#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 113 of 1
what is T1 again?
given a pair of points, each has a nbhd not containing the other
Oh I see. So like 0 would would have the interval (-1.5, 1.5) and 1 would have the interval (0.5, 2.5). They don't contain each other, but the intervals are not disjoint
yes
no
there just isn't really a converse to hausdorff implying unique limits from a particular space. this is highly dependent on X
converse to hausdorff or converse to T1?
like you want a statement such as: given X, Y, and every (cts) map from X -> Y has unique limits, then Y has property P. but there isn't really one
if you instead say: given Y, and every continous map from any top space X -> Y has unique limits, then you can show Y is hausdorff
Oh I see. So it was more that I had a specific X, rather than allowing any possible X?
why is this so similar to the 1 isomorphism theorem like is there a category theory thing that explains why it's the same thing
cus like even the proof is identical
its factorisation of a map
basically taking any map, you kind of “force” it to be a bijection by identifying together the elements in X that map to the same element in Z via an equivalence relation, then restricting the codomain to just the image
oh
taken from Aluffi
:0
I'll carry this theorem in my pocket so that I can just redo it everytime I see a "first isomorphism theorem" again
yea and like u said the proof is pretty similar in any given structure
Hmmm. I may have inadvertently come up with a separation axiom that is weaker than T0.
Someone please tell me if this is already a known thing, or if it is just completely pointless.
But let's say that a space is $T_{-1}$ if, for every pair $(x, y)$ of distinct points, there exists open subsets $U, V$ such that $x\in U$, $y\in V$, and $U\cap V\ne U$ (nor would it equal $V$)
SWR
Every $T_0$ space would be $T_{-1}$. Would the reverse end up being true as well?
SWR
Correction: $U\cup V\ne U$.
SWR
Hm, but consider X = {0,1} with the open sets being {emptyset, {0}, {0,1}}. That space is T_0, but I don't see why it would be T_{-1}
It might be that I'm misunderstanding your definition
Oh right. I was mistaking T0 as requring it in both ways.
That's T1
I might be misunderstanding it also
Also I hate that I know that; non-Hausdorff spaces are the work of the Devil
And metric spaces are perfectly normal
I think what I am trying to say is that, for any distinct points x and y, we can find a U containing x and and V containing y such that U is not a subset of V or vice-versa.
And as I say it that way, I realize that it must be T1
btw, $U \cup V = U$ is equivalent to $V \subseteq U$, so the conditions $U \cup V \neq U$ and $U \cup V \neq V$ are the same as $U \not\subset V$ and $V \not\subset U$ (and it's the same with $\cup$ replaced by $\cap$)
sheddow
I normally spend a very long time thinking about something before asking about it here. And every time I ask about it first, I remember why I prefer to think it through first
Not that I feel any of you are being harsh or critical, I just dislike that my thoughts are so disorganized
Thinking about something for a while only to then find out the question wasn't really well-posed/the answer turns out to be trivial is a very common experience, don't feel badly about that.
Sometimes the only way to think things through is to post it here 
Very true
I just so very much wish that I could one day have a truly original thought in mathematics.
Something no one has ever thought of before
But I guess I need a PhD to do that
I have a PhD and I've never had a truly original thought
It's not strictly necessary
yeah, but wouldn't it be awesome
It probably would; but I've learned to be content in my adequacy
To be more serious, it probably will come easier with more time, experience and exposure
I'm at least at the point now where I have profound ideas that have already been discovered 100 or so years ago.
SWR's Theorem will exist one day
It seems that that property is weaker than T1 but not comparable to T0
Is that right?
If so calling it T_{-1} would be appropriate
That was my first thought, but on reflection, it would be exactly T1.
Let's relax my $T_{-1}$ to be that at least one of $U\cup V\ne V$ or $U\cup V\ne U$ must be true, and I think I can show that the space must be $T_0$.
SWR
What about the set X = {a, b, c, d} with the topology {Ø, X, {a, b}, {a, b, c}, {a, b, d}}? That's T_{-1} but not T_0 unless I'm mistaken
ah because a and b can do one of {a, b, c} and {a, b, d}
I see I see
So it looks like I did have an original thought
(now, is it useful at all?)
Let's say $T_{-1}$ requires both $U\nsubseteq V$ and $V\nsubseteq U$, and let's define $T_{-2}$ as satisfying either of those. Easily, every $T_{-1}$ is $T_{-2}$. Is every $T_0$ space also $T_{-2}$ and is every $T_1$ space also $T_{-1}$?
SWR
I have some stuff to think about now
I very often feel the same way. It's very frustrating and I sometimes wonder if my head's pure chaos or what :')
I suppose that is the source of good ideas though
Have one million crappy ideas and then one good idea may pop out too
Definitely. That's why I still believe I have a good chance of proving Riemann's hypothesis
dw, I'll develop a completely new field of maths where it'll be a simple corollary of a more general fact
But before I do that, I'll stop being overly off-topic here hah
I had to dig for that
Is any finite T_0 topological space a quotient of S^n for some positive integer n?
No
Quotient of connected spaces are connected
If we are considering a quotient topology, are the "singletons" every equivalence class or only equivalence classes with one element?
I am checking if a certain quotient space is T1 or not
it is R/~ where x~y if x=y or x=-y and |x|, |y|>1
so I want to check if each singleton in R/~ is closed or not
but I am not sure about fi the singletons are just each equivalence class, or the equivalence classes of x with x in [-1, 1] since these are the equivalence classes with only 1 element in them
like, [5]={5,-5}
but [1]={1}
I suppose, extrapolating the data, that if you learn enough you'll start having profound ideas discovered yesterday and then the idea will have been discovered this day
holy shit just realized that since continuity is a topological property, than a function is continuous in S² iff it's continuous on the unit open ball in R² (with that quotient topology that collapses the boundary into a pole)
that's so cool omg
I mean, if you translate the continuous function anyways
OK, a connected T_0 finite topological space.
The former. So a quotient space is T_1 iff every equivalence class is a closed subset.
For some point $x$ in a space $X$, an open subset $U$ of $X$ such that $x\in U$, we would say that "$U$ is a(n) (open) neighborhood of $x$". Is there a succint way to describe the set $U\setminus{x}$ other than "A(n) (open) neighborhood of $x$, but excluding the point $x$ itself"?
SWR
are you looking for intuition?
intuition?
I'm trying to understand what you're looking for
I'm trying to find a less-wordy way to describe a set that is the difference of some open neighborhood of a point, but excluding that point.
Context:
U \ {x}
like
that's what notation is for
In first-year calculus limits, we have $0<|x-a|<\delta$, which is just a neighborhood of $a$, but excluding $a$.
SWR
Yes, but I like to say it in words also. And sometimes I'd like to say "some open neighborhood <blah blah>" in words, rather than putting it in pure math terms
maybe you can make something up
It's not always convenient to simply write U \ {x} without first saying in words why I am doing it
I was thinking of something like punctured neighborhood, or even your definition.
I just wanted to know if there was an established term already
not that I know of, but I'm a topology rookie
punctured neighborhood is pretty common I think
actually, I think Rudin describes something like that thinking about it
lemme check
can't find it, maybe my lecturer mentioned it in passing
"All of x's neighbors". Or "the local set of points who call noise complaints on x" if I can draw experience from my college years
anyways, I myself have a (honestly really dumb question idk why I'm struggling so much). Let $A = {\frac{1}{n} | n \in \mathbb{N} } \subset \mathbb{R}$ prove that every point of $A$ is a boundary point (of $A$ in $\mathbb{R}$ with yhe metric topology). \
I know this is really simple but I'm struggling with the formalism. I'm struggling to formally prove that every open ball of x has a point not in r, does anyone have any clues to give me?
