#point-set-topology
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since it kinda guides you into what the solution should look like by knowing what it shouldn't look like
oh yeah
So you'd see where you can apply the rules you know
I mean like
All of first year abstract algebra for me will be to reword the questions with sets
oh that makes sense
I mean, a big part in understanding a subject is understanding how it teaches you to formalize problems
like, a lot of problems could just be stated with too much words but what the tools give you is a way of formalizing it in an approachable way
Hmmmm
I don't know if it's appropriate to ask in topology, but
Wouldn't computer generated proofs be all about reformalization?
Idk
I think it's ok
once in a while some channel just starts a random ass discussion and it just stays there
ig we should only care if someone appears actually wanting to talk about topology
happened in #real-complex-analysis one time
Ok so to formalize it, I think any proof takes a logical state and known lemmas and transforms it using logical rules into another logical state
oh right
The question is, in a computer proof, would a logical state that is dual to another logical state and they lead to dual proofs (I don't know if I'm using dual right, I mean the category theory thing)
Would they be represented in the same way?
If not, we'd clearly need to reformalize
ym like, computer generated proofs supposedly would or do work with us reformalizing a problem in a way that the computer can apply stuff it "knows" to come to a conclusion?
I'm very sorry if I sound dumb I didn't start uni yet so I didn't study most of this
I don't think so
me neither B)
I didn't even finish highschool lmao
I'm thinking this has a strong metaphor potential with (non-modern) algebra
Gigachadette
I did watch some lectures on how Isabelle and similar programs work
like, computers can only simplify algebra so easily because we have an amazing formalism for it to work with
(god thank viéte)
I have no clue what you're referring to
ok I need to dinner rn I'll explain it later
I haven't added numbers by hand since 2023
this isn't what I'm talking about
Wanna dm about it? I don't think it's appropriate to converse on it in topology
Alternatively there's chill
Or discussion
Has anyone read Grothendieck's work on Topological vector spaces?
Given $G$ a topological group with identity $e$. Let $a \neq e \in G$, I want to show there exists a neighbourhood $V$ of $e$ such that $(V \cdot a) \cap V = \emptyset$. What I tried is that I firstly suppose for the contrary that for all neighbourhood V of e, we have $(V \cdot a) \cap V \neq \emptyset$, then $\exists x,y \in V, a = x^{-1}y$, that means for all neighbourhood $V$ of $e$, we have $a \in V^{-1}V$. In short, $\forall V$ containing e, we have $a \in V^{-1}V$. I want to somehow say, $\bigcap_{e \in V} V^{-1} V$ = ${e}$ probably using the T1 axiom. But I don't know how.
lmwang4321
When working with topological groups it's nice to keep the continuous map G×G → G in mind
Not just the translation maps
from Viro, that second paragraph is an interesting way to start off the book

Do not hurry to fall in love with it, do not let an imprinting happen.
Man like how do i show this map between quotient space and S1 x S1 is continuous
The open sets are just hard to write out
Its like R2 \ ~ -> S1 x S1
Equivalence relation is when p-q in Z x Z
i think you can use a covering like the exponential map from R^2 -> S1 x S1, (x,y) -> e^(2pi * i * x),e^(2pi* i * y) and then that this is also well defined on the quotient
then something something universal property of the quotient
You basically always want to use the "universal property" of quotients
Oh lol said above
But yeah like you write down the map from R^2 -> S^1 x S^1 which should be easy to check is continuous, and then check it respects the relation so that it automaticlaly factors through
Yes i think this one was covered
How can I show inverse map is continuous? S1 x S1 -> R2 \ ~
I guess its the same thing similar
my prof talked would always mention these universal properties whenever introducing a new construction, and many of his arguments would be in vaguely categorical language, but he never bothered to define a category

kiand what book are you following btw
So your original map from R^2/~ -> S^1 x S^1 is a continuous bijection and you can show it is open by showing it is a local homeomorphism
my prof is using janich but i dont like it
i like munkres but actually rn we are doing a lot of top group stuff and munkres doesnt really cover that
no point in defining categories just to talk about specific universal constructions like that tbf
I think it makes sense to talk about universal properties early to get familiar with them, but only introduce categories later when they're actually useful
is this what ur referring to??
bro i cannot read my profs notes
like what is this saying
yeah i loved his lectures
I need help with something. For context, let $(R, <)$ be a dense linear order and consider the order topology on $R$. Let $n$ be a natural number and $i_1,...,i_n \in {0,1}$. A subset of $R^n$ is an $(i_1,...,i_n)$-box if it's of the form $A_1 \times ... \times A_n$ where $A_k$ is a singleton if $i_k = 0$ or $A_k$ is an open interval if $i_k = 1$.
Given $A\subseteq R^n$ an $(i_1,...,i_n)$-box, we define it's dimention to be $i_1 + ... + i_n$.
Also, a box in $R^n$ is simply a $(i_1,...,i_n)$-box for some $i_1,...,i_n \in {0,1}$
Eduude
I'm trying to prove the following:
If $A\subseteq R^n$ is a box, and we can write $A = C_1 \cup ... \cup C_k$ as the disjoint union of boxes, then $$\dim(A) = \max {\dim(C_1), ..., \dim(C_k)}$$
Eduude
This makes sense and it's not so difficult to see why it is true, but for some reason I'm having a lot of trouble formalizing this into a proof
how would you go about this?
idk why but this is giving me algebraic topology vibes. However there is probably some simple argument I'm not seeing
What does that mean
Show its a local homeomorphism?
it means that any point in the domain has a neighbourhood on which the map restricts to a homeomorphism between open subsets of the domain and codomain
you can prove that any such map is open
Hello
I have a proof that every compact subset of a metric space is closed idk if it's right
The proof is as follows
Take the K ⊂ X a metric space, K is open. Take a point in K call it p. Take a disk and circle around it (closed set) and say it has a radius of r and is entirely within K call it C
Denote by C_i a circle like C but with a radius of r/i
An infinite cover of K is the union of all K-C_i∪p (an open set)
It has no finite subcover
An immediate issue I noticed when I started writing this is that in topology closed and open aren't antonyms, but I think that generally proves at least every compact subspace isn't open
I would like it if someone would scrutinize my proof
Btw I used the words circle and disk fast and loose a little, but I mean the points q where d(p, q) ≤ r/i
(closed disk and open disks are the words I'd use - but it's clear what you meant)
you mean adding the set {p} to the cover? or adding p to every set in the cover?
Doesn't matter
either way - it is indeed a cover then. but is it open?
