#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 120 of 1
Yep 
Okay thank you
b part, we will prove that if they are comparable then they are equal.
Let T \subset T', let U be open set in T'.
Then X\U is closed and compact in T', since T' is compact.
Since T \subset T' implies X\U is compact in T, and X is Hausdorff therefore X\U is closed. Hence U is open in T.
Is it correct?
that works yeah
an easier way to see it is consider the identity function on X
its continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space therefore it is a homeomorphism
{ x × y | y = 0 } and { x × y | x > 0 and y = 1/x} both are closed sets in R^2, right?
How can I deduce that they don't contain the limit point of the other from the diagram? I know they don't contain the limit point of the other but I want to know how I can get information from the diagram?
if they are closed, then they contain all their limit points. if they are furthermore disjoint, that means they don't contain any limit points of each other
idk what answer you're looking for with the diagram other than that the two lines never touch
How to approach this 🙂..I am clueless
I don't know 🙂 hebrew
How can I approach this
It's not really about hebrew, it's about notation convention. "cardinality aleph" almost certainly means "countably infinite" in this case
What have you tried? If you take X to be the integers for example, what possible topologies can you come up with?
I mean, the hint basically tells you the answer.
For any subset Y < X you have that {Ø, Y, X} forms a topology.
I mean, they're just using Aleph as a variable. But unconventional symbol I guess
True, countability isn't really relevant here.
Weird choice of variable though
I mean, when you think about cardinalities it's the symbol that comes to mind I guess
Slap on your favorite subscript
it's unconventional but I respect it
it wouldn't be weird e.g. to use the notation x_i to enumerate the rationals while using x as a variable name for a generic rational number
You can almost drop the infinite part as well. Only Aleph = 1 should give trouble.
hopping off of this, there is a trivial upper bound of 2^(2^κ) distinct topologies on an infinite set of size κ. can we improve any of these bounds?
what about the number of distinct topologies up to homeomorphism?
2^κ is always a lower bound in the first case, since {∅, Y, X} is a topology on X for any Y ∈ P(X)
In the countable case, the second has a lower bound of $2^\kappa$ too: take any decimal string in $[0,1)$ let $Y_0 =\emptyset$, and define $Y_i$ to be either $Y_{i-1} \cup {\text{a point}}$ or $Y_{i-1} \cup {\text{two points}}$ depending on whether $b_i$ is 0 or 1. The collection of $Y_i$s and the set itself form a topology, and distinct binary strings give nonhomeomorphic topologies
Jussari
I got the first part that there are atleast 2^k distinct topologies..
But what about ..every infinite set has an uncountable number of distinct topologies on it..
I am actually studying topo for the first time..I am in first year of my undergraduate, if I am asking some really basic que, I am sorry
The power set of every infinite set is uncountable, so your statement follows
Ohh yessss..I got it 🥹
Thankyouu
d, I know how to show it by using continuous function.
But I want to use c part here.
Since X has at least two points say p and q, then d(p,q) ≠ 0.
Take t in [1,2]
Now let A = B(p, d(p,q)/t) and B is the set containing r such that d(p,r) > d(p,q)/t.
Since X is connected so X cannot be equal to A u B.
So there must be a point in x such that d(p,x) = d(p,q)/t.
Can I assign t -> x, such that d(p,x) = d(p,q)/t.
This mapping is injective, and t's are uncountable so X is uncountable
Is it correct?
wait, this is silly but I think this lemma is also false as stated. Just let U_1 = (-1, 1), U = (-200, -100) U (-2, 2) U (100, 200), and let f be the identity on (-2, 2) and let it be the doubling map on the rest of U.
It seems like both of these lemmas actually want to say this: for some restriction of f, there exists an extension of that restriction to all of R^n
and I’d guess that the flaws in the proofs come from the fact that they restricted the sets
this is correct.
note: you need axiom of choice.
To choose x such that d(p,x) = d(p,q)/t?
yes
Okay
If A and B are closed subset of metric space M. If A u B is connected then A and B are connected, right?
If A is disconnected then there exists a continuous function f:A -> {0,1} which is onto.
Since A is closed so A is closed in A u B.
Now By Tietze Extension we have continuous function g : A u B -> {0,1} which is onto. But it contradicts that A u B is connected. Right?
Consider A = {-1, 1} x R and B = R x {-1, 1}
the codomain of g may not be contained in {0, 1}
I have to think, A u B is connected or not
But why should the domain of g be contained in {0,1} ?
right, I meant “codomain”. I’ve edited it, thanks
How do I find the explicit form of this graph ?
Isn't imply if x is an isolated point then {x} is open?
Isn't the tan x function?
I was able to figure out the required function I need must look like this
the asymptotes are x = -1 and x = 1
It could be a rescaled and translated tangent, it could be something like x/(1-x^2)
Translate your graph
There are many functions that could have a graph of vaguely this shape
this is what I need to arrive
but how did you get that
Intuition, really, from having taught quite a few calculus courses
I see, I understood why the denominator
but numerator is a bit strange
ahh i see
numerator helps to tend + infty and -infty accordingly
Anyone?
Yes, if you’re asking “if x is an isolated point, then {x} is open”
Yes
Sometimes I am confused x is the isolated point of subset X of M or M, so that's why I asked
it is only open in the subspace topology, but for this exercise, it’s true
Trying to understand what this means, but can’t really picture it. Can someone explain to me better what a saturated set is?
you can define an equivalence relation on X by saying points are in the same equivalence class if and only if they map to the same point under p
then saturated sets are sets that are unions of equivalence classes i.e. union of preimages of points
(I would hope there's at least one example after what you've sent, so look at those too)
I think the more intuitive definition is the reformulation in the next sentence: C is saturated iff C = p^{-1}(f(C))
Yes
Let X be an infinite set, I need to prove we have uncountable number of distinct topologies on X
Proof :
By cantors theorem P(X) is uncountable, now take any subset of X in P(X) , {X, null set, A} is a topology on X,
If I define a function g from P(X) to {topologies on X} by g(A) = {X, null set, A} , then definitely it will be an injection so codomain must be large as the domain, so it will be uncountable
Is this correct?
Yeah that works
There's a slight technicality with ∅ and X being mapped to the same topology
Of course P(X) \ {X} is still uncountable so nothing changes
Ohh yesss ..I didn't notice it.. thankss
according to this stackexchange answer that I'm not qualified to understand, there are in fact 2^(2^kappa) homeomorphism classes https://math.stackexchange.com/a/34841/877430
This is about R is finer than R with finite complement toplogy
I have question, Here to prove the above, they have taken an x in R and a basis element containing x of R_f
but what is a basis of R_f ?
an obvious one is the whole topology
so unless the proof relies on a specific basis of R_f, any open set containing x should be fine
X is infinite, therefore any non-empty open set cannot be disjoint in finite complement topology so X is connected.
"cannot be disjoint" what does that mean
That means if A and B are non-empty open sets then they cannot be disjoint
A intersection B ≠ \empty
the argument is correct
but yeah saying an open set is/isn't disjoint doesn't make sense
so say something like "any [two] non-empty open set[s] cannot be disjoint" or "any non-empty open set cannot be disjoint [from another]"
Yeah my mistake
The boundary of A is the closure of A minus the interior of A. What happens if you intersect those with C?
I mean C has an element c such that every open set containing c intersect with A and X - A
Okay, if you know that then you're already done
But how can I show the existence of such an element in C
Like... You prefer to prove it in that way?
Yes
No
Yes
say A has bigger closure cl A, let x in cl A\ A
Then x is in the boundary, so badabing badaboom
Yes x is in the boundary but how x is in C then?