ξor.
I asked a lot of really dumb questions here
topology is funny like that
Take something very simple and intuitive and complicate it beyond measure. Literally "beyond measure" 
that's next year lol
like say x = 1/n
clearly if 1/(n+1) isn't in the ball, then x + r/2 is in the ball and not in A, so all good
but if 1/(n+1) is in the ball, then I think what I should be showing is that the average between the two is also in the ball, but I can't manage to get the inequality to show the distance is smaller than r
"the ball" a ball of any radius around any point x in A as this is the metric topology
for 1/(n+1) to be in the ball means 1/n - 1/(n+1) < r
try writing out 1/n - (1/n + 1/(n+1))/2
oh no
lmao
wait no
nvm
sorry, brain short
my tablet lost batter and I can't do this in my head one second
battery
ok I was right
How I like to solve problems like this is by analyzing the definitions of what I need to find. So, for this problem, how are you defining boundary?
1/2n(n+1)
I think you went too far
you want to be able to use this
a boundary point of A is any point x that for every neighborhood N of x, N ∩ A ≠ ∅ ≠ N ∩ Aᶜ
get 2 as a common denominator but don't bother getting n(n+1) as a common denominator
< r + 1/+2(n+1))
?
So then you want to prove that every 1/n is a boundary point, and all other points are not, correct?
yesyes
my problem is with the formalism that every open ball of x in A has a point not in A
it's an algebra skill issue not a understanding one I think
you should have 1/n - (1/n + 1/(n+1))/2 = (1/n - 1/(n+1))/2 < r/2
So in your specific problem, you are struggling to say that every interval around any 1/n will contain some number r not expressable as some 1/k for a natural k?
yes
ok I really was going too far
huh
interesting
wait where did the - before the 1/(n+1) come from
from the minus sign in the first expression
I don't blame you for struggling on this tbh
I did this problem back in my topology days
And I literally wrote in the solution that this problem was a fair bit harder than the others
oh shit, yeah
ok thank you!!!
I hate inequities
worst part of algebra
Correction here: you do not need to prove that the non 1/k points are not boundary points
Real analysis is calling 
huh
unfortunately I don't think this is the hardest question this week 😭
this is intro to analysis
my professor is... unconventional
Oh haha then have fun with inequalities
yes I'm really sad we left topology behind and now all I see on the board is one inequality after the other 
alright thanks ppl
oh yeah you got it done?
fun fact: there is one boundary point of A that is not in A
0, presumably, as the next part of the question is to prove 0 is a cluster point
btw, is there any accepted shortening for neighborhood
it's a long word to write again and again lol
yes nbd
punctured nbhd
oh wait, this was already answered
my mistake
In the order topology...suprema of nonempty subsets (when they exist) are in the closure...is that true?
My proof feels a little more complicated than I'd expect is necessary so not sure I trust it and curious if there is a straightforward proof or counterexample
😊
Thank you!
It seems like an obvious theorem but the proof seems kind of indirect
Though it has the same flavor that Munkres uses to prove that dense complete orders are connected so maybe it's not so unnatural
is the standard subspace topology the only topology that makes the inclusion map an embedding? (ie homeomorphic to its image)
actually is it even an embedding
oh nah cause u can have sets open in a subset but not the whole space
why do we choose the topology for a subspace S like that then, obvs we want inclusion to be continuous but that only tells us that we want S intersect U (U open) to be open in the subspace topology, why do we want only these to be open and nothing else
wait i think Lee has a bit about this in Topological Manifolds
It is, but sort of by definition.
An embedding is a map that is a homeomorphism onto its image, and the image has the subspace topology so...
As to why the subspace topology is defined in that way.
For any continues map f:X -> Y you want it to factor as
X -> Image(f) -> Y
Then there's only one topology such that both of these maps are always continuous.
The easy way to see that is just to pick f the inclusion of a subspace (with subspace topology)
what you're thinking of is an open embedding. the inclusion of a set is that iff the set is open
You and boytjie both study rep theory?
I think so. But I think we study different rep theory maybe...
Nice
Let $X,Y$ be two hausdorff top. spaces, let $A\subseteq X$ and $f:A \to Y$ be a continuous function. Is it tue that if $A$ is locally closed, then the graph of $f$ is locally closed in $X\times Y$?
Eduude
Yeah, the above proof seems convoluted to me. A nbhd basis of a := sup A is given by (b, c) for b < a < c if a is not the smallest element of X and by (-∞, c) for c > a if it is the smallest element of X. In the former case, b is not an upper bound for A so there exists a' in A with b < a' ≤ a, so a' in (b, c). In the latter case, a must be in A (or A would be empty), and a in (-∞, c).
If A = O ∩ C, then A ⨯ Y = (O ⨯ Y) ∩ (C ⨯ Y) is locally closed. And graph(f) = {(a, y) in A ⨯ Y : f(a) = y} is closed in A ⨯ Y since Y is Hausdorff (we don't use X is Hausdorff at all), i.e., graph(f) = (closed set) ∩ (A ⨯ Y) = (closed set) ∩ (open set) ∩ (closed set). So I think the answer is yes.
what is I? and why should it be obvious that CS^n homeo to B^n?
Guys can you take a look of my solution at help channel 29 for a question that I attempted solving through discussion of topological structure? I only have a couple hours before deadline please
The quotient space has a geometric intuition that you take every equivalence class and reduce it to a point. In your case, the only nontrivial equivalence class is the base. You take the it and reduce it to one point. In a picture, the process could look like this:
yeah i get that
Oh, and I usually denotes [0, 1]
cool
why should it be obvious that CS^n homeo to B^n?
Oh, I misunderstood your question. Hm, I'm not sure about the intuition for the general case, but if we stick to the dimension from the picture, you could project everything onto the same surface and get a disc, which would be the 2-dimensional unit ball
Pretty sure this is also wrong (it's off by a dimension) unless they have some weird convention with B^n
Anyway, here's the intuition I have: take S^n and instead of imagining taking the cone "on the outside", imagine the point is the centre of S^n and you join each point to the centre. Then you get D^(n+1)
More rigorously, there's a natural map S^n x I -> D^{n+1} where you map (x,t) to tx (i.e. scale x by t)
This is clearly surjective, and you can check that it induces a homeomorphism CS^n -> D^{n+1}
:)
ok cool im not going crazy, it should be B^n+1 right
Yes
yeah ok
(The way to remember this is that the subscripts indicate dimension as a manifold w boundary, plus cone increases dimension by one)
S^{n-1} is the boundary of B^n and the cone is the interior basically
yah
Well, the cone is the whole thing
is continuity in the product topology preserved by compositions of functions like
f: X x X -> X and g: X x X -> X x X
?
The composition of continuous functions is always continuous, regardless of the topology
is it true that given a dense set D in a hausdorff space T we have |T| <= 2^|D|
or do you need the upper bound as 2^(2^|D|)
if so what's a counter to |T| <= 2^|D|?
my idea for a proof is you can define an injection T -> P(D) by
T(x) = {x} if x in D
T(x) = {d1,d2,d3,...} where (di) is a term-wise unique sequence in D converging to x
I think it's not too hard to show this is an injection
Nvm I was thinking of smth else
Hello! I want to show that domain-restrictions on continuous functions are continuous (like functions between topological spaces). Would this channel be a good place to ask for someone to proof-read ?