I don't think it changes
Oh yeah
P makes it not open
Ok so
Wait a sec
yup. {p} could be open depending on the space, but it's usually not
Compact sets can be open though, so proving that is not a good thing
you are close to proving that compact sets in metric spaces are closed though
It was born out of this dumbness
I know a proof they are closed
I wanted to construct my own proof
I will no cri
But like
Can you gimme an example of an open compact set?
I think the open disk is one
No wait it isn't
If it has radius r
it's not compact
Take the union of all open disks on the same centre or radius r*(n-1)/n
Being open is relative to the ambient space, while being compact is not.
For example the whole space is always an open subset of itself
Oh yeah
Lel
Thanks all you are all so nice
that's the open disk of radius r again, lol
Yes
But contains no finite subcover
Proving it isn't compact
Back in my age galiois started developing Galois theory
While I can't understand what compactness is...
I did
I literally thought of this proof 5 minutes before as to why it isn't compact
It is why I asked the question
That was a generalization of that proof
Is every compact set only open wrt itself?
As far as I understand, which is near, the ambient space is the object itself?
I have good news
Galois was one year older when he submitted his paper
I have one year to become galois
Galois speedrun
We still have some time to develop an entirely new way of understanding polynomials
nope. but since compact sets are closed (in metric spaces at least), every open compact set must be both open and closed, which means that it is disconnected from the rest of the space
so in connected spaces like R^n, every compact set is non-open or empty
Question
Can we have like
Say
This
That doesnt imply continuity, just open map?
The metric space is the open disk at the origin, and everything where x and y > 2r
And the open disk is a compact subspace
should also imply continuity I think. though usually continuity is take to be part of the definition
as in, "a continuous map f : X → Y is called a local homeomorphism if..."
if you make that a closed disk yes. other wise it's still not compact
Is this a legal metric space in topology or will the topology police get me for it?
Yeah true
it is for a very simple reason 
every subset of a metric spaces is a metric space
welcome to topology, I guess 😆
later in #alg-top-geo-top you'll learn to count and classify them
Is there bread flavour?
idk i only know the algebraic and geometric ones
I heard everything in maths is bread flavoured
ie may and hatcher
I see I see I quite understand...
how can a set be open and closed at the same time, excluding the set it self and the empty
like intiution for this set, how can u even draw it / feel it
Ok so
Closed isn't related to open
Closed means contains all the limit points
A limit point is a point that's right next to a point in the set simply
More formally, a limit point is a point that if you drew a circle/sphere around that, no matter how small you make that shape (so long as its radius isn't 0) there will be points from the shape in it
This zooming in circle thing applies to 2 kinds of points, the border of the shape, in which some points in the shape are in the set we want and some are out
And what mathematicians call interior points, points where all the points in some small enough circle are in the set
Is that clear?
An open set is a set which only contains interior points
A point contained within a border, no matter how close it is to the border, if it doesn't touch it, there is a small enough circle that is all in the border, centred at the point and encircling it
Is that clear?
Please note, limit points are the border and interior points, not just the border
Interior points
@round oyster , if you want, I can draw it for you
Exactly, I always make that error
@alpine nest is my explanation clear? I hope I didn't fuck it up lol
You've explained the definition, but I'm not sure that's what MadAbdo was confused about, more about the intuition of what a clopen set is.
But I agree it's important to be clear on definitions, and in particular that "open vs closed" is not a dichotomy.
Generally clopen sets show up when your space is disconnected, for example if its the set {0,1}
{0} is a closed and open subset of it, because it has no limit points outside of it (it has no limit points at all), and also it's open, beacuse its complement is closed.
And more directly, it's open because 0 is its interior point, because all elements sufficiently close to 0 will be in {0}
(because the only such element would be 0 itself)
So the intuition about clopen sets is that they're "pieces" of your space that are "cut off" from the rest
As a slightly more complicated example, consider the space X = (0,1) u [2,3]. Then both sets (0,1) and [2,3] are open and closed in X. In R, which is probably what you're thinking of as intuition, (0,1) isn't closed because it doesn't contain limit points 0 and 1; these aren't even in X, so (0,1) doesn't not contain them in order to be not closed. Similarly in R, [2,3] isn't open because 2 and 3 aren't interior points, as 1.9, 1.99, 1.999 or 3.1, 3.01, 3.001 etc. are arbitrarily close to them; in X, again these points don't exist to make [2,3] not open.
Yep, and again, note that the space in this example is in two separate "pieces"
And each of these pieces is a closed-and-open (clopen) set
Yeah, it's not right to say closed and open are "unrelated."
They are related, just not in the naïve way their names suggest, that "closed" means "not open".
Yeah there being closed and open sets (other than empty and whole space) is in fact equivalent to being in multiple pieces; I hoped to give an example where it's clear why this break would lead to sets being closed and open, and one where its clear exactly how both conditions are satisfied and where the usual intuition (viewing sets as lying in connected R^n, specifically n=1 for the example) breaks down
Is it necessary to take delta=min(delta1, delta2, ...) here?
I am a little confused on exactly what I'm supposed to do at that stage
I want to show that for any t0 in h^(-1)(U) that there exists an open set in the standard topology on R containing it which is a subset of h^(-1)(U)
The issue with this is that you don't necessarily have delta>0
(and technically you mean inf in this case)
what's the codomain of h? you didn't say
oh right since there are infinitely many delta
R -> R^(omega)
Do you have an idea for how it is meant to be done then?
the fact sup|...| < ε is a stronger condition than |...| < ε for all n
more specifically, there is ε' (e.g. the supremum itself) with |...| <= ε' < ε; in other words |...| doesn't get arbitrarily close to ε
I'm not yet sure how precisely to use this fact, but I suspect this allows you to either pick the δn a smarter way, or even δ directly
probably triangle inequality...
yes please
i would really appreciate
Hey
A sec
So, C is a circle without border, or an open disk
C' is a circle with a border
The dashed line is just to signify we have to border
In sending a drawing
I could do these in desmos but I'm an arteest
So
the picture still loading for me sec :)
C, in IR ², is open
ok i see now
It doesn't contain the border although the border touched some points of C
C' is closed
But C, with respect to C, is closed
It is still open, every point is surrounded by points
There isn't an edge, only points arbitrarily close to it
Cut since the edge doesn't exist in C, then C is "closed" because it contains all the limit points of C that are in C
It contains all the borders of C that are in it, that is, none of them
so there is no edge, and it contains the border?
No
like, i'm trying to imagine it not in like R^2, in general toplogy would it make any sense
Just a sec
ok
Slow down
Firstly, I'm using edge and border interchangeably
Secondly, begin with this example then I'll generalize it
k
As I was saying, if you live in R², you'd be walking and suddenly you'd be like "holy shit I fell into a circle! Someone should put an edge around this!"
