#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 118 of 1
Worldly, inaccessible and Reinhardt are the only large cardinals that I've been liking so far
Vopenka is nice it makes category theory much nicer
But it’s also one of the most absurdly strong large cardinal axioms and I’ve never needed it
Idk more than enough crazy category theory to do these days just with aleph_1
aleph 1 is probably the best cardinal tbh
Fake axiom
Can anyone explain this?
the rest of the connected components of $G$ are contained in the complement of ${z : |z| > R}$
L
but why is there some R such that {z : |z| > R} \subset G
(1) the continuous image of a compact space is compact.
(2) every compact subset of R2 is closed and bounded.
im confused how to prove this
I just need to show comparability, non reflexivity , and transitivity right?
But for comparability , how do i show it ? the definition itself is a bit dodgy
what is the definition of an order relation?
it's a collection of a few axioms you have to check, what are the definitions of those axioms?
ok so let (a1, b1) != (a2, b2) be in A x B
what do you have to show for comparability?
that either (a1, b1) < (a2, b2) or (a2, b2) < (a1, b1)
Ok, so can you apply the definition of < on A x B to show that? Note that <A and <B are both order relations
this really is just definition chasing
so can you apply the definition of < on A x B to show that?
thats where i am confused
what does it mean for (a1, b1) < (a2, b2)
one thing that would help is if you could elaborate on what you mean by "a bit dodgy"
cause idk what that means
i mean its a bit weird
and kinda sketchy
if a1 <A a2 or if a1 = a2 and b1 <B b2
this condition i am not understanding
what don't you understand?
I mean lets consider an example
we can take our normal ordering < on the integers Z
so then we get an ordering on Z x Z
using the definition, can you tell me if (1, 2) < (3, 4) and why? What about if (1, 2) < (1, 3)?
1 < 3 so (1, 2) < (3, 4)
for the next one, 1 = 1 so since 2 < 3, (1, 2) < (1, 3)
is that right
yes!
Ok so it seems you understand the definition, so I'm still not sure what you mean by this
ok for (1) comparability
Let (a1, b1) != (a2, b2) in A x B.
Case 1: a1 != a2
If a1 != a2 then by definition , we have either a1 <A a2 or a2 <A a1
Case 2: a1 = a2
if a1 = a2 then by definition , we either b1 <B b2 or b2 <B b1
combining both cases, we have either (a1, b1) < (a2, b2) or (a2, b2) < (a1, b1), satisfying comparability.
Is that right
yup!
perfect
So now try to do similar definition chasing to get the other conditions
Thanks!
How should i go about proving this now
I only got this definition to work with
hint try and find a set to use the greatest lower bound property on finding a least upper bound
Or the other way around
But find a way to apply one property while finding the other thing
but howw
I think the general method is like "consider the set of all upper bounds" and proceed from there
If f:[0,1] -> [a,b] surjective continuous mapping with usual topology on R, is it necessary that f needs to be open mapping?
I know this is not true in general
But I am trying to construct a counterexample
no just go back and forth in the middle a little
I try basic functions
My idea was to ||map [0, 1] to S^1||, then ||rotate by 90 degrees||, then||project down||. I think this works
Any not-(strictly monotone) continuous function will do.
Are you sure any such function work? Like, isn't x |-> x^2 from [-1, 1] to [0, 1] an open map?
Ah. Open in the closed interval codmain.
Let X be a topological space. If A is an open subset of Y and Y is a subset of X, is it true that A is an open subset of the interior of Y?
A might not a be a subset of the interior of Y though
A \cap int Y is an open subset of the interior of Y
just consider int Y as a subspace of Y
How hard should topology textbook(James Munkres) exercises be(i think i can with some little difficulty do 50 percent of them)? Asking this because I'm doing self study and I'm wondering if i missed something important....
50% is great, that's better than most I think
It's a rough estimation... but tbf i wonder how much is due to the fact that i basically am immediately scared away from the ones that don't look obvious
yeah, sometimes you come across a problem you have no idea how to start. If you have a solutions manual, a good idea is to just look at just the first couple of sentences, and see if you can finish the proof from there
or you can come here to ask for hints
it's completely normal to be stuck on problems. If you're not struggling, the problems are probably too easy
A thought of mine for this , idk if it's right or not
I'm new at latex so it might be messy
make sure to close all ur dollar signs
There's a lot of text in math environments that should just be plain
$f:[0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$ such that $f(x) = 2x$ when $ 0 \leq x \leq \frac{1}{2}$ and $g(x) = \frac{3-2x}{2}$ when $\frac{1}{2} \leq x \leq 1$.
\vspace{0.5cm}
\Take open set $U = (1/2,1]$ it gives $f(U) = [1/2,1)$ which is not open in $[0,1]$
Notknow🙇
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Is it correct?
yep, looks good 👍
Is my proof for this correct Let $X\neq {0}$ be a vector space. Show that the discrete metric on X is not induced by a norm.
Proof: Suppose the discrete metric is induced by a norm $\left\lVert \cdot \right\rVert \implies d(x,y) = \left\lVert x-y \right\rVert$ But then the $\left\lVert 2 \right\rVert =\left\lVert 2-0 \right\rVert= d(2,0) = 1 \text{(by the definition of discrete metric)} \neq 2 = 2 * 1 = 2 * d(1,0) = \left\lVert 2 \right\rVert *\left\lVert 1 \right\rVert = \left\lVert 2 \right\rVert$
you have a \implies outside of math mode, that's probably the reason for the error
you can also ask the bot to tell you the error by clicking the second reaction like it says
rabbits_advocate
thanks
does the cat approve reaction mean that the proof is correct?
how do you know 2 != 0?
what is "2" ?
since we are talking about discrete metrics I think it's safe to assume the field is R
although op please clarify in case it isn't
the field is not explicitly stated in this question but the definition of norm in my class assumes R or any general field
what about discrete metrics indicates R? you mean norms?
No I meant in a course where you talk about discrete metrics, you would usually talk about real vector spaces but I suppose not
Yeah so did you get my question? Since X is just any vector space, "2" doesn't necessarily make sense as an element of it so you should clarify what you mean
on the last line you write 2 * d(1,0) = ||2|| * ||1||, but I think you mean 2 * ||1||, since you haven't shown yet that ||2|| = 2
also I would probably take the discrete metric to be any metric that induces a discrete topology and not just that specific one, makes the question a little more fun
oh thats right so I can specitfy 2 is an element of R
what is 2
you have a vector space it has a zero and typically no twos
So I can map a function from C[0,1] -> R such that f maps to f(1/2), and this continuous function, so F is closed because it is inverse image of closed set {0} and G is open because it is inverse image of open set
Correct?
yea
Bit late, but just consider the complement of a dense set, e.g. R\Q in R. A non-empty open set of R\Q is not an open subset of the (empty) interior of R\Q in R.
this might be a silly question, but how do we know that A and B are open sets? (From mse)
It’s the definition of a disconnected topo space, there exists nonempty disjoint open sets whose union is the entire space
i guess i was given a different definition, this was the definition i have been given
if (X,d) is a metric space and A subset X, then A is disconnected if it can be written as the union of two non-empty separated sets (where separated means closure(B) cap C = closure(C) cap B = phi) i.e. there exists B,C subset X such that B,C nonempty, closure(B) cap C = closure(C) cap B = phi, A = B cup C
theres no mention of B and C being open, is there a way to deduce that from the definition i was given?
Oh, you’re using the metric space definition, let’s see
Also using phi to denote the empty set is kinda genius
Closure B is closed <=> (Closure B)^C is open
So C = A cap (Closure B)^C is open in A, and should be the open sets you’re looking for
Each space is disjoint from the closure of the other, so inf({d(b, c)|for all c in C)}>0 for any particular b in B, and vice versa for C. B is the union of the open balls centered at any point b of B of said distance, same with C, so B, C are open disjoint subsets who’s union is A.
Wow that’s a lot simpler lmao
I hope some more people ask some more questions soon cause I really wanna do some point-set topology rn but don’t know what to do
Might just pop open a random page of Munkres and do some exercises
why do we know B is the union of such open balls? like this would rely on the assumption that B is open right?
sorry im still a bit confused :<
Since BnCl(C) is empty, for every point b in B, d(b, C)>0, so we can pick an open ball around b disjoint from C.
