, but i can tell you how i am interpreting lee's question. you want to show that you can construct any open set in X by taking unions of any of the open sets coming from the basis of any of the U's
One key thing to keep in mind would be that since you're considering open sets, their subsets are open in the relative topology if and only if they're open in the original topology
This is a fancy way of saying that a set is open in X if it its intersection with each element in the cover is open.
Are there any spaces where the identity map is not a covering map?
No, use the definition of covering map to prove it.
Thanks all, I think you've cleared up all the things!
nLab is so fucking annoying jfc
By volume, it's like 50% 'did you know William Lawvere was the greatest fucking thinker of the 20th century and he totally didn't lose his first academic position because he punched his department chair or anything like that'
Seems like itβd be good to have a change of guard, so to speak
Hello!
I am working on this exercise but I'm not sure how to proceed. May I get a hint, please?
for any net N and point x you can make a net N' that is convergent iff N is convergent to x
use closed sets
yea and then you can use closed sets, the main difficulty of the exercise is that the nets can happen converge to different points
I mean I had in mind showing that nets converge to the same point
well, if you can do it that will also solve it sure
The problem is that the limit of a net isn't unique. So you have to be a little clever to ensure that your net can only converge to one specific point
And I guess a hint could be that ||a space is T1 iff a constant net only ever converges to one value||
Ah yeah it doesn't specify that they converge to the same point that's a bit trickier
Lawvere fixed point theorem was the steam engine of the 20 th century
in munkres i have to prove that the "figure eight space" X and the "theta space" Y have maps f: X to Y and g: Y to X that are homotopy inverses of each other
isnt this just by virtue of the two spaces being homotopy equivalent since theyre deformation retracts of the doubly punctured plane
actually wait this might go in alg top
whatever
i do also have to describe f and g
i would just describe them in words
so a map from Y to X that im thinking of is just mapping the points on the y-axis line to the single point connecting the two copies of S1 in the figure eight space
fair enough
hopefully the one i just gave is correct
not fully sure about a map from the figure eight space to the theta space
i guess i could just morph the connecting point plus some segments of the S1s to the vertical line
for 8 to π³, to start, the point connecting the two circles should go to the center of π³
yea
i guess in words i can just claim that theyre constructed in such a way that its very clear that their compositions are homotopic to the respective identity maps of each space
at least to me its obvious that thats possible
your picture was very clear tbh. maybe add a color-coded picture of theta as well
to show where the red and blue end up
post-rigour
hell yeah
seems thats how topology works
at least from my profs perspective
she does some significant topology-related research but her way of understanding the subject was so foreign at first
but then i read hatcher and it is pretty much just that
lmao yea. just freestylin fr
yeah
i mean its in a good way though because its not too handwavy to the point where its unclear
finally get to let loose with some visual proofs
bc they actually kinda work to some degree
im confused by this tip, its still true that the S2 wedge S2 has trivial fundamental group
maybe they are just pointing out that this result isnt trivial or something idk
it follows pretty immediately from van kampen tho
Yeah
I think the point was like they want to be careful to prove that the "obvious" answer is correct lol
But agreed
There's probably a mess up top spaces which doesn't satifices the van kampen theorem, which at this point, I wouldn't worry about it.
yeah i mean im in the very very beginning of algebraic topology
pretty much every space weve seen is very easy to break apart into overlapping open sets and thus can just be van kampened to death
I bet it is two topologist comb glue together in some weird way
this is the case for almost all the objects of interested in algebraic topology. Or at the very least, this is kind of true for manifolds and finite CW-complexes
how can i know exactly which properties homeomorphisms preserve?
i suppose itd just be the ones that can be expressed in purely topological terms
thats a good way of thinking abt it
for instance homeomorphisms dont preserve completeness of metrics bc that isn't purely topological
actually maybe thats a bad example bc you do get complete metrizability...
