#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 132 of 1
Lindelofness js a little strange
but compactness and paracompactness i think are fairly natural
compactness for sure
and yeah I do agree that once you are familiar with the contexts where it is useful, then it seems quite natural
which happens a lot
I didn't know why locally compact hausdorff spaces were so significant until I had worked with them a lot and had seen all of the things that they allow you to do
my only intuition for paracompactness is in terms of partitions of unity
I believe its equivalent to partitions of unity (maybe only for hausdorff spaces or smth) so thats a good intuition to have
but of course its typically an easier condition to check on a space by space basis
those are actually i think are the examples of just being nice enough technical conditions
which is probably why it exists rather than defining a "partition of unity space"
yeah fair, though hausdorff and locally compact interact in just the right way to ensure you have enough functions to do a lot of useful things which is really when they clicked for me
LCH = I can think of this as a manifold
my favorite manifold, the cantor set
local compactness is not very natural imo, and hausdofrness is only there because it implies tychonofness

and tychonofness is the natural setting
True
For what?
Ig depends what one is doing lol
/hj
it is the minimal sane separation axiom
equivalent to being embeddable to a compact (hausdorff space)/into a product of segments
for harmonical analysis at least is the main setting im used to
since you want enough functions
(into R or C)
if you aren't as concerned with functions and function spaces, I suppose less would be enough
and (the big part of why its natural to me) equivalent to its topology being completely described by functions into R
and its the natural setting for doing stuff with ultrafilters (you get the nice duality between ultrafilters and zero sets)
which lets you do stone cech, etc etc
well its equivalent modulo uhh T0 i think
but everything is T0
except pseudometrics i guess
The REAL setting for topology is continua
No, the ACTUAL REAL setting for topology is clearly condensed sets! /s
hi everyone~
i'm not very used to topology problems. i'm trying to show that if f : omega1 -> R is continuous (for the order topology), it has an upper bound
suppose it doesn't have an upper bound. u_n = f⁻¹( (-inf, n) ) is a sequence of open sets. All the u_n are countable, otherwise the image of an adherent point of u_n would be an upper bound for f (that's the point i have some intuition for, but not sure i know how to justify)
the union of the u_n is a countable union of countable sets, so it is countable and therefore in omega1. But f doesn't have an upper bound, so the union of the u_n is omega1. contradiction
can anyone help me to justify that the u_n are indeed all countable? (if that's the correct path to solve this)
well the easy way to prove it is to just say that omega_1 is countably compact and therefore its image is countably compact and therefore compact and therefore (closed and) bounded
but for your way hmm
its kinda invovled i guess
if some u_i is uncountable, it means it is cofinal but not the whole space
ok what i can do is say lets take v_n to be preimages of (-inf, n], and w_n to be preimages of [n, +inf) and say
if f has no upper bound, then all w_n's are cofinal. if some v_i is uncountable, then both v_i and w_{i+1} are cofinal
which is bad because then we can take a common adherent point of v_i and w_{i+1} whose image is now both leq i and geq i+1
i think that works
i guess you can do the same with preimages of open rays instead of closed rays, the argument is the same
i like closed because then its like club sets
oh i like this argument!
thank you, got it :)
If I’ve got three topological spaces X, Y and Z and a continious map $f : X \times Y \rightarrow Z$, I define $\hat f : X \rightarrow Z^Y$ where $Z^Y$ is the set $C(Y,Z)$ with the compact-open topology and and where $\hat f(x)(y) = f(x,y)$.
How can I show that $\hat f$ is continious ?
aaaa
So it's enough to verify continuity for the subbasis of the compact open topology. I.e. if K is compact in Y, U is open in Z and V(K, U) is the set of continuous functions with g(K) < U, then you want it's preimage to be open in X.
In other words the set of x with
f(x, K) < U
should be open.
Use continuity of f, the basis for the product topology and, and compactness of K.
does the converse hold, and if not, what must be imposed for it to hold
Something like X being locally compact I think
No, Y being locally compact I mean
that makes sense
I need to get back to topology and finish that project once and for all, after I'm done being sidetracked by QFT and national exams
Thanks, but that doesn’t help me a lot 😅, that what I’ve been trying
Thanks, but that doesn’t help me a lot 😅, that what I’ve been trying
Idk where to use the compacity of K
Okay, so pick one x such that
f(x, K) < U.
Then what you want is a neighborhood of x where the same is true.
Now for any k in K, f(x, k) is in U. Since f is continuous that means there exists open sets
V and W in X and Y such that
f(V, W) < U and V contains x and W contains k.
Now the problem is that W might not contain all of K. Here you need to use compactness somehow
Remember that compactness has something to do with covers, so you want some kind of cover of K
Okk so I do that for all k, and I take a finite number of Wk
Indeed, and corresponding Vk
And intersection of Vk ?
Well, does that work?
Yes
Can I ask where do u work ? (I assume ur a mathématician)
Right now I'm in the process of graduating, so currently working nowhere I guess
But in wich country do u study ? And wich uni?
I'm sure they have math in most countries in the world
Yeah, but the education isn’t the same in all country, and also the reasarch system
a topology on Y^X is called proper if for every space Z and a continuous map f: X \cross Z -> Y the corresponding f bar: Z -> Y^X is also continuous
this happens if Y^X is not too fine
a topology of Y^X is called admissible if for every space Z the reverse is true - for a continuous map g: Z -> Y^X the map g bar: X \cross Z -> Y is also continuous
this happens if Y^X is not too coarse
if \Tau_1 is a proper topology on Y^X, and \Tau_2 is an admissible topology on Y_X, then:
any topology coarser than \Tau_1 is proper
any topology finer than \Tau_2 is admissible
\Tau_1 is coarser than \Tau_2
therefore, there is at most one topology on Y^X that is both proper and admissible
the compact-open topology is always proper
and if X is locally compact, then it is also admissible
Why did bro choose to live in the arctic circle
Also first time i saw jagr outside groups rings fields 
Trondheim is over 300km south of the Arctic circle
Trondheim is same altitude as Umea
Pretty close at least yeah
Are you doing postdoc as well at ntnu ?
After doctorate
How's the ntnu ?
you can come to my house and I will give you cookies and tea and we can chat about math
when you come to sweden hit me up
where in sweden are you ?
göteborg
ohhh nice
chalmers university
yes welcome
you're going to actually have to do it tho
cuz i'm a few hours from goteborg
I dmed you
Can someone please explain this topic to me
So, I understand what an open ball intuitive is just set of all points are closer than the distance r
This definition says that, in a metric space, open sets contain a ball around every point
closer than a distance r from the center
otherwise the set you described looks very different
okay I see thanks for that I learnt a little more it now
why did munkres write this last part about "we assert that the sets U_i X V_i..."
i don't understand what this adds to the proof that isn't apparent from just elementary set theory
i feel like im missing something
he is saying that in the following paragraph, we will show that the sets U_i x V_i ...
he does this because you need to show that the tube W x Y is contained in N
yes, but i guess my confusion is as to why this needed as much deliberation as it got
it sounds like you are upset about the opening sentence lol
like munkres has jumped over larger details than this, so im thinking there was some fine detail that im not seeing, but if it's really just set theory then 
i don't think that he is skipping over any details here?