Pick one for every b
Since every set is disjoint from C, so is the union
If B and C are separated, then the closures of their respective complements cover each other. That tracks?
right, but i guess why is B equal to the union? like for instance if B is a closed set
Because you’re picking an open ball around each point b in B, which in particular must contain b
Also, in this case B will be both open and closed(in A)
i guess that makes sense intuitively im trying to see why that is true symbolically rn
Lemma. If U is an open set, and A is any set, then U cap A is open in A
That’s kind of the lemma that my proof hinges upon
hmmm okay i agree with that
Oh so C = A cap cl(B)^c is open in A and thus open in X?
Unless A is open, open subsets of A need not be open in X
They’re the intersection of an open subset of X with A, though
Also, not sure if I was misleading earlier, B and C are open in A, but not necessarily open in X
No problem
Definition of "Normal" in these notes: given any two closed disjoint subsets E,F of a topological space X, there exist disjoint open supersets U,V of E,F respectively.
assume they intersect, then there are two B_{\epsilon_x / 2} (x) that intersect, derive a contradiction
Since $U$ and $D$ are disjoint, and since $V$ and $C$ are disjoint, the only way $U$ and $V$ can intersect is if the point is neither in $C$ nor in $D$. The same is true for $U'$ and $V'$, since these are subsets of $U$ and $V$. It feels like we're going to invoke the triangle inequality somewhere but I don't see how we can make progress.\
So for some $x\in C:, y\in D$, we have $B_{{\epsilon_x}/2}(x) \cap B_{{\delta_y}/2}(y) \neq \emptyset$. So far this seems plausible.
Chaos22
it means the distance between x and y is at most (\epsislon + \delta) / 2
that cannot happen
you just need to realize why
well i guess technically it needs to be strictly less than that which it is
Ah I think I get it now. WLOG, assuming epsilon>delta>0,
This would mean that y is contained in the original Be(x) since (epsilon+delta)/2 < epsilon. Which by construction isn't the case. Contradiction achieved.
yep
By the way, another neat way to show that a metric space is normal is, for two disjoint closed sets A and B, to consider the distance functions x |-> d(A, x) and x |-> d(B, x), which are defined as the infimum of the distance from x to points of A, and the same but for points of B. Then show that these distance functions are continuous.
Next, consider the difference, f, of these distance functions, which is also continuous. Then the inverse images f^-1 ((-infty, 0)) and f^-1 ((0, infty)) are the required disjoint open sets to prove normality.
I would think just taking the open balls of respective distance around each point in each would be a simpler way to provide explicit open sets, no?
Oh, this is wonderful! When I first read the definition of normality, it felt reminiscent of this real-analysis exercise I did from Abbott. The connection felt vague but nothing precise. Thanks for explicitly showing the link here.
I can't recall if I had to invoke completeness to prove this, but I'm assuming it can be proven just by using the properties of a general metric space. Thus, am I correct in saying that every metric space is normal?
this is true for any metric space. It's written $g(x) = d(x, F)$, and $d(x, F) = 0$ iff $x \in F$.
L
yea but its less illustrative
with that approach you get the Uryhson function for the two sets for free (take d(x, A) / (d(x, A) + d(x, B)))
Ic
Why is this true? I know that f^{-1}(W) is open in |K|, but I'm trying to see why it's an open subset of the interior
Moreover how do we even know the preimage lives in the interior
Am I supposed to interpret it this way? $f^{-1}(W)$ is an open subset of $|K|$, so $f^{-1}(W) \cap \sigma$ is open in $\sigma$. Therefore, $\varphi^{-1}\bigl(f^{-1}(W) \cap \sigma)$ is open in $\Delta^m$; as such, $(\Delta^m)^{\circ} \cap \varphi^{-1}\bigl(f^{-1}(W) \cap \sigma)$ is open in $(\Delta^m)^{\circ}$
okeyokay
Mathematicians make up any term atp 💀
Is there an example of a topological space X such that, given any two points x, y, there is an automorphism f such that f(x)=y, but such that there is two pairs (x, y) and (a, b), assuming x≠y and a≠b, such that there is no homeomorphism f from X to X with f(x)=a and f(y)=b?
All the examples I can think of satisfying the first property satisfy the second
E.g. $\bR^n$, seemingly, for one
NAT Enthusiast
Actually no I don’t think R^n is an example?
Let (0, 1) and (2, -1)
There is no homeomorphism sending 0 to 2 and 1 to -1, since every open, continuous function from R to itself is strictly monotone
So nvm
?
it's a homeomorphism although it doesn't preserve orientation if that's what you're wondering
Now I’m really confused cause I saw an MSE post saying a continuous function from R to R is open iff strictly monotone, so 0<1 implies F(0)<F(1). Maybe I’m just misunderstanding what strictly monotone means?
Oh wait no I think that’s strictly increasing lmao
Yeah mb
thanks
monotone means it's either increasing everywhere or decreasing everywhere
Oh that makes more sense
Do you know if there’s any example of a space like this then?
by automorphism I take it you mean a homeomorphism from a space onto itself
which I don't think is something I've heard before but idk
answer to that question is also idk 
Yeah
I don't have a topological example at hand unfortunately, so I don't know if there is one (even though I would not be surprised)
I do have a neat example from Riemannian geometry though
actually nevermind, my example was overcomplicated and for Riemannian manifolds even something like S^1 is an example
for every two points there's an isometry that maps one to the other, but if you pick two pairs of points such that the distance between the first two does not equal the distance between the second two, you can't have an isometry that maps one pair onto the other
That’s actually very helpful! Thank you.
The question was for defining a certain kind of structure on objects and I just arbitrarily picked topological spaces to see if it was interesting for them
But this is just as helpful as a topological example would be
oh, now I actually have a really simple topological example too
take something like the disjoint union of two copies of R
for every two points there's still a homeomorphism taking one to the other, but if you pick a pair of points from one component and want to take it to a pair where one point is in one component and the other is in the other...
I think the standard way of saying this is that the homeomorphism group acts transitively but not 2-transitively btw
Alright, thank you!
Now I just wanna find an example that’s connected lol
hm, that's an interesting example too
what I was thinking of was to take the real line and replace every point with two indistinguishable copies of itself
Ideally I’m looking for a space X such that the equivalence classes of XxX under the relation (x, y)~(a, b) iff there’s a homeomorphism sending x to a and y to b are numerous, but (x, x)~(y, y) for all x, y, e.g. it is homogeneous
So line with two origins but line with two everything

kind of, but with the two always collapsed together
0 and 0' are not topologically indistinguishable in the line with two origins
here they are
Oh yeah
Is this homeomorphic to the product of R with {0, 1} with the indiscrete topology?
hm, I hadn't thought about it like that, but probably
that's nice actually, because you get 1-transitivity for free
just need to show that if self-homeomorphisms of both X and Y act transitively, those on X ⨯ Y do too
the downside of this example is of course that it isn't Hausdorff, not even T0. that's probably why the math.se answer was so much more complicated
I might ask in other channels for other examples with other types of objects.
All of these seem to have very small equivalence classes under this relation
the R ⨯ (indiscrete {0,1}) example has quite large equivalence classes actually
in fact, I think (a,b) can be mapped to (a',b') by a homeomorphism iff the projection to R is either injective on both pairs or non-injective on both
which, uh. means there's only three equivalence classes
Sorry, meant “not very many”, lmao
ah
Preferably I want an example with $\gneq\mathfrak{c}$ classes
NAT Enthusiast
I don't have an answer to that, but I do have one more example in another category I'd like to share
the one about Riemannian manifolds I had in mind before I notice the circle worked too
if you take the cylinder R ⨯ S^1, its isometry group acts transitively on it, but not 2-transitively
that's not super interesting, because one counterexample is still just two pairs of points with d(x,y) ≠ d(x',y')
but, even if you restrict yourself to pairs with some fixed distance, it doesn't act transitively on them
That’s very interesting, then!
furthermore, it doesn't even act 1-transitively on the tangent bundle
so the cylinder is a really simple example of a space that, roughly speaking, looks the same at every point but not the same in every direction
physics has some word for that probably, but I forgot. homogenous and symmetric maybe? I'm not sure
oh right, it's anisotropic
Never heard that before lmao
You too!