I am following Lee, which I think is point-set topology strictly
Sure or you can consider like the map {sequences in T converging in X} -> X which takes limits
This is surjective and the domain has cardinality <= D^N
Uhh is this enough
I guess this goes |X| <= |D|^N which is slightly different lol but stronger in general
Yeah, just ask
2.71828182845904523536028747135
My only concerns really are the assumption that g^{-1}(U) = X' intersect f^(-1)(U), which makes sense, but not for a super-logical reason...
at least in my head
Does this come somehow from the definition of X' topology?
I take it that T_{X'} = {X' intersect S : S in T_X} is by definition
this is easy to show using the definition of inverse image
actually not by definition, it probably follows from the topology axioms
right, but is the assumption I made wrong, for what it means to be a restriction of f onto a subset of the domain
Let me think about that
Just from definition of pre image
you do
stone cech compactification of N is normal and has cardinality 2^2^\omega
the last part is incorrect, as it may happen that there are no sequences that converge to x
alternatively, Cantor cube of weight 2^\omega is also normal, separable, but has cardinality 2^2^\omega
all the examples will necessarily be a little exotic, because you in the very least need a separable but not second countable/regular space and those are not particularly common
thanks!
mmm right so I cant use sequences without first countable?
I see the issue with my proof now
thanks
How do we show that the connected sum of two connected manifolds(let us assume it has no boundary) doesn't depend on the choice of removed open discs?
if you're curious, the property that says you can use sequences is more precisely the space being sequential
every first-countable space is sequential, but not the other way around
well in this case they use Frechet-ness of the space, not sequentiality, although i am unsure if that matters
I’m looking for a homeomorphism from RP^n to B^n/~, where x ~ -x for x ∈ ∂B^n. I just don’t see it — any hints? I know that B^n / ∂B^n ≈ S^n and that RP^n ≈ S^n / (x ~ -x), but composing these two homeomorphisms seems needlessly complicated.
Here B^n = {x ∈ R^n : |x| ≤ 1}.
There's a continuous map B^n -> S^n given by
x |-> (x, sqrt(1 - |x|^2)) in R^n x R = R^n+1
Which picks out the upper hemisphere
Need help for 3.10 (3)
I can see why it is true if A is finite, since we can sort of pick small enough bubbles with tips on the x-axis that do not intersect
but im not sure how to prove it for the case where A is countable
Oh, yes. This was just the hint I needed. Thanks!
am i misunderstanding or is this actually a one line proof? U is a union of AxB, A open in X, B open in Y, choose any A that contains x? whats wrong with what i just did
i didnt even use compactness of Y?
nvm im thinking about this wrong
product space r confusing icl
in my head i imagine them as like 2 spaces side by side but thats probably more like a disjoint union space
Counterexample: {|x| < 1/y} in R × R+
how do u visualise an open subset of a product space, like in ur head
its easy for like RxR obviously cause its just 2 axes
I assume it's R × R
Or some subset of R
Just to make sure, this isn't more complicated than proving that a subspace of a Hausdorff space is also Hausdorff, right?
Seems odd they'd ask specifically about the Cantor set
Yeah lol
It is just what you said
Maybe it was going to be a 2 part question that relied on F being Hausdorff and then they scaraped part B
anyways thnaks!!
Yeah idk lol but np!
And I have another question... Can anyone give me a hint on this?
(note the set I is the index set, not a random partition lol, took me a few mins to see that)
Like if I have $A,B \subset \bigcup \mathcal{Y}$ then there's no reason to say they are a union of different sets $Y_i$, so I'm not sure how to use the property given
ξor.
Say the union isn't connected, and A and B are a disconnection.
Then think about AnYi and BnYi
(so A and B are open and disjoint and their union is everything)
n = intersection?
I guess that would mean $(A \cap Y_i) \cup (B \cap Y_i) \neq Y_i$?
ξor.
Well assuming both intersections aren't empty
Im.. not sure how that helps me
Ok I think I got it!!
Thank you!!
thats really smart
since U is open, for each x there is a basis element (U_i x V_i) containing x contained in U. these V_is cover {x} x Y and hence there is a finite subcover. take the finite intersection of the corresponding U_is.
and this is your V
yeah i got it
If $X$ has the cofinite topology, then is there an easy way to understand the product topology of $X\times X$?
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Every open set in that space is a sum of open sets of form $(X \setminus A) \times (X \setminus B)$ for finite $A, B$. So any open set $U$ satisfies
[
U = \bigcup_{i \in I} (X \setminus A_i) \times (X \setminus B_i) = \bigcup_{i \in I} X^2 \setminus (A_i \times X \cup X \times B_i) = X^2 \setminus \bigcap_{i \in I} (A_i \times X \cup X \times B_i)
]
In other words, you have a number of finite sets of lines parallel to either "axis". You intersect those sets and remove from the plane. That's your open set
Thingoln
Note that intersecting a horizontal and a vertical line will give you a point. I'm pretty sure you could characterise open sets in that product topology as the whole plane minus a finite number of lines parallel to either axis and minus a finite number of points, but don't quote me on that
Assume that a topological space G is both a 2-manifold and an n-manifold (i know it cant be). Would it be correct to say, if that were true, that for every x in G we have an open nbh $U_2$ of x homoemorphic to some open subset in $R^2$ and an open nbh $U_n$. Then $U_n \cap U_2$ is a non-empty neighborhood around x homeomorphic to both an open subset of $R^2$ and $R^n$?
Dompa
If you have a homeomorphism f: X -> Y and a subspace A < X, is the restriction A -> f(A) a homeomorphism between A and f(A)?
yes the restriction is homeomorphic to its restricted image
Can you tell me in words*and not mathematical notations) how to understand the CLOSED sets in that topology?
It would be sets containing a finite number of lines (parallel to either axis) and points in the plane X^2, I think
So if I want to prove that a set is not closed in that topology
I dont think Ill be able to prove that there exists a point that does not have a contained neighberhod in the complement
So I think what can I do.. Hmm
I thought underatand the closed sets will help me somehow, but it doesn't
Thank you anyways 
No worries
hello just have one quick question
for a closed rectangle, [a1, b1] x [a2, b2] x ......, can we trivially assume that a point itself is also a closed rectangle?
For example, can we let a_i = b_i for all i, and say this point itself is a closed rectangle in R^n ?
Sure, unless your textbook makes some specific assumption against that
Ello! We proved in class that $K \subset \mathbb{R}$ is connected by assuming otherwise thus $\exists A,B \subset K$ a disconnection of $K$, taking $a \in A$, $b \in B$ and showing that $A',B'$ as defined in the image added are a disconnection of $[0,1]$ which we proved is connected. The problem is we didn't prove $A' \cup B' = [0,1]$ and I'm not sure how to do that myself, any hints?
ξor.
or maybe that's not needed and I'm missing something
we showed $A',B' \neq \emptyset$, disjoint and open, is that enough?