oh. sure, could the proof have been shortened, yea. but it was just a paragraph i suppose
finishes off the proof nicely
and completely
Why do math textbooks have this font
Is there like a website which can safely change font to something more legible like nice lateX
think of open sets as the sets than can be expressed by open balls in standard set operations
so like open sets can be unions of open balls and also FINITE intersections of open balls
finite is important bc u can get some stuff u dont want happening otherwise
This is just a scan of a print of munkres
as far as i can tell it's just times
i don't know of any such website
the tube lemma is burnt into my head bc i read this chapter of munkres while waiting in line for the velocicoaster at universal
oh btw @warped helm how are u doing with topology now
my confidence in it has increased significantly bc i got a 92 on my topology midterm
that's like me with the contraction mapping theorem in R; i had it as a problem on a hw and while in line i was doing it in my head 
eh idk, i've been slacking lowkey
i have to lock in for my midterm on friday
i've been doing better though because i've been sleeping more consistently
yeah
i learned i gotta eat better and sleep better bc i fumbled my algebra midterm really bad
bc i had the worst test anxiety ive ever had out of nowhere
my topology class is not so bad, just very boring. the professor doesn't add much apart from giving us a grade
everything written on the board is directly from munkres
my prof is not good at teaching but shes a really good person and very good at topology
just too good for our sakes
i think i'll have to wait to take alg top until next year unfortunately
that sucks
lowkey im fine with it since i dont think it's immediately relevant for much of the analysis im interested in
algtop is cool as hell
fair enough
what analysis do u do
algtop
well, not much since i'm only in an intro real analysis course rn, but after this semester i think i can finally move onto more serious differential equations stuff. up to this point most of my experience with it has been computational
eventually i hope to do Serious Probability and maybe some variational calculus stuff :3
oh and i guess complex analysis too, that seems like great fun
and fourier...
that is surprising, i thought you would have taken a RA course already
im in the boat for complex like u are with algtop
was gonna take it next semester but probably not
i think a lot of the stuff i talk about here on this discord i've absorbed through osmosis

hm well not a lot but some of it, i tend to not help people in topics that i haven't had a course in
If X is topological space and if I take Y = X u { ∞}, and define topology on Y such that all open sets of X union open set containing ∞ is of the form Y\K, where K is a compact set of X.
So Y is compact topological space, right?
It is similar as one point compactification, just i just removed Hausdorff condition and locally compact
what is an open set containing infinity
theres no notion of that yet
they are defining them to be complements of compact subsets of X in Y
oh, thats not how i read this
You're almost describing https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Alexandroff_extension, except in the general (non-Hausdorff) case you want K to be not only compact but compact and closed; otherwise your new topology may not be closed under binary intersections.
I see
Can I get T1 space on countable set such that it is not second countable?
Yeah, I think the cofinite topology works
How do I show it is not the first countable ?
I think if X is countable and T1 space with co finite topology it is first countable, and since X is countable implies topology is second countable
Right it is second countable
You can take N x N with a wacky topology
Arens space works
So Arens space is T1 space which is not first countable
yep
We can simplify the Arens example slightly for this purpose: Take N² and declare a subset to be open iff it is empty or it omits only finitely many elements in each column.
This is not second (nor first) countable, since for every proposed countable base we can diagonalize to find a nonempty open set that contains none of the proposed base sets.
Actually I don't understand how Arens topology is defined, can you tell me what is meant by omits only finitely many elements in each column ?
For each x there are only finitely many y such that (x, y) is not in the set
Also, can someone give me a hint to find topology which is ordered topology but not first countable?
I see
So it is clearly T1 space
The extended long line.
You just need a very "big" order. Do you know about ordinals?
And how is Aren's topology defined?
Yes a little bit
There seem to be two different Arens spaces; Wikipedia defines one of them at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arens–Fort_space
Well then you might consider some very big ordinal. This is essentially what tropos already suggested
Oh
They both work for this purpose; but the description in Wikipedia looks more accessible than the one they link to for the other (non-Fort) Arens space.
Okay if I take w be the minimal uncountable well-ordered set, so I have to show it is not first countable
Ordinals are the equivalence classes of well ordered sets?
Yes, though you probably want to consider w+1
You mean R u {∞}?
No, I was betting on you knowing about the long line already. But if you don't, just take Jagr's suggestion of the order topology on omega_1+1 instead.
Oh
Okay consider w+1.
I can say there is no countable decreasing sequence such that (a_1, w] \subset (a_2, w] \subset (a_3, w] ...
Because I can take A = { x | x < a_i for some i }, this set is countable. w is uncountable implies there exists x in w, then consider (x, w], then there is no a_i such that (x, w] \subset (a_i, w].
How do I proceed now?
So then you're done.
You assumed you had a countable basis, then found a neighborhood not covered by that basis, badabim badaboom, not a basis
there is no countable decreasing sequence such that (a_1, w] \subset (a_2, w] \subset (a_3, w] ...
well, there is, it just has a nontrivial limit.
Fortunately that doesn't harm the actual argument that follows.
I think I have to write my argument again, no countable decreasing sequence such that (a_1, w]\subset (a_2, w ] ...., such that any open set U containing w there exists a_i such that U \subset (a_i, w]
You can just omit speaking about sequences in the argument at all. They're useful for intuition here, but it turns out the argument that results doesn't need them.
As Jagr stated, just start by assuming you have some countable neighborhood basis for the top element. It doesnt really need to be a decreasing sequence for your argument about the union of complements being countable to work.
So that means, every proper open set of w is countable?
Uh no.
Sorry I am not following the argument
Let's say U_i's are the countable basis of w
Then what should be my next step?
For each i pick an a_i such that (a_i,w] is contained in U_i.
Got it
Then let x be the supremum of all the a_i's.
Okay
By your argument above, x is countable and is therefore in particular not w.
But what if x is one of the a_i's?
ai is not contained in (ai, w]
so just do (ai+1, w]
x is the supremum of a_i's, right? If I consider a_i's as set then supremum means \bigcup a_i's?
Which is again countable, and same for x+1
I know w is well-ordered set which is uncountable and for any x in w, the set { y in w | y < x } is countable.
And i think you are working with sets, so w is a well-ordered set which is uncountable and contains sets which are countable, right?
Or can you please define ordinals for me?
So (x+1, w] is an open set containing w, but no U_i's contained in (x+1, w]
I got it, thank you @opaque scroll @gaunt linden 
Just, I am not very confident about ordinals but I understand
So an ordinal is a well ordered set such that every element is also a subset.
The first uncountable ordinal w is a set containing all the countable ordinals, then w+1 contains all the countable ordinals and w
In fact, this could be replaced by: for each Ui pick some ai element of Ui and not equal to w, full stop.
Or, without even picking, let ai be the minimal element of Ui.
So here I am confused, every element is also a subset, why I can't say every element is set, or do we recursively define x +1 = x union {x}
Yes, you define
0 to be the empty set
x + 1 = x union {x}
and the supremum of a set of ordinals to be their union. This then recursively defines all ordinals.
So is it the same as Von neumann construction of natural numbers?
Yes, except for the natural number you don't take the third rule -- there are some sets of naturals that don't have a (natural) supremum.