But if the circle was everything, you can't get outside the circle
You can't be like "oh look, an edge"
You can't touch it
You can get arbitrarily close
yes
It is open because you are always in the circle
In both cases
But because you can't get outside, you can't touch the edge
i imagine it you see a prism, whenever you get close to it, it feels a little bit more far, yet its still fixed in its place
The edge doesn't exist in that frame of reference
So it is closed with respect to itself
got it
Kinda
Now, on the number line, the open interval (0, 1) is an open set
ye
There are no points that touch a number between 0 and 1 and touch the outside world
They are all contained within
But
With respect to R², it is neither open nor closed
The points are all edges
Right?
The points all touch other points from the set, while also touching points from outside
So it isn't open
But also
It doesn't contain 1 and 0, which do touch a point from the set, but also the outside world
so you saying points from outside the set are touching points from inside the set if its not closed nor open?
No
wait, i'll tell you how i think about it, i want to restore my thinking
i had problem understanding your language
Closed means contains all points that touch points from it
yes agree with this
Now that means at most adding the border
Ok,
There isn't a point outside the set with the border that touches the border
It will always be some distance away
Even if that distance is super close
can you formualte this in math operators, sorry but i'm struggling to understand your language
Oh gladly
So, for now, P ⊂ X
p is a point in P
X is a metric space
Neighborhood of p, denoted N_r(p) is the set of all q such that
d(p, q) < r
r is a real positive number
d is distance
P is an open set if for all p∊P, the exists some r >0, for all q∊N_r(p) => q∊P
that is, there is a small enough circle such that all points in that circle are in the set
Or p is surrounded by points in the set
Something obvious worth noting is that, if that works for r, then it works for all reals in (0, r)
Now
yes sure this makes sense, so basically for any point that is inside the circle, there is a small enough circle within the set of neighborhood of any point, that is included in the circle
If for all q∊X, if for all r>0, N_r(q) contains some point in P, then q∊P, then P is closed
Not necessarily a circle in the first sentence
A set can be dinosaur shaped
But the distance is a circle
Is the definition of closed clear?
That's kinda it
for any neighborhood of the points, they share a point with the set
As you can see
The set of q we can pick from depends on X
If X = P, then any open set is closed
first i asked you this question, because i was trynna to shape how the clopen sets are in connex spaces
I have 0 clue what this is
I didn't study this far
Lol
i mean, for the set it self X, and phi are both clopens but i'm looking to draw it
If you know what it is, please tell me
I don't know what clopen is
When you know the answer, please dm me
let X be some topological space, we say that it's connex if it can't be written as a unionn of two opens / two closed
Makes sense
there are some weird propertys with clopens
connex = connected, i forgot to translate that to english
What's a clopen
closed and open set at the same time
oh wait, in connected spaces, only open / closed are X and the empty set
but in other toplogical spaces, i have no idea how they look like, if i find an answer i will tell you
right
R is connected, since you can't do with with two disjoint
your set will never be split up, thats why it's called connected
Please note I am dumb
Makes sense
(-oo, 0) U (0,oo)
so there is always a link between any two opens i think
not necessarly, but generally there is path between some opens, if you think of opens as mountains there is canyon in between. i think
In this example
A dashed line means some areas are closed and some are open
B U C =A
So clearly
i dont get what u mean, but i suppose your thinking of it as one is completing the other, but there is emptiness those gears cannot be filled
I think any set can be then a combination of 2 sets of different types
What
I mean
For any set, an open and a closed can make it
oh, of course that will always work
any toplogy
consider any toplogy thats not trivial, take any element as an open set, the complement is closed and their union is X it self
hmm, wait lemme think about it
I dont actually understand this
When you reach anything
i'll tell yo
Byeee
Idk how 😢
I'm thinking about a dumb generalization of metric spaces where instead of real numbers, the set of distances is a set D, equipped with an arbitrary relation ("less than or equal to"), a bottom element ("zero") that relates to every other element on the left, and a binary operation (for defining the triangle inequality). I can define convergence, show constant sequences converge, show a sequence converges iff. every subsequence converges, define the discrete metric when D={0,1}, and turn it into a topological space by taking the generating set to be the "open balls", but that's about it.
If you have a quotient map X -> Y, is it like X / ~ with ~ being x = y if phi(x)=phi(y), and give quotient topology to it makes X / ~ homeomorphic to Y?
if it's surjective i think yes
Yeah quotient map defined to be surjective in munkres
Yup
less than or equal to has to be total order. otherwise triangle inequality may not hold in all cases
Im pretty stuck on showing the maps are continuous still
For R2 \ ~ -> s1xs1 I showed R2 -> s1 x s1 is continuous by showing that the map to the individual factors are continuous, and then use universal property to see the quotient map version is cts
But showing S1 x S1 to R2 / ~ is cts i dont know how
Or showing the original thing is an open map
incase of finite fields vector subspaces of an NLS are bounded subsets
or does that even make sense ?
One idea could be to show that R^2/~ is compact, for example by showing that it is homeomorphic to [0, 1]^2/~
dunno how easy that is though
Yeah, ive seen arguments like this online but it seems suspect to throw that in
He did no such thing in lectures
it's just the closed map lemma, so it shouldn't be too far-fetched
it's IMO the nicest lemma in basic topology
True but I wouldnt have come up with that myself yk
wait, what theorem are u even referring to? continuous bijection X compact Y Hausdorff implies map is homeomorphism?
is what i wrote even correct lol, been a while
maps into products can be checked to be continuous by checking each factor, what about maps from out of products?
no such simplification ?
is the map ((cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t)) -> (cos(pi t), sin(pi t)) From S1 to S1 easily seen to be continuous and open?
Like i just said it is in my homework cause like damn idk going through the nitty details of what open sets look like here just seems annoying
yep, a continuous map f from X compact to Y hausdorff is closed, and in particular if f is bijective then it is a homeomorphism
oh, closed sets in compact spaces are compact, and compact sets in hausdorff spaces are closed
i would like to not use this though
I'm not the best person to ask, but I think in general there's no easy way to check. I don't think (cos(2pi t), sin(2pi t) -> (cos(pi t), sin(pi t) is open, as it maps S^1 to a half-open circle in the upper plane
for 0 <= t < 1 right
poo
yeah, you would need the restriction 0 <= t < 1, otherwise the map is not well-defined
btw, maybe it is possible conclude R^2/Z^2 =~ S1 x S1 by using R/Z =~ S1 somehow? For example, is R^2/Z^2 isomorphic to R/Z x R/Z?