Good word
is there a topology that is the finest topology bar the discrete topology?
im working on an excersize where i am trying to see if totally disconnected implies that the topology is discrete. Im trying to disprove it by creating a topology that is as fine as possible but isn't discrete
well i have a counterexample ready on a finite set but still i got interested in what happens if i try to remove the finite open sets from the discrete topology
no
think about the popular disconnected metric spaces you know, one of them is bound to be totally disconnected
hi, could you tell me which is the best general topology course on Youtube pls.
Please verify this proof that complete regularity is finitely productive.
https://media.discordapp.net/attachments/690488884747960331/1350169733122621490/478125996885934082.png?ex=67d5c30d&is=67d4718d&hm=c61d320f167c6f3882ae620ea8612dd7092e3a10e09d0e9576f0124f3c8c5fae&=&format=webp&quality=lossless&width=505&height=824
One problem I think I see is that the logic to deduce the continuity of h seems faulty since we're not taking the maximum of two functions at the same input. So is there a neat modification?
you can just consider them as a composition of a projection and a continuous function
also tbh you only need to establish regularity and complete regularity on subbasic sets
so you get multiplicativity of regularity and complete regularity for free because of that
Attempt:
we first define h'(x,y) to the ordered pair on the unit square: (f(x),g(y)).
And note that this is continuous since each projection is continuous.
And then compose h' with the maximum function m: R^2 -> R, (which we know is continuous).
So then h = m composed h', which is continuous.
i've seen this trick tossed around where to prove a property about the product topology, it suffices to prove it for the basic or even the subbasic sets. Although I don't really understand when we can rely on this trick, or even, why it works.
Hint for the reverse direction please.
Current idea: A and B are separated. So we should try to find a subspace where they are both closed. Thus under that subspace we can leverage normality and somehow come out of the subspace with non-disjoint open sets.
I tried the subspace of A∪B, but that doesn't seem useful. A and B are both clopen here so the open sets we end up getting are just A and B again.
i mean you need to prove it separately for each property
here it happens to work
the reason it gives you free proofs about multiplicativity is because its usually really easy to prove stuff about the canonical subbasic sets of the product topology
HELP I’m trying to understand the concept of the closure of a set in topology. What does it mean for a set A to have a closure, and how is it relevant to the idea of closed sets in a topological space???? 😭
Will it include the endpoints of 0 and 1?? 😀
The closure is the smallest closed set containing the original set
Equivalently, it’s the set of all points of closure of that set. Informally, these are points which can be approximated to arbitrary degree without leaving the original set.
For example, the closure of (0, 1) is [0, 1]
Because you can approximate 0 within any arbitrarily small positive degree in (0, 1)
Same with 1
How does that make me get any closer to the original set tho??
So we can basically approximate as close as we want ?
Not sure what you mean
Yeah, any point in the closure can be approximated to arbitrary degree by points of the original set
How does the closure give a fuller view of the set's behaviour ?
It tells you which points are arbitrary close to the set
That’s about it
Thank you thank you thank you thank you thank you 🙏 my ahh was so cooked
Literally saved me
Np! Glad I could help.
Let X be the real line with the cocountable topology
Then, any cocountable set is dense, say, $\bR\setminus{1}$, but there is no sequence of elements of $X$ converging to $1$, because the convergent sequences here are eventually constant.
NAT Enthusiast
holy shit
I can’t think of any example atm except where all convergent sequences are eventually constant
Discrete metric space
stone cech compactification of N
certain subspaces of function spaces also have this property
is it true for cont functions f(a+b) = f(a) + f(b)
sry if this is a rly dumb question
ok yes
x^2
im trying to prove that the closed set definition of continuity is equivalent and in munkres it has in the proof (page 104) f^-1(B) = f^-1(Y) - f^-1(V) where B = Y-V and im not srue how he did that
Same thing as X\Y
it's everything that's in b but not a
💀 im acc fucking stupid nvm
many topological spaces don't have an additive structure btw
A discrete metric space is definitely sequential lol, not sure what you mean
what even was the original question? I don't see it
it is sequential but also only trivial sequences converge
How do you define sequence convergence in top spaces
A sequence converges iff it hits a cofinal sequence in a neighborhood filter?
thats an interesting way to put it but yeah
im not sure what you mean by a cofinal sequence in a nbhd filter though, it might not have one
the traditional definition is something like "for every [open] nbhd the sequence eventually lies inside the nbhd"
nets 
Ahh
Can someone help with the details here? I think I've got the idea but I'm struggling to make it fully rigorous.
I'm pretty sure that hausdorffness fails at the two origins. By definition of the quotient topology, given the projection q: X -> X/~, U in X/~ is open if q^-1(U) is open in X. In X, notice that something like ((2,3) x {0} U (2,3) x {1}) is open with respect to the subspace topology, X \subset R^2. The previous set also happens to be q^-1(U), where U = (2,3)/~ (the equivalence classes [(x,0)], with x in (2,3)).
So, now that we kind of see how open sets look like in X/~, consider a neighbourhood V of [(0,0)] of the form (-a, a)/~. Then q^-1(V) contains points arbitrarily close to (0,1) but not (0,1) itself, (e,1) for all 0 < e < a. My suspicion is that q^-1(V) isn't open, but I'm struggling to show this.
As always, appreciate any help.
It was in #real-complex-analysis
Let 0 be the origin from the first line and 0’ the origin of the second
A neighborhood of 0’ not containing 0 in the new space is just a neighborhood of 0’ in the line, so it has interior say (-a, a) for a>0. Same thing with 0, so a neighborhood of 0 not containing 0’ is essentially a Neighborhood of 0 in the original line, so it has interior say (-b, b) for b>0.
Assume wlog a>b
Then, the projection maps b/2 in both lines to the same point in the line with two origins, which is hende in both neighborhoods.
I understand this but how do I visualise this, I can visualise for B[0,1] in R but for R^2 it is a circle so collapse the all points x^2 + y^2 = 1, how does this give me a sphere in R^3?
take a sheet of paper, cut out a disk and try
according to my experience this won't exactly look like what you want but it might give you an idea
okay thank you
in a topology, if f: X -> Y and C \subset X called saturated when C = f^-1(f(C)), right?
So if p : X -> Y is a quotient map then i can show that p is continuous and saturated open sets maps to open sets
but how do i show converse?
let p: X-> Y is surjective mapping such that it is continuous and saturated open sets maps to open sets then a subset of U is open in Y iff p^-1(U) is open.
one direction is true by continuity of p.
Now i have to show if p^-1(U) is open then U is open, it is easy if p^-1(U) is saturated , how can i modify it?
Anyone have an ordered field that's a linear continuum other than the reals
are the rationals?
isnt every such field isomorphic to R as an ordered field (hence homeomorphic under the order top)
in fact you don't even need the second condition, any ordered field with lub property is isomorphic to R
Doesn't have least upper bound
Idk that's what I'm wondering but that sounds believable
Is there an easy proof
they both have copies of Q and you can use dedekind cuts
this question describes the proof
also i think linear continuum and lub property are the same thing for ordered fields
the x < y -> there exists z s.t. x<z<y property can be proven as (x+y)/2
what does complete mean in this context?
no nontrivial dedekind cuts
i.e. no gaps
Ty
should I learn about nets?
what is your review
they are useful for functional analysis
I think the modern perspective is that you should know both nets and filters as a researcher
but I'm not a researcher so that could be bs
nets are closer to the idea of a sequence I think
An algebraic topology postdoc told me "point-set topology is dead"
what book to learn about nets?
This seems to be, in some sense, true, afaik
Most people doing topology these days aren’t really doing pointset
But there’s definitely still some
it is just a subfield of set theory at this point really
and as such its like ok
Lol
I once read (and agreed tbh) that the compactness of an infinite number of compact spaces shouldn't be intuitive because, well, infinite number of terms
What are some philosophical points for/against tychonov
Do you mean an infinite product of compact spaces?
Yes yes
I feel like the most obvious one is “every product of compact spaces that we can decide in ZFC whether it’s compact or not is always compact”, feels pretty intuitive.