I think it's a good example
boundedness is another classical one - whether a metric space is bounded depends very much on its metric, and can't really be recovered from its topology
I mean, under some circumstances you can guarantee that any metric you could possibly put on a space has to be bounded, such as when the space is compact. but on the other hand, any metric space can also be given a bounded metric that induces the same topology
in other words, every unbounded metric space is homeomorphic to a bounded one
these are usually good candidates, but there are some surprising topological invariants outside of these, too
like de rham cohomology groups, though surely there's a simpler example
oh, good point
hyperbolic volume in knot theory is another example - but not a simpler one
ok am i crazy
i have to find the fundamental group of S1 \times B2
where B2 is the unit ball in R3 including the boundary
so even though this is a solid torus, i know that the fund. group of a product is the product of fund. groups
S1's fund group is Z
B2's is trivial right
indeed the space is contractible
may as well say S1 \times B2 \simeq S^1 gg lol
i see
i was worried since its closed but doesnt matter i guess
idek why i was worried about that
Ye
You're saying that you essentially have to assume that the basis elements of the individual U's need to be open in X, right? ( Like it's a necessary assumption because you define open sets in a given topology and it's not something you prove in this case, correct?)
that is fine though, an open set in U with the subspace topology is the intersection of some open set V in X with U, but U was already open so that this intersection is open in X
okay idk how im struggling with this so much
i have to determine the fundamental group of the subset of R2 whose points have l2 norms greater than 1
im tempted to say its the same as S1 because the points that arent there just form a big point
but idk
well its like homeomorphic to S1 x R
polar coordinates
i see
so S1 x R gets mapped to by plotting the angle and magnitude of each point i suppose
its obviously a continuous bijection and its easy to see that its, say, open
Alternatively, R^2 minus the disc deformation retracts to a slightly larger circle.
wait, what's the example mentioned?
I think Darq's question is, what's an example of X and Y that are each simply connected, but where X wedge Y isn't.
(I'm curious about that too).
Hmm, perhaps it could just be weasel-wording that "the union of two spaces having a point in common" is not necessarily a wedge sum. For example we could consider S^1 to the the union of (-pi,0] and [0,pi] parts, which are each simply connected and have one point in common.
There's this funny cone of the topological earrings
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1790520/306319
Ah, devious! Thanks.
Couldnt the lack of an example be shown by van kampen
Oh nvm jagr showed a counterexample
There is an opennes condition in van kampen that can fail
If you're not locally contractible around the base point
Yo
Whats a filter intuitevly
Im having a hard time understanding it
Im.having a hard time with it and i cnat comtinue without it
There are several possible intuitions. One I like is that it's a generalization of "neighborhood" in a metric space:
If p is some point in the metric space X, then { A subseteq X | A is a neighborhood of p } is a filter, and "filter" in general means a collection of subsets that behaves "more or less" like the collection of neighborhoods of a point.
Some people like to say that each filter specifies a sense in which a subset can have "enough points" for some particular purpose.
dude that's trippyyy
I love it
i like to think of filters as generalising "eventual truth"
or axiomatising the statement that "p(x) is true for sufficiently [BLANK] x"
filter is a map that helps you find stuff
map as like a literal map
specifically, if you have a filter on a set X
you can view it as a map $\forall^F : (X \to {0, 1}) \to {0, 1}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
which sends a predicate $p$ on $X$ to the truth value "$p^{-1}(1) \in F$"
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the reason why you can denote it as $\forall^F$ is that it behaves a little like a "generalised forall" quantifier
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
specifically, the filter rules correspond to the following:
If $\forall^F p$ is true and $p \implies q$, then $\forall^F q$ is true
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
and if $\forall^F p$ and $\forall^F q$ are individually true, then $\forall^F (p \land q)$ is also true
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
for example, you can consider the cofinite filter on $\mathbb{N}$ consisting of all subsets whose complement is finite
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this models predicates that are "eventually true", or "true for sufficiently large n"
so if p is true for sufficiently large n, and p implies q, then q is also true for sufficiently large n
A \in F means that what you are searching for is at A, which is why F is upward closed and finite-intersection closed: if the "object" is in A it is also in any supset of A, and if it is both in A and B then it is also in the intersection of A and B
and if p is true for sufficiently large n, as well as q, then at some point, both p and q are simultaneously true for sufficiently large n
i guess this sounds a little like principal filters?
one way to create a filter on a set $X$ is to select some $x_0 \in X$, and define $\forall^F : (X \to {0, 1}) \to {0, 1}$ by $p \mapsto p(x_0)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the object can be virtual
mhm, true
in topological spaces, filters often take the form of "p is true sufficiently close to x"
and this x could either be an actual point of your space (in which case it's a neighbourhood filter)
or maybe a "virtual point" - for the cofinite filter on N, you can think of it as modelling "p is true sufficiently close to infinity"
this kind of filter arises if you're working with discrete topological spaces
in which case, being true sufficiently close to x is the same as being true at x
indeed one cool thing that filters let you do is axiomatise a qualitative notion of "closeness", as opposed to the quantitative notion offered by a metric
in general, because of the sorites paradox, it doesn't really make sense to ask "is 3 close to 3.01" as a yes/no question
but you can make it quantitative, by saying they're within 0.2 of each other, for example
however, filters let you rigorously define what it means for a predicate on $\mathbb{R}$ to be true "sufficiently close to 3"
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
even though it doesn't make sense 'pointwise' to ask whether some $x \in \mathbb{R}$ is close to $3$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
here its more that the filter is a notion of directions, abstracted from the object(s) it is the directions towards
filters goes... somewhere
that sounds more like a directed set
though i suppose every filter is a directed subset of P(X)
Filters are directed sets under the superset-of relation.