Well, the assumption was that
C\cap clA was bigger than C\cap A
So you just pick x in the first set but not the second
Oh
I assumed Cl A is bigger than A
I missed C part
Got it thank you ❤️
Got it thank you ❤️
I want to prove comparability property for this,
Case 1: x^2 != y^2
1.1. x^2 < y^2
1.2. y^2 < x^2
Case 2: x^2 = y^2
2.1 x <y
2.2 y <x
are the cases chosen correctly?
Please help, how do I prove the comparability holds?
what about x=y?
nux
ah didn't mean to delete the original message
Suppose U is non-empty, clopen, and strictly smaller than X. What can you say about the complement, X\U?
that would also be clopen, right?
Yes. Moreover, it would be non-empty and also not all of X
Hence, X can be partitioned as the disjoint union of open sets U and X\U.
So here’s the intuition: The existence of a non-empty, proper, clopen subset U gives us a partition of X into open sets. Thus, the space X is disconnected, for it can be separated by these open sets
Note also that this condition, that X can be separated into disjoint open sets, is equivalent to the one given in your lecture
yeah i see now it was one equivalent statements given. i'll try to prove the other implication
Some further food for thought: If you try to separate a connected space by two open sets, then inevitably you will miss points contained in the boundaries of the two sets
We know that second countable regular space is normal. What if we have a first countable regular space? Will it be always normal?
some googling led to this counterexample
In mathematics, the Moore plane, also sometimes called Niemytzki plane (or Nemytskii plane, Nemytskii's tangent disk topology), is a topological space. It is a completely regular Hausdorff space (that is, a Tychonoff space) that is not normal. It is an example of a Moore space that is not metrizable. It is named after Robert Lee Moore and Vikt...
There is also the equivalent statement X is connected iff every locally constant map from X is constant
Might help with intuition
We have check comparability only when x! = y
That’s not the definition of comparability I know, but… sure
This is the definition I’m working with
I have a question,
Suppose two set A and B orders <, <‘ respectively.
Suppose there is an order preserving map f between A, B.
Is it true that, if A with < has supremum property, then <‘ also have?
My guess is,
Given a subset A0 of A,
If s is the supremum of A0, then f(s) is the supremum of f(A0)
Consider B = Z x {0, 1} with
(m, 0) < (n, 1) and
(m, x) < (n, x) Iff m<n.
Let A be the subset of B containing Zx{0} and Nx{1}.
Then Zx{0} has a supremum in A, but not in B
would this be true,
If s is the smallest element of A0 then f(s) is the smallest element of f(A0)?
This is my orginal question,
This is Z_+ x [0,1] with dictonary ordering
Does this set have a supremum property?
does f preserve order?
If f is assumed to be order preserving then yeah
Proof is basically s≤x for all x in A => f(s) ≤ f(x) for all f(x) in f(A)
yes
I thought this would also help to prove supremum property
^
Supremum property is defined as every non-empty subset with an upper bound has a supremum?
Should be smallest element of upper bounds, no?
Or more precisely s is supremum of A if a≤s for every a ∈ A and s≤s' for every s' with this property
If I were to take a subset here that looks like an interval then it does have a supremum
I guess
All the upperbounds are either above claimed supA or to the right of it
But yeah that has supremum property
But does this hold for every non subset A0?
One way to show it is via casework: if (n,x) is an upper bound of A, then every element (m,y) of A has m≤n, i.e. the first coordinate is bounded
So you can choose m to be the maximal first coordinate in A, and prove that the supremum of A ∩ ({m} × [0,1)), if it exists, is the supremum of A
If it doesn't exist, the point (m+1, 0) is the supremum
Another way to do this is to construct an order preserving bijection between a set you know has the supremum property and $\mathbb{Z}_+ \times [0,1)$.
Jussari
Hint: || the set of nonnegative reals ||
Sorry I was away
yes,
f(n x t ) = n + t -1 does the job
Wouldn’t this takes us back to the original question, does having an order preserving map imply supremum property is preserved?
I think it does for surjective maps, since you can take the supremum of the preimage and map that back into the codomain
I’m sure this helps to claim largest (smallest) element
but does it also help with supremum
How do I try to prove it?
Let $f: A\to B$ be order-preserving and surjective and suppose $A$ has the supremum property. Let $S\subseteq B$ be a nonempty set with an upper bound $b$. Prove that any $a\in f^{-1}(b)$ is an upper bound of $f^{-1}(S)$. Then $s:= \sup f^{-1}(S)$ exists. Prove that $f(s)$ is the supremum of $S$
Jussari
I think that argument should work
order preserving by my definition is a bijection
That's how I would have interpreted it as well
bluepianist
Doesn't have to be.
If I is a singleton, i.e. the family consists of just one topology T_0, then the topology you seek in this problem will just be T_0 again.
Also in any case, you want T to be refined by the T_alphas
So in the worst case it will be the indiscrete topology
oh so I want T such that T subset T_alpha instead of T_alpha subset T?
i'm a bit confused with the terminology cuz doesn't this mean that T is coarse
"coarse" doesn't mean much when applied to an individual topology
T is coarser than all of the T_alphas
And finer than any other topology that's coarser than all the T_alphas
f : X × Y → M
if f(x,y) is continuous when fixing x, and when fixing y.
then f is continuous?
consider f(x,y) = xy/(x^2+y^2), f(0,0) = 0
thanks 
Show that X is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal {x × x | x ∈ X} is closed in X × X.
Hi can I get some hint? My first idea was taking the complement and showing it’s open but I’mm not sure how..
okay pick a point in complement
Yeah so there I can produce two disjoint sets for a pair (y,z) right
disjoint open sets
yeah sorry that
so what do you think now?
can you make open set of (y,z) such that it contains in complement?
why did you take set S ?
i was thinking of taking the union of these cartesian products
you want to show complement is union of all the elements of S?
that's fine
but you can also show if (x,y) in complement so there exists open set W contaning (x,y) such that W contained in complement
and here W = U \times V works
Lemma. A set S is closed in a topology T iff for every point x outside S, there exists an open neighbourhood of x that is disjoint from S
Ooo got it thank you notknow and hchan
I have a question, I’m going to modify (2) and (3) as follows
-
There exists an interval [a0, b), where b in B, and a0 is the smallest element (if any)
-
There exists an interval (a,b0] where a in B, and b0 is the largest element (if any)
Wouldn’t this changed B be a basis for a toplogy
There can be more than one basis for a topology
Exactly in the same way there can be more than one basis for a vector space
that is not what they are asking
If I didn’t formulate this properly, instead of taking infinite neighborhoods around a0, b0, why not just one ?
a basis is a collection of subsets satisfying some properties.
the author is specifying which sets need to be included for B to be a basis.
first, if you only include one such set of the form [a0, b) or (a, b0], then you would first need to specify what a and b are.
second, this is indeed a basis for a topology on X, but the topology it generates is, in general, not the order topology.
for example, consider X = [0,1) and say that the set you include in your basis is [0,1/2).
in this topology, [0,1/3) is not open, as the only open neighborhoods of 0 are [0,1) and [0,1/2).
contrast this with the situation when you include all sets of the form [0,b) for b in [0,1):
[0,1/3) is open in the order topology on X, since it is a basis element
I think the modified topology wouldn’t be hausdorff even right?
right, no non-zero element less than 1/2 can be separated from 0 by open sets
If I were to think for motivation for this definition of order topology
it’s because we need to approach the end points sort of however close through neigbordhoods!
So things like sequences may converge in these points
exactly! the intuition carries over from studying subsets of the real line. one should be able to approach the end points with open sets as close as the ambeint space affords
Sorry, I might thinking too much
Thank you
Oh, the wording ‘ambient space affroads’ strikes.