But it sends open proper subsets of S1 to opens in S1 right
would maximality be something like this?
X = (-1,1) cup (5, 15)
subset of R
would (-1,1) and (5,15) be maximal sets
since theyre the largest contained sets in R
and each point in each of these sets will be connected through their unions?
Yes. When talking about sets, a maximal set M with property BLAH is a set such that if there's another set with property BLAH and M ⊆ S then S ⊆ M.
is the blah a fill in the blank for me?
Yeah, whatever you want.
The idea of "maximal" is something you can frame generically in any partial order.
Let (P, ≤) be a partial order. Let C ⊆ P some subset of elements in C (these are the ones with the property we're interested in).
An element m ∈ C is maximal if s ∈ C and m ≤ s implies s ≤ m.
Here the partial order is (P(X), ⊆), where P(X) is the power set of X, and C ⊆ P(X) is the collection of all connected subsets of X.
ah okay this makes sense, it hits my intution, but i just want to verify it 🙂
A maximal element might not exist.
For example, look at ℝ and let C be the set of all compact subsets of ℝ. ℝ itself isn't compact, but given any compact subset X ⊆ ℝ I can always find a strictly larger compact subset containing X.
Hence the need for 11.G, to show that every point is inside at least one maximal connected subset.
thats very interesting actually
Thank you very much cufflink 🙂
thats a beautifiul example btw
Also, don't think the connected components have to be open intervals.
Modifying your example, this space has two closed connected components:
X = [-1, 1] ∪ [5,15]
Last thing. One relevant theorem is that a space X is connected if and only if it has exactly two subsets that are both open and closed (aka clopen): the empty set ∅ and the whole space X, which are both clopen in any space.
If a subset S ⊆ X is both closed and open then X\S is also closed and open. They're always disjoint, simply as sets, which means
X = S ∪ (X\S)
is a decomposition of X into two disjoint open subsets.
So if you're looking for connected components it can help to look for non-trivial clopen subsets.
so if i have [-1,1] as X and I set S equal to {1} then i got a clopen set, which is then also connected?
No, {1} is not open in [-1,1].
[-1,1] is connected, so that theorem says the only clopen subsets are all of [-1,1] and the empty set.
But look at something like X = [-1,1] ∪ [10, 15].
[-1,1] is both closed and open in X.
Or if you want a single point to be open (in the subspace topology), look at a space like
X = {-2} ∪ [10, 15]
A space is always clopen in itself. Subsets of a space may be closed, open, neither, or both.
ah!! i understand i think now
X is open based on its topology. and its closed if its compliment is the empty set which is closed
A topology is defined in terms of open sets and one condition is that a topology on X includes both X and ∅ as open sets.
If ∅ is open then its complement in X is closed, but that's all of X.
If X is open then its complement in X is closed, but that's the empty set ∅.
So that part just follows from how we define topologies. Every topological space X has at least two clopen subsets: X and ∅.
It has exactly two if and only if its connected.
beautiful
Are all interior points limit points?
Well maybe If X = {1} U [2,3] and consider A = {1} then A is open so 1 is an interior point but its not a limit point of A?
Well a better example is probably X = {0,1} U [2,3] then A = {0,1} is open but we can see 0 and 1 are not limit points
I think 1 is still a limit point of A, because in this example the only open set that contains 1 is {1} and clearly {1} intersects with A,
Limit point x in A is if every open set containing x intersects A-{x}
And here, 0 and 1 are interior points?
Thats also not true. There are other open sets that contain 1 that are not {1}
Yes because {0,1} is open, so everything in that set is interior points
Ohhhhh
So then . . . can I say no interior point of A is a limit point because there is always an open set u that is a subset of A (aka it does not intersect X - A) ?
Example?
Wait,
The whole set itself,
Is open and contains 1, yeah makes sense,
Right yes yes,
In that example before, 1 is not a limit point because open sets containing 1 does not intersect A - {1}
But i think this example is better to look at
Are we constricting ourselves to the subspace A or do we look at the whole X? . . . If we only look at A, the ofcourse and open sets of A does not intersect X-A, where would make no point a limit point? . . . But if we look at all X, then the open set (1/2, 3/2) contains 1 and intersects X - A, so how can 1 not be limit point?
For a subset A < X, x in A is a limit point of A if every open set containing x intersects A-{x}
In that example, there are open sets contaning 1 that do not intersect A-{1}, like that case is even worse because every open set containing 1 does not intersect A-{1}... because A-{1} is just empty
You dont look if it intersects the complement of A
So why are u looking at X-A
U dont look at X-A
And because litterally any other open set that is not {1} doesn’t contain 1, 1 is not a limit point,
?
A is just {1} so A-{1} is empty
so of course any open set containing 1 isnt gonna intersect A-{1}
so 1 is an interior point of A (bc {1} is an open set) but 1 is not a limit point of A
i like this example better
And here, 0 and 1 are not limit points because there is an open set that contains 1 but does not intersect A - {1} (same with 0) . . . Is that set {1}? Why is {1} open?
sure, that set could be {1} but also {1} U [2,2.5)
u should review subspace topology
{1} is open because {1} = (-0.5,0.5) intersect X
this is all subspace topology stuff
definition of subspace topology
Share the definitions of "interior point" and "limit point" that you're working from.
Why is the intersection not (0, 0.5) ?
Yes yes I should,
it could be different things that was just an example showing {1} is open
oh
well that intersection is just {1} cause X = {0,1} U [2,3]
Ahh wait, {0, 1} is just point 0 and 1,
I read that as the interval of 0 to 1 my bad,
Yes yes,
Okay got it got it makes sense,
So intuitively it just point that are “alone” (do not belong to interval) that can be interior but not limit points?
In this video the concept of limit/accumulation points is introduced.
^ from here ^
^ where I (wrongly) generalized that a limit point p of an arbitrary topology is when there is an open set that that contains p that intersects with A (when it should intersect with A - {p}, otherwise the weird lonely points like {1} would be limit points).
That first definition is not the usual definition of limit point. It implies every element of M is a limit point.
It's what is sometimes called an "adherent point".
A limit point has the additional condition that every neighborhood of x doesn't just contain some element of M, but that it contains an element other than x.
Because if x is in M then every open ball around x contains an element of M, namely x itself.
So the definition is that x is a limit point of M if every open set containing x also contains an element m of M, with m != x
As a side note, I think when working with closures/closed sets, thinking in terms of adherent points is often preferable to thinking in terms of bona fide limit points, since the specific distinction involved in being a limit point is often completely irrelevant to the proof.