Any infinite such products we can decide?
Cause if we can only decide for finite products that's pretty moot
If Tychonoff’s theorem is false, that means there’s some very weird product of compact spaces, which, unlike the ones we can compute and decide compactness of, simply isn’t compact.
it's not that weird when you remember that an "infinite product" of topological spaces still contains some level of finiteness to it
the basis elements of this topology are the products of (i) the entire space X_i, in which case it doesn't matter, and (ii) a finite number of nontrivial open subsets U_j c X_j
$2^\mathbb{N}$ is compact, with or without Tychonoff’s theorem
NAT Enthusiast
It’s homeomorphic to the cantor set
Interesting
The axiom of choice is also “obviously true” so 🗣️
facts
Lel
Topology without AC is actually pretty bad anyhow
I need to work on my set theory where AC doesn't imply Zorn and WOT 👀
Second countability need not be hereditary
WOT?
Well ordering thm
What’s wrong with that
its obviously false
Lollll
I think “every set bijects with some ordinal” is pretty intuitive, tbf.
i mean thats not particularly interseting, it's true for any spaces on (uniformly) well orderable sets
2 is somewhat easy to well order
Oh yeah? Which ordinal does R biject to?
Yeah idk how interesting it is
But they asked for an example
aleph 1 of course
NAT Enthusiast
R bijects to the R with a well ordering
pretty basic
R bijects to whatever I want it to for the purposes of some example
Set theory is really held together by toothpicks and spit
E.g. Assuming $|\mathbb{R}|\geq\omega_\omega$, the cocountable topology on $R$ has some properties it wouldn’t have if $|\mathbb{R}|=\aleph_1$
NAT Enthusiast
I don’t see how you got this conclusion at all 💀
i still want to learn the mysteries of aleph 4 and Shelah's pp
I was told by someone that something happens in the order topology of aleph 4
and im really curious what and why but damn you need to wade through a lot of stuff to get to it
Neat
Wait what's with aleph 4
if 2^\omega is less than \aleph_\omega, then its just
why 4? i dunno i havent read it
Oh that's not aleph 4
Tsk
Also isn't woodin obsessed with making |R| = aleph 2
Hiya! I'm still in the early parts of my topology course so we're still discussing like continuous functions, types of topologies, and closures etc. There's this passage in another one of my courses, differential geometry (the one highlighted in blue).
I'm not looking for an explanation or anything, just curious. What topic does this correlate to? Any particular chapter (or subchapter) in Munkres' topology?
I would probably used local homology to show that, the idea is that removing any point on a smooth surface should leave you locally to something that looks like a puncted disk (in particular still connected). However here removing (0) leave you with two connected components thus S cannot be smooth. If you use path connectness you can probably show directly that a smooth surface without a point is sill path connectness by writing path explicitly.
local homology isn’t necessary, just consider that double cone with the central point removed, then show that the resulting thingy is disconnected
which cannot happen for a 2-dimensional locally euclidean surface
Tbt when I thought that was an immersion of the cylinder
Do we get any interesting theorems if we take this?
I think he just found some "natural" principles that lead to this result
Fwiw it's also consistent that |P(aleph1)| = aleph2 in that case
that's kinda cursed
damn I guess I am a continuum hypothesis believer that has no reason to feel cursed
Well it doesn't need to be the case
In set theory, Easton's theorem is a result on the possible cardinal numbers of powersets. Easton (1970) (extending a result of Robert M. Solovay) showed via forcing that the only constraints on permissible values for 2κ when κ is a regular cardinal are
κ
<
cf
(
2
...
I'm trying to show that the definition of the quotient topology is forced by the universal property
That is, if X/~ is endowed with a topology 𝜏 such that (X/~, 𝜏) satisfies the UP of the quotient, then 𝜏 is actually the ordinary topology on X/~
This isn’t true, though(unless you include the specific quotient map)
Any non-trivial bijection from X/~ to itself(as a set) gives it a distinct topology which is homeomorphic to the previous one(by the homeomorphism)
Universal property determines the quotient space up to isomorphism
If you do mean with the projection p:X to X/~ this is pretty straightforward, though, since it’s a quotient map
oh interesting
I'm trying to justify the definition "U open in X/~ if and only if π^-1(U) open in X"
specifically, the <= direction of this equivalence
I want to appeal to a category-theory type result, that this topology is somehow forced by other considerations
but I'm not sure what the formalization would be
Oh so you’re trying to prove it is a quotient map from the UP then
wdym by a quotient map
A quotient map is just a map such that a set is open iff it’s preimage is
Afaik usually defined to be surjective too
Yeah
a set is open iff its preimage is open
why is this the "finest topology such that projection is continuous", and why would such a property matter
It follows pretty readily from “the finest topology making the projection continuous”
I would like to say, if f: X --> Y is a continuous map such that x ~ x' implies f(x) = f(x'), then f factors uniquely through the projection X --> X/~, and the topology on X/~ is forced in this UP
yes why is that the definition
is what I mean
like, it wasn't made out of thin air
I'm sure you could argue you want "the most open sets" from the source X
but I also want to see this from a categorical persective, if that's possible
I’m a bit confused, are you trying to show the quotient topology satisfies the UP? Generally, trying to do the inverse isn’t very helpful imo, the UP makes no reference to the topology on it or whatever, and UP’s only defines up to(unique) homeomorphism in general
oh I guess that's true
Going from the UP to the quotient topology is very hard, since the former is incredibly abstract
Going from the quotient to the UP is far easier
I'm just trying to motivate the topology we define on X/~, that is, "the finest topology such that projection is continuous"
like why do we choose this definition
(also, I see what you mean, yeah. what you said about bijections inducing homeomorphisms is a big issue)
I guess we don’t want the quotient to have any “missing” open sets, so to speak? So naturally making it the finest possible seems to fix that issue
I've been doing category theory recently, so I was wondering if the UP of the quotient, applied to the category of topological spaces, somehow forces the topology we pick on X/~. But it seems like it doesn't actually do this, since homeomorphisms don't see individual topologies.
yes, someone told me the indiscrete topology on X/~ certainly satisfies pi: X --> X/~ being continuous, but obviously this is a meaningless topology
Lots of constructions are like this, e.g. “the freest/most restricted object restricted enough/free enough to still do X”, but I’ve always really just thought that was natural, intuitively
so we want "the most open sets"
ah I see what you mean
Yeah, we want to impose the least restrictions on it, but we don’t want it to be too free(otherwise it’s indiscrete)
maybe I don't have enough practice -- why can't we pick the discrete topology on X/~? Isn't that the finest topology possible, and it would mean nothing?
Dually for, say; subspace
We want the projection map to be continuous, “just barely”
oh my friend also mentioned if you let ~ be the trivial equivalence relation where a ~ b iff a = b, then you want the map X --> X/~ to be the identity map essentially
so that's another consideration
Subspace topology has the least open sets making inclusion continuous, for example
Yeah
I think the bigger issue is that if X doesn't have the discrete topology, then a map X --> Y where Y has discrete topology is never continuous
edit: not sure if this is true actually, but in many cases it is
Lots of pointset topology stuff can feel unmotivated icl
Well this isn’t in general true(any constant map is continuous, and a surjective one may be, if the connected components of X are more numerous than the points of Y)
But for equivalence relation projections typically yeah
hm ok
If pi:X to X/~ is continuous when X/~ is discrete, X/~, well, is discrete(since it’s the finest one), so you won’t find very many examples of quotients being discrete
also, why is it true that "the finest topology such that π is continuous" is exactly the topology "U open in X/~ iff π^-1(U) open in X"
Add some new open set to X/~
It’s preimage is not open
Because, if it was, the image would already be open
Breaking continuity
Hence that’s the finest topology making it continuous
Other direction is similar
Also, just thought I’d add, given any set function f:X to Y, if f is an injection, and Y is a topological space, we can give X the coarsest topology making f continuous(this is just the subspace topology)
If f is surjective, and, instead, X is a space, we can give Y the finest topology making it continuous, which you already know about
Subspaces and quotient spaces are dual like that
oh wow that's nice
ok that's quite cool
depends on the exact formulation of the UP. for universal properties in general you're right, but this one is typically stated specifically for X/~ with the quotient projection, and then it determines the topology uniquely
if you're curious, the exact condition for maps to discrete spaces to be continuous is that they're locally constant - you can probably guess from the name what this means, and verify that it is indeed equivalent
for quotient projections this happens iff all equivalences classes are open
Ah, ic
this all works without any restrictions on f btw. they're then called the induced/coinduced or pullback/pushforward topologies
mostly unrelated to pullbacks and pushforwards in category theory though
actually, that was a lie
you can understand them as literal pullbacks and pushforwards. if f : X -> Y is any function between sets and Y carries a topology T, the induced topology on X is the unique topology T' such that (X, T') with the obvious projections becomes the pullback of (X, indiscrete) -> (Y, indiscrete) <- (Y, T)
since pullbacks are unique up to isomorphism, that determines the induced topology uniquely
dually, the same holds for the coinduced topology if you replace the pullback with a pushforward and the indiscrete with the discrete topology
this is handy because it for example tells you that colimit-preserving functors from Top to itself preserve quotient spaces
I wouldn't generally advise viewing the induced/coinduced topologies like that though. It's a bit backwards, in that they actually come first and are how you construct limits and colimits in Top
namely, you can show that for any diagram of topological spaces, taking its limit in Set and equipping it with the induced topology yields a (and thus the) limit in Top, and of course the same dually for colimits and the coinduced topology
the same works in other categories with induced / coinduced structures, so it's quite powerful. for example measurable spaces, diffeological spaces, bornological spaces, uniform spaces etc.