(As far as the topological question is concerned, we don't really need the full power and glory of ordinals here -- they're just a convenient way to make a totally ordered set such that the whole set is uncountable, yet { x | x < c } is countable for every c in the set.)
Yes
I have to show I^2, I = [0,1] is not metrizable with dictionary order, so I am thinking about to show it is not the first countable
pretty sure it’s first countable.
on any slice, it looks like I, so you can transport over a local nbhd basis
the endpoints require some care
unless i’m missing some small detail
So how do I show it is not metrizable? Is it separable?
How about d((x,y),(z,w)) = 2 if x=z, otherwise |y-w|?
I think it is not separable
Does "metrizable" require separability for you?
Compact + metrizable implies seperable is the idea I think
No
It is question in Munkres
it does have a countable dense set though, the rationals I^2
But [0,1]² with the dictionary order and order topology is not compact as far as I can se.
That's not dense
But i think I can make uncountable disjoint open sets, what if I take {x} ×(0,1) for each x in [0,1]
Yeah.
oh yes, the slice coordinate doesn’t have to be rational
It is compact
Because it has the least upper bound and it is closed interval
You get a lot of bandwidth from having to cover (x, 0) and (x, 1). Looks pretty compact to me
I^2 is well-ordered set, right?
It's not well ordered no
Even a single slice is not well-ordered.
Yes it is not
Aahh, good point.
Can I say it has least upper bound, i think it has
every subset has a lub in the square, yea
So then I^2 is compact
Nice idea
What intuition should I have for G_delta and F_sigma sets
this kind of reasoning works to show that it is not separable.
a countable subset projects down to a countable subset of I x 0 = I. this can’t be all of I, so it misses some points. but then for a point that it misses, say t, t x (0,1) is an open set in I x I not containing any of the points from your countable subset of I x I.
Yes
Tbh I just think of the whole borel hierarchy as just slowly creating more and more weird sets
idk if there's like a better way to think about them
So here I am thinking two cases,
One is A is open iff (x,y) in A then (x, z) in A for all but finitely many z.
Second is A is open iff for all x in N, (x,z) in A for all but finitely many z.
There’s some result that
A subset of a complete space that’s completely metrizable is G_delta
Yeah
why
it's an if and only if actually for completely metrizable
Id have to go look at the proof again
Yeah, same; I think the countable operations make it fairly easy to lose the intuition.
ok so the proof first does the result for open sets then for a countable intersection it embeds within some countable product
as a closed subspace
so the key result I guess is that a countable product of completely metrizable spaces is completely metrizable
for open sets you basically take the usual metric but augment it by the distance to the complement to get rid of the only way completeness can fail
basically you just grab the edges of the open set and pull them towards infinity I guess is the way to think about it
@.@
the surrounding space need not be complete
Yeah, "Open subset of complete metric space is completely metrizable" is a neat exercise in itself.
(including the observation that it might not be complete in the original metric)
I don’t really understand any of these results…
completely metrizable spaces are characterized as those that are only embeddable in a metrizable space as a G_\delta
another thing that seems relevant for G_delta is that a continuous map A -> Y on a subset A of a metric space where Y is complete can be extended to a G_delta B contained in the closure of A
yea
this is where the G_\delta comes from
I think a fairly natural case where they come up is when you can construct for each natural number some open neighborhood of each point in a set
then take the intersection of that union
which is a kinda common thing to do at least in metric spaces
this already gives you a pretty good way of approximating any set as a G_delta set
much better than an open approximation via the interior or closed approximation via the closure
(namely for each n, take a ball of radius 1/n about each point and take the union. then take the intersection of these open sets over all n)
idrk if that's a standard thing to do but maybe that gives some better idea about what G_delta sets look like or how they can arise in natural ways
For Q in R that would just give you all of R though, if I understand correctly
it would give you R, Q is not a G_\delta
Maybe this stems from me not really understanding the baire category theorem
yeah
But there does exist a G_delta set of Lebesgue measure 0 which contains Q
honestly I feel like so many ways of presernting the BCT are really unintuitive
what finally made it click was the terry tao blog post on it that presents it as a sort of version of the pidgeonhole principle
Oh yes, Baire is huge in FA
yah although moreso its consequences
That's why Banach spaces (or Hilbert spaces) are the primary object of study rather than general normed vector spaces/inner product spaces
Well yes
basically as an analogue of th is
he says that null sets are sort of "measure theoretic nowhere dense sets"
and then this is the version of baire
um…
that I find is by far the most intuitive
I don’t see the analogy 😭
"measure zero sets" are analogous to "nowhere dense sets"
well null sets are measure theoretically sets that have very little significance measure theoretically
and nowhere dense sets are kinda similar for topology
"The union of countably many measure zero sets can't have positive measure" translates to "the union of countably many nowhere dense sets can't have nonempty interior"
(in a complete metric space, so unlike the measure theory statement; the topological statement doesn't hold universally)
Honestly the only time I’ve ever thought about nowhere dense sets is for Baire
I’ve never used them outside that
My preferred way to work with Baire has been via contrapositive, with dense open sets (or dense G_deltas)
though I will say even terrys framing I prefer to just always frame it in terms of closed sets so I can actually remember it
aka if a countable union of closed sets contains a ball, then one of the individual closed sets contains a ball
which is p much directly a pidgeonhole
Is this even true
honestly I don't like dense open sets because I have a very hard time kinda imaging whats going on
It is in a complete metric space
in a complete metric space yes
that's exactly the baire category theorem
I thought it was a density thing
Having nontrivial intersection with an open ball isn’t the same as containing an open ball right
sure but you don't need that if you restrict to closed sets
Uh..
condition 6 here
is the only one that makes any intuitive sense to me really
yeah wikipedia comments on this similarity as well
also its the version that shows up in all the functional analysis proofs
thinking about BCT in terms of cech-complete spaces is helpful to me
in my class on metric spaces I think we introduced it in terms of the intersections of dense open sets and idk why because its super hard to think about imo
although maybe that's the setting where you prove it that could be why
partly I just think the term nowhere dense is kinda confusing and it always takes me a second to parse what it means maybe thats a skill issue
The most useful way probably depends on what you're doing with Baire, I've often used it to establish existence-type results; where to prove that an object satisfying <condition> exists, you phrase <condition> as a conjunction of countably many simpler condition each of which can be shown to hold on a dense open set.
but closed sets are nicer
Therefore the set where all conditions are satisfied is dense, and in particular it's nonempty
ah that's a nice way to think about it
It feels like a weirdly overkill way to show existence, since in fact you show that "most" objects satisfy your condition, even if you only need one.
I think goign through the proofs of the uniform boundedness and open mapping theorems gives you a good sense of whats going on for the closed set variation
my definition of nowhere dense is every open set has an open subset that doesnt intersect with our set
thats kinda how i think about them
that's a good way to think about it actually
or better yet, an open basic subset that doesnt intersect with out set
this is just all the set {(a,b) I a in [0,1] and b in [0,1]}?
Yes, but with a particular topology applied. (And I was later convinced that it is indeed compact).
i guess i will learn wht a topology is next sem
Uh ... it is generally assumed that people who come here do.
It was probably mentioned, but a closed interval is always compact in the order topology (and [0,1]^2 with the order topology has a least and greatest element, so it can be written as a closed interval)
Though metric spaces are also on topic here, so perhaps not.