Okay okay, so my open ball must contain an element of M that is not x, otherwise every point in M would be a limit point, including the single points like {1},
But in practice I can just use adherent points (where x can be said element of M),
Got it got it, thank you all so much 🧡
Annoying terminology. Its normally the other way around! Haha.
But yes, it's trying to account for isolated points because every point in a set is a limit point under this definition.
alr
As Cufflink points out, most authors define limit point as one that satisfies definition 2.2.23, and points satisfying 2.2.1 are called adherent points. I wouldn't call the definition you posted wrong, because it does show up in literature, but it's worth keeping in mind that in other texts "limit point" is very likely to be one satisfying 2.2.23 (and also that the distinction between 2.2.1 and 2.2.23 only occasionally matters)
noted
In particular the statement "a set is closed if and only if it contains all its limit points" works for both defintions of "limit point", as does "the closure of a set is the union of itself and all its limit points"
what about the closeness of G ?
can we create something like a subgroup in the rationals, then take a sequence converging outside of it
(namely the important angles in unit circles are irrational)
but i would love to get an argument via preimage of cont maps, if thats desireable
Prove that if A is a proper nonempty subset of a connected space, then FrA!=∅.
so i was thinking something like this here. If As boundry is empty, then well A is open, but its also closed since it contains all of its boundry points right? This then would be a contradiction to the fact that X is connected since X and the empty set are the only ones allowed to be clopen?
Suppose the closure isnt connected.
then U cup V is the closure of A
then that means the the boundry of fr A = (Fr A cap U) cup (FrA cap V)
now since the boundry is connected, as per the question, this implies that one of these intersections is empty.
without loss of generality let (FrA cap U) be empty. Thus we have a set U that is open, since it contains no boundry points, and closed since it contains all its boundry points. This contradicts that its part of an larger connected space, and thus is the boundry is connected, then also is the closure.
I suppose X is hausdorff here, then for every point x,y in X, they are separated by open sets U and V. Since X has cofinite topology, then X-U, X-V is finite as well, but it contradicts that X is infinite. Am I right?
How does it contradict that X is infinite?
I mean if U is an open set that contains x, then X-U is finite. and since U is a finite set( in hausdorff, every pair of points can be seprated by open sets, so I just let U only contains x), but X-U is not finite because X is infinite, hence it contradicts.
But how can you choose U open set such that U contains only x ?
How you will argue this question?
The only thing I can come up with is to point out X hausdorff here will make X finite as my purpose
Say there exists non-empty set U and V such that U cap V is empty, then I can write X = X - U cup X-V.
But X-U and X-V is finite implies X is finite.
Yes, but you have to say why. Let's prove the contrapositive: every Hausdorff space with the cofinite topology is finite.
\\
Let $X$ have the cofinite topology and assume it is Hausdorff. Pick $u,v \in X$ and separate them by disjoint open sets $U$ and $V$. In general, if $U \cap V = \emptyset$ we can write $X$ as \begin{align*}X &= X \setminus \emptyset \ &= X \setminus \left(U \cap V\right) \&= (X \setminus U) \cup (X \setminus V)\end{align*}
But if $X$ has the cofinite topology then $X \setminus U$ and $X \setminus V$ are both finite, which means $X$ is also finite.
Cufflink
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Yes
Just take the closed unbounded sets in R
for the proof?
how do i even start this
So are you working in metric space?
If yes then you can use sequential compactness
yeah
You know the sequential compactness?
Every sequence has a convergent subsequence which has a limit in that subset.
If K is a compact subset in metric space X then every sequence in K has subsequence which is convergent in K.
do we use this theorem?
Yes
Take x_n in K_n
x_n in A_n
Now use that
To show the intersection is non-empty
Can you guess which point must be in intersection?
null set?
No you have to show intersection is non-empty
Let x_n in A_n, so your sequence is {x_1, x_2,...,x_n,...} where x_1 is from A_1, x_2 is from A_2,....
Now (x_n) is a sequence in A_1, correct?
So it has convergent subsequence which is convergent in A_1, say limit is x
we need to show that x is in that set?
Which set? Intersection
yeah
I used A_1 is compact so x in A_1
Yes we need to show x is in the intersection
Now that subsequence, if x_1 occur in that subsequence remove it, remaining subsequence is convergent to x and sequence in A_2, so x in A_2
Here I used that compact space is closed
so can we keep doing this so that x is in all of them?
Yes
If you are not comfortable in this method, there are other methods too
i get it
Finite Intersection Property
This one is generalization and equivalent to compact definition
In general topology, a branch of mathematics, a non-empty family A of subsets of a set
X
{\displaystyle X}
is said to have the finite intersection property (FIP) if the intersection over any finite subcollection of
A
{\displaystyle A}
is non-empty. It has the...
ill check that out, thanks
So decreasing sequence follows FIP
how about c and d?
if f and g are continuous and H(x) = G(f(x), g(x)) where G is continuous is it the case that H is continuous
yeah in product top
ok cool thanks
c is closed, take the convergent sequence in that set and shows that it is convergent in that set
d is open, think about interior points, for each point you can choose the radius around it such that the entire open ball contained in given set
Z[sqrt2] dense in R
well should i treat this as a ring
still im only converging to zero
i dont like the epsilson arguemnt here
the next generalisation is density of Z[a] in R
$\mathbb Z$, $\sqrt 2 \mathbb Z$ are closed\
but $\mathbb Z[\sqrt2]$
is dense in $\mathbb R$
yeshua
if it was closed and dense it'd have to be the space itself, which it is clearly not
oh, my bad. I misread and thought you said Z[√2] was closed
hi point-set-topology! today i just read something that blew my mind from wikipedia
apparently Z with the Furstenberg topology is homeomorphic to the rationals as a subset of the reals with the usual topology
the Furstenberg topology being the topology on Z generated by the basis of arithmetic progressions {an+b | n in Z} for integers a, b (a nonzero)
does anyone know how to construct the homeomorphism? (googlr isnt being helpful)
The more I stare at this the more my head hurts
The proofs I could find for them being homeomorphic is quite far from being constructive.
So I'm assuming any explicit construction must be absolutely horrible
Can someone help me with part(b)? and what does the set of all sequences that are eventually 0 mean here?
what is the complement of the solid torus in S^3
Another solid torus
xd
What if it's knotted 
what are some examples of interesting (whatever that means to the reader) adjunction spaces?