In some examples where the X is a not a linear conntium, getting infinitely close doesn’t make sense
yea, exactly
u2!
if p: E → X is a covering map and X is locally path connected, E connected then the group action of Aut_{CovSp(X)}(p) on E is properly discontinuous by path lifting. can you say the same if you omit the locally path connected assumption?
hint only please
oh it's the usual connectedness trick
if f is an automorphism then the set of points e in E with f(e) = e is clopen
well, nice to know
Let X = R be the topological space with the standard topology. Let A = [0,1].
Is the subspace topology same as the order topology of A by the usual order relation ?
I verified that all the types of intervals described in the basis of the order topology is an open set in the subspace topology
I think the subspace topology is always at least as fine as the order topology, so it's the other direction that is more subtle i guess
yes, I should show any open set in the subset topology is in the order topology right ?
But you should be fine by considering a basis for the subspace topology. All the intervals of the form (a,b) where 0 < a < b < 1 are obviously open in either, so you just need to consider stuff of the form [0, a) (and symmetrically (b, 1])
Yes
but then these are open by definition again i guess lol
I believe basically this should be true because of [0,1] being an interval in R - i would assume that this works whenever you have an interval as the subset
How do I prove that the only open sets of the subspace topology of [0,1], is either (a,b), or [0, b) or (a, 1] ?
Well that isn't true, but what I described is a basis
Well just by considering the basis for R and intersecting with [0,1]
b part, each non empty set M has non-empty open subset that disjoint from A.
Since int cl A = empty implies int A is empty so any non-empty open set must be in X \A, so every non-empty open set must be disjoint from A.
Correct?
the topologies are the same if the subset is convex
right, so subspace topology on [0,1], where X = R, is same as the order topology right?
yes
As beaver said, you have to be sure they are convex, which in the case of [0,1] is true, but not true in general
no. consider A = Z, M = R, U = (-1,1).
U is not disjoint from A
Thanks for pointing out
okay, let there exists U such that it is non-empty and every non-empty open set of U intersect with A. We will show that U \subset cl A.
let x in U, then there exists open ball B(x,r) \subset U, so it must be intersect with A, and since every non-empty open set of U intersect with A, therefore B(x, t) intersect with A , for all t<= r. So x in cl A, implies U \cl A, but U is open contradicts that int cl A = empty.
is it correct? @rancid umbra
is your definition of nowhere dense that int cl (A) is empty?
if it is, then this is fine.
remember, you also need the reverse direction
\subsection*{$X = [0,1) \cup {2}$, with usual order}
For instance, $(0,1)$ is an open set in the order topology. Take $a = 0$, $b = 2$. We have $(0,1) = (0,2)$ in the order topology, since all elements between $0$ and $2$ in $X$ lie in $[0,1)$.
Can you check if this is correct ?
Dubs
I'm a bit skeptic about saying (0,1) = (0,2)
(0,1) is not a basis element I suppose, since 1 doesn't belong to X
in this setting, it is correct to say (0,1) = (0,2) for the reason you stated.
you are correct that it is not a basis element
thank you
yes nowhere dense means int cl A is empty, yes reverse direction is easy, we can go b to c, trivial and c to a, let int cl A is non-empty open set, then there exist open ball B(x,r) \subset int cl A such that B(x,r) intersection A is empty, but B(x,r) \subset int cl A implies x in cl A, then B(x,r) intersect A, but it contradicts that B(x,r) intersection A is empty
which definition you using for nowhere dense set?
none in particular. i just wanted clarification on the one you were using
Okay thank you
i want to verify intersection of two connected space is connected or not? in R it is, but in general space, any hint?
look in R^2 for two connected sets whose intersection has two components
hint: ||both sets are homeomorphic to a disk||
I would start by assuming the intersection is not connected, and find a contradiction
Actually there's two possible contradictions, either you show there's a separation of one of the connected spaces. Or you show that in the separation of the intersection, one of the open sets is actually empty.
you mean intersection of connected space is connected ?
Yes it is, but easiest to prove via contradiction
that is not true
wait, yeah you are right
is it true that X is connected iff every continuous map X -> {0,1} is constant map, {0,1} with discrete topology, right?
I wonder, if the union of two connected spaces is simply connected. Would their intersection be connected?
simply connected?
i think no
If one replaced connected with path-connected it seems it should be true
we know that if A and B is connected and they intersect each other then A u B is connected, is converse true?
if A and B connected and A u B is connected, is their intersection non-empty?
(-1,0) U [0, 1]
yes
do you consider the empty set to be connected?
so you mean if one of them path connected then A n B is path connected?
i consider
I don't, but I'm happy to throw in the assumption that they intersect
i see. if you don’t, then taking an annulus and then its open center as the two sets, or vivian’s example work
but i think that you can modify the annulus example:
take a closed annulus as one set, and an open disk with the top left quarter boundary and bottom right quarter boundary.
then the union is simply connected but the intersection is the union of the two quarter boundaries
which is not connected
Yeah, just realized that myself.
Probably you want to assume the sets are open (or closed maybe)
right
Anyway, thx
np. what motivated that one?
The counterexamples to notknows question
The most natural ones are not simply connected
right
that’s kind of interesting
they also don’t really leverage being open or closed
The intersection of the closure of A with the closure of B is non-empty though I think
yea, otherwise cl(A U B) = cl(A) U cl(B) is disconnected (as long as A and B start off non-empty)
can i get hint how to show in second countable metric space X, every open covering of X has countable subcovering?
in a metric space, second countable and separable are equivalent
yes i know this
wait, i may have misread the question
Pick an open cover. Write each element in the open cover as a union of basis elements, use this to choose a countable subcover
but how to choose them?
For each of the (countably many) basis elements choose an open set containing it in the open cover
let $X = \bigcup U_i$, let's say $U_i = \bigcup_{j=1}^{\infty} V_j$
Notknow🙇
now how we do choose countable U_i s?
.
Is it not clear?
You still have to show that this covers X but I leave that to you
sorry, i don't get this part
I'll rephrase it, Take the countable basis, for each element in the countable basis take an element in the open cover that contains it (if there is no such element don't pick anything). we claim that this is a countable subcover of the cover we started with, it's clear that it's countable since we are picking atmost one open set for each basis element
It remains to show that it covers X
i see
it comes from basis definition that union of basis element is X, right?
Yes but we are leaving out some basis elements so we should be careful
Like this is not a correct proof that it covers X, since there maybe a basis element thats not contained in any element of the cover
yes
Would anyone recommend a background about vectors of spheres?
it's just basic linear algebra
there's nothing special about the sphere
start with a LI set of n vectors. then normalise every vector so that you get a LI set of n vectors on the sphere
so it boilds down to understanding that there always exists a LI set of n vectors
so vectors of d-dim sphere are exactly the (d+1)-dim euclidean space vectors whose norm is 1, right?
well, I dont know if dimension of a topological manifold has been defined for you yet
because if it hasn't then the sphere does not yet have a well-defined dimension, because it's not a vector space
the proof says "consider vectors on the d-dim sphere"
does that imply dimension is defined?
yes it is defined but I don't know if the definition has been introduced to you yet
but for the sake of this proof you can ignore that, you are correct
so for the proof, vectors of a sphere constitute a vector space, right?
no, that is my point, it's not a vector space
just... they're linearly independent in the bigger vector space
and that's good enough
Can anyone let me know if I did this correctly? And I'm new here so forgive me if this isn't the best way to share proofs (let me know how I should do it next time). Also is there an easier way to prove?
thanks 👍
the ideas are there :)
- at least one upper bound (i assume that's a typo)
Take a closed [...] c ∈ C- elaborate on why Ω has the finite intersection property
Ok thank you that helps!
np
I got it, thank you ❤️
Can anyone help me understand why I'_c without f^(-1)(0) is Fσ?
is there a name for topological spaces with a basis consisting of sets, where for any two sets they are either disjoint or one is included in the other?