yea
Well, I'd say it does make sense to say that 3 is close to 3
yes but reflexivity is essentially all you can get
and my statement was really about generic real numbers
Yes, of course, the strikethrough was intended to convey that I was being facetious
I do agree with your points (no pun intended) entirely
ah ok, i couldn't quite tell whether you were just being facetious or intending to mock all the points i made
Definitely the former. Also I'd add that even the ostensibly "quantitative" metric only really tends to give you the "closeness" qualitatively, since virtually all definitions/theorems say something about points whose distance to x is "sufficiently small"
But whether "sufficiently small" means d < 1, d < 0.1, or d < 1e-100, you rarely know
yes that's essentially the point of the neighbourhood filter of 3
you say $p(x)$ is true "sufficiently close to $3$" iff $\exists \delta > 0$ such that $\forall x \in (3 - \delta, 3 + \delta)$, $p(x)$ is true
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but because of the existential you don't care which delta it is, which is what makes it qualitative
this ties a little into soft vs hard analysis
all the qualitative stuff is "soft", but sometimes it's useful to have an effective version of a theorem where you actually get bounds for how large you can make delta
like the effective version of the inverse function theorem
that'd be more "hard" analysis
Well yeah, and also the fact that a metric is a real-valued function, does let you bring the "quantitative" aspect into it in some way, I've lately been thinking of that in connection with the Urysohn lemma.
mhm?
In a metric space you construct the Urysohn function directly and trivially, by giving a formula in terms of distance of point to set.
In a general normal space you can still get the Urysohn function, but it's considerably more involved to do so
mhm, it's a very cool construction using the sandwich formulation of normality and dyadic rationals
Yeah, so fundamentally you don't need the metric, but having immediate access to something real-valued helps you a lot
i think that's why it's good to know both sides of analysis and not get stuck in either the soft or hard style
the soft "infinitary" style can make some statements significantly easier to state and prove
but it's also easy for things to feel a lot more "wishy-washy" without hard numbers
If we define an equivalnce relation on X = R with the standard tooology by setting x sim u if x-y in Q give the familiar space to which X minus sim is homeomorphic
Idk how to prove this
Equivalence class should be [x]=x plus Q
Quotient map is R to R/sim
Do you know how to describe the topology on a quotient space?
Hmm π€ meaning saying its discrete, indiscrete etc?
what does X - sim mean?
I mean given a space X and an equivalence relation ~ do you know what the open sets in the topology on X/~ is?
They mean X/~
oh i see
I think the question was, can you complete the definition: "In a quotient space X/~, the open sets are the sets such that ..."
And spoiler warning, the next question I will ask you is what do you get if you apply the definition to your example
Indeed. And it might even be easier to think about closed sets instead of open sets here. Because ||what happens if a closed set contains one of these equivalence classes x+Q||
so indiscrete4 topology
Is this right method to finding out what this is homeomorphic to
Yes it's the right approach
i'm very confused on how to not be able to extract a finite subcover from this question, i understand that we have an open cover {U_i | i in I} in the lower limit topology, meaning theyre all unions of infinitely many intervals [a,b), but after that i'm so lost
i think we have to find an open cover such that we cant obtain a finite subcover, but i have no idea how to go about doing that
start from the right end of the set [0, 1] and work your way toward the left end
it'll probably be easier if you restrict to working with disjoint open sets like [0, 0.1) and [0.1, 0.2), which is possible in this topology
do we want like a sequence?
probably works
i dont see how we can get an open cover though bc it has to be infinite right?
maybe [n, n + 0.1) for n >= 0?