I'm just looking for some examples to keep in mind as I go forwards
how do u picture this
I have a disk, 2 open sets U, V on its boundary, 2 points x, y on the disk. Can I always find 2 open sets in the disk, one containing x and having exactly boundary U, the other containing y and having exactly boundary V?
It sounds true but i have actually 0 idea how to show that rigorously
Wdym by "on its boundary'
well ig id have to consider the disk as a manifold
This sounds impossible unless U = V = disk as V would be open and closed
Well
Sure, manifold w boundary
But uh yeah
Do you mean U and V are open subsets of the boundary
yes
Okay that was unclear lol
sry about that
But yeah you'll have U and V closed and open
If they are boundaries of smth else then they are closed
And I didn't use that
oh right
It's just if V is the boundary of smth else then V is closed
thats just the topology
woops
Isn’t this red set open
im not sure i understand why its not true
The like big thing or the bit on the boundary
Oh
You still mean boundary in the sense of manifolds for that open subset
OK then yes sure
Again sry for the lack of clarity lol
You can just like radially scale or whatever
Like e.g. consider the segment you get from that open arc
(And remove the centre)
this type of property is not true for all manifolds right
and right that does make sense
thx a lot
Hm not sure
Though note that when you say manifold that means no boundary by default
do we say like manifold with boundary?
Ye
ah fair enough
do we require compactness on manifolds
or can they extend infinitely
i think compactness is only assumed if we say its closed, but i forgot exact nomenclature
bumping this
I’m a bit lost at how to understand the nhood of the vertex here. I’m fairly confident this isn’t a surface but I have trouble showing the vertex cannot have a nhood in R^2 or R_+^2
I tried to glue and going from sides to sides, but I don’t really understand what’s going on honestly
What if you pick a point on the edge instead?
(That's actually the same as picking a vertex)
3 cones? 
well idk like i dont get where it should get glued first
I mean just a small nbhd of the point
Vertices are the same
So is this the picture then
You can apply a homeomorphism to this diagram
right i get its a homeomorphism
Gluing the blue arrows is the same as gluing the red arrows
So edge point and vertex are literally the same
well they have similar nhood yeah
So nbhd of vertex is this too
well i feel like 3 semidisks at an edge cant be similar to a nhood of a plane or half plane if thats what youre getting at
Yea
hm yeah, its just hard to tell becauses surfaces can bend weirdly
but it sounds right
thx
I guess one way to prove this would be to apply invariance of domain on two disks glued at an edge
continous maps in from MnR to MnR
how do i think about the open ball?
do i have to rely upon a metric ?
also is there any expmple of discontinous map in this space
As a space MnR is just R^n^2, so just think about it in the same way you would R^n
oh right, sequence and open ball both
Two lines attached along their endpoints are a circle, two disks attached along their boundaries are a sphere (this generalizes)
Not sure if that answers your question... Attaching doesnt really do anything pathological unless you put weird spaces in.
if only
glues two real lines together by their rational points
I guess you could say that the rational numbers are weird tbf
not being locally compact and all that
still, I think having the spaces in the adjunction be nice still gives your gluing maps plenty of room to be pathological
Fair enough
The integral of 1/x is Ln|x| + c
The domain of 1/x is not connected, since it cannot take a value at 0. IE, (-inf, 0) union (0, inf).
Thus, by the def of a map being locally constant, this means that we can have 4 + ln(x) for x in (0, inf). Then we could have -14 + ln(x) for x in (-inf, 0) and the derivative of this still gets you 1/x.
Even more interesting is that this can be generalized further: Locally constant functions are a vector space of dimension c, where c is the number of connected componets. The basis of this vector space is the characteristic function which is 1 on given component and 0 on another.
so my question is does this mean that the + c in integration is realted to localy constant functions?
sorry i know its a calculus question more maybe?
but i came across the idea doing topology tbh
Yea this is related to de Rham cohomology
The differential map (f → df) is a linear map from the R-vector space of 0-forms (smooth functions) on the smooth manifold (-∞,0) ∪ (0,∞) to the R-vector space of 1-forms (smooth function * dx)
The kernel of this map is the vector space of locally constant functions
It's called the 0th de Rham cohomology group
okay thats a lot for me to read, ive never seen this before 😛
One can prove that de Rham cohomology groups agree with singular cohomology groups, so this is indeed related to a topological property of the domain
does this kinda explain why you add c? because you can get a lot of different splits of domains on R?
If the domain is connected, that means locally constant functions are just constant functions C
But if the domain is split in 2, locally constant functions can be + C for < 0 and + D for > 0, for instance
So you can see the dimension of this kernel reflects the number of topological components
okay, i think i understand. yeah i just made a simple example when i was reading this because 1/x has a simple split domain and this whole thing came up. so when they teach you that its just ln|x| + c, its in a way wrong since you could have two different constants
and then i went well if you have more connected sets, then youre gonna have more of this
its good to hear that my intuion was correct
and its related to something ive never seen before haha
Algebraic topology is fun
lemme get through regular topology first
We eagerly await the day of your enlightenment
Thanks! have a good day 🙂
I am wondering. Could i just apply the intermediate value theorm and say that on [0,1] there is some f(x), then its connected. and then being a path is a continous map, then if the domain is continous, so is the image.
Write it as a countable union of open sets
take x to be a point in S where S is the set from that question, take the union of another point?
Idk what you mean
how do i write it as a countable union of open sets?
Hint: the set for R^1 is U_i (i,i+1)
😭
Basically you're taking the union of everything in between the integers
i dont think my prof covered that 😭
all i know is that the defn of open sets is that there exists an open ball that is completely inside the open set
Ah okay
Okay so
The idea is that like
I'm trying to describe what this space looks like as best I can
i dont understand what the space with no integers looks like, is it just filled with gaps like swiss cheese?
You take R^n but you throw out all the hyperplanes parallel to the coordinate hyperplanes that pass through a point with at least one integer entry
if so, we just have to take an open ball placed at the edge of an integer, if there exists an episilon that is greater than 0, the ball wont be contained inside
Think of this space like a bunch of little n-dimensional boxes with edges of length 1
If you pick a point in this space it'll be in one of the little boxes
So you just have to see which edge it's closest to and pick a ball of size less than that distance
how do i show that mathematically?
take a point in your set x = (x1, ..., xn)
Take the distance of each coordinate to the nearest integer
Take the minima of all these distances
This is the distance from your point to the nearest point containing an integer (show this)
Take a ball less than this distance
Show my minimality there are no points with an integer coordinate inside this ball
what is f^-1 here? it isn't the inverse mapping, since the inverse may not be defined; is it a function from Y to the quotient set Y / ker f (with fibers identified)?