Not sure but 1. you can get such a basis in a Cantor space; 2. My gut tells me this would generally require your space to be hugely disconnected.
yes, I can imagine too lol
Alexandrov spaces qualify but im not sure if there are any others
since I'm constructing this from the top down in a sense any open subspace would be disconnected or indiscrete
hmm, I'll look into em, thank you
nvm, I just realised that my space would have every open set also closed, rather boring
wait is it?
I would guess that for Hausdorff spaces, this would be equivalent to being totally separated
I am tempted to try to prove this lol
In a covering, the fiber of some x in the covered space as a subspace has the discrete topology, right?
Hey I'm really confused on this proof showing that [a,b] is connected.
I dont understand why [a,c) is contained in U
I'm good with everything before
That's by definition of c, it's the greatest lower bound for V ∩ [a,b]
If there was a a≤x <c in V, then x<c = inf (V ∩ [a,b]) which is impossible
Okay follow up question
Like why is x in V
I'm trying to draw a picture to understand but I think its just confusing me more
I get that c is the greatest lower bound for V \cap [a,b]
But i dont see why $[a,c) \not\subseteq U$ means that everything "past" it is contained in $V$
cola_drinker12
if that makes sense
By assumption $[a,b] \subseteq U \cup V$, so if $x \notin U$, then $x\in V$
Jussari
Are you talking about x ∈ [a,c) or x>c?
the x in [a,c) thats not in U
Yeah it would have to be in V then because U and V cover the interval
ok thanks
i still dont understand but I think I just need to sit and think about it for like 5-10 minutes
this should be more than enough
thank you
Happy to help
can anyone help me understand saifert van kampen
just ask
Ok nvm I figured it out
I was reading a proof on "Let X be a topological Hausdorff space, then X is locally compact if and only if every point x in X has a compact surrounding"
As for the <- implication (first one is trivial) I'm gonna explain the proof until the point I don't understand how it follows:
Let x be an element of X, and U subset of X an open surrounding of X. Let K be the compact surrounding of x, then L=K\U is a closed set in a compact, then L is compact, because it is Hausdorff, there exist sets W and W' such that their intersection is empty, and x is an element of W, and L is a subset of W', then V=W intersec interior(L) is an open surrounding of x
And then it continues, but my doubt is, how is V a surrounding of x if L=K\U, and K and U contained x, therefore L cannot contain x, and therefore interior(L) cannot contain x (and obviously its intersection with something else can't either)?
Thanks
(As on how the proof would end, then it says the adherence of V is closed, and because K is closed, as it is a compact in a hausdorff, then because V is a subset of K, then the adherence is also a subset of K, therefore the adherence of V is a compact contained in U, and therefore X is locally compact)
Why is V an open subset of |K_2|? Are we viewing |K_2| under the subspace topology endowed by |K|?
Yeah I can try seifert van kampen theorem is about how to compute the fundamental group of union of two spaces if you know the fundamental group of each of them. Hope it's clear. Can you specify what's your doubt?
And there's a condition that the intersection should be connected.
in my case the basis also consists of clopen sets, so we have T0 <-> totally separated <-> Hausdorff
if it's compact hausdorff, then that sounds like a stone space
(my beloved...)
yeah I am looking into that rn lol
compactness, that is
I've got a hunch for some equivalent condition but having trouble proving it aueguahg
my savior 🙏 (The condition makes it so that the space is an inverse sequential limit of compact spaces)
nvm the maps aren't closed
I'll never get this proven I have gotten this proven
qwq \o/
Guys quick question, if i want to prove that if we suppose that A is an open set, then i can find, for all x in A, an open set U such that x is in U and U is subset of A,can i just pick A=U?
proper
No, because U is open, and you dont know what A is yet. This also boils down the the statement, for all x in A, x is in A which tells you nothing
You need to show that for all x in A there is an open U containing x which is properly contained in A
Since A is open i can write it as Union of open sets, so these U must exists for each x in A and they must be subsets of A?
Im confused about what youre trying to do. It seems like youre both assuming A is open and trying to prove that its open
Let (X, τ) be a topological space and A a subset of X. Prove that A is open if and only if for every x in A there exists an open set U such that x is in U and U is a subset of A.
Yes
Ok in that case yes I appologise, if you assume A is open you can just take A to be a neighbourhood of all its points
Thanks guys
Hello
Can I talk about icosahedron based sphere point distribution here?
I have a method for obtaining the nearest node on a unit sphere for an arbitrary spherical coordinate, the node set is well distributed longitudinally and latitudinally, but I'm trying to improve it by warping the set into a subdivided icosahedron set which has much better equidistance-ness between nodes. Anyone interested or am I at the wrong channel?
The general method for obtaining something like this would be to pre-generate the ico-sphere node set and sort out the nearest node, but with my theoretical method it should be possible to obtain the nearest node without any storage.
like wedge sums
sorry for late response
i mean you just kinda look at the properties of the regular closure operator i guess
as to what problems it solves - sometimes its just more convenient, although not that much different from just specifying closed sets
i would say the most important alternative way to specify a topology is neighborhood bases
i don't think there's a nice way to define compactness using kuratowski closure
you can say that for every family of sets with the finite intersection property, there exists a point that is a limit point of all of them
I’m trying to prove an Interior of set A is open.
Definition: Let A subset of X, Int A is the union of all open sets contained in A.
My answer: Let {U_a : a in I} be an collection of open sets in contained in A. Since arbitary union of open sets in open in X, Int A is open in X.
My question: Is it possible to make all open sets contained in A into an arbitary collection? How do I make sure I indexed all sets with the indexing set I
sorry if this question is a bit too much 🙂
why are you indexing the collection with points in A?
I’ve changed it
alright
you don't need to index every collection
you can just say {U ⊆ X | U is contained in A and open}
whats the interval doing there lol
I is just some index set
right
no relation with the unit interval I
This is a bit helpful
is it because in the defintion of topology doesn’t specify an indexed collection?
in general you can specify a collection of subsets, or elements, without needing to use a function
"let S be the subset of real numbers that are roots of integer polynomials"
Alright, my misconception was this: when we say A arbitary collection of sets, then I thought
A = {u_a : a in I}
Is it possible to always index an arbitary collection of sets?
what is an indexing?
I don’t have a specific definition in hand. But it’s a function which defined between I to the target set A
precisely
I is the "index set"
any such indexing function determines a collection
via its image
T = {U ⊆ X | U is contained in A and open}
Suppose we define T as such
How do I find an I an indexing set
don't use the same letter as the subset we're defining this as
well according to our definition we need to find a function from a set, to P(X), such that the image of this function is exactly T, right?
P(X) powerset
right
so our index set is same as our target set T
by target i mean the image set of the indexing function
you want to be careful and think of the target as the codomain instead of the image
if i consider paths in R^2 i really mean certain functions from the unit interval I to R^2
i don't restrict these functions to their images in their definitions
Makes sense
In general, I may just say an “arbitary collection of sets”
I have a one more question,
I was trying to show intA is the largest open set contained in A.
My idea is to set U as the largest open contained in A, and show U = int A.
Clearly, IntA C U and A C Int A followed.
Question: How do I be sure there exists some U that is the largest open set contained in A. Ie prove the existence of such a U
the empty set is open
your definition of int A shows that the union is not the empty union
isn’t empty set the smallest open set contained in A?
Yes, because A is trivally contained in A?
because the empty set is trivially contained in A
i think the proof would be better phrased if you directly showed that int A was the largest
it would look like this: showing that int A is open, and showing that any other open set contained in A is also contained in int A
any other open set contained in A clearly belongs to IntA since it’s the union of such open sets contained in A
If I can show given any open set U contained in A, then U is contained in Int A. Doesn’t that mean int A is the largest?
yes
it's a pretty common construction in math
you'll see the same with closed sets
the key property being that the arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed
formally, given a collection of sets with certain property.