open covers can be infinite
this won't work
not surprised
the first set is [0, 0.1) and the second is [1, 1.1). you immediately miss most of [0,1]
well start with a finite open cover and look to see if you can turn that into an infinite open cover, maybe by cutting up your open sets somehow
i can think of an immediate finite open cover to maybe be [0,2)
you don't need both end points to be different in your open cover
you can fix the left end point and build up your cover by going towards the right towards 1
so something consisting of things that look like [0,a)
hm
true that works
well [0, 1/n) obviously doesnt work
well because 1/n -> 0
but i'm sure you can think of a sequence that that lives in (0,1) that converges to 1
[0, 1 - 1/n)?
it converges to [0,1] but it doesnt ever equals 1
but its still above it
so it contains [0,1]
it does not converge to [0,1]
it is exactly [0,1)
1 isn't in any of the sets [0, 1 - 1/n) and so can't be in (\bigcup_n [0, 1 - 1/n) )
rats
josemom2
so nvm
i guess then we could try 1.1 - 1/n?
how about adding [1, a) to your open cover
recall that covers just have to satisfy [
A \subset \bigcup_\alpha U_\alpha
]
josemom2
yeye
yes
now you should check whether:
- it's a cover
- it contains a finite subcover
well its clearly a cover since we have unioned a closed 1 on it
i would think it contains a subcover bc we can consider n = 10, then we just have [0, 1.1) which contains it and is finite
uh no
:')
try showing that the collection { [0, 1 - 1/n) } actually covers [0,1) explicitly
the fact that 1 is on our cover is resolved by the fact that we threw in [1,a)
i dont know how to do it explicitly other than it converges to [0, 1+epsilon) maybe? which contains [0,1)
you can do it in cases, but the starting step is always to let x in [0,1] and show that it actually lives inside one of the sets of your cover.
- consider x in [0,1/2]
- consider x in (1/2, 1)
- consider x = 1
i mean
- x in [0, 1/2] is clear
- x in (1/2, 1) seems pretty clear as well since 1 - 1/n < 1 for all n > 1
< *
but then that makes me think x = 1 is in there
wait omg
i'm thinking about this wrong
sorry if this seems annoying, but i do recommend being able to explicitly produce a set in the collection that something in (1/2, 1) lives in
i thought we were going from tight to left instead of left to right
it's going to be important for when you check whether this collection has a finite cover
its not annoying i just dont know what im doing
so my answers will be extremely ignorant
it's ok dw, it's not as bad as you think. i always tell myself that it's just thinking really hard about numbers and quantities
let's say x = 0.75, which set(s) in our collection does this live in?
(1/2,1)
the thought process is something like:
we need some set [0, 1 - 1/n) where the right end point is bigger than 0.75, so 1 - 1/n > 0.75
we can certainly find a natural number n such that 1/n < 0.25, say n = 10 works. this gives 1 - 0.1 = 0.9 so we may say that 0.75 lives in [0,0.9) which is one of the sets in our collection.
ah, they need to be sets in our collection that we're trying to check is a cover
so we need to be able to find some [0, 1 - 1/n) that works
hm
i don't understand this problem at all then LOL
the reason i suggested checking the second case is because 1 - 1/n \geq 1/2 for all n \geq 1/2
so, we're trying to show [0,1] is not compact in the lower limit topology. this means that we need to be able to find an infinite cover of [0,1] that doesn't contain any finite subcover, i.e if we take any finite collection from said cover, it's no longer a cover for the entire set
ohh
i didn't know that last part
something that should clue you into what the open cover should look like is the fact that we're in R_l and sets like [0,a) are open. it's true that regular open intervals (a,b) are open in R_l as well, but [0,1] is compact in the regular topology and so we might not be successful if our cover just consists of regular old open intervals
yes
ohhhhh
yeye i understand that
sorry, it's commonly denoted (\mathbb{R}l, \mathbb{R}\ell, \mathbb{R}_L)
josemom2
ohhhhhh
anyways, if 1/2 < x < 1, can we pick N such that 1 - 1/N > x ?
if you rearrange it, you get that 1 - x > 1/N
yep
now, is 1 - x positive?
yes for all 0 \geq x < 1
right, and 1/2 < x < 1 so that checks out
yep
the archimedean property says that some natural number N exists such that 1/N < 1 - x
so x lives in [0, 1 - 1/N)
beyond just knowing the name of the property, it should be intuitive to expect that you can take some really large natural number N and have 1/N < e for any positive number e
yeye i understand the Archimedean property
Hello everyone! The other day I was asking about this problem, but I honestly don't know how to start.
for a net N think about what happens if you insert an immediate successor to each element of the directed set and send it to a fixed point of the space
So two things to note.