We first note that $f^{-1}$ has domain $Y$ and codomain $Y / \text{ker}(f)$. Hence we actually have the composition
[Y \xrightarrow{f^{-1}} Y / \text{ker}(f) \xrightarrow{h} Z]
so is this true?
okeyokay
yeah i was able to figure it out
can somebody help me see this? here X / A is the quotient space obtained by identifying all the points of A (and everything else is a singleton)
this amounts to showing that h(x) = h(A) for every x not in A right
nope
it's probably simpler than you think - what are the fibers of that map X → X/A? ||A itself and a bunch of singletons||, right?
it's easy to see that h is constant on each of those if it is constant on A
yea my brain was fried at this point
thank you lol
What is the difference between R^inf and R^omega typically?
is it that R^inf has only finitely many non zero entries
I wouldn't call either of those well-defined without further context
Munkres
He'll define them specifically somewhere.
can somebody explain to me how corollary 1.9 shows that varphi is continuous
is it because $\varphi = h\upsilon^{-1}$? then $\upsilon$ is an identification if we give $X / \text{ker}(h)$ the quotient topology, but this also requires that $h$ is constant on each fiber of $\upsilon$
okeyokay
and i know this looks like the previous remark, but ker h isn't a subset of X
by constant on each fiber you mean h(v^{-1}({[x]})) = z' for all [x] in X / A right
in other words the image of each of the fibers is the same point in z
it's not the same point for each fiber - but each fiber gets mapped to a single point, yes
or in other words, whenever you restrict v to a fiber, that restriction is constant
oh okay, i was mixing up my definition then
also do you know why this holds?
nvm
i think i got it
I don't know what they mean by identification - presumably what others call a quotient map?
ah, good
To see that $\varphi$ is continuous, note that $\varphi = h\upsilon^{-1}$ where $\upsilon: X \to X / \text{ker}(h)$ is the natural projection. In other words, the following diagram commutes:
[\begin{tikzcd}
X && Z \
\
& {X / \text{ker}(h)}
\arrow["h"', from=1-1, to=1-3]
\arrow["\upsilon", from=1-1, to=3-2]
\arrow["\varphi", from=3-2, to=1-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
Now $\upsilon$ is an identification since $X / \text{ker}(h)$ (presumably) has the quotient topology. Also, for each $[x] \in X / \text{ker}(h)$,
[h\bigl(\upsilon^{-1}\bigl({[x]}\bigl)\bigl) = h\bigl(h^{-1}({x})\bigl) = x] by the definition of $\text{ker}(h)$ (and using the fact that $h$ is surjective). Thus Corollary 1.9 applies and $\varphi$ is continuous.
okeyokay
What a headache
yes
had to break out the commutative diagrams for this one
Sorry guys but can an open set has a closure? I get confuse by the definition of closure of any subset$A$ of a topological space $X$ is the least closed set contained $A$. Thanks for the response!
Tanxs
Every set has a closure, including open sets. For example, the closure of (0, 1) is [0, 1]
yep. the closure is the smallest closed set containing A, and you can always construct it by taking the intersection of all closed sets that contain A
since arbitrary intersections of closed sets are closed
Why couldn't O have boundary points in X besides itself?
Is there an assumption you haven't stated?
Like if X is the space of real numbers and O is (0, 1) then it's closure is [0, 1], i.e. O plus it's boundary {0, 1}
My fault I thought I delet already but it did not! The question solved once I realize this will be a issue when the space $X$ is connected.
Tanxs
Nope, I think I get confused by the definition of closure, it did not require set $O$ to has an boundary point as it element (which caused the question asked because open set contains none of it boundary point).
Tanxs
If S is closed in X and int(T) is empty then why must int(S u T) = int(S)
**int is the interior and u is union
If U is an open subset of S u T, I need to show U is contained in S / does not intersect T
Now I’m stuck
Consider U \ S
Does anyone here know anything about the Ellentuck topology? I just learned about it and it seems very interesting. The space is the set of countable infinite sets of natural numbers and the open sets are those that can be defined as follows. Take a finite set $s$ of natural numbers and an infinite set $x$ of whole numbers such that $max(s) < min(x)$. The open set corresponding to this would be the set of infinite sets of whole numbers $z$ such that $s \subseteq z \subseteq s \cup x$ It has the neat property that a set is nowhere dense iff it is completely Ramsey null, and has the Baire property iff it is completely Ramsey. I wonder what other interesting or cursed properties it has. Not sure where to put this.
θωθ^-1
would [0,1] -> S1 : t -> cos(2pit) + sin(2pit) make a path connected curve for the circle?
no its (cos(2pit), sin(2pit))
this is a parametrization of the circle
the continuous image of anything path connected is path connected
well yes, i agree its the parameterization of the circle, but its important to define this i believe right if i wanted ot actually prove it.
and i can use this to say that S^n is path connected whenever n > 0 right
no ur using that [0,1] is path connected
yes, but you have to have a function that maps [0,1] to S^1
yeah which is what u have no?
yes i do? haha im sorry
because like if this was [0,1] to R^n i would have t: (1-t)x_i + ty_i
ah no shit i see what you mean, since [0,1] is path connected, then the image will be as well
Thank you for that bit of knoweldge 😛 its like regular connected
yw
I just want to check the quick fact: Let A in X be a subspace. Then if x in cl(A) (closure of A), then any neighborhood of x contains some point a in A? is this correct? what other facts do we also have
yeah with a not being = x
every nbd meets A in a point other than x
that's what it means for x to be a limit point
the clossure is the union of the set with its limit points
thx for ur clarification
yw lancer evo!
Let $f: X \rightarrow Y$ be a continunous function. Let X be separable. How can I show that f(X) is also separable?
Gapi
try considering f(A), where A is a countable dense subset of X. Let U be open in f(X). Then...?
then $f^{-1}\left( U \right)$ is open in X.
Gapi
...then?
there is only O(1) things to try
also (sorry for interrupting Gapi - dm me if your question is swept away) i have a question of my own:
Are there any compact topological spaces with an uncountable collection of disjoint open sets? (i.e. does compactness imply the Souslin property?)