The union of the collection gives the largest sets with the property
And intersection gives the smallest right?
you need to make sure that the union of sets with property P also has property P
likewise with intersection
in math it's much easier for intersections to preserve some property that it is for unions to preserve some property
think intersection of linear subspaces
there you go
Can I instead take the identity map as well?
I can't prove that in a first countable space adherent points of a set are also limits of sequences over that set.
I mean the converse of this theorem
what have you tried
i want to show that if every function M -> R is continuous then every subset of M is open.
M is metric space with metric d.
fix y in M.
Now define f : M -> R such that f(x) = 1 when x \neq y, f(y) = 0.
so this is continuous, now take inverse image of (-1/2, 1/2) it will be open in M, hence {y} is open.
is it correct?
it's correct but M doesn't need to be a metric space
you can even be more direct about it; let χ_U be the characteristic function on U
it is given that M is metric space
i see
thank you
A community database of topological theorems and spaces, with powerful search and automated proof deduction.
Is there any reason we use ω here instead of the usual notation for natural numbers?
ω is the first infinite ordinal
to a set theorist \omega is the usual notation for natural numbers
it's a good self-report, whenever someone does that you stay the hell away
I know what ω means I just find it odd in this context because in this case we are literally just taking it as a set and don't really care about its relationship with other ordinals
Unless I'm missing something?
Also I get that it's the same to a set theorist but like this is a topology database
not really, to me personally thats more natural than N
because we are only talking about set theoretic properties (being countable) instead of arithmetic
Ironic choice of wording lol
But I see your point I guess
It's just the first time I've worked with these things
also point set topology is a branch of set theory
at least at higher levels
My university offers a course in set theory but it's only given once every other year and I missed it while on exchange
So I'm def behind on this side of things
might be a stupid question, i'm sort of new to set theory, but would this be how you'd write like, "the set of elements in B where x != y and (x,y) != (y,x)"?
{(x,y) ∈ B | x≠y, (y,x) ∉ B}
(where B is the cartesian product of some set A with itself)
basically, i want only the unique pairs of different values, so not (0,0) or having both (3,4) and (4,3) in the set
No, (x, y) != (y, x) isn't the same as (y, x) \notin B, and neither formulation does what you want. If you want to consider (3, 4) and (4, 3) as equivalent, then you probably want a set, not a pair. So { {x, y} in B | x != y }. If you actually want pairs, then you need to decide whether you want (3, 4) or (4, 3) in your set; you can for example choose the pair with the smallest x-value
Yeah, {x, y} is literally the same set as {y, x}, so just writing { {x, y} in B | x != y} is sufficient, you won't have any duplicates
btw, this question might belong better in #discrete-math
kk
Someone?
whats an adherence and whats a surrounding
Is there a different name in english? Fuck
Let me try to search it
Well surrounding is basically "a surrounding of x is a subset A of X such that it contains x and an open set that also contains x in X"
And then the adherence of a subset A is such that for every open surrounding U of A, U intersec A is non-empty
What's the names of each?
the second one doesnt make sense, you mustve misplaced a variable name
first one is called a neighborhood
second is closure
Yeah I defined the second a bit loosely so that it still could be understood what it was
Yeah those
I would've said that the closure of a subset A in X is basically the elements x of X such that for every open neighborhood U of x the intersection between A and U is non-empty
If I'm not mistaken
But whatever
can anyone explain to me why this proof doesn't work?
on my soul this looks completely fine
I am thinking about the question that, if f: X -> Y is a continuous and bijective function, where X and Y have the same topology then does it imply that f^-1 is continuous?
I don't want an answer
f: X -> X
i guess they mean whether all bijective continuous endomorphisms are homemorphisms
There's an answer in this stackexhange thread ||https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/20913/are-continuous-self-bijections-of-connected-spaces-homeomorphisms||
Yes
I'm sure this is there, but just to say that you can simply endow the same set with two topologies (one finer than the other) such that both are connected
For example, consider R with the indiscrete topology or with the usual topology
The identity map is obviously bijective, and continuous if you make it go from the finer one to the less fine one
But not a homeo or the topologies would coincide
I know, therefore I assumed both have same topology
Connected? I don't get it this point
But then like what does that mean if they have different sets
To me it just sounds like you are considering the identity map from a space to itself
which is clearly a homeomorphism
I mean f : X -> X which is continuous and bijective and same topology on X, is f homeomorphism?
||Let X be the the disjoint union of Z with discrete topology and Z with the trivial topology.
You can make a bijection by moving some of the discrete points over to the trivial part||
I guess here X was meant to be connected
(That was not stated here but was stated earlier)
But nice example
Well just add in a generic point to make any space connected
This is a good point lol
You can make connected Hausdorff examples though, as someone posted above
Pog
champ
\textbf{Theorem.} Let ( X ) be a topological space, and ( A \subseteq X ). Let ( F ) denote the set of all limit points of ( A ) in ( X ). Then ( F ) is a closed set in ( X ).
Can you check if my proof is correct?
Idea is correct, if y ≠ x, maybe U intersect with A {y}, x can be in U intersection A
I can’t really figure out how to proceed
if y ≠ x then if y belongs to A, then we have U intersect A-{y} is empty, because U doesn’t contain any element of A different from x.
I guess take a two point space {x, y} with the trivial topology and take A = {x}. Then the only limit point is y, but {y} is not closed
right
I think it says X is a hausdorff space
Construct a set $A\subset[0,1]\times[0,1]$ such that $A$ contains at most one point on each horizontal and each vertical line but boundary $A=[0,1]\times[0,1]$. A hint is provided that says it suffices to ensure that $A$ contains points in each quarter of the square, sixteenth, etc.
Not really sure how to start with this beyond looking for some very particular subset of vectors with just rational entries. Any help would be appreciated
cole
i think you have some typos
Its word for word from the textbook
I’ll send a picture as well
we need to find a bijection from I to I such that the graph is dense in I^2
we can leave irrational points where they are, rational points are enough
sorry, seemed weird to me to phrase it as bd A = I^2, i would’ve just said the closure
that's different, no?
bd A = cl A minus int A
What definition(s) of boundary do you know so far?
usually it is, but in this case we have
I^2 = bd A ⊆ cl A ⊆ I^2
which is why we can do what bussy beaver suggests
saying cl(A) = I^2 is not the same as saying bd A = I^2
yeah, in this case it works since the restrictions on A guarantee the interior is empty but you have to argue that
sorry, is what i wrote here wrong?
its enough to find a function Q -> Q that sends open sets to dense sets
that says that if bd A = I^2 then cl A = I^2 but not the other way around
Set of all the points $x$ that satisfy:
If $B$ is any open rectangle with $x\in{B}$, then $B$ contains points of both $A$ and $R^n-A$
cole
sorry for editing lol the textbook defines it somewhat informally
this is calc on manifolds by spivak btw
ah okay so we want to check that every point x in [0,1] x [0,1] satisfies these two properties: property 1) every B containing x contains a point in A and 2) every B containing x contains a point not in A
one of these properties just follows from how A is described in the question
which one?
every B containing x contains a point not in A since the horizontal and vertical is unique for each point in A?
yea!
so now we gotta figure out how to satisfy property 1
the problem claims that it's sufficient to show A contains a point in every 1/4 of the square, 1/16 of the square, etc.
why is this?
i suppose when you divide it into sufficiently small squares one can ensure that any possible open rectangle contains at least one of these squares and thus a point in A
ig that seems like something that needs proving itself
yes!