I think all you need is a concrete category C (with forgetful functor F : C -> Set) with the property that for every set X, the poset F^-1(id_X) of C-structures on X forms a complete lattice, and that for maps f : X -> Y the property of f being a morphism as a function of structures on X and Y is closed under infima in the first argument and suprema in the second
ok so let me be very specific. Is this true:
Let X be a topological space. Let 𝜏 be a topology on the quotient set X/~, and let π: X --> (X/~, 𝜏) be a continuous map such that x ~ x' implies π(x) = π(x'). Suppose that (X/~, 𝜏) satisfies the following property: for any continuous map f: X --> Y such that x ~ x' implies f(x) = f(x'), then there is a unique continuous map g: (X/~, 𝜏) --> Y such that f = gπ.
Then 𝜏 is the ordinary quotient topology on X/~.
then you get induced/coinduced structures, substructures, quotients, limits, colimits, all that nice stuff
is this because the forgetful functor reflects colimits or something, and Set has all colimits?
you can verify that it is a limiting cone directly
yes
but the general idea is that Top is a category of set-like objects, so colimits are explicitly constructed like colimits in Set with the added structure
i'm still a bit fuzzy on the details of this
yep, exactly 
like how we can say the p-adics are an inverse limits, so they are isomorphic to the direct product of Z/pZ satisfying the ring homs
this seems very similar to the explicit construction of the inverse limit in Set
but isn't there a general way to understand this sort of thing, like the forgetful functor preserving/reflecting colimits, so they should look the same
it preserves colimits because it has a right-adjoint, the indiscrete topology functor
so that tells you that if a colimit exists, it has to look like the colimit in Set equipped with some topology
I don't know if you can show abstractly that one exists though
I think if you're looking to understand categories like the ones listed here well, the answer is actually this
you get e.g. the existence of discrete / indiscrete structures and hence adjoints to the forgetful functor from it too
is this related at all to filtered colimits? (sorry this is something my prof keeps putting on hw lol)
I don't see a direct connection, no
I mean, filtered colimits are a special case of colimits, so this allows you to construct them too
but they're not largely important at least here
np ^^
it's something that has been on my mind for a while anyways, so I'm happy to share
just two more things:
- I think if you replace Set with some other complete and cocomplete category, iirc all of this still works too - though I don't quite remember if you might need some more mild conditions
so this should get you limits and colimits of e.g. topological groups or topological modules too, if that's something you're interested in
and 2) you can also find this as "topological concrete category" on nlab, though it is written down quite a bit more abstractly there
oh, also another cool theorem you get for free: if a subcategory of a topological concrete caregory is closed under products (coproducts) and subspaces (quotients), it is automatically reflective (coreflective), with again a nice formula for limits and colimits
you can use that for example in Top to show that the subcategories of discrete spaces, locally connected spaces, sequential spaces, locally path-connected spaces, compactly generated spaces and delta-generated spaces are coreflective
or that categories like that of Hausdorff spaces are reflective
is this john m lee
Is the universal cover of $\bC^*$ a group?
PKThoron
where can i read about that?
the universal cover of a lie group is always a lie group, you can lift the multiplication map
u get lift of U x U -> G x G -> G, to a map UxU -> U, for U universal cover
Actually, I guess I have to ask this embarrassing question
also this group structure in this case on U = complex plane is just addition, and the map C -> C* is the exponential map
Yeah was gonna ask lol
Is it just C
The silly reason why I asked is cause I wondered if you can write C multiplicatively
(C,+) that is
what do you mean?
As (R,+) is the same as (R>0,×)
Of course
and you get universal cover of C* = S^1 x (R>0,×) is the (universal cover of S^1)x (universal cover of (R>0,×))
I was just asking if you can write (C,+) multiplicatively
what does that mean?
yeah thats your C* 😄
I'm stupid yet again
Yeah I didn't want the multiplicative group of C* written multiplicatively lol
But the additive group of C
C = uc of S1 × R>0 = R × R>0 = R>0 × R>0
Which is a bit contrived but hey
The cover map is: (x,y) maps to y*e^(i ln(x))
C = (R,+) x (R,+)
sequential spaces aren't mentioned there, but they're the coreflective hull of the one-point compactification of the natural numbers, for example
or of the cantor set or of all metric spaces or of all first-countable spaces, equivalently
meanwhile delta-generated spaces are the coreflective hull of either the standard simplices, the spaces R^n, just R, just the unit interval, all manifolds, or all CW complexes
and compactly generated spaces are the coreflective hull of compact Hausdorff spaces
seeing the various inclusions here isn't too hard because the coreflective hull is a genuine hull operator - so if J and J' are two classes of spaces such that J is contained in the coreflective hull of J', then the hull of J is contained in the hull of J' as well
so for example the hulls of N* and all metric spaces agree because N* is metrisable and all metric spaces are sequential
the hulls of the Cantor set C and N* agree because N* is a quotient of C and C is metrisable, hence sequential
discrete spaces are the coreflective hull of the one-point space, because that space is discrete and every discrete spaces is a disjoint union of copies of it
I wonder what the coreflective hull of the Sierpinski two-point space is
In a topological space X, a finite set is discrete if X is T1 and a discrete set is finite if X is compact, right?
no to the latter
discrete compact spaces are finite, yes
but why would the discrete subset of the compact space have to be compact?
you need some extra condition on how it sits in that space
Ah, I see
I'm trying to think of a counter example... { 1/n | n \in N } in [0, 1]?
looks good, yeah
notice that the set has an accumulation point that lies not inside the set, so it's discrete anyways
just a notation question but what is this product
if you ask your subset to be discrete in the sense that every point in X has a neighbourhood containing only finitely many points of the set, that can't happen, and it becomes easy to show from compactness thst the set has to be finite
alternatively, closed discrete subsets of compact spaces are obviously finite
pullback / fiber product
congratulations its your first encounter with category theory
nonono not my first but I am bad at categories
thats alright its just nonsense anyway
C(K,U) and C(X,Y) both admit maps to C(K,Y). it's the pullback of those two maps
they're just hidden from the notation
true
yep, I noticed that if we consider {0} U { 1 / n | n \in N } in [-1, 1] then it's closed and therefore compact, but no longer discrete. So everything seems to make sense 
Well, they must all be locally connected locally path-connected spaces, and they’re T1 iff all the quotient maps collapse each Sierpinski space to a point, since every map from the Sierpinski space to a T1 space is constant(and this characteristizes T1 spaces). Also, every coproduct of extremally disconnected spaces is extremally disconnected(I think..?), so every such space is extremally disconnected, because the only quotients of the sierpinski space are itself and the point, and they are all locally path connected and locally connected, and the only T1 ones are if the quotient maps collapse each Sierpinski space to a point, which would just be a discrete space
So far the necessary properties would be:
Alexandrov
Extremally disconnected
No clue about sufficient properties(aside from trivial ones like “discrete”)
Also they must be finitely generated(in the sense of the Alexandrov topology), it’s preserved under quotients and every coproduct is Alexandrov because the smallest neighborhood around a point in a coproduct is just the Sierpinski space it belongs to(if it’s the closed point), or the point itself if it’s the open one
Oh most of these properties are implied by this one anyway lol
yep, Alexandrov-discreteness definitely seems the most relevant here
The only property I mentioned earlier that isn’t implied by that is extremally disconnectedness
I wonder if it's called finitely generated because it's the coreflective hull of all finite topological spaces?