ξor.
ohh nvm we assumed K is convex
Problem. Let $\phi, \psi$ be two continuous maps $\mathbb{S^1} \rightarrow \mathbb{S^1}$ with different degree. Prove that there exists a $z \in \mathbb{S^1}$ such that $\phi(z) = -\psi(z)$
Would it be feasible to solve it like this $g(z) := \frac{\phi(z) + \psi(z)}{\mid \phi(z) + \psi(z) \mid}$ and then showing that $\phi \cong g \cong \psi \Rightarrow deg(\phi) = deg(\psi)$ i've typed out the proof with an explicit homotopy but i worry that the homotopy isnt necessarily continuous for all $t \in [0, 1]$ so i wonder if i should pursue this proof further or scrap it
Dompa
demonic sphere
it should say 1 but i guess the bold font makes it go crazy
actually i think this proof works, only way we get zero division in my homotopy is if $\phi(z) = -t\psi(z)$ for some $z \in \mathbb{S}^1$ but since $\mid \phi(z) \mid = 1$ and $\mid -t\psi(z) \mid < 1 \forall t \in [0, 1)$
Dompa
what does Lee mean by apply 2-17 to Z, considering Z isn't a manifold
ah I guess it is a 0-manifold?
doesn't the construction just become Z - {0}, or am I missing something?
bit confused here
Topological spaces need not be manifolds. Lee is asking for you to define a topology on \Z as given in 2-17. If you sent an image of 2-17, that would be helpful
It seems that you sent 4-17 instead of 2-17
well, that would be my mistake lmao
thx
of course
Any hint how I can find an example for g?
$(x,y) \mapsto \min { d(x,y), e(x,y) }$ satisfies the first 3 properties of being a metric, i.e.
- a distance from a point to itself is 0
- positivity
- symmetry
so the only possible condition that can be broken is the triangle inequality
Yes
what examples of metrics have you tried?
I tried the usual metric on R and discrete metric
And I found that if d(x,y) ≤ e(x,y) for all x,y in X then triangular inequality holds therefore we have to take metric such that which doesn't follow that condition
Are you taking d or e to be the discrete metric?
Either way, neither bounds the other from below
Yes but this doesn't not work
I would suggest working with a finite set, just try it on a set with a few elements and give it your own metric
It shouldn't be too long before you find a counterexample
I don't know how to assign the metric on the finite set, it makes discrete topology
a metric is just a function, so you can just define some function on elements of some finite set
Let $X = {a,b,c}$, and let $d : X\times X \to R$ be defined by d(a,b) = ...
But we have to verify all those three conditions to make it metric
Darrion
Luckily that's not too bad to do on a very small set
So you mean I have to define d and e on a finite set?
Not that you have to but that it might help in defining a counterexample
Okay
Can I get an example of such a function which is not isometry? I know that function will not be linear transformation
I proved this one but I am not sure when both don't exist then how inequality works here ?
diam is usually defined to take values in the extended reals, so diam(A) always exists. It's either a finite real number or infinity.
okay thank you i got it
Hey, I'm not sure if this is a result of general topology or not or if someone is familiar with a similar type of result
Suppose $\tau$ is the smallest topology which contains the topologies ${\tau_i}{i \in I}$ on some set $X$.
Is it true that $Cl\tau(A) = \bigcap_{i \in I} Cl_{\tau_i}(A)$
Trivial Lemma
It is clear that the set on the right is closed and contains A
smallest as in finest?
set theoretic, so coarsest
ah, ok
it is clear that the finest topology which contains all of those topologies is the power set of X, as it's always the finest topology you can give a set
right. I confused myself there for a second
If X has more than 2 points, say x,y,z.
Assume d(x,z) is the diam( {x,y,z} ) then take B = {x,y,z} and A = {x,z}, right?
Or is there any other condition?
That is a very strong condition (in the sense that the conditions are strong and thus barely applicable)
It is enough to restrict X to such a B, as nothing depends inherently on X
only on B
so you want to find sufficient conditions on (X,d) such that there exists a subset of X with the same diameter
An example of such a condition is denseness
if A is dense in X, then diam(A) = diam(X)
if X is unbounded, then any other unbounded subset (which must exist) also has infinite diameter
you may also be able to do funny things with borel measures I think
consider X = {0,1,2} and the two topologies in which {0} resp. {1} are the only closed sets. then the closure of {0,1} under each of those topologies is the whole space {0,1,2}, but the closure of {0,1} under their supremum is {0,1} itself
non-trivial closed sets you mean?
yes
{{0},emptyset,X}
the non-trivial opens on the first is just {1,2} and the other {0,2}
it generates the topology with non-trivial opens {1,2},{0,2},{2}.
also {2} because finite intersections
same thing if you argue via closed sets directly - the topology generated by {0} and {1} must contain {0,1} because of finite unions
yeah
makes sense
what about if all the topologies are Hausdorff?
A hausdorff topology on a finite set is discrete so there aren't finite examples
yup
I don't know if there's larger ones
I only considered non-Hausdorff examples because I found it easier to think about this for spaces with few open sets - but it could well be that there's counterexamples for Hausdorff spaces too
maybe if you take something like the two topologies on R that are generated by intervals [a,b) resp. (a,b]
nevermind, I don't think that would work
I'm curious, what is it that you're trying to prove? maybe you can avoid all of that
it's not a general topology question
and would take a while to give the prereqs
clearly denseness in the sup implies denseness in each topology
I wanted to see if this was just a P implies Q or if the other direction was also true
Can someone check my proof please.
The question wants me to give an example of a pseudo-metric on a set
The properties in red define a pseduo-metric
I showed that on RxR, d(x,y) = | |x| - |y| | defines a pseudo-metric.
I am sorry for asking such "dumb" question, but if I have a topological space $X$ and $Y,{X_i}{i\in I}$ are topological subspaces of $X$, such that $X_i\subseteq Y$ for all $i\in I$. Does it mean that $\cup{i\in I}X_i\subseteq Y$?
I am unsure if it is correct for all $Y$'s or just for closed $Y$'s. Thanks.
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Yes, this is just a matter of set theory
But you should check this just from the definitions
Yes, like... if $x\in\cup_{i\in I}$ then there exists $X_i$ such that $x\in X_i$ but $X_i\subseteq Y$ so $x\in Y$
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
yes exactly
The problem is, because $I$ is not finite, then I wasn't sure if "then there exists $X_i$ such that $x\in X_i$" is correct
This still just follows from the definitions
𝒢𝒾𝓃𝑔𝑒𝓇 𝑀𝒶𝑔𝓂𝒶
Yeah, I just think that everything I do is wrong lol.
Thanks
Np!
I should say like i'm saying "this just follows from the definitions" to sort of reassure you nothing magic is happening / that what you did was fine
To make things funnier, I was trying to prove that if X_i is a chain of irreducible spaces, then their union is irreducible. And this is where I got stuck at. LOL
Lol fair enough
No idea about borel
I am not sure about when a is not an isolated point of X and we have to show a is in the boundary of S.
We know a is an isolated point so dist(a, S{a} ) ≠0 and a is isolated point implies dist(a , X\{a} ) = 0.
And X\{a} = S^c union S\{a}.
We need to show dist(a, S^c) = 0.
Boundary points of {1/n | n in N } union {0} is same as { 1/n | n in N } union {0}
Right?
sorry for interrupting - ive recently encountered something im not sure i understand in my topology textbook:
(7.58, 7.59)
so the thing is
i may be missing the point of 7.58, because from what I'm thinking, this is quite trivial and unhelpful to proving 7.59: f^-1[0,r) is automatically open in A, and so must be the intersection of A and a set U open in X. Thus we could select this U for our U_r, since (the closure of U) intersect A is contained in f^-1[0, r].
and so the specified open sets exist.
however, i can't seem to use this to prove tietze extension theorem, and i've been questioning whether I understood 7.58 correctly at all since i never used the normality lemma.
can anyone help me with this?