how would you go about proving it 
here are my rough thoughts: letting s denote the length of the rectangle and w the width, you can keep dividing the square until you reach the point where the length of the square, L, is leq to s/2 and w/2. with a 1d argument we can show on a number line that on the interval [0,s] for any 0\leq\epsilon\leq{s/2}, we have that \epsilon+L\leq{s}. doing the same for w/2 shows that a square of length L can fit inside the rectangle
yup that's the right idea!
alright so now next part of the problem, how do you construct an A with the property of having points in every quarter, every sixteenth, etc.?
sorry went to grab food. i think the general idea is to iterate through all $n^2$ pieces and appropriately increment a rational to ensure uniqueness? something like
$A^r={\begin{bmatrix}\frac{r}{n^2}+\frac{c}{n}\\frac{c}{n^2}+\frac{r}{n}\end{bmatrix}:0\leq{c}\leq{n-1}}$ where r and c can be thought of as the row and column respectively. and then $A=A^0\cup{A^1}\cup\dots\cup{A^{n-1}}$
okay that was a disaster hold on
cole
there
yeah! that's exactly right, how do you know this ensures uniqueness though?
if we regard a single row we know that none of $A^r$ share the same horizontal since the first entry as a function of $c$ is bijective in [0,1] and same principle for the vertical component
cole
and then for the rest of the rows i can argue the vertical by construction since it differs from the corresponding entry in the previous row by r/n^2, while the horizontals are trivially different from that of the previous row(s)
wait now im confusing myself
no nvm this should be fine?
hmm this is okay for a single A^r, but how do you know that A^r and A^s don't have duplicates in the same row/column for r not equal to s?
am I bugging or can you just like exactly follow the hint and like take the point in the middle of each quarter square recursively
but then you have shared verticals no?
suppose $A^r$ shares the x entry with $A^{r+a}$, then $\frac{r+a}{n^2}+\frac{c_1}{n}=\frac{r}{n^2}+\frac{c_2}{n}$ which implies that $\frac{a}{n}=c_2-c_1$ but $a\in[0,n-r-1]$ and so the fraction is never a natural number which is required since $c_i\in{N}$.
now suppose $A^r$ shares the y entry with $A^{r+a}$, then by the same procedure we arrive at $na=c_1-c_2$. The trivial case of $a=0\Rightarrow{c_1=c_2}$ can be ignored. This would imply that $c_1-c_2\geq{n}$ which is nonsense
cole
oh wait but then are you taking the limit as n -> inf? I'm confused
or some sort of union
i was just doing it for arbitrary n
you need the same set to work for all n though
so you could try taking the union of all the sets for all n?
then you'd need to check that you don't introduce any duplicate points in any row/column but after that you'd be done
if im not mistaken i think my most recent proof above does this. was to demonstrate that each $A^i$ in the union $A=A^0\cup\dots\cup{A^{n-1}}$ contains points that have unique horizontals/verticals and thus the union also has no duplicates
cole
oh i see where the confusion is let me fix it up
suppose there exists $v_1\in{A^r}$ that shares the x entry with $v_2\in{A^{r+a}}$, then $\frac{r+a}{n^2}+\frac{c_1}{n}=\frac{r}{n^2}+\frac{c_2}{n}$ for some $c_1$,$c_2$ which implies that $\frac{a}{n}=c_2-c_1$ but $a\in[0,n-r-1]$ and so the fraction is never a natural number which is required since $c_i\in{N}$.
now suppose there exists $v_1\in{A^r}$ that shares the y entry with $v_2\in{A^{r+a}}$, then by the same procedure we arrive at $na=c_1-c_2$. The trivial case of $a=0\Rightarrow{c_1=c_2}$ can be ignored. This would imply that $c_1-c_2\geq{n}$ which is nonsense
cole
this assumes the n is the same for both points
I'm saying you could take the union of all these sets for all n
and then you'd have to check for collision if there's different values of n
OH i see what you mean okay thank you
You're welcome! :)
Btw here's another approach you could take here: if you don't care about the specific formula for the points in A, you can invoke the axiom of choice to just say "pick one point in each quadrant not in the same row/column as any of the points chosen up until then, then pick one point in each sixteenth not in the same row/column as any points chosen up until then, etc." Since at each step, you only have finitely many points to "avoid collisions with" and infinitely many points to choose from, you're guaranteed that you can choose such a point for each of the 4^n squares for all n, and then you're done.
Concrete formulas are always nice to have though
ah this is interesting… I have yet to be formally introduced to the axiom of choice in university but I keep seeing it sporadically pop up
probably a sign to do some reading beforehand lol
It's probably not that important to understand explicitly until later parts of your mathematical career. Often one uses it implicitly without comment in proofs anyways. (In fact, it was only enshrined as an axiom after mathematicians realized with a bit of surprise that it didn't follow from the other axioms.)
It's interesting to read about though.
For limit points of a subset S of X we require every neighbourhood of a point x contains a point, a, in S which is different from x
For adherent points we just require their intersection to be non empty, I.e. a=x is allowed
so it's only different if the adherent point is an element of S
so adherent points are just elements of S plus limit points right?
I’m not sure I know what you mean. All limit points are certainly adherent points, that much is true.
Essentially for a limit point we require the intersection of any neighbourhood of x and S to contain at least 2 points, for adherent points we only require it to contain one point
two points?
Ignore that I think i was being silly, but the difference is for limit point the intersection must contain a point which isn’t x, but we don’t assume that for adherent points
just a quick question that I want to confirm: (2)->(1) actually can conclude that T=T', is it correct( i think it is)
No, from (2) you can only conclude that T subset T'
I am actually consider it as: collection B' is also the basis for T by def that every open sets U in T and x in U have x subset of elements of B' subset of U, so we write it as union of all elements of B'=T, so T=T' because all union of elements of basis equals topology.
you're not guaranteed B' is a basis for T
not all of the definition of a basis is satisfied
sure x in B' subset U for all U in T and x in U, but to be a basis you also need B' open
ok, i just noticed it. really appreciate for pointing out
Did anybody watch Michael Penn's video about how R^2\Q^2 is path connected
I have not, I think I can believe that though, something something density you can take weird snaking paths to avoid a lattice of Q
Sounds like an interesting problem though, quite funky
let p,q be distinct points in R^2 setminus Q^2. As long as one of the coordinates is irrational you are fine. Move from q first in the x coordinate in a straight line until you are "close" to the x coordinate of p, but end up at an irrational x-coordinate. Do the same with the y-coordinate. Repeat this process ad-infinitum, you should obtain a legit curve
actually for most points p,q the segment joining them won't have any points from Q^2, so this is hardly surprising
can you just use this fact and consider two line segments to handle the general case
the argument i like is as follows:
the set of lines through a point which contain a rational coordinate is countable, so uncountably many of them lie in R^2 - Q^2.
you can do this for two points and the lines have to intersect somewhere (if they are parallel, just pick a different line through one of them)
yeah
do you even need to mention uncountability? You just need two distinct lines with no points in Q^2 (through every point)
its a nice way to ensure that such a line exists, but im not sure how else you would do that atm
can you show that for (x,y) not in Q^2, a line L passing through (x,y) contains a point in Q^2 iff L - (x,y) contains a point in Q^2 other than (0,0)?
if so then it’s easy to just construct the two lines
hmm no that is false
for trivial reasons
like if L is horizontal and (x,y) = (0, pi)
i have a hunch that you can do something with arcs
does this argument work for any countable subset of R^2
yes, it also works for R^n - C for any countable subset C of R^n
it fails for sets of measure zero though
e.g., R x {0}
what if they have zero hausdorff dimension
Why is nobody watching the video lol
I mean all of the arguments so far have been incorrect... The video gives an easy solution
i haven’t worked with this enough to have anything insightful to say
the arguments for what? constructing a path?