I come here because i will learn topology
i know what those are at least
they motivated me to study topology
Hmm, I didn't know that, actually.
Given a complete order you mean?
Yeah, that's what I was about to type, I missed an important assumption (the least upper bound property/order completeness)
But the lexicographic ordering on the square does have that.
Okay, crisis averted :-)
The set of rationals between 0 and 1 isn't compact in the order topology
Jagr any comment?
I'm not following you there. Two cases for what?
The topology you describe in the first of your cases just gives you the disjoint union of countably many copies of (N, cofinite topology), which is second countable.
I am trying to understand this one
Here how the open set looks?
An open set is either empty or all of N² except for finitely many points in each column.
So I can say,
A is open iff for all x in N, (x,z) in A for all but finitely many z.
That's what I said.
(Except you also need to count the empty set as open in order to satisfy the definition of a topology).
Yes
How do we diagonalize here?
I am thinking if U_1,... are countable basis elements, then for each U_i associate A^(i)_{n} = { (n,z) | (n,z) not in U_i }.
Then thinking to define a new open set with associate A_n such that A_n = A^{n}_{n}.
But it didn't work
The idea is to make an open set A where we have chosen each column such that it prevents A from containing one of the U_i's.
One way to proceed would be, for each i pick an x_i such that (i,x_i) is in U_i.
Then let A = N² \ { (1,x1), (2,x2), (3,x3), (4,x4) ... }.
Yes I am thinking exactly same
Make A such that in each column n, we delete one point which is in n column of U_n
Thank you, I got it 
I have one question, how does someone think about such construction of these types of topology?
I don't know how to answer that.
The kind of topological intuition one gets from R^n or manifolds is pretty much useless for this kind of counterexamples. I tend to think of them more as exposing loopholes in the definition by constructing deliberately unnatural examples.
is there a notion of collinearity in arbitrary metric spaces where x,y,z are collinear if d(x,y)+d(y,z)=d(x,z)
obviously it depends on the orientation of your triplet but
If $U\subseteq \R^n$ is homeomorphic to $V\subseteq \R^m$, do we have $n=m$?
Sara
No
Take n = 1, U = R and V = some line through the origin in the plane
Right ofc, thank you
i think if U and V are open subsets this is true?
it's called the invariance of domain theorem
proving it is a little tricky afaik
that's R^n -> R^n i think
actually you only need U to be open
wait hang on
i may be tripping
you're right
hm then what was i thinking of
take U = V = {}... 
A open nonempty subset of R^n contains an open subset homeomorphic to R^n. So therefore open subset of R^n and R^m can't be homeomorphic (unless they're empty)
(or n=m)
See "consequences" on the same wiki page
right okay, thank you :)
Any hint for the converse part?
Mimic the proof of Urysohn’s lemma, being specific in which opens you choose to be the opens containing A
Say A = countable intersection of U_i's
Urysohn's lemma give me that there is continuous function f_i on X -> [0,1], on A it gives 0 and on U_i^c it gives 1.
You don’t want to use Urysohn directly, you want to mimic its proof
I see
Or rather, do it’s proof, but be more careful in how you choose your open sets during the proof
But that's a very long proof
I think you could prove it by invoking the Urysohn lemma in a resonable clever way, don't have to mimick that proof.
You should be able to use those functions to get the function that the exercise is asking you for
I am thinking of taking sup of f_i's
But sup of bounded continuous function, is it continuous?
The supremum of countably many continuous functions needn't be continuous
As an aside; it's going to be lower semicontinuous but that doesn't help you here.
Also the supremum would be the indicator of A^c (and the indicator of an open set is indeed lower semicontinuous)
Well, you want a function that will be 0 on A, and that will be nonzero where at least one of the f_i's is nonzero.
Supremum is indeed one way of obtaining that, but it will ruin continuity.
Yes
What other ways can you think of of making a new function out of a sequence of functions?
Lim sup?
Again, continuity will be a struggle.
What operations on functions do preserve continuity?
I'm trying to come up with a hint that won't just be the answer, and it's tricky
Finite addition?
Yep, addition is a word that should be on your mind.
But countably addition don't give continuity, right? So we have to modify something here
Yes and yes
If only there were some countable sums that converged
Countable addition gives continuity sometimes, if you play your cards right
How?
So your functions are all bounded by 1. But unfortunately
Sum 1 doesn't converge
How can you make it into a sum that converges?
I don't get your question, but I am thinking of replacing 1 by 1/n^2
Alright, so you have a function bounded by 1. Can you make it into a function bounded by 1/n^2 ?
Yes divide it by n^2
So then you got it?
And how do I show f is continuous?
If X is a topological space, Y is a metric space, and (g_n) is an a sequence functions from X into Y, uniformly converging to a function g : X-> Y, then g is also continuous.
(i.e. uniform convergence preserves continuity)
Check the very last sentence of the proof where Friedl says 2b' follows in same manner as 1b by reducing it to proof of 2b
But this assumes that a collection ${ U_i }_{i \in I}$ being localy finite means {
${ {U^c}i }{i \in I}$ is locally finite as well
How else can it work
I read alternate proofs on stackexchange, but what is the author trying to say here
Leno
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
he is just re-using the same form of argument, not the same hypothesis
when he says same argument as (1b)
i think
I thought the same
So here \sum f_i(x) converges to f(x).
So if I take g_n(x) = \sum_{i=1}^{i=n} f_i(x), then g_n(x) is continuous and g_n(x) converges to f(x).
Since |f_i(x) | ≤ 1/i^2 for all x, therefore g_n is uniformly converges to f.
And clearly all they are uniformly continuous.
Hence, g is continuous.
Is it correct?
Are you using Friedl, on a side note there are some mistakes in exercise so be careful, I wasted my time on one question which I found wrong later
7, I have to show the converse.
By Lindeolf I can write X as countable union of metrizable space.
But i don't know that metrizable space is Lindeolf or not.
But i know every Lindeolf metrizable is second countable
I dont see how this follows since it would require that if Ui is a locally finite collection then so is the complements of Ui
Check the very last sentence of the proof where Friedl says 2b' follows in same manner as 1b by reducing it to proof of 2b
But this assumes that a collection ${ U_i }_{i \in I}$ being localy finite means {
${ {U^c}i }{i \in I}$ is locally finite as well
How else can it work
I read alternate proofs on stackexchange, but what is the author trying to say here
I REALLY don't see how this follows as this would require the ${ {U_i}^c }$ to be a locally finite collection whenever ${U_i }$ is a locally finite collection
Leno
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Friedl said you have to use 2 a'
That clearly doesn't work because then you need to apply 2a' for ${{U_i}^c }_{i \in I}$ which does not need to have local finite property
That is what I am confused about
He is telling to mimicm 1b for 1a in 2b' for 2a'
Leno
Can you please see this carefully, because he proved 2 a' and in that proof he used locally finite property of U_i
Yes, but when you are taking complements in 2b', to invoke 2a', in the same manner he used it in 1b using 1a, you will have to need the locally finiteness of U_i complement not U_i
Do you understand what i am saying
The proof of 2b' using 2a' needs an extra condition to invoke 2a'
Yes I see the problem now
In order topology if I take an arbitrary intersection of closed interval subset, will the resulting set have to be closed interval?