(for good measure, here's a pic of 7.56:)
(I know there's a "standard" proof for the Tietze extension theorem - it's directly below the statement in the book - but this one seems just a little too intriguing to miss so.... please help if possible 💜)
(nevermind, i got it! thanks anyways!(
Glad we could help!
(this is not quite math but everytime i post a question on here my mental strain decreases by like 50%, which actually helps a lot with problemsoving, so sometimes i'd just as a question that seemed impossible for me to figure out, only to solve it like 1 hour later)
doing this Q rn, what're some motivations for studying this thing
why do we care about compactification
Because compact spaces have a lot of very useful properties that other spaces don't, so if we have a non-compact space we sometimes benefit from being able to "make it compact"
(I think the most notable example is the Riemann sphere, which is the one-point compactification of the complex plane)
I see thanks
In the second part, I think if S is a closed dense set then S must be equal to X because X\S is open and if it is non-empty then S must have non-empty intersection with it, but it is not so X\S is empty.
Right?
Yeah, a closed dense set is the whole space, so I find the second part weird.
Maybe they meant open dense?
That would make sense and is a useful observation despite its simplicity.
@prime elbow ping because I forgot to use the reply feature
Yes
There are countable disjoint open balls in R, right? Because we can make injective mapping (a,b) -> r, where r is the rational number between a<r<b
Your statement is ambiguous, but if you mean "a collection of pairwise disjoint open balls in R is at most countable", then yes
And a countably infinite collection of disjoint open balls in R can indeed be constructed
(analogous statements apply for R^n)
Yes
isnt there some nbh of 1 such that the preimage is, say, (0.5, 1.5) and therefore its evenly covered?
Consider how many preimages there are of points near 1
I am thinking about something related to the separable part, if metric has uncountable collection of disjoint open sets then it cannot have a countable dense subset, right?
Why are $\mathrm{GL}_n(\mathbb{C})$ and $\mathrm{SL}_n(\mathbb{C})$ connected in the Euclidean topology?
Spamakin🎷
There are funny arguments
It boils down to the fact that C \ {0}, unlike R \ {0}, is connected, right?
For GL_n(C) a fun argument is that the matrix exponential is a surjection exp: M_n(C) -> GL_n(C) ("every matrix has a logarithm")
I thought about the continuous image of the connected set
What is a matrix exponential?
Exactly the argument here yeah
The map $A \mapsto \sum_{n \ge 0} \frac{A^n}{n!}$
Prismatic Potato
But anyway, a simpler argument I would give is that you can apply elementary row operations "continuously"
As in, you can get a path between any two elementary row operations within GL_n(C)
Is it guaranteed that the image in GL_n(C) ?
Yes, by the same arguments that exp(x) is nonzero
i.e. basically you check that exp(A) has inverse exp(-A)
Oh it is something about Taylor's expansion of exp(A), right?
But their expansion is an infinite series, right?
ye
How does it work in a finite case?
Idk what you mean
This summation is infinite?
Yes
Oh
But that's fine cause we're in GL_n(C)
which has a topology
(open subset of M_n(C), which we give a topology via an identification with C^(n^2))
I don't getting much but okay
Prismatic Potato, I am doing Searcoid right now, what do you think which book should I have to do for metric space? I done Carothers metric part
To be honest I've never heard of either of those books, sorry. I learnt a bit about metric spaces through a uni course, but iirc Munkres has a nice section on them too
I guess it depends on what you want to learn about metric spaces for
Okay I will do Munkres
oh that is fun (but the elementary row ops is much more intuitive for GL_n(C) lol)
thanks
what about SL_n(C)?
Because images of row ops don't necessarily live in SL_n(C)
I guess there's a continuous surjection from GL_n(C) -> SL_n(C) where you divide the top row by the determinant, say
nastasya
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
i have proof but are the statements correct at all ? it was fill in the blank!
statements 1 and 3 seem good, 2 and 4 less so
does anyone understand what this is saying here? what does "so that the embedding restricted to each L_i is an epsilon-imbedding, then there is ..." does that mean each L_i on its own is an epsilon-imendding? or is there some more complicated relationship between them
like is it a disjoint union of links L (links L_i) where each L_i is on its own an epsilon-embedding, then there is a constant a > 0 s.t. N < ...
its not very common for me to see \sqcup to see as disjoint union of sets. But yeah its a nice notation, can i ask what book are you following
It’s a short 3 page paper someone sent me
“How many links can you fit in a box”
Sounds interesting
whenever it comes to shapes like this i also think of algebraic top
but i am not sure if your question fits there
Don't know if it's too basic for this channel, but well, I'll post it regardless
REALLY struggling with this, I have no idea how to proceed
I started by considering a z in the preimage(which will be a point (z1,z2) in R^2) and then, considering its function, m(z), since (1,2) is open, we know there exists some δ>0 such that (m(z)-δ,m(z)+δ)⊆(1,2)
Which implies that the preimage of the aforementioned open ball is also in the preimage of (1,2)
However, I don't know how to proceed any further, no idea on how to show there exists a disk around every point on the preimage
have you covered how continuous functions and open sets interact?
I know continuous functions map open sets to open sets, but I can't assume that the multiplication function is continuous here
I mean
I know it is
But fairly sure the book wants me to show the existence of a disk on the preimage of (1,2)
is it that you are unsure how to show it is continuous ?
or you want to avoid using that information?
I don't know how to show that mapping is continuous, indeed
I mean, I know it is, but since I don't know how to prove it(that's the whole thing I'm struggling with), fairly sure I cannot use the fact
you may have proven some results at some point you could use here
but otherwise epsilon delta for this isnt too bad
also, have you actually found what the pre image is, i forgot to ask tht above?
Most of them assume an already continous function
use the fact that sequential continuity is equivalent to continuity in metric spaces
Since the function takes two variables, most I could do was determine the interval ((1/y,y),(2/y,y)
Which, well, now that I think about it, may be wrong
I assume you mean the definition of every sequence of points converging to x converging to f(x)
Don't know how I could use that here, well, first I haven't used that definition at any point so far due to how restrictive the condition of “every sequence“ is
And I have to admit I'm not all that familiar with sequences either
i mean more that functions in multiple variable constructed in this way, the proofs usually use projections
if you havent then try an epsilon delta argument
As in, fixating the y and considering the interval ( 1/y, 2/y)?
Well, tried already, but haven't gotten anything
Did you sketch that preimage, as the problem suggests?
what have you tried?
also this^ ive always found skteching the regions to be helpful
If I'm being honest, I thought that by sketching it just meant “finding“ or “bounding“
No, it meant literally make a drawing
So no, haven't tried graphing it
A drawing is not a proof, of course, but it can inspire you as to how the rigorous argument might work
First of all what I said below the initial image
Also, it sounds like you're doing topology without having done a real analysis course before? How did that happen?
do you know how epsilon delta proofs go?
Self studying, also education works differently on each country
Done some, yeah, but not really related to R^2
If you're self-studying, then I definitely recommend putting topology on hold and going through a real analysis book (such as Abbott) before
So regardless of my self studying, I'd have to go through a course on topology before a course on real analysis
it works in the exact same
🤨
Sounds like the exact opposite of how it normally goes
In about 2 month's time
That's how it is around here
can i ask where?