i thought this was the argument in the video
🌟🌟To try everything Brilliant has to offer free! Visit https://brilliant.org/michaelpenn for 20% off your annual premium subscription.🌟🌟 🌟
🌟Support the channel🌟
Patreon: https://www.patreon.com/michaelpennmath
Channel Membership: https://www.youtube.com/channel/UC6jM0RFkr4eSkzT5Gx0HOAw/join
Merch: https://teespring.com/sto...
he makes the same argument as this one
at around 11 or 12 minutes into the video
lol wut
c squared gave a complete proof
me neither
is this thing guaranteed to be continuous? like, what if you trace out a path that wiggles like sin(1/x)?
this is the only vaguely relevant thing ik of
yeah, you can imagine like an infinite staircase. But I think literally anything works as long as the distances get smaller (like, you could spiral around, or spiral then staircase, then spiral in the other direction, etc)
the correct analogy here would be wiggling like xsin(1/x), so it's fine
@rancid umbra's argument is correct because it's the same argument essentially
mhm, right, i see
ok more relevant: if dim A < 1 then by fubini A_x is empty for a.e. x
that is not the reason it’s correct…
michael penn is not the arbiter of mathematical rigor
lol
oh that’s neat
we’re out of my realm of knowledge now haha
geometric measure theory 
our last few classes of fourier analysis were dedicated to this stuff
it was fire
i guess the point is to project A onto the line and use that the 1d lebesgue measure is zero
not exactly fubini
@narrow tide found panopto yet?
consider natural bijection of open and closed sets of a topology
That is a quite neat argument, especially since it works for any countable set of forbidden points. But in the particular case of R² \ Q², we can also avoid the appeal to countability simply by:
For every point in R² \ Q², depending on which coordinate is irrational, either the horizontal line through it or the vertical line through it is entirely in R² \ Q².
This gives you, for each of p and q, an axis-parallel line through it. Connect each of those lines to the line x+y=pi (which is itself disjoint from Q², and intersects every axis-parallel line in the plane).
General topology exam in an hour, I’m sick as a dog, the entirety of my studying has been rereading the notes and skimming last years exam before deciding it looked fine. This can only go well.
Good luck
I hope the exam went well 
It was the right call, 50 marker defining the zariski topolgy and showing it’s not Hausdorff lol
People who didn’t take alggeo are rather upset but so it goes
It was honestly harder if you had taken alggeo because the notation he used to define things was impenetrably bad
I definitely could’ve done far better if I’d studied but I think I have a B given how ill I’ve been i think I’ll take that
Idk what y'all covered in class but if I was asked to define something that can only be defined using shit from a class that isn't even a prerequisite on an exam I'm writing an email as soon as I get home lol
Well I don't think that's what he said
He said the professor defined what the zariski topology is
And you were supposed to prove something using the definition given in the exam
You didn't need to take an alg geo class to understand it
I read it as the question asked you to define the zariski topology and then also prove it is not Hausdorff
Unless I'm missing something
I also have no idea if 50 marks is supposed to be 50% because if it is then what is even that exam
it's pretty common to have "restate the definition of something we defined in class" as a question, or first part of a question to help the student get started
"give definition for this word none of you have heard before" would be too nonsensical to have on an exam for me to think this is the correct interpretation
Usually those definition type questions are about defining something general to the subject rather than a specific example so I see what you mean
Would be interesting to get this clarified though
got a q
trying to show that if p: G -> H is an open surjective continuous homomorphism between top groups and ker(p) is discrete then i can find a nbd U of e_H such that p|U is injective
it feels very true but just getting a nbd of e_H that doesn't intersect ker(p) \ e_H is way too weak for me
and i can't use anything like local compactness or path connected so i'm struggling
hint only please
So I guess you mean neighborhood of e_G.
Anyway, notice that
f(x) = f(y), then xy^-1 is in the kernel. So if you can find neighborhood such that xy^-1 is always sufficiently close to the identity you would be done by discreteness of the kernel.
He in the worst way possible gave a purely set theoretic description of the vanishing locus of an ideal of R^n[x] (like a genuinely impenetrable definition it wasn’t good) then described a set based on that, then said prove there is a topology on R^n whose close sets are precisely the elements of the set he defined
Then just a bunch of other questions about properties of the zariski topology
You don’t need any alggeo to do it but there are currently a lot of students very upset about it
The rest of the exam was a question with like 8 true/false give a proof or counter example about properties of continuous maps, then a question about the dyadic rationals
This sounds like a master's course which makes this totally insane to me
Like what is the instructor doing
The dyadic rationals was the worst question I genuinely couldn’t make sense of what i was being asked to do, he defined them in there the notation he used was very unclear
I mean it’s a final year course at a pretty decent uni it’s not going to be super easy. Also the guy that set the exam didn’t actually teach the course, nor is he a topologist so it’s all a bit funky
If it's a good uni then why don't they have a topologist teaching topology 😐
Like when I learned basic topology 2 years ago it was still taught by an actual algebraic topologist and my institution isn't even in the top 100 rn
Also it's totally insane to me that you'd have someone not teaching the course make the exam outside of qualifying exams
It's borderline impossible for instructors to accurately predict how much and what material they'll make it through by the time you get to the exam so they're really the only ones qualified to make it imo
Seems to me like they're more concerned with making it hard than making it instructive
V that doesn't intersect and then symmetric U^2 ⊆ V
thanks
The guy who usually teaches it was on sabbatical. It’s also UG topology any mathematician could teach it it’s rather basic
This was only because the guy who was supposed to teach the course was ill all year and couldn’t make it in, so we had various people sub in, but he had to be the person to set the exam because it’s “his course”
That's fair
How to show that ]0,1[^N is not sigma-compact?
remind me what the brackets mean
do you just mean R^N
The brackets mean open interval
So (0, 1)^N in less french notation
What's bct?
if it is sigma compact then every compact set in the union is nowhere dense
I'm thinking, let
X = (0, 1)^N and let fi: X -> (0, 1) be the projections.
For any compact subspace C, fi(C) is compact so not all of (0,1)
Now let Cn be a countable family of compact sets. And pick xi outside of fi(Ci). Then (xi) is not in any of the Cn
oh thats also a good solution
I guess the same works for any infinite product of non-compact sets
so their union cannot be the whole space because R^N is completely metrizable
A map which is continuous and open, where "open" means that it sends open sets to open sets
Not necessarily, it need not be injective
Or surjective for that matter
Ok
well it would be surjective onto its image but yea
Sure yeah I just mean like
There is no reason to think this should be injective but not surjective
Both images and preimages of open sets are sent to open sets
hey, can anybody tell me about the basis of a point in a topology? i know about basis in a global sense that every open set can be written as the union of the basis elements, now what is "basis of a point"?
it's a collection of open sets containing the point such that any neighborhood of the point contains a member of the collection
so like can it be said as the smallest neighbourhood of x? as every open neighbourhood will at least contain one of the basis elements of x??
or is it like the basis of neighbourhoods of x?
in R, with euclidean topology you can't get smallest neighborhood of x
because every neighborhood around 0, say (-e, e) you will get always smaller neighborhood (-e/2, e/2)
yeahh, got it
maybe that's true
hmm, i was learning about he first countability axiom, and i was confused about the basis of the element
hi guys, is there a topology reading group going on right now that i can join ?
is it true that if A and B are topological spaces such that A is homeomorphic to a proper subset of B and B is homeomorphic to a proper subset of A, then A and B are homeomorphic?
No, consider [0, 1] and R for example
Are Q and Q \cap [0,1] homeomorphic?
surprisingly yes
yeaa you can like fiddle with half open segments of rationals
Yeah, I'm beginning to see that
so Q^n is homemomorphic to Q for any n from 1 to omega included
also p adic topopology on Q is homemomorphic to Q
Consider A = N with the topology whose open sets are [0, 2n], and B the subspace N\{0}.