Yes it is
can you use urysohn
find a metrizable neighborhood Ux of each point x in X.
from regularity, find an open set Vx inside Ux whose closure is also contained in Ux. closed subspaces of lindelof spaces are lindelof, and subspaces of metrizable spaces are metrizable, so each Vx closure is necessarily second countable (lindelof + metrizable -> second countable), and any subspace of a second countable space is second countable, so each Vx is second countable
the Vx neighborhoods cover X, so we can find a countable subcover of Vx sets that covers X. each Vx has a countable basis as well. the union of these bases is a basis for the entire space, which you can verify, and it's a countable union of countable sets, so this is a countable basis for X
I got it, thank you ❤️
If you take [0,1]x[0,1] minus the point (0,0) (so the square minus bottom left corner) and then quotient where you identify the bottom and left edges, is this homeomorphic to a disk without an interior point?
Or homeomorphic to a disk without a boundary point
I feel like it’s the first case, but I don’t know how to check
Im just imagining taking a paper square and gluing the bottom and left edges together, u get a cone( which is homeomorphic to a disk). and then the bottom corner moves to the center not the boundary
But idk if this is like an artifact of poor intuition regarding quotients and homeomorphisms
By "identify the bottom and left edges" you mean (x, 0) ~ (0, x) for x in (0, 1]? And the other edges are not identified in the same way?
Yessir
Yeah seems like it would be a punctured disk. I can't think of an easy proof right away tho
Yeah that’s what the folks over on MSE said I just don’t really know why. Can’t find any similar problems or explanations online
I think you can first prove that this quotient, without removing a point, is homeomorphic to a disk, then it's sufficient to show that the point you're removing is not on the boundary
Yeah and idk if that’s true cause like
In polar coordinates, map theta,r to 4theta, r/min(sec(theta),cosec(theta)).
It’s definitely a boundary in the original space before
What they're saying here is not the same thing tho, S^1 x [0, 1) is not homeomorphic to a punctured disk
Really?
It’s just a cylinder without boundary right
On one end
Maybe I'm misunderstanding how you're gluing the edges, or the people on MSE are answering a different question
It is, but [0,1) goes in reverse -- 0 is the boundary, 1 is the center.
It doesn’t matter if you say (0,1] or [0,1) right?
They are the same?
Were u saying u can use this to show its homeomorphic to punctured disk?
Yes.
It's perhaps simpler to say: First scale each ray out from (0,0) such that the edge of the square is moved in to a distance of 1 from the origin. Then multiply the polar angle of each point by 4.
The points that are glued together in the original picture end up mapping to the same point on the punctured disk, and the tranformation is injective otherwise.
Here’s my professors proof for theorem 23.6 how does that prove X cross Y is connected
the union of connected spaces that all share a point is connected
that's what the theorem cited at the end says
So it shares point (x,b)
Limit point compactness implies sequentially compactness if X is metrizable space.
I think it is true when X is first countable and Hausdorff space( T1 also).
Now can I get a topology such that it is limit point compact but not sequentially compact?
Do you want a counter example or a hint for constructing one? Don’t want to spoil it if it’s the latter.
Hint
Maybe try making a topology where a point is in the closure of every other point, and there’s an “unbounded sequence” in the space
Unbounded sequence, what is the notion of boundness in topology?
yeah it’s definitely not a formal notion, I guess I’m speaking somewhat geometrically
basically, for any point, and any neighborhood of that point, im saying that we should have our sequence eventually leave and stay outside of that neighborhood. If you think of neighborhoods as a description of what’s “nearby”, then we’re kind of saying that our sequence eventually gets “far away” from every point in the space
that’s just my internal intuition for thinking about neighborhoods but that’s not important, the point is that this “guaranteed exit” property would definitely ensure that we don’t have a convergent subsequence
I have to construct a topology such that there is a point p which is in closure of every {q}, where q ≠ p.
I don’t think q not equalling p is an important distinction, and I also don’t know if this is the only way of doing it, but it was the most natural method to me
Oh p needs to be in closure not necessarily limit point
ahh got it
oh I guess a property I was loosely using is that the closure of a set contains the closure of each point in the set
Which is usually kind of obvious when singletons are closed LOL
but more useful here maybe
Oh deleted point topology works for that
So take R with deleted 0, so 0 is in closure of {x}, so take sequence 1,2,3,4,5,.... it has no convergent subsequence
Is it correct?
umm what’s the deleted point topology
X with deleted point q is the topology where open sets are those which doesn't contain q, and X.
hm but then 0 isn’t in the closure of any singleton?
like the set {1, 2, 3…} doesn’t have a limit point
oh wait I misread
X is just X
Not the old topology on X
okay lemme think
But there is a problem {1,2,3,4,...} is convergent to 0.
yeah that’s true we don’t get that “eventually exit” property
every point is nearby to 0 here
Any idea?
yeah I already have one but do you want me to give it
I think you can land on it
like the issue with your example is that 0 was too “close” to everything, its neighborhoods don’t distinguish between any of the other points
aaa sorry I misspoke
The closure of one point should be the entire space, aka every point belongs to its closure, not the other way around
Okay
It’s a really simple topology, you can define it on the naturals
|| {x : x < n} for each n in N ||
I see, in this topology every infinite set has a limit point because if S is an infinite set and by well ordering we get s in S which is the smallest element of S, then s+1 is the limit point of S.
And the sequence 1,2,3,4,...has no convergent subsequence
why is it always the elon one
<@&268886789983436800>
Especially in the case of spambots, it would be useful to write something to that effect in your modping, or make it a reply to the spam.
When a spambot is banned, all its recent posts are automatically deleted so we don't need to hunt them down one by one -- but that means that there will be a lot of orphaned modpings in channels other than the one we first found it in, and the quicker we can ascertain "oh, this was just for the spambot I just banned" rather than some interpersonal problem that needs further action, the easier for us.
how do you show that open and closed parts of R^n are Lebesgue measurable with respect to the standard norm?
do you know that open rectangles (products of open intervals) are lebesgue measurable?
Yes
try to use the fact that any open set can be written as a union of open rectangles
oh
hmm
this may not work
(countable union, right?)
it is
sweet
given any point in an open set, you can find an open rectangle with rational coordinates containing it
and the number of such rectangles is countable
mhm, but being explicit about what the countable basis actually is
And is there anything special I need to do w it saying the standard norm
Form the standard norm you get the standard metric so you get open balls which contains open rectangles
U can use the fact that max metric is equivalent to standard so they have the same open sets
How would you show the half open cylinder and open cylinder are not homeomorphic
S1 x (a,b) vs S1 x [a,b)
Is there anything straightforward via connectedness or comapctnesss?
S1 × [a,b) contains points that don't have a neighborhood homeomorphic to R^2.
(For example, R^2 is simply connected but removing any point makes it stop being simply connected; a neighborhood of a point on the closed edge of the cylinder can't have that property).
Is there a reason that can be generalized to any kind of top space? What I mean is I read that number boundary components is invariant under homeomorphism, and I’m trying to arrive at this result from what I already know
Hmm, that sounds like overkill -- what I'm saying is essentially that S¹ × [a,b) has boundary points at all (no matter how many or few components they split into), whereas S¹ × (a,b) doesn't.