Granted, the subject is called “elementary topology“, but doubt that helps all that much
Spain
weird, im also spanish
ive not heard of it going around that way before
Depends of the university, but I assure you it goes that way
Well, I mean
They usually have one subject related to “real analysis“ but it's mostly a slightly more rigorous calculus
Yes, that's exactly what you should do before topology
As one would expect of a first year undergrad course
perhaps, ive lived mainly in the UK, so only familiar with some specific courses
That, I'm taking, though maybe not as rigorous as I'd like it to
I'm not talking measure theory, I'm talking "real analysis" as in "rigorous approach to limit and continuity of functions of one real variable"
Yeah, I've taken that
I know the definitions and I've used em
Hm, then you should be familiar with epsilon-delta, and with sequences
Maybe a refresher is in order
Either way, start by making that sketch of the preimage.
And show that it's open directly from definition
these are from my notes, the definitions are basically the same as in the case of R
I mean, I know what a sequence is, just an indexed array of points defined by a function f:N->A
this is not exactly what the book wants, recall the definition of an open set
The thing is that I haven't used the sequential definition (every converging sequence A to xn converges to f(xn)) due to how hard it is to find all the converging sequences
The idea is never to "find all the converging sequences", the idea is to make an argument general enough to apply to every possible converging sequence
There's typically uncountably many converging sequences, so going through all of them would indeed be impossible
Alright, for the usual topology:
Given a set A⊆R, A is open iff for all z∈A there exists some δ>0 such that B(δ) centered in z is contained in the set A
Hm, well, then I guess it's just my limited knowledge of sequences, that's the only part of basic real analysis I didn't look into myself, and we haven't gotten there yet so, yeah
Well, I'll give it another shot for now, I'll ask for help again if I get stuck
On frog
Wait
This is geo top
Bruhh it literally says knot theory in the description
How can I prove that total boundness implies every sequence has a Cauchy subsequence?
How can I go for ii) to i), if for each eps>0 S can be covered by the finite collection of open Balls of X of radius eps, then how do I find a finite collection of open balls in S of radius eps which covered S ?
take balls of radius eps/2
I got it
Is there a subset S of R such that S and R\S both are discrete space as subspace of usual topology on R?
no
out of S and R \ S take the one which is uncountable
it has too many points to be discrete because its a metric space that is second countable
therefore any discrete subset will be countable
that is in fact equivalent to second coutability in metric spaces
Subspace of second countable set is the second countable, right?
yep
I got it thank you
what is the wedge product? Just the subspace of X x Y of X x {y0} U {x0} x Y?
but you can also realize this by an attaching map?
whats the difference between the wedge and smash product
google it
what dont you get
They're the same thing. Though wedge product is also used in different contexts (for different things)
I think this is why im confused
they are actually the same thing ??
you just identify some point of X,Y (x0,y0) and then the wedge /smash product is the quotient space X [_] Y / ~ with ~ being defined as (x0, 0) ~ (y0, 1), and every other point is its own equivalence class?
So you are basically just gluing X and Y together at the point (x0,y0)?
idk I tried to write the symbol [_] for disjoint union lol
That would be the wedge sum
Yeah
But smash product is the same thing? I saw smash product is the quotient X x Y by the wedge sum X V Y but i dont know how to think about this
It's kind of tricky to think about
But try for example to visualize what the smash product of two S^1's looks like
The smash product and wedge sum are different.
One is like a product the other is like a sum.
For suitably nice spaces, the smash product is adjoint to the mapping space, so that could be a good way to think about it.
Otherwise you can also just draw the XxY and imagine contracting XvY to a point
I agree in some way but i think it's probably best to think of smash product as like a tensor product (in particular because of that adjunction you mentioned, and because it isn't a categorical product)
which is probably what you mean but i thought i would mention this for others' sake lol
Wait wdym
I have never heard somebody say wedge product for smash product
wedge product to me is just a thing for like the exterior algebra etc
maybe some people do say this though but it must be relatively rare
Well, Wikipedia has a redirect for it.
And it's a product denoted with the wedge symbol
sure
And it's like the product version of wedge sum. I think wedge product is a reasonable name
Hm fair i just have never heard anyone say that lol
I'm finding this problem quite strangely worded
I mean, I'm not sure it's always true, for example:
Consider the set: {1,2}, let us consider B the collection of subsets only containing itself, so B={{1,2}}, it is satisfied that 1): all elements of the set are within at least one of the subsets of B(the only one) and 2): it is closed under finite intersections, since any set intersected with itself is itself, which is within B
The empty set is the union of an empty collection of sets from B, and together with {1,2} it does form a topology.
Then, the problem says that the set of all unions, which I'll denote U, is a topology, however, for this case:
U={{1,2}}, once again, and since ∅ is not in U, it's not a topology
I agree they might have mentioned the empty set more explicitly because it's a common tripping point in these definitions
Isn't the problem saying we can choose whichever collection of subsets we want?
Cuz the empty set is precisely what was bugging me here
We take all possible subsets of B (including the emptyset), and take unions of every such subset.
The collection of such unions forms a topology.
In symbols, $\mathcal{T} = \left{\bigcup_{A\in \mathcal{A}} A : \mathcal{A} \subset B\right}$
Doesn't it say B is A collection of subsets?
Outsider
It is
And you produce a new collection based on B
And that new collection will be a topology
I mean, if B is the power set of T, then yeah
No, the whole point is that B can be much smaller than that
The union of two nonempty sets can't be the empty set, though
Just choosing a B that doesn't include the empty set breaks all of it, that's what I'm having trouble getting
Yeah, which is why I agree the phrasing of 3.11 isn't great; the point is that "unions of sets in B" means "anything you can get if you take any amount of sets that are an in B and form their union", and that includes the case of "take no sets at all" (in which case the union will be an empty set as well)
Ohhh, it meant union of subsets, geez, since B was already a collection of sets, I assumed it meant union of elements
If you prefer you might also claim that 3.11 is wrong and should say "the collection of all unions of sets in B, together with the empty set, forms a topology on T", or you can strengthen the assumption by requesting that the emptyset be an element of B
But "the union of an empty collection is the empty set" is a fairly standard convention
That's what I was thinking of doing, really
(and the intersection of an empty collection is, again mostly by convention and for convenience, the whole space)
Was about to ask why that was
But guess that makes sense, due to the empty set being quite literally an assumption for convenience's sake
Well, technically if $\mathcal{A}$ is a collection of subsets of a space $X$, you can define their intersection as $\bigcap_{\mathcal{A}} = {x\in X: \forall_{A\in\mathcal{A}} x\in A}$. If $\mathcal{A} = \emptyset$, then the condition is vacuously true for every $x\in X$, and thus the intersection will be equal to $X$.
Outsider
And it so happens that this interpretation makes sense, in that various identities for unions/intersection will remain true.
Hm, alright
You can also get this conclusion using De Morgan's laws
Well, I think I'll first provide the counterexample, then add the restriction of the empty set being in B and then prove from there
Alright
Thanks btw, I found this quite confusing
Hm, or maybe not, but either way, the union of an empty family is the emptyset, and the intersection of an empty family is the whole space.
If X is a set with the cofinite topology, and n is a natural number, does that mean every CLOSED set in the product topology of X^n has to be finite?