A has an open point, B does not and n |-> n+2 is an embedding
Otherwise I guess you can do some kind of Eilenberg Mazur swindle.
Like countable disjoint union of sierpinski space and countable disjoint union plus one extra point
i mean you can do the same thing again but with rationals
Q + 1 and Q are not homemomorphic but contain each other
bonus points for being all metric and nice
Are there any simple properties that would make it true btw? Like if A and B were compact for example?
If you replace homeomorphic with isometric, then ccompact should probably do it
I see
it seems like a property that is rare even for algebraic structures; AFAIK you can find two non-isomorphic groups containing each other, and I think even two fields?
Ah yeah very nice
I like the swindle a lot lol
I can't remember what the context was but I saw smth v similar to this recently lol
Like not just a swindle but a similar one to this
For fields yes, because alg closure of C(t) is C I think, or maybe ((t))?
So you can do C and C(t)
I mean a swindle works anytime you have a structure with a non-isomorphic substructure pretty much
It is kind of funny cause hm
In derived stuff like subobjects often don't make the best sense, or like aren't always useful
Hmm
Besides summands or whatever
Triangulated categories don't really have monomorphism
Yeah exactly
I have a funny thing where I show a map is injective on homotopy groups
And I initially was like huh does that make it have vanishing fiber hence be an equivalence
Same in Set or in a semisimple category
Why monomorphisms split? Well the inclusion of the empty set doesn't
No I mean like
We didn't say monos split
So I was confused like assumed you were saying Set doesn't have a good notion of mono aha
Well saying you can't do this swindle there
Oh I mean ig you can sometimes just
I was more remarking that subobjects in general aren't as important
And only split ones rly make sense and sure then it is quite different
Ok nice I get ur angle now sorry
Anyway, vector spaces would be an algebraic structure where you don't have this A and B relationship thingy
Yee
sanity check
if X is a space and B_X the borel sigma algebra, then does X being lindelof imply that the presheaf of measurable functions U → ℝ ∪ {∞} is a sheaf?
i am almost certainly sure that the answer is no and we require hereditarily lindelof
if the answer is yes then i'd only like affirmation (no hints)
Can somebody please explain the highlighted line? In particular, I thought that |K_1| is open (since it is the intersection of Euclidean space - s (which is open) with |K|), so that |K_1| \subset X_1^o makes sense. On the other hand, why is |K_2| - |K_1| an open subset of |K_2| if |K_1| is open?
If $X$ is compact hausdorff and $G$ acts continuously on $X$, and $R$ is a $G$-invariant closed equivalence relation, is $X/R$ hausdorff?
qwerty
It suffices to show that $\pi:X\to X/R$ is an open map, but I am unable to see this
qwerty
I think G doesn't matter for that question at all? not even the fact that it exists
because every equivalence relation is invariant with respect to the trivial action of any group
so you're just asking whether X/R is Hausdorff for every compact Hausdorff space X and closed equivalence relation R
What do you mean by closed? Closed as a subset of X x X?
Pretty sure this is true right
equivalently every equivalence class is closed i think
Like use the fact compact Hausdorff spaces are ||normal||
you need the saturation of your two disjoint open sets to also be disjoint
True
(referring to hot potato's hint)
But there's also more to do
Yeah it is, though it's been a while and I've forgotten the proof, lol
it suffices to separate points not on the same equivalence class, by saturated open nbds, so i'm not sure compact => normal will be helpful (?)
maybe you do it in XxX tho
oh no need for anything fancy
Ah yes, it seems the statement is true. $X$ compact hausdorff and $R$ closed implies $X\to X/R$ is closed, and the image of a normal space under continuous closed map is normal.
qwerty
Oh nice lol
Is it easy to see this map is closed
I am glad suggesting normality wasn't bogus aha
I had a very fun exercise in an exam it wrote like this:
Let Y be Hausdorff, and X a topological space, then if we have the following equivalence relation: x~x' <-> f(x)=f(x') for every continuous function that go from X to Y. Show that X/~ is Hausdorff.
There was also two indications:
Let Xi be a topological space for every i from I
Then prod(Xi) is Hausdorff (for every i in I) if and only if every Xi is Hausdorff
And another one that said, let X be a topological space, then X is Hausdorff if and only if there exists a hausdorff space Y and a continuous and injective function from X to Y
Wouldn't ||X/~ be a singleton? Let f be a constant function, then f(x) = f(x') and therefore x ~ x' for all x, x' in X||?
No, x~x' if and only if every continuous function is such that f(x) = f(x'), then if the ONLY continuous function was the constant one, it would be a singleton, but if you have more than one continuous function you need that for every function f(x) = f(x')
As an example, in R, if you have let's say the constant function and e^x
(From R to R)
No x would be equivalent to a x'
As e^x is not injective
*is injective
Ah, I see. Interesting problem 
For there to actually be some x~x' that isn't itself, it must be two spaces such that every function X to Y is non injective
Basically
Indeed
Yeah there's a notion of "Hausdorffication" where you do this for all choices of Y as well [with X fixed]
Presumably this exercise is a variant on that
Hm to solve the problem you had to define a function F where each component of the imagine is the image of every possible continuous function
Is it similar?
So you would have injectivity
(And go from X/~ to prod(Y) where there's one Y for every continuous function there exists)
The other "indications" had to be proven but uh, the main exercise was the top one
Any example using that idea of the hausforffication?
there is a similar idea Tychonoff spaces, if you take a quotient of a Hausdorff space by all elements that have the same image under functions into R, then the quotient is Tychonoff
moreover, it has the same ring of continuous functions, and the mapping C(X/~) -> С(X): f |-> f \circ q where q is the quotient function is an isomorphism
You don't take the quotient of a hausdorff space here tho
X isn't Hausdorff
But I understand the similarity
Anyone?
Is there an error with the proof here?
what if we want to prove that every open subspace of a compact space is compact? can we take the closure of an open subset A, apply the proof as above, then conclude that as Ua ⊇ cl(A) ⊇ A, the statement is true?
the union doesnt contain cl A
well it can but it doesnt have to
Any point set gods?
Well that last bit isn't the implication - it's an "and". Probably just |K2| is closed in |K| so the complement is open, then intersect with |K1|
If i want to show that S¹={(x¹)²+(x²)²=1} is a closed in R², i can show that it's complementary is open, since the complementary of S¹ is the union of {open balls with r<1} and {open balls with r>1} , the complementary of S¹ is a union of open sets, and i can conclude that S¹ is closed
It says in my textbook that i can prove the same using hausdorff properties and/or cotinuous functions
Any advice on how to do so?
the union of {open balls with r<1} and {open balls with r>1} is just R^2
i feel like you have the right idea but aren’t phrasing it correctly
if you could describe in words what the picture of R^2 - S^1 looks like, how would you do it?
like what parts of that picture are there?
R² without the circumference
is that how you would describe it?
Yes?
can you try to add some more detail?
there are two very distinct parts of R^2 - S^1
The inner disc and the area on the outside of the circumference
My initial thought was to consider both of them as union of open balls but now that i think of it is not right at all
right. the inner disc. it’s the set of all points whose length is less than 1
that’s just an open ball of radius 1 centered at the origin
And that is open
yes
Now i need to prove that the outside is open too
in a similar way, how would you describe the outer region
Lenght >1
right
so you need to be able to find an open ball around any point with norm larger than 1 that stays in the outer region
drawing a picture should help
actually, you made me realise it's much easier to just prove that ||the norm function is continuous|| to do the question
i was going to mention that as well
don’t even need the norm function (it involves a sqrt), just (x,y) |—> x^2 + y^2
you can also consider a closed ball of radius R>1 minus an open ball of radius r<1, and take the intersection of these closed annuli over R>1>r