But if you want to do it, then it should be as simple as observing that a homeomorphism takes boundary components to boundary components (and so does its inverse) because the property of a subset being a boundary components is defined only in terms of data that are preserved by a homeomorphism.
Do you know of any spaces where you would need to make such an argument? Or should you always be able to argue as such as the R^2 neighborhoods
I can't immediately rattle of an example where it's the only way through.
I also think I'd prefer to decompose the "same number of boundary components" into two facts:
- If two manifolds-with-boundary are homeomorphic, then so are their boundaries (each with the subspace topology).
- If two topological spaces are homeomorphic, then they have the same number of connected components.
of which the first can be useful without combining it with the second.
Yeah my professor mentioned the first point
I wonder why it’s sufficient to consider only manifolds though
I haven’t studied manifolds but from what I understand they are subset of topological spaces
Is it possible to discuss boundaries without discussing manifolds?
I said manifolds because I'm not sure "boundary" makes sense for something that is not a manifold.
Well, "boundary" makes a different sense for a subset of an ambient topological space, but with that meaning, property (1) above doesn't hold.
The left half-plane and the open unit disk are homeomorphic as subspaces of R^2, but their boundaries as subsets of R^2 are not homeomorphic.
I think maybe I should set aside this problem until I learn more about manifolds
/boundaries
I think you can consider the number of "ends" of these spaces. Basically the idea is that there are arbitrarily large compact subsets K of S^1 x (a,b) whose complements have two connected components- indeed consider the guys of the form S^1 x [a + 1/n, b - 1/n].
But this is false for S^1 x [a,b) because if you write it as a union of compact subsets then at some point you have to include a
Ig this is not necessarily a particularly standard way but it is kinda cute and imo somewhat visual
Interesting I will take a look
thanks
i mean, this just amounts to showing that (a,b) and [a,b) are not homeomorphic. if they were, then the two product spaces would be homeomorphic.
then you can just use the standard cut-point argument
right? am i messing something up?
If B is not homeomorphic to C, then AxB is not homeomorphic to AxC
I don’t know if this statement is true
R^\omega, R, R^2
But yeah this was my first instinct
Is this a counter example
yea
ah yea
i was hoping you could just do something with the projections and relate each factor
but R^\omega is absorbative
Is R omega the same as R^natural
yeah
Oh yeah I see
So it isn't enough to show the open and half open interval are not homeomorphic unfortunately
My inclination would be to say something like in the half-closed curve if you remove the image of any closed curve the result will have a compact component
But formalizing that seems hard
cuz you kinda need the jordan curve theorem
or something analogous
i liked potato’s solution with ends
Thabk u
you're welbcome
why is the wiki page so cryptic here
it doesn't specify which definition \star is referring to and doesn't give the \hat{\star} construction
i can't find any other sources discussing this issue with local compactness; the wiki page doesn't list any sources either the source was listed on the wiki page, it was the springer book below. smh
i might add to this page. not having the other construction present is a bit annoying. there is also little discussion about the colimit and limit topologies on the join
apparently the source is this book
https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-319-23488-5
in the section on joins
but this doesn't list any counter-examples either, it just claims this
i hate that the final topology is used for colimits, initial top spaces
and that the initial topology is used for limits, terminal top spaces
so is the nlab wrong here? it claims that the join defined as a colimit (with the final, or colimit topology) in Top is associative
Because it's the best topology textbook 
i would honestly use it more if the font didn’t give me such a headache
I have it physically but I for whatever reason usually end up reading it on my computer online
It is in the desk my computer is on
Why the definition of compact is so so so strangeeeee in metric spaces .. like whyyyyy mathematicians defined this way .. what's the motivation
wdym definition in metric spaces?
do you mean the "complete and totally bounded" corollary?
Like I just started rudin .. so here the compactness is defined in metric spaces .. I don't know about other topological space
Like the cover definition?
Yesh😭
for any open cover of a space, we can get a finite subcover
Yeshhh why 😭.. like I don't see anyyyy motivation like why someone wants to define something they call compactness in this way
compactness essentially acts like finiteness but for continuous functions
for example if you have a finite set A and a function f: A to R, where R is the real numbers, then f has a max and a min
thats pretty intuitive i hope
or clear to see at least
Yesh and then in continuity this happens if domain is a closed bounded interval
yes, but we can go further
if you have a compact space A and a continuous function f:A to R, then f has a max and a min
Look at the answer by Qiaochu
turns out this result will be incredibly useful for some theorems in real analysis that youll see soon
it's one of those things that makes sense only after you've been studying it for a while (on the order of a class or two. or ten.)
imo
Umm hmm 🙂.. hope so
itll show up i promise
i was also confused as hell when i first saw it
speaking of confused as hell, im not doing great with the homotopy questions on my hw
its late tho so ill use that as an excuse
how dare you turn in your hw late
oh no my hw isnt late
its due in like 22 hours
but im doing it late at night
so there are 2 ways i like to think about compactness
What what?
in metric spaces, it's equivalent to sequential compactness, which you can view as a kind of "topological pigeonhole principle"
you may have heard that compactness generalises finiteness in some ways
if you have an infinite sequence in a finite set, then it has to hit some value infinitely many times
similarly, if you have an infinite sequence in a compact space, it has to "cluster" around some point (which you can view as having a subsequence that converges to the point)
this is the sense in which compact spaces are "inescapable"
more formally, you say that a sequence $(x_n)$ in a space $X$ has a cluster point $c$ if, for every neighbourhood $V$ of $c$, $x_n \in V$ infinitely often
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
the statement is that, in compact spaces, every sequence has a cluster point
This is cool – not heard it called a topological pigeonhole principle before, but it feels very apt
:)
it generalises nicely to compactness for arbitrary topological spaces
you just use nets instead of sequences
compactness is equivalent to every net having a cluster point
😭i just started with compact sets 🥺🙂
that's alright#
the other way i like to think of compactness is as an induction principle
Compact sets are sets which are less than about a metre long
Da best!
you can do a kind of "induction" for compact spaces in the following way
suppose you want to define something globally over your whole space $X$, or maybe prove something is true over your whole space $X$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
if $X$ is compact, you have access to the following strategy:
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
- define/prove your thing locally - meaning that, for every $x \in X$, find some open set $U_x \ni x$ where you can define/prove your thing
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
- show that you can extend your definition/proof across finite unions - that if it works for open sets $U$ and $V$, it will also work for $U \cup V$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
step 1 is the "base case", and step 2 is the "inductive step"
compactness then guarantees you can extend your thing to all of X
so it works as a kind of "local-to-global" machine
whenever i've used compactness in practice, it's been one of these two viewpoints
either as a pigeonhole principle, or as an induction principle
the nice thing about compactness is that it generalises nicely to posets
the proof that e.g. Zariski topology is compact follows from the fact that the top ideal of a ring is a compact element
Yeah this is the notion of compact object in a category
One where Hom(X, -) preserves filtered colimits
This means a bit more towards the pigeonhole view I think
is this the right approach for proving that the lower limit topology is a topology?
bc if thats the case then i believe i can do the intersection part, however the union part is still a bit confusing just bc of how many unions there are
a_i and b_i should use the same index but otherwise yeah that's what the open sets are
ahh okay, thank you!