It seems reasonable enough to conjecture the coreflective hull is the extremally disconnected alexandrov spaces, I gtg to work soon so I’ll try working out some more properties and/or a (dis)proof later
Yeah, and it’s coherent with the finite subspaces
it's also the only one I'm not yet fully convinced of, lol
A set is open in it iff the intersection with all finite subsets is open or something
yeah, that would mean it's the coreflective hull
Yeah
nice
Yeah now that I think about it, I was only considering the open sets as the disjoint pieces of the union. I have no clue if that’s even actually true lmao
ok, I think all finite topological spaces actually lie in the coreflective hull of the Sierpinski two-point space
which is nice because it means that that hull is just all Alexandrov-discrete spaces
fun corollary: all Alexandrov-discrete spaces are delta-generated and in particular sequential & locally path-connected... simply because the Sierpinski two-point space is a quotient of the unit interval
every finite topological space is a quotient of a CW complex
Oh lol
This amusing to me because "finite space" has a different meaning in homotopy theory
(Which also has smth to do w cw complexes)
Spaces weakly homotopy equivalent to a finite cw complex
(I guess some might omit the weakly)
(You can also make this definition like internal to the homotopy theory of spaces since cw complexes can)
Yeah
That makes sense ig
Yeah, a space is extremally disconnected iff every point has a minimal open set, so coproducts of the sierpinski space are extremally disconnected
"every point has a minimal open neighbourhood" is just Alexandov-discreteness, no?
extremally disconnected is when the closure of every open set is open
that's preserved under coproducts too, but idk about quotients
not preserved under quotients?
Yeah
yup. so no coreflective subcategory then
So the coreflective hull for the Sierpinski space is just the alexandrov-discrete spaces right?
yep
Yknow
Is the coreflective hulk of the subcategory of Euclidean spaces just the category of manifolds(not necessarily Hausdorff or second countable, like, just locally Euclidean spaces)?
it's this, actually
Ah
That makes sense since how CW fomplexes are defined
yep 
they're colimits, and coreflective hulls are closed under colimits by construction
Delta generated sets are cute
is that what you call them to distinguish them from higher categorical variants?
Wdym
delta-generated sets instead of spaces
Oh sorry mistake lol I meant spaces
This was basically cause I had delta sets in mind too lol
lol. would've sort of made sense though
Is the reflective hull just products and subsets
I hear some people call smooth spaces smooth sets to emphasise that they don't have much homotopy going on
I guess really like in higher category theory all of these guys are the same lol

Just "different models"
But I think delta-generated spaces seem rly cool and maybe underrated lol
I guess that’s a lot less interesting
Like I wonder if they would be more popular if they had been discovered/studied 20 years earlier or smth lol
Like rather than cgwh spaces, say
they do seem pretty popular among the nlab crowd at least
Yeah fair
less so outside of that though 😔
honestly? I don't know
I would've expected it to work dual to coreflective hulls, but that would mean that the reflector just changes the topology of each space without changing the underlying set
but as far as I can see, the reflector of Hausdorff spaces for example actually involves taking a quotient?
I'm not sure how to make sense of that. one of those two can't be right
Huh that’s unintuitive
Hmmm
in that specific context it's intuitive enough, you just quotient out point that have no disjoint neighbourhoods
What are some good pointset properties that are perserved under colimits? 🤔
but abstractly it's not what I would have expected
Connectedness/Compactness ofc
nope, lol
Isn’t Local Compactness not preserved in general
and not compact
And infinite union of compact spaces need not be compact
Shoot
Local connectedness is one right
connected spaces are preserved under connected colimits iirc
Discreteness is a pretty trivial one haha
discrete, almost discrete, Alexandrov discrete, delta-generated, sequential, compactly generated, locally connected and locally path-connected are the ones I remember
oh, there's also one really trivial one, lol
emptyness
True lmao
hmmm what else
Man I love http://topology.pi-base.org for this stuff fr
A community database of topological theorems and spaces, with powerful search and automated proof deduction.
Is first countability preserved by quotients?
nope
quotients of first-countable spaces are actually just the sequential spaces again
Is there any non-trivial one whose hull is just Top
probably lots, but I don't have a good example
"nonempty" is one, but I guess that's still trivial
Yeah I mean one that isn’t basically just “almost every space”
Is every space a quotient of a Hausdorff space?
honestly, no idea
Looks interesting
Could someone help me with c). If I fix some x \in X, then there exists some U_x which intersects the family for finite sets A_1,A_2,...,A_n. idk what to do from here
I think also $U_x = \bigcup_\alpha ( U_x \cap A_\alpha)$
XDStar
do you know that if f is continuous on each U_x, it is continuous on all of X?
why is that
another lemma. it essentially reduces c) to a), because then you only need to show continuity on each U_x
this "continuous on each set of the covering => continuous on X" works both for locally finite closed covers and arbitrary open ones
I'm a bit surprised that the exercise doesn't include that, but it also shouldn't be too hard to show without it that f being continuous on every U_x is enough
this lemma?
I think munkres proves this
nope, that's just one of the equivalent definitions of continuity
in this section
iirc
and then gives the closed version (finite one) as an exercise
I mean "if U_i is an open cover of X and f : X → Y is continuous on each U_i, it is also continuous on X"
yes im almost sure munkres proves htis
anyways, try to write out the condition u need to have f continuous
u should have some sort of intersection/union. u wouuldn't be able to conclude since u are going to be dealing with a non-finite collection of closed sets
now if u go back a couple sections u see that u cna prove that for a locally finite collection of closed sets, they respect the closure under intersection iirc
u should be able to use this to finish up the proof
@balmy briar do u see how u prove this
im not sure
if you have a covering of your space
and you have some open set B, try to write f^-1(B) as some union of f^-1|U_i some-how
this would imply its open and u would be done
now this doesn't work with an infinite collection of closed sets cuz the union of those isn't closed
so then u might say to urself "well this locally finite condition must make this happen"
and indeed a union of a locally finite collection of closed sets is closed
if u prove that u would be odne
after seeing how to prove this
small nitpick: (f|U_i)^-1
all good, just wanted to rule out one more possible source of confusion ^^
yeah ur right i should learn latex
the basic syntax is quite simple actually. basically just write your equation normally and use curly braces to put stuff in parentheses if necessary
i can do stuff in over-leaf where like one can see the output in the code by hovering around it
b4 compiling it
but doing it raw like this is just impossible for me
like, $f^{-1}|_{U_i}(B)$ already works
yeah
remembering all the commands for extra stuff is the more tricky part
undefined
haha
Is there a reason why invariance of domain is not stated as a blackbox theorem in most point set texts (besides the proof involving algebraic topology)? It seems as if it's very powerful and would be nice to have when working in a point set context
ig to do this u would need like
a very big part of ur theory depending on it
which probably isn't the case with point-set
maybe when talking about manifolds then u might say that cuz without it u cant even say that the dimensino ofa manifold is well-defined
and so u would just say well okay this is true but we won't give the proof now
Yeah I guess that makes sense
Hm yeah I feel like uh
If you want to work with smooth manifolds you don't need invariance of domain (at least initially) as it is clear for smooth maps etc
And if you want to work seriously with topological manifolds you should probably know some algebraic topology
to the point where invariance of domain is smth you'd know anyway
yeah ig ur right
other-wise ur not doing manifolds, ur really doing multi-variable calculus and rank theorem
And ye I agree with this
without AT i mean
Oh I mean you can do some smooth mfds stuff beyond that lol tbf
if u thikn about it however thats how most courses in diff topology begin
But I mean like doing pure topological manifolds
things like diff forms and de-rham?
yeah like lee's textbook does not assume much AT if any
Yeah exactly
and yet is a standard ig
but i think ur talking about the more serious things like
hirsch differential topology or smth
which then yeha
but its kinda weird tho cuas
its hard to have motivation for AT without having an exposure to manifolds ig
cuz AT is just a bunch of cool tools at the end. like imagine learning AT untill lke spectral sequences and characteristic classes but haven't dealt with manifolds at all
Steven H. Weintraub (Auth.) - Differential Forms. Theory and Practice
i think it would be dry for someone who wants to do low-dim stuff for examplep idk
but yeah at the same time, alot of the things in manifold courses can be done much more cleanily with AT. things like orientation/degree stuff.
