#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 107 of 1
I am trying to show product of two connected spaces is connected. I was able to show it by contradiction when X x Y = (U1 x V1) union (U2 x V2) is a disjoint union of opens in X x Y that make up X x Y, but I am having trouble when going to general case of some arbitrary open set in X x Y
When X x Y = (unions of some Ui x Vi) union (unions of some Uj x Vj)
X x Y = (U1 x V1) union (U2 x V2) is a highly unusual way to write the product, since purely as sets you need very specific U1, U2, V1, V2 to have a decomposition like this
Either U1 = X and V1 = Y, or U1=U2=X and the V1 u V2 = Y
Or the equivalent statements for the other way around
I think a better place to start whether you have any intuition for why the result is even true
Alternatively, if you have any intuition for why the product of path connected spaces is path connected, and perhaps see if that argument can be generalised in any way
I was just trying to be like: if X x Y was not connected then it is a disjoint union of open sets
And I just took U1 x V1 and U2 x V2 to be the disjoint open sets
But yeah, youre right i dont really have much intuition rn for why its true. I feel like whenever i see product topology im not really sure how to intuitively think of the topology of it
I mean, the obvious place to start with intuition is R^2
specifically the open balls induced by the 1-norm |(x,y)| = |x|+|y| are squares, which are basic opens in the product topology on RxR
Yeah
I guess I just get uncomfortable with how not every open set in the product can be like “open cross open”
But yes even earlier today i realized not even every subset can be written like “subset cross subset” anyway
Try prove (or at least justify) that a square is connected (taking for granted that an interval is connected). In particular pay attention to what subsets of the square you know are connected
And then see what you can generalise to a general product of topological spaces
A square is connected considered in the subspace topology from R^2?
Actually it's easy to prove that the product of path connected spaces is path connected, though this might not help you generalize.
Isn't that the converse of what you're trying to show? For the contrapositive I think you should assume either X or Y is disconnected, then show that X x Y is disconnected. In this case I find it easier to write the separation as a clopen set U instead of two disjoint open sets U and V
Is there an easy example of a continuous bijective function that isn't a homomorphism?
yes, although I now realise I shouldprobaby clarify I mean the inside as well (like a disc, not a circle), so that this is the same topology as the product topology of I x I where I is the interval [0,1] (or really any interval will do)
another example if you choose the correct domain:
yet another example could be seen from the fact that any function into a set with the indiscrete / trivial topology is continuous, but very few functions out of it are continuous. So the function f(x)=x considered as going from a set with a nontrivial topology to the same set with the indiscrete topology would be continuous, bijective, but with discontinuous inverse (this generalises to whenever the codomain has a coarser topology on the same set as the domain)
Proving this square is connected using the fact that [0,1] is connected?
if Y is the one point compactification of X, is the subspace topology of X the same as the topology of X?
yes
X should get embedded into its one point compactification
e.g., open unit interval gets embedded into S^1, the open unit square gets embedded into S^2
alright thx
Hello, I'm looking for references describing topologies on natural numbers? I'm wondering if these even have any interesting properties?
Topologies on countable sets can be interesting, sure. There's the discrete topology, cofinite topology, the topology of the rationals (fun fact, by the way, metrizable, countable metric spaces without isolated points are all homeomorphic to Q!), and I'm sure various others that don't come to mind immediately
The p-adic topologies are very interesting
If you don't impose conditions you will have many uninteresting topologies, so you should narrow it a bit, imo
Furstenberg topology
p adic topology is just a cantor space topologically though
and definitely not countable
I guess it's worth mentioning Ostrowski's theorem limits what properties your topologies can have to not being induced by an absolute value
is this essentially saying that (X, Sigma 1) has less open sets, meaning its coraser?
Therefore it may not seperate points from the interior vs the boundry as finly as (X, Sigma 2)?
Thus whats in the closure of A in (X, Sigma 1) >= closure A in (X, Sigma 2) since the open sets in (X, sigma 2) can seperate points further???
theres less open sets, so theres less closed sets?
so you can take an intersection further in (X, sigma 2) so its always gonna be equal or smaller
Yeah exactly
Your description is essentially the proof lol
You can also write it quite cleanly: note it is enough to show that Cl_1 A is closed in (X,omega_2) (why?)
because theres an open set thats the compliemnt of it in Omega_2?
Yes correct, I meant like why does that mean we're done? :)
ah i get it
i think hah
because CL2 is the smallest set containing A in omega 2
thus its has to be a subset of a bigger set IE CL1
Yes exactly
Smallest closed but ye
It's helpful to think of closures as the smallest closed thing containing it
Bit easier to work with
alrighty yeah i get it.
How do you determine which problems are important? im doing self study but i feel i get bogged down on trival problems sometimes.
how do you figure it out? im doing viros problem book
for example i dont know if this is important or not in the greater scope of topology
To be honest it is hard to know I'd say
unless you have already learnt the subject lol
True, True. oh well. ill keep pickin
But for the record like
This question is imo not very important for most users of pointset topology (including me) but is a fun thing to consider
The other you jusy did is good to know and a good exercise, like just helping develop intuition
good, i dont wanna think about how many different combinations of closure and interior i can do on a set hahaha
Yes
It is interesting one
Viro is good
yeah its a great book, its why im doing half a page to a page a day 🙂
If you want, I have one related article to it
go ahead
Yeah im having trouble with showing product of connected spaces is connected
Can I use this somehow?
And I am not doing 🥲
Yes I think
Any hint on how? Ive been strugglin
Let me see Munkres 🥲😂
Can I use the fact that union of connected is connected if they have nonempty intersection?
Actually this is important
Yeah can I write X x Y as union of Xy Yx kind of guys
Can you show that X × Y is a union of connected space such that they have a common point ?
I think so
If you can then you done it
This exercise shows you that Y_x is connected
Ya
For some x and y fixed, Xy and Yx share something so their union is connected
Then X x Y is just union of those guys over x in X and y in Y
Yes
But you have to show that every set has a common point, in case of fixed x and y you have different common point
X_a and X_b have no common point
Which book is that ?
This is my homework from class actually
But (Xa union Yb) and (Xc union Yd) have a common point right
So union of all (Xi union Yj) is X x Y
Which point ?
(Xi union Yj) unioned over all i in Y j in X?
But ( Xa union Yb) and (Xc union Yd) have no common point
Really?
Sorry I don't see, which one ?
(d, a) is in Xa and thats in Yd
Well they have a common point for the same reason that any Xi and Yj have a common point ..?
yes (j,i)
i think you are correct, now you can look at Munkres, there are same approach if you look at that you will understand why i am refer to Munkres
🫶
Stupid question: isn't (X \ U) x Y union U x Y equal to X x Y?
Yes it covers all X × Y
Showing R and R^n are not homeomorphic: my only thought is something to do with if u remove a point from R you get a disconnected space but if you remove a point from R^n its still connected:
so to prove it, can I suppose there is a homeomorphism, and then show that the image of R remove 0 must be disjoint opens that make up R^n{point removed} but thats not possible since R^n{point removed} is comnected
Okay, then I