Unions might look daunting but it should actually be the easier part: think through what an union of unions is
Another way to do this exercise is to prove that half open intervals define a basis for a topology on ℝ, if you know what is. That way you don't need to keep track of the indices and how unions and intersections interact with each other
my professor said we probably wont go over what a basis is in this class 😭
which i find very strange
that seems awfully inconvenient
shrug, maybe we'll learn about it next semester?
idk it seems weird because then how do you talk about products
or metric topology
or a number of basic results
it’s going to be
U_{i in I} U_{j in J} ([a_i, b_i) n [a_j, b_j))
[a_i, b_i) n [a_j, b_j) is either empty or [max(a_i,a_j), min(b_i,b_j))
so the double union is just a union of intervals of the form [a,b)
shrug
yeye
thats what i got :]
i can sort of see this without need for a basis
for finite products you can use the box topology and be fine by just fully specifying what the open sets are
atp arent you just talking about bases without calling it by name
just skipping over the steps that involve the basis, but yea it has that feel
my questions would be, how are you going to talk about first and second countability?
how are you going to talk about the different definitions of continuity, especially on the real line (and more generally in metric spaces)
how are you going to speak of generating new topological spaces?
am i allowed to ask people to check my work/logic here?
yep
sick!
i apologize in advance for the crappy cropping, i am currently charging my computer and i had to crop out my irl name, but does the logic here/work make sense?
the only expectation is that it isn't something like an exam/quiz/whatever that your professor implicitly or explicitly asks that you don't consult external sources on
this part right here is not true as written
the only observation needed is that is U and V are open in the particular point topology and nonempty, then (0 \in U \cap V)
josemom2
aw rats
but for example [-1,1] and [0,1/2] are open in that topology but their intersection is [0,1/2]
oh well clearly 0\in U \cap V if 0 in both
do you want feedback on wording?
ok, this part right here is true, but there is a less wordy way of stating it:
if 0 \in U_i for some i, then 0 \in \bigcup U_i since U_i \subseteq \bigcup U_i
i only say this because there's some ambiguity with the wording "any union of the rest of the open sets"
you could say with, but overall this isn't a huge point
ooh okay
everything looks pretty good!
however
i would show this equality
if for nothing else than to get some slight bit more practice with inf
hmm, okay, idk if i can show it but i can justify it
well, good thing i caught it: you need to be able to do routine verifications of those sorts of things
you can proceed straight forwardly with a double inclusion argument and the definition of the infimum of a set
double inclusion argument?
A subset B and B subset A implies A = B
ahhhhh
for this part, i think you are doing more work than is necessary
i admire the indexing efforts
but i think you can just say that the union of the unions of half open intervals is still a union of half open intervals
that was the only way i could think of but i'm also not surprised its too much work LOL
it is correct nonetheless
yay!
i would imagine we can just say, take an x \in big cup blah blah blah, since every (a_i,infty) is getting bigger, but still bounded below, we have that x \in (inf a_i, \infty) right?
Someone here once posted it, don’t recall their username, but you can think of compactness sort of like an induction principle
If X is compact, P is a property of subsets of X, then all you need to prove P(X) is the “base case”, that every point x has an open neighborhood U s.t. P(U), and the “inductive step”, that P is closed under finite unions. Then, P(X).
In fact, this completely characterizes compactness. Compact spaces are precisely the spaces where, for any property P of sets, the above “base case” and “inductive case” imply P(X).
this is the correct intuition, but i think personally some rigor would help
Oh they already said it here lol
ah :/
what can we say about (s = \inf { a_k : k \in K}) in relation to all the (a_i)s?
rigor is not my forte lol
josemom2
that s is the greatest lower bound, so there is no lower bound greater than it
sure, sure, but how about (s \leq a_i) for all (i \in I) ?
josemom2
(also warning i still struggle with suprema and infema even though i learned about it a year ago)
Oh is this universal property of inf
yes we can say that
so does the inequality [
a_i < x < \infty
] look suspicious?
josemom2
maybe?
how can we add in s there?
s\leq a_i < x < \infty
right, so the chain gives you s < x < \infty
therefore x in (s, \infty)
now for the other inclusion, it will be helpful to recall that if s is a greatest lower bound for A, then for all r > 0, there is some a in A such that a < s + r
really what this says is that, if s the greatest lower bound, then anything bigger than s is not a lower bound for A
mhm
now see if you can apply this to x in (s, \infty)
i'll try 😭
bump?
oh, btw, for this min-max thing, you may want to specify what you mean by min(b,d) when one or both of b and d are infinite.
The illustrations in that book are really cool
Oh one of the authors (Fomenko) is the artist
What
think they put some of his works at the start or end of each chapter
woahhh
this is amazing art
Unfortunately he's also a pseudohistory crank
that explains the super weird website I found when looking him up
Anyway, I tried proving this (via A★B := pushout of M(p_A) <- A × B × 1 -> M(p_B) which should be equivalent I think?) and ran into the issue that pushouts dont preserve - × C in general
A⭐B
yea, i’m pretty sure it’s just false if you use the colimit topology
hodge ✨ star ✨ operator
If I have an irreducible topological space X and U an open subset, how can I describe the connected components of X using the connected components of U in the subset topology?
Mainly I want to know what connected components intersect U, if there are any
is this what people who are good at topology see
Is there a reason why this is struckthrough
solved
But yes irreducible implies connected and irreducible goes to open subsets so the answer is simple ig
exactly
Noice
is there a special name for the intersection of all neighborhoods of a point?
i know in like Hausdorff spaces these are not interesting but in coarser spaces they are
@umbral hamlet wow i had a
moment today in topology mid term
not grade ruining but so silly
for some reason i said that [0,1] was connected in the lower limit topology

brain was not braining
Rip
It happens lowkey
I say dumb shit in classes all the time just comes with the trade
my brain rushed to that one theorem in munkres that says if its a linear continuum with the order topology then its connected
but the ll and order genuinely differ

everything else was fine
wouldn’t know lmao
Rip
I mean ig its understandable to make a quick booboo
Btw have u seen the topological proof of the infinitude of primes
Im giving a presentation on it next week and its pretty cool
i have not
what does it involve?