Yea
And how can I prove that every finite set can be written as the finite union of closed sets?
?
You said that every finite set is closed.
But for a set to be closed it has to be written as a finite union of some closed sets
Well yea it is the union of itself
You mean closed sets of the form [closed set] × [closed set]?
That is better
Every singleton is of this form
And there are finite
So finite sets are finite unions of this
Math be like dat sometimes
I just feel really dumb but i don't see this
I understand that f is a identification map from the conditions
But by separated they mean it's not connected right
Separated means Hausdorff aka T2
Separated as in "separation axiom"
Oh
Yeah I mean the connected thing wouldn't even be true just take a hausdorff connected space and identity map
It's strange not to say "Hausdorff" or T2 though. I only know what it's asking offhand because a space X is Hausdorff iff X^2 is closed.
Yeah I am aware of that fact
This is basically the same thing, yeah
do you even need openness though, isnt being quotient already enough
They're probably making it easier for the purpose of the exercise
I actually don't know that it makes it easier, looking at it. Maybe the textbook just hasn't defined quotient map generically yet.
Ah then probably not
He has defined quotient map
This will essentially be a proof that the quotient of a Hausdorff space is Hausdorff.
Yeah ig
But I was really for like 4 fcking hours thinking why would Y be disconnected lol
Cause most books i have read before mean not connected by separated
Thanks a lot
It's possible this is true, but in my experience decent textbooks are careful to use terminology consistently, even if their choice is misleading or distracting for extra-textual reasons.
I think the instinct to develop is to always keep "I'm misinterpreting the statement" as a low-ranking hypothesis for why you're not making progress. You want to double check terminology often.
To wit, Proposition 1.3.3 contains the third instance of the word "separated" in the text. The first two are here:
An expensive way to learn what kind of textbook this is, but hopefully a price you only have to pay once!
(Everyone has done some version of this more times than they can count, FWIW.)
Oh i usually forget terminologies sadly
I should write them down somewhere og
Ig
But like i have done point set before and didn't bother
But ig that's the way to go
All the more reason to double check every time, just to be sure. Especially for core definitional proofs, I make a kind of mathematical mise en place every time.
Whatever terms are mentioned, I get those definitions out and put them literally in front of me.
Yeah I can agree it's good practice
Mise en place (French pronunciation: [mi zɑ̃ ˈplas]) is a French culinary phrase which means "putting in place" or "gather". It refers to the setup required before cooking, and is often used in professional kitchens to refer to organizing and arranging the ingredients (e.g., cuts of meat, relishes, sauces, par-cooked items, spices, freshly chopp...
"let him cook"
Haha yeahhh
Find a surjective open mapping that is not a closed mapping. I need in metric space, any hint? I know X and Y cannot be discrete metric space
That one is not surjective, but it's a good starting point
but then how to show it is not closed, R^2 -> R such that (x,y) -> x, it is open mapping but i saw on mse they say about image of hyperbola xy = 1 is not closed
Yeah, so there you go. It's open but not closed
The hyperbola is closed, but it's image is not
Can you find other exotic shapes whose image is not closed
here i am not sure image of hyperbola
Mse doesn't have to be all end all
how to visulize this?
hyperbola is closed
When I thought of this
do i need to sequence in image of hyperbola which limit is not in image
One can see that you can get around with some sort of asymptotic kind of thing
1/n?
Which x are such that xy=1 has a solution?
yes i think this one work
which is non-zero
Right, so the image will be R\{0}
You can also look at 1/x 's graph too
i think sequence 1/n in image gives contradiction
yes got it
Nah
why?
That's literally the same thing
i don't know the theory of asymptote
My god I just mean it should go to a line but never touch it
Nothing to do with theory of asymptotes
okay
How about, pick an enumeration of the rational numbers r1, r2, ... and consider the set
{(rn, n) : n in N}
Yeah this is cool too
you mean this set is closed but its image is not, yes image is Q in R not closed
oh there is no convergent sequence in this set, right?
i mean non-ultimate constant sequence
Hm, will the projection be an open map in this case? Singletons are open in this space, but the image of a singleton (open in this space) will also be a singleton (not open in R)
I'm just talking about closed sets in R^2. The mapping is still R^2 -> R
Ah, yeah, I get you
that is not true
take a Hausdorff space that is not normal and two closed sets that are cant be separated with open sets, take the quotient that sends each of those sets to a point, then the quotient won't be Hausdorff
Note discrete topology is just the whole power set which will be closed under everything you need for a sigma algebra by definition. so really this has little to do w topology
Yeah in fact pretty sure if you change "continuous open surjection" with "quotient map" then this is still an iff with Y being separated
hello . i want to understand the mesh topology that is on 3d modeling but with the mathmatic understanding so if u can tell what i need to understand first like precalculus
Mesh topology isn't terribly directly related to point-set topology
There are things you can say but mostly it's just a matter of them both being about 'shape' in some abstract sense
you'd want graph theory instead, right?
Pin

not compact
unboundedness
Yeah basically
in anyways, to appreciate Furstenberg topology, they wants me to look at the infinitudes of primes and profinite integers
can i get good source(s) to go through all that individually or in a package
There are many sources on the internet
Maybe this one is good
if not for subasis i would have never known that trivial intersection is a thing
well what is the key distinction bw subasis and a cover on a set ?
after the first lemma what else is there to be said
Just contextual. Like a subbasis is something you intend to use to create a topology
right!
from what i have got when we are talking about subbasis, topology can or cannot be mentioned right
and the wording gets a lil different in two cases, idk if im being dumb here
$S = {[a, \infty) : a \in \mathbb{R}} \cup {(-\infty, b] : b \in \mathbb{R}}$
yeshua
so this is coarser than usual right ?
if yes then i think i am kinda getting the feel of subbasis now
any cover would atleast suffice to generate the coarsest topology on the given set, is that a valid corollary ?
Notice that by intersecting you can obtain the set {a}, so this will in fact give the discrete topology which is the finest topology there is.
You could drop the middle union though, just do
S = {[a, infinity) : a in R}
right, i didnt not notice we can get to the singleton, but wait its finite intersection tho
is it not generating [a,b]
Will [a, infinity) intersect (-infinity, a] is {a}
Same as [a, b] for a=b I suppose
right!
grrrrrr, all my construction gone in vain
lets say we have {T1, T2 .... Tk} on X and they are arranged to be from finest to coarsest without degeneracy,
is there a valid statement we can say that if my subbasis can generate Ti th topology then it will generate Ti to Tk
So a subbasis only generates one topology.
But if T2 is coarser than T1 and you have a subbasis for T1, then every open set in T2 can be written as a union of intersections of things from your subbasis. But this is just because T2 is a subset of T1. Any open set in T2 is also an open set in T1. That's just what coarser/finer means
oh right, my dumb brain clicked finally then 
Could someone help me with this, I feel like I have some ideas but im not quite there.
somethingwrong
Could someone explain to me the definition of continuity in topology
Idk if it's uniform continuity or continuity at a interval whichever has that v set
"v set" isn't really standard terminology, just a variable name, so it's not quite clear to me what you mean
continuous just means that the preimage of every open set is open
we intuitively have a very good understanding of what continuity "should" mean for functions R -> R
now the question is how do we generalise that defn?
are you aware of like metric spaces? well if we have a metric space then an obvious generalisation would be the same one as for continuity R -> R but we replace | . | with "distance"
but what happens if we deal with weirder spaces where we don't have this notion of distances?
you can look at your previous defn and see that actually, the pre-image of open sets is open is equivalent to being continuous
so the idea is that for generic topologies, we use this as the definition of what it means to be continuous
This is what I'm talking about
this is just normal continuity (not uniform)
yup, it's one of many equivalent phrasings
My prof labeled it as the topological definition
it's the topological defn because it doesn't rely on the idea of what 0 or 1 or | | or < or etc.
ah, you're probably doing something related to metric spaces or real analysis right now, right? and just briefly touching on topology with this?