Well this is smth people should not allow to happen aha
yeah manifolds are not that bad to define and alot of cool manifold theory comes from bundles which can be taught in contexts of AT like milnor and stasheff ig
okay i got it thank you guys
Can I say that q^-1(U) is evenly covered iff every component of q^-1(U) is homeomorphic to U (based on the definition given here)?
Hmm, I think we need every component of q^-1(U) to not just be homeomorphic to U, but be mapped homeomorphically by q to U
Which I guess is why the exponential map from E = (0, 2) to S¹ isn't a covering map. If we take a small neighbourhood U around 1 in S¹, then every component of f^-1(U) is homeomorphic to U, but it's not mapped homeomorphically to U by f
Is my proof correct?
Let Y be a subspace of a topological space X. Prove that Y (equipped with the subspace topology) is Hausdorff if X is Hausdorff.
Proof by Contradiction
Suppose X is Hausdorff and Y is not Hausdorff. Then for all distinct x,y in X, there exists $U_x, U_y$ in $T_x$ such that $x \in U_x$ and $y \in U_y$ and $U_x \cap U_y = \emptyset$.
Similarly There exist distinct a,b in Y such that $ \exists U_a, U_b \in T_y$ such that $a \in U_a$ and $b \in U_b$ and $U_a \cap U_b \neq \emptyset$
Now $\forall d, e \in X, U_d \cap U_e = \emptyset$ in X but also $ U_d \cap Y U_e \neq \emptyset$ in Y which is a contradiction
rabbits_advocate
your proof seems really roundabout - there is no need for contradiction here, since open sets in X when intersected with Y is open in Y
so disjoint neighbourhoods in X can be made into disjoint neighbourhoods in Y
Let $X$ and $Y$ be sets with some topologies, $f: X \rightarrow Y$. if $U \subset Y$ is open, such that $B \subset U$ is a basis element for the topology of $Y$, and you show that $f^{-1}(B)$ is open, have you shown $f$ is continuous?
Luke
if you are asking whether just proving that preimages of basic open sets are open is enough for continuity then the answer is yes
if you can do this for each open U and for each B contained in U, then yes
this is because U is the union of basic open sets in Y
in U*
sure, was specifying that we were working in the codomain tho
If X is regular (points can be separated from closed sets), then the standard proof of Urysohn's lemma goes through verbatim to prove that for any closed A and x\notin A there exists f:X->[0,1] with f|A=0 and fx=1, right?
no, that property is called complete regularity and its strictly stronger
its fine lol we all make stupid mistakes
What is this example on lol?
Should i just simply say
(a, b) <-> (b, a)
just like in the book
confused
yeah
Yes, this map is indeed a bijection (in either direction)
alright thanks i just wrote (a, b) <-> (b, a) as the answer lol
For this i wrote
(a_1, ..., a_n-1, a_n) <-> ( (a_1, ..., a_n-1) , a_n )
Is that right
is this munkres chap 1
ye
Yeah
prob the intention was to also ask for statements showing that this is a function and it's bijective
but yea there's not much to say here
What are some uses of the Baire category theorem(for locally compact regular spaces)?
(BCT for locally compact spaces and BCT for complete spaces are actually the same theorem)
I’m assuming you mean that like their proofs are similar/nearly identical or whatever
Regardless, are their any notable usages of the fact locally compact regular spaces are Baire?
you can prove BCT for Cech-complete spaces, and complete spaces and locally compact spaces are both Cech-complete
Off of a quick Pi-base search, the irrationals are Cech-complete and not locally compact. What definition of locally compact are you using?
Oh you’re probably assuming T2.
BCT applies to all locally compact regular spaces, not just locally compact T_3 ones.
the irrationals are completely metrizable
Oh I got that backwards lmao mb
Regardless, this is still true
yeah, anyway idk about your actual question sorgy
Aight, no problem. Also, thanks! I will definitely look into BCT for Cech complete spaces.
being in a topological space is a necesary condition for convergence, right?
yes
u cant even define convergence w/o a topology
I see, thanks .
Why are continua relevant enough to be defined as their own thing?
Like
what’s so special about compactness+connectedness+Hausdorffness
convergence is about filters really
neighbourhood filters are the main example - to say that a function f converges to y at x is to say that the preimage of every neighbourhood of y is a neighbourhood of x, i.e. that the image of the neighbourhood filter at x contains the neighbourhood filter at y
but even in basic real analysis you already encounter other filters, just without calling them such. convergence of a sequence in a space X to x for example means precisely that the neighbourhood filter at x is contained in the image of the "filter at infinity" on N
or for example that a real function f : R → R tends to +∞ as x tends to -∞, that it tends to y as x tends to 0 from below etc. are all statements about certain filters
compact Hausdorff spaces have the property that continuous maps between them are automatically closed, so in particular continuous maps in them are homeomorphisms iff they are bijections - or phrased categorically, the forgetful functor CompHaus → Set reflects isomorphisms while the Top → Set one does not
for connectedness idk, I guess that's also just a nice property for a space to have? 💀
not really a continuum otherwise
hausdorff spaces became more special to me when I found out that hausdorff = every convergent net/filter has a unique limit
Ig that’s neat
is that an actual equivalence for nets?
for sequences it's just an implication
yea it is, see this problem from folland (pg 127) for example
might also be that a definition somewhere was cooked up to make this happen but either way I really like it
Suppose τ₀ ⊆ ℙ(A) and τ₁ ⊆ ℙ(B) are topologies. Is the following a correct definition for the product space?
{S ∈ ℙ(A × B) | (∀ a ∈ A, {b ∈ B | (a, b) ∈ S} ∈ τ₁) ∧ ∀ b ∈ B, {a ∈ A | (a , b) ∈ S} ∈ τ₀}
Similarly, here's how I defined the disjoint union of two topologies.
{S ∈ ℙ(A ⊔ B) | {a ∈ A | inl(a) ∈ S} ∈ τ₀ ∧ {b ∈ B | inr(a) ∈ S} ∈ τ₁}
Where inl : A → A ⊔ B and inr : B → A ⊔ B are constructors for the disjoint union of sets.
inl and inr? the only place I've seen that name for them before is lean, are you trying to formalise something?
the disjoint union one is correct, the product one isn't
I already did. https://github.com/jhimes2/Math
ah, agda 
that's one I've been thinking about trying for a while now, but so far I haven't found the time
Look in the classical directory, where you'd find topology.agda
I proved they are both topologies, but I'm not sure if it's the right topology.
the disjoint union one is the correct topology, the product one isn't
it's finer than the product topology
consider ||in R^2 the complement of {(x,y) | x = y } \ {(0,0)} ||
it's open under your topology but not open at the origin under the product topology
(by which I mean, the origin lies in the set but not in its interior)
I'm making sure I'm on the right track. The complement of the set to consider is {(x,y) | x≠y}∪{(0,0)}. You're saying that ∀ a, {b | (a,b)∈({(x,y) | x≠y}∪{(0,0)})} ∈ Γ where Γ ⊆ ℙ(A) is the topology for ℝ. I'm currently figuring out if the following statements hold:
{b | (5,b)∈({(x,y) | x≠y}∪{(0,0)})} ∈ Γ
{b | (0,b)∈({(x,y) | x≠y}∪{(0,0)})} ∈ Γ
that first set is R \ {5}, while that second set is all of R
both are open
you could even do something more dramatic like take the complement of {(x,x) | x ∈ Q}
the point really is, the set is open no matter what you remove from the diagonal, because the diagonal intersects every vertical or horizontal line only at one point
so your definition of openness can't detect any information about the subset of the diagonal that you remove
Second attempt. Is this the definition of a product space?