next semester i need to lock in and start doing talks and stuff O_o
you take $\mathbb{Z}$ and induce what is called the evenly spaced integer topology on it, where the basic open sets are given by $S(a,b) = {an + b : n \in \mathbb{Z}}$ with $a \neq 0$
hiidostuff
the open sets can be thought of as arithmetic progressions or the set of integers that are b mod a
either way its routine to show that this induces a topology on Z
the basic open sets have some interesting properties though
firstly theyre clopen
since the integers that are b mod a can be thought of as all the integers that are not x mod a for some x \neq b
i.e. $S(a,b) = \mathbb{Z} \setminus \bigcup_{k = 1}^{a-1} S(a, b + k)$
oh i messed smth up
ah
hiidostuff
ok @warped helm this is the right notation for this
pretty much just subtracting all the things that arent b mod a which can be given as basic open sets themselves
also note that nonempty open sets have to be infinite
since each basic open set is infinite
now we notice that $\mathbb{Z} \setminus {-1, 1} = \bigcup_{p , \text{prime}} S(p,0)$
hiidostuff
on the right we just have all the integers that are divisible by some prime
now by the fundamental theorem of arithmetic thats every single integer except for -1,1
now, the set on the left cant be closed as its complement is finite and thus not open
however, on the right we have a union of closed sets
if theres finitely many such closed sets then we get a closed set, a contradiction
thus there must be infinitely many primes
another cool fact about this topology on Z is that its homeomorphic to Q with the standard topology
theres a theorem that says that countable, metrizable topologies with no isolated points are homeomorphic to Q
clearly Z with this topology is countable and has no isolated points since every open set is infinite
yeah this is a really strange result
goes to show that Q is super weird
Z w/ this topology is metrizable by urysohn's metrization theorem
since its regular hausdorff and is second countable by definition
regular by the clopen-ness of the basic open sets
hausdorff by looking at the basic open sets as arithmetic progressions
it would be funny to call Q an idempotent topology
are there other interesting examples of that
I think this is true for sequence topologies
We just gotta find topologies that are unique in some sense up to homeo
Well also with properties entirely preserved by finite product
Q works bc countability metrizability and lack of iso points is preserved
Edrős space is 1 dimensional separable metrizable totally disconnected iirc, and it’s square is itself
I think a lot of infinite products will be examples too right
Like 2^omega(homeomorphic to cantor set), omega^omega(irrationals), etc.
That’s quite neat actually
There’s a partition of R into two spaces which are homeomorphic to their own square
Given an infinite discrete space X, it is also the case that the product of X with itself is homeomorphic to X, and the disjoint union of X with itself is X.
I wonder if there are any non-empty non-discrete spaces satisfying both of these simultaneously?
heres a problem from munkres
r* is the homomorphism induced by r
so that r*([f]) = [r of f]
it feels like this is pretty straightforward so i wanna check that im not crazy
for some [f] in pi1(A, a0), the representative f is a loop of a0 in A and thus is a loop of a0 in X
but importantly the range of f is contained in A
thus r of f = f as r restricted to A is the identity of A
and so the preimage of [f] is [f] in pi1(X, a0)
is that right?
the preimage contains [f], but need not be only [f]. But yeah that's the proof
right my bad
thank you though
np
By virtually the same proof we get that the homomorphism from the fundamental groupoid of X on A basepoints to the fundamental groupoid on A is full
Also bijective on objects, so that the fundamental groupoid on A is a quotient of the fundamental groupoid of X on A basepoints by the kernel
ok heres another one
i think i just dont know what it means to extend a function
it just means there's a function with the larger domain that restricts to the same function on the smaller domain
im predicting that the end will be a result of the fact that pi1(Rn, a0) is trivial
ah thats simple enough
ooh thats cool
right, i think for any topology S and any infinite set K, S^K is homeomorphic to its square
what's kind of cool is Q is not homeomorphic to any such form, bc S^K is always either finite or uncountable
this is kind of a cheat but erdos space can be written as this if you just let S = E and K be any countable set :P
if that's allowed as part of the S^K family (which is maybe not a good idea lol), then Q already feels kind of special
any countable "idempotent" topology would similarly be ruled out, but I'm not sure if there are uncountable "idempotent" topologies that don't have an S^K representation (implying at least that the homeomorphism fails at infinite powers)
i also dont know what other countable idempotent topologies are
Erdos space is homeomorphic to a countably infinite product of itself? neat
What about an uncountable disjoint union of Q's
Would the square be homeomorphic to itself?
i think so
i havent really seen coproduct topologies before, is this basically like the box topology?
coproduct topology is just the union of the topologies(e.g. a basic open set of X union Y is an open set of X or Y)
hm, that also includes all "combinations" of an open set in X and an open set in Y right
just by closure under unions?
or okay what i mean is im confused why that isnt the same thing as X x Y, bc it seems like you can uniquely identify the X set and the Y set that make up an open set of X sqcup Y
okay i think im just not thinking correctly, theyre obviously different bc u have |X| |Y| points in one and |X| + |Y| points in the other 😭
oh wait okay i stopped brainfarting, the entire coproduct topology is basically the "basis" of the product topology, you can never have a coproduct topology open set that isn't decomposable into factors from each individual topology
okay that was silly moving on
i wanna say the product of coproduct topologies = the coproduct of pairwise product topologies
Yeah top seems like a distributive category but I'm too busy to prove it rn fr I'll try later
in that case, you get a square uncountable (so uncountable) disjoint union of square Qs, and each QxQ is homeomorphic to Q, so yes? this feels incredibly handwavy
okay i can visualize why the coproduct product thing is true so i can buy into this
okay dope and that cant be homeomorphic to S^K for infinite K bc we have countable open sets here and every open set in S^K is uncountable
Yeah so Q times any discrete set K should satisfy this
Generally, if X is a space s.t. X^2=X, X times k for discrete k should satisfy this for the same reason right?
So if X~=S^K, X times k isn't either
wait wow that feels weird in my brain
oh wait yeah of course K x K is homeomorphic to K when K is infinite
thats so much more obvious written like that lol
= for homeomorphisms ;-;
this is specifically true for K infinite right?
two ~'s
Uhhh, yeah mb
omg but isnt that like approximately equal 😭 that feels cursed
wait is Q homeomorphic to Q x k generally
where k is finite
this is countable and metrizable and doesn't have isolated points
so.... yes?
so this does hold for arbitrary finite k i think 😭 but specifically for X = Q 😵💫
Yeah
Wait
oh it is
huh neat
why is Q amazing
Q is my favorite topology ever now
irrational numbers were a mistake
But yeah in general if X is idempotent, Xxk is too for infinite discrete k, and X^k for infinite k is just always idempotent(regardless of X)
I wonder if there's an example of a space such that the series (X, X^2, ...) is eventually constant but X isn't idempotent, e.g. the least n s.t. X^n is idempotent is > 1?
In general thinking about "square roots" of spaces and whatnot is quite neat
ooh that is interesting
I recall seeing a proof there is no space X s.t. X^2 is homeomorphic to R but I completely forgot how it goes
I don't even know how you'd go about reasoning about that haha
yeah this is already breaking my brain a bit </3
i wonder if you lose an ordering property
oh i randomly saw this online, something about covering dimension?
i think the covering dimension of (X x X) = 2 * dimension of X
in that case, the covering dimension of R is 1 so it cant be the square of something
the covering dimension of Q is 0 :0 so that would be another necessary condition for idempotency
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/57375/mathbb-r-x2-as-a-cartesian-product
whoa this gives a clever argument too
I don't think that's true in general? Erdos space has dim 1(in the brouwer dim sense), is homeomorphic to it's own square, and is separable metrizable(so all 3 dimensions are equivalent for it)
hmm im seeing online that covering dim (X x Y) is <= sum of dims generally so that makes sense
apparently equality is achieved for Euclidean spaces but I don’t know why that’s true 
oh and that anyway doesn’t help bc the square root doesn’t have to be Euclidean
Iirc it's relatively complicated to prove dim(R^n)=n, but this result just follows from R^nXR^m=R^(n+m) and dim(R^n)=n
right that makes sense
Is it easier to characterize when a space is homeomorphic to the disjoint union with itself? I feel like that's simpler