It's so confusing to me 😔
for a generic topological space, we don't have ideas of "size" or "distance" etc. but open sets and closed sets are defined
Yes
ah right
Real analysis 1
the idea is basically that many properties related to metric spaces can be characterised just in terms of open sets. for example, continuity at a point is equivalent to what you just posted
i hoped i provided some light motivation why we should care about this definition, if ur just starting out analysis you probably wanna just stick with the normal "if x gets close to y, then f(x) gets close to f(y)" but keep in the back of your mind that we have an equivalent definition given in terms of open and closed intervals
when you start doing metric spaces, you should be thinking about open/closed sets more to then generalise to topology
No I understand why it's useful, I'm at the end of my course right now and reviewing
so you could do a lot just by knowing what the open sets are - topology does that, by forgetting about metrics and instead defining a topological space to be a set together with a well-behaved set of sets that will be called open
it says right in your screenshot: a function is continuous at 0 iff for every open set U containing f(0), there is an open set V such that...
so for U = (-1,1), there should be an open set V containing 0 such that f(V) ⊆ (-1,1)
for U = (-1/2,1/2) there should be such a V with f(V) ⊆ (-1/2,1/2)
it asks that for every U, there exists a V
sanity check: S^0 is not connected right? (since it can be expressed as {1} U {-1}, which are both open in the subspace topology on S^0)
i was thinking of nZ but the 3rd condition fails
any hint ?
nevermind it looks like nZ satisfies the conditions
correct
if we inherit some nice subspace topology, a cont non constant surjective map can be constructed on it to {-1,1}
i hope !
So if you split Z into A and Z\A, then what you have is two countably infinite sets.
Then I guess it's just a question of which countable Hausdorff spaces you know
Let X,Y be compact T2 spaces, and f:X -> Y be continuous. I want to show that f is surjective. Is there any result that you know of about continuous functions on compact spaces that may help with this?
this doesn't sound true
are there no other conditions?
I mean, In what I'm doing the sets X and Y are not any two arbitrary compact spaces, but it's a bit hard to define them here 😅 but do you think that compactness is not enough to prove this then?
The image is closed, so maybe you can show it's dense...
Do you know of any properties that would imply this (maybe my spaces have them)
Epimorphisms of CH spaces are surjective
I feel like you need more conditions on the map instead of on the spaces
Surely state the whole question
yeah, that's probably true
well, thank you for you help anyway 🙏
I'm struggling in particular on (a), (b) and (f). I'm not even sure where to begin with to be honest. I'd appreciate any type of hint because I am very stuck.
I have an example for (f), but I'm not sure how to make it into a good hint.
Something to think about might be how you can make somewhat simple discontinuous functions. The easiest might be to take some connected space and "cut" it into two pieces.
And yeah I guess once you have (f) you can just compose with some map that is open not closed or closed not open to get (a) and (b)
Thanks jagr, I'll digest this later because my brain has just crashed and lost all will to think.
I am not sure here, if X is R and d is usual metric on R and y let any symbol say ∆, then how can I assign the number d(1, ∆ ) ?
So you can just assign d(1, Delta) to be anything positive completely arbitrary. After that you just have to make sure d satisfies the triangle inequality.
So for any x you should have d(1, x) <= d(1, Delta) + d(x, Delta)
I guess the easiest would just be to define d(x, Delta) = d(1, x) + d(1, Delta)
@opaque scroll are you a scholar
I guess so
Or what do you mean?
Oh, I was just curious if you worked at a uni. You seem to be very knowledgeable in algebra
I'm a grad student yeah
You are working on your Phd?
Corectumondo
Nice
Will graduate in the summer. Then we'll see where the wind takes me
Oh exciting! Are you considering leaving academia?
Yeah, I mean I'll take the job I can get I guess
But if you know of any postdocs in rep theory adjacent fields in Europe then I'm all ears
There's not that many profs that work in that field in Europe? Or do they just not want to recruit postdoc students?
Nah, it's fine. Applying for jobs is just hard in general
Frrrr
I see, fair enough
Okay thank you
If it is possible, take x ≠ y, then since this is discrete metric therefore |x-y| = 1 but then use the property of norm, for r > 0 which is not equal to 1, |rx - ry | = r ≠ 1 contradicts that it is discrete space.
Is it correct?
yeah that looks correct
Any hint?
Other than the ordinary metric space properties, what properties does a metric induced by a norm have
In particular, stuff like if d is a metric induced by a norm what can we say about d(cx,cy) for example
Or d(x+b,y+b)
I see
But it is the necessary condition right, not sure about sufficient condition
The opposite way; take a metric d and define ||x|| = d(x,0).
Lmk what properties we need d to obey for ||x|| to be a norm
d(x+y, 0) ≤ d(x, 0) + d(y,0) and d(cx, 0) = |c| d(x, 0)
So this is equivalent to d(cx, cy) = |c|d(x,y) and d(x+b, y+b) = d(x,y)
Yeah, that shows it's necessary and sufficient
Yes but I am confused here you mean we take the norm |x -y | = d(x,y), right?
Because if I have | x | = d(x,0) then I am trying to show | x- y |= d(x,y)
Mmhmm
If I define |x| = d(x,0) and with d(cx,0) = |c|d(x,0) and d(x+y,0) ≤ d(x,0) + d(y,0), then can I prove | x-y | = d(x,y)
No because if there exists a metric space X such that there are exactly three clopen sets then there exists non-trivial proper subset U such that it is clopen but it implies X\U is non-trivial proper subset which is clopen, contradicts that there are exactly three clopen sets, right?
{\emptyset, {x}, X} ?
It is not metric space, unless X is singleton set
X is finite then it is not
I am not sure about infinite but yes it has no Hausdorff property
So it cannot be possible
(0,1) U (1,2) gives one with three non-empty clopens fwiw
Yes
Sorry ?
(0,1), (1,2), and (0,1) U (1,2) are the only non-empty clopens in this space
Empty set?
Oh I got it
You mean non-empty
is that not what i said?
Is that argument correct?
X\U could be one of the given clopens. and you have to rule this out.
It cannot because U is non-trivial proper subset
Non-trivial means non-empty
yea, then it works. i would be more explicit about the fact that the other two clopens must be X and the empty set in this case
Yes
it sort of implies the nontrivial spaces being not connected ig
is clopen and regular open/close equivalent ?
yes, i hope so
No
Take discrete metric space
What is regular open/close ?
no?
a ball in Rn is regular closed but hopefully not clopen
Hi, bussy Beaver have you recently changed your profile picture?
i meant to say regular open and closed together
I have yes
oh then sure
\biglist\3\15
no and the containment is easy to see
but when does the equality hold
for regular open/close this is just A
but that is very strong, is there anything weaker that still holds this
The only non empty set that’s simultaneously open and closed is the whole space
I mean, depends
Oh, discrete topology…