Then $A \cap f^{-1}\left( U \right)$ is not empty and it is countable
Gapi
Then $f \left( A \cap f^{-1}\left( U \right) \right)$ is countable
Gapi
but what now?
sure
none of them are metrizable of course because souslin implies separable there
First uncountable ordinal + 1
or take [0; 1] in some high degree, that should also work
countable
high meaning at least bigger than 2^omega
so 2^2^omega works I think
wait actually no, Hewitt Marcewski Pondiczery implies that it doesnt work
does beta (discrete space of cardinality 2^omega) work i wonder
yeah it works unless im missing something
Hey, in the standard topology on R how would you prove that the closure of [a,b) = [a,b]? Ive solved problems similar to this one in different ways but none of them are formal and precise enough for me and I can’t figure it out. Appreciate all the help
I mostly used the fact that closure of A is the smallest closed set containing A
hm. you have shown that for any open set U of f(X), U intersect f(A) is nonempty.
But Id like to do it using the formal definition
thank you!
wait actually im not sure how this would work? can't you take the open cover consisting of all the singletons?
is b a limit point of [a,b)?
let p<a. is p a limit point of [a,b)?
let q>b. is q a limit point of [a,b)?
and do what with it
...oh
So basically I say that [a,b] is the closure then show that any closed set that contains [a,b) must contain b aswell?
if you want to be formal here i think "the closure of A is A union all of A's limit points" is better / easier to work with than "the closure of A is the smallest closed set containing A", so maybe try to think in that direction
I dont think we had limit points introduced or Im just not familiar with the name in english. Our definition of a closure was the union of all closed sets containing A
wait so how did you define closed sets
so f(A) is therefore dense in f(X). Thank you
I've just realised that the triangle inequality is actually more important for metrics than I thought
it means that for a point P in an r-ball around O, the (r-d(O,P))-ball around P is a subset of it, because
d(X,P) < r-d(O,P) -> d(X, O) <= d(X,P) + d(P, O) < r - d(O,P) + d(O,P) = r
yea triangle inequality is indispensable
im unsure of how to even do this proof honestly? if its path connected, then for x1, x2 in A s(0) = x1 and s(1) =x2 thus obviuosly s(I) is a subset of A and are connected path
so A being path-connected means for any two points x, y in A there’s a continuous map (in the subspace topology) s : [0, 1] -> A joining s(0) = x to s(1) = y
does the latter statement imply this?
and does this imply the latter as well?
yes, i mean obvioulsy so to me?
we pretty much wrote the same thing above. i can see though how this is in the subspace topology though
yea it’s not supposed to be hard, just being careful about what is taken with respect to what
okay i skipped ahead and did the proof that showed that is X is path-connected then is Y, so thats prob why im overthinking this.
here, would the fibers of just be S^n x {1}, and every singleton in S^n x I \ S^n x {1}?
What is CX? The cone over X?
yea, i was able to show that it's a homeomorphism
How is point set topology? I am considering taking a course for it, but I am uncertain about what it is like.
I wouldn't take a course in it. I learn it as I need it for more interesting things.
Interesting, why wouldn’t you take a course for it?
bruh is that Janich
what are the more interesting things that use topology?
I don't think janich's examples look like that unless I'm looking at a different book
Functional analysis, algebraic topology, algebraic geometry, differential topology, more stuff probably
I would definitely take a course in it. Topology is so fundamental, so it's nice to get a thorough introduction to it
But I guess it depends on what you intend to study later, some subjects need it more than others
analysis, including PDEs, differential geometry, probability theory, statistics.
how does probability theory use topology? thats interesting
Thanks for your input. To be honest, I definitely don’t need it, but I am just weighing my options as to what is the most interesting to me.
Metric spaces and functional analysis are generally sufficient, but you need to know some general topology for functional analysis. See https://link.springer.com/book/10.1007/978-3-031-29040-4 to see it in action.
functional 
nah it's rotman
can I get a hint on part b. im not totally sure where to start
Take a countable base for X, it will be of the form {Bn | n natural}, now for every n chose an element xn in Bn. Consider D={xn | n natural}, this will be your dense subset.
holy shit
i had that written down on my pape r
and i crossed it out
💀
THANK U bruh
Good luck haha
hopefully there wasnt apush hw
cuz i been doing math for like 2 hours
fuck it we ball
And another thing, for this to work every Bn has to be non empty, so you have to exclude the Bn’s that are empty
what's required for a real-valued continuous function to not have any "holes" in its range? (ie. if f:X to R is continuous for a topological space, are there any "nice" properties that prevent f from not attaining values in [a,b] but with values both >b and <a?)
like, if X=R, there aren't any holes. If X is the trivial topology, then any function is continuous, so you can easily make holes. If X is the discrete topology, then only constant functions are continuous, so there aren't any holes. Is there a middle ground that makes it true?
i would assume connected and locally connected topologies
Connected suffices
I am not sure about what the closure of A looks like.
But I think closed sets are a form of R, an empty set, (-∞, a].
And closure of A is intersection of all closed sets containing A
Yes
You can pick your favorite set A and work out an example
Set of natural numbers are dense in this topology
Finite sets are not closed in this topology
Yup
Say -N, so closure of -N is (-∞, -1]
Yea
But how can I generalize this ?
Do you know what a supremum is
Yes I thought about it
So if sup A exists then closure of A is (-∞, sup A), in this case sup A is not in A
If it is in A then (-∞, sup A]
And if sup A does not exist then A is dense
Is (-∞, supA) closed
No😕
Say A = (0,1) then sup A = 1
Closure of A is (-∞,1], because 1 in cl A
If I take any open set containing 1 the it is form of R or (1-e, ∞) so by sup A it is intersect with A
Thank you @red yoke 
$\overline{A} = {x \in \mathbb{R} \mid \forall a < x, , A \cap (a, \infty) \neq \emptyset }$
yeshua
does this get a pass ?
so convergence of a sequence here secures UC so there is nothing to say anymore right ?
now what if the norm is L_1
is the map still continous ?
are metric spaces compactly generated?
or do you have to assume locally compact or smth
to which my answer is
yeshua
am i wrong in my arguments ?
yes
you dont need metric, being first countable is enough
I've been trying to learn about Topology, but the difference between Open and Closed sets has me stumped. They say that an open set U of superset X does not include the boundary of U, but how does U not have a boundary? Isn't a boundary inherent to an interval/area/volume? Or is it that U does have a boundary, but that boundary is not part of the set U?
It's that U doesn't contain any part of its boundary.
For example, say X is the real line and U is the open interval (0, 1). Then the boundary of U consists of the two points 0 and 1, neither of which are in U.
Conversely the closed interval [0, 1] has the same boundary, but this time the set contains it's boundary
Ah okay, so it's not that it doesn't have a boundary, just that the set does not contain it. Thank you
It can happen that a set doesn't have a boundary, in which case it's both open and closed (because it both contains all of and none of its boundary)
For example the empty set is such a set
And then (1, 3] would be neither open nor closed, because it contains half of its boundary?