If T and T' are different then there is a set that is closed in one topology, but not the other.
A point is in the closure of a set if and only if there is a net in that set that converges to the point.
So this would be the better approach to follow? T = T' iff cl_T(S) = cl_T'(S) for any subset S of X?
Well you can do that if you want. But what I'm suggesting is assume T and T' are different and pick S such S is a closed set in T, but the closure is bigger in T' (or vice versa)
@gaunt linden @prisma garnet @quartz horizon @tender halo thank you guys for helping me understand the concept of a filter, btw im not even studying topology yet but my prof in real analysis 2 really wants us to understand functions as from a filter to a metric space so i was having a hard time intuitevly understanding filters
i just read what you guys said so im sorry for not responding yesterday
i was bussy studying and going to lectures
wtf is your prof doing
||bussy studying? tell me more||
A point is in the closure of a set if and only if there is a net in that set that converges to the point.
Hmm, but it doesn't seem to be assumed in the problem that a net converges to the same point according to T and T', so some extra footwork will be needed.
i just want to start of with the fact that when we get into first year of uni we from the beggining start with realanalysis/calc in one and he starts of the first lecture with introduction to what is a filter but doesnt explain it but just putting it out there to confuse people, but i got him in 2nd year so now he thinks we already understand the core concepts
sorry for talkin to much out of context of the cnannel
Indeed, and some tips have been given for that extra footwork.
But I think it's probably a good idea to take this problem one step at a time
I.e. first step, can we come up with any sort of net at all relevant to the problem?
As bussy beaver has basically said already: ||If you take a net N and introduce an immediate successor to every element with value x, then the new net converges iff N converges to x||
yea also we need to like prove that T' is also T1 at some point... i think
im unsure
I'm not so sure I can show T' is also T1. It would be helpful, but not sure it can be done
oh i guess we can have an alternating sequence of x1 x2
It's not so hard, so could be a warm up I guess
If a net N converges to x, and D is the directed set, then x_d, x, x_d, x, .. must converge to x
that wont converge in a T1 space
Kind of thinking as a sequence, but I think that is what bussy mentioned too
The fact that we only have a T1 assumption on one of the sides leads me to expect that Jagr's approach will lead to a somewhat awkward case analysis.
I think I would aim for proving that if some net converges to p according to T' then it also converges to the same p according to T, and then use the T1 assumption to show that the two topologies agree on the "net converges to such and such point" relation, which then fixes what the topologies are.
Yeah, so more formally you can do Dx{0<1}
I mean, I don't know if the two cases T' is T1 and T' is not T1 is that akward, but you might be able to do it without
Hmm, perhaps it's the same amount of work in the end.
just make an alternating sequence of x1 x2 if x1 is in x2's closure in T', it doesnt converge in T but converges to x1 in T'
I'm going to homeomorph you.
ur about to get homotoped making threats like that
I'm going to turn you into a disconnected topological space.
I don't get the hint, can anyone help me here?
Like you don't understand what the hint means or you don't understand how it's helpful?
I don't get what it means
they are asking you to consider functions whose graph is a broken line (polygonal chain, polyline, idk what name you use for those)
So the graph is a subset of [0, 1]xR and then you should consider when the graph is just made up of straight lines between rational points
Such a graph will be determined by just which rational points
I'm not super sure where to ask this. Suppose I have a family of (probability) measures $\mu_{\omega}$ for $\omega\in [0,1]$. These are measures on the Borel $\sigma$-algebra of $[0,1]$. Suppose further that \begin{equation}\mu_\omega\left(\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty A_n\right)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty \mu_\omega(A_n)\text{ for a.e. }\omega,\end{equation} and for all collection of disjoint sets $\mathcal{A}={A_1,A_2,\ldots}$. Then, for some $\omega=x_{\mathcal{A}}\in[0,1]$, we are allowed to redefine $\mu_\omega$ on $\bigcup_{n=1}^\infty A_n$ so it doesn't equal the RHS of (1), while still (1) being true a.e.\
My question is; is $\mathcal{A}\mapsto x_{\mathcal{A}}$ surjective (or even bijective)? In other words, if for each $\mathcal{A}\subset\mathcal{B}([0,1])$ we redefine $\mu_\omega$ at $\omega=x_{\mathcal{A}}$, we will eventually have redefined on each point in $[0,1]$?
psie
Send this in #advanced-analysis probably
wikipedia says that a space is sequential iff it is a quotient of a metric space


but morally correct