Suppose τ₀ ⊆ ℙ(A) and τ₁ ⊆ ℙ(B) are topologies.
{S ∈ ℙ(A×B) | ∀(a,b) ∈ S. ∃ X ∈ τ₀. a ∈ X
∧ ∃ Y ∈ τ₁. b ∈ Y
∧ ∀ x ∈ X. ∀ y ∈ Y. (x,y) ∈ S}
If x_n is a sequence in a compact space X with all elements distinct that has a unique limit point x\neq x_n, then necessarily x_n->x, right?
i dont think so
How so? Fix a neighbourhood U of x, because each x_n is not a limit point of {x_n} there is a neighbourhood U_n separating it from all other x_m. This gives you a cover {U_n}\cup{U} of the compact closure{x_n}={x_n}\cup{x}. The finite subcover cannot be U_n1,...,U_nk by construction, so it must be U_n1,...,U_nk,U and U contains all x_n with n>n_k.
yes, it is a correct description of the box topology.
a more concise way to describe this set would be
{S ∈ ℙ(A x B) : ∀ (a,b) ∈ S. ∃ X x Y ∈ 𝜏_0 x 𝜏_1. (a,b) ∈ X x Y ⊆ S}
an easy way to see that it is correct is that the basis 𝜏_0 x 𝜏_1 generates both topologies
What is an example of two compact topologies that are not compact under the box topology?
Would [0,1]² be compact if constructed using the box topology?
That's not what I'm asking.
Ah, I misread that as a finite topology.
What is an example of a set that is not open in ℝ^∞ using the product topology but open using the box topology? I like to represent countably infinite real vectors as functions ℕ → ℝ.
@short path Interesting. It makes more intuitive sense for me to think of an infinite dimensional "open" cube as open.
{0,1}^∞ is another interesting example of an infinite product space
it's discrete with the box topology, but with the product topology it's homeomorphic to the Cantor set
I don't think I know of a nice intuitive reason for why arbitrary products of open sets don't need to be open - it just happens to be the case that that's the topology on products with the right universal property
continuity of the projections forces cylinders to be open, and the fact that only finite intersections of open sets need to be open too means that you get only openness of finite products of open sets from those, not infinite ones
Are there any equivalent characterizations for a space to be a product of non-trivial(neither empty nor a singleton) discrete spaces?
Obviously it’d be totally separated, that’s one necessary condition
by product you probably mean an indexed/infinite product, right?
because binary products of discrete spaces are discrete
so a space is a product of two discrete spaces iff it is discrete and its cardinality can be nontrivially factored
for arbitrary products, you get some subclass of the class of all Stone spaces
nevermind about that. arbitrary products of finite discrete spaces are Stone spaces, but as soon as one of the factors becomes infinite the space isn't compact anymore
I guess a pretty easy reason is that you want the diagonal map to be continuous.
If you consider for example
(-1, 1)x(-1/2, 1/2)x(-1/3, 1/3)x...
then the preimage of this by the diagonal map is {0}
It's also the smallest topology such that the projections are continuous, which means defining maps into it can be done componentwise (with the diagonal map being one example)
Hi is there someone who is interested in set theory and have had experience in writing research papers? I want to write my first research paper and I need a coauthor (the topic and content is kinda basic so no need for advanced expertise)
Feels very basic but why are there seemingly two different definitions for neighborhoods? In munkres I'm seeing "U is an open set containing x" to mean "U is a neighborhood of x" but elsewhere I'm also seeing "A subset U of a topological space X is called a neighborhood of a point x if there exists an open set O such that O is a subset of U and contains x."
What's the deal?
just another inconsistency in definitions, doesnt have any particular reason for it as far as im aware
There are indeed two definitions, but it very rarely matters
Because usually when you consider neighbourhoods the idea is they are "small" and you can shrink them at your convenience etc
(I would say the first definition is more common though)
sometimes it can make a statement or a proof easier
Well that's fair enough ig
At least for the definition of first countability, should I be concerned about which is which or are they the same?
I guess the question is really now about the definition of basis
bases are open
technically having first countability is equivalent to having a countable amount of nbhds of a point that such that at least one lies inside any open set containig that points
but that would be a strange way to think about first countability
Still kinda annoying how there are two different definitions for this sort of thing that's supposed to be so basic to the overall theory
wait till you hear about natural numbers
I mean there's rarely confusion there in my experience
Are there even fc spaces that aren't sc that show up in nature
Sounds like a case for the long line again
Authors are usually careful with saying positive integers etc
Ok but wait we're defining convergent sequences in general topological spaces using neighborhoods
rarely confusion here too
And at least in munkres it doesn't say open neighborhood
doesnt matter which one you use, convergence is the same
discrete spaces
o.
How? In one definition you're taking just subsets of X but in the other they each need to be open. Is it because you can just take the required open subset of each nbd in that definition?
river metric too
yep
Wouldn't there be the possibility of there being some overlap somewhere?
if your sequence is eventually in every nbhd, then its obviously eventually in every open nbhd, and vice versa
I can see the first direction but not the other
I don't see how being in every open nbd implies being in every nbd
Ah ok it makes more sense now
Thanks
My intuition for point-set really needs to improve
So I know that countable compactness is equivalent to sequential compactness in first countable spaces but is there some analogous condition for countably compact to compact?
Other than being metrizable ofc
Hello all!
I need a little help with a problem
I have a topology problem on the topic of convergence and the subtopic of nets.
In that problem I have already shown that the proposed relation is a pre-order and I have also shown that the pair is a directed set, without any problem, it was easy.
But I would like help to show that certain parametric expressions satisfy the previously defined relationship.
I attach an image with the necessary definitions and the exercise.
in second countable spaces they are the same
or like in lindelof spaces in general
I really appreciate your attention and willingness to help.
countable spaces also count
Yeah Lindelöf was the obvious one
Reference: Tej Bahadur Singh - Introduction to Topology, 2019 (Springer), section 4.2: Nets
What about Tychonoff? Seems "nice" enough and I can't seem to find counterexamples
I am waiting on my counterexample book to come in lol
thats definitely not close to enough
Ah but that wouldn't make sense yeah
Because then sequentially compact implies compact
In non metric spaces
you can't do better than lindelof though
if your space turns out to be compact, then it will be lindelof
That does make sense but it's a bit disappointing since it's so "obvious" lol
This should be a simple intro question but I am stupid
(a) I've shown. Assume T is the standard product topology, P is some other topology satisfying the UP, X is the cartesian product of X_1...X_k
We know $\pi_k : (X,T) \twoheadrightarrow X_k$ is continuous through verification, Thus $\mathrm{id} : (X,T) \rightarrow (X,P)$ is continuous by the Universal Property on $T$, equivalently meaning that $P$ is finer than $T$
Mizalign (Study acc)
but we don't know that $\pi_k : (X,P) \twoheadrightarrow X_k$ is continuous a priori
Mizalign (Study acc)
the projections are the component functions of the identity
discrete spaces
I know that. But P some topology on the cartesian product. We don't know a priori that the projections of the constituents of P are open in the respective topologies
T has been explicitly described via the basis of boxes, so we can show explicitly that the projections are open continuous maps
idk what you mean by constituents, but if P satisfies the universal property, the projections to the factors are continuous because they're the components of the identity function, which is continuous
the factor spaces of X have their original topologies.
if (X, P) satisfies the universal property, then it is equipped with continuous projections
how do we show that the projections are continuous off the UP
i.e that the projections of the open sets of this other topology satisfying the UP are in the respective topologies
we know it's true for the constructed box topology
that's not what continuity of the projections means
if we have a statement like "the coursest topology satisfying..." then
a function is continuous if all preimages of open sets are open
that's not equivalent to all images of open sets being open
preimages of open sets in X_i under the projection are open in the new topology P, i.e the "tubes" are in P
which once again
we need to show that they are off the UP
we know that it's true for T, the topology we constructed off of boxes / products of open sets
just think about what the universal property means in the case F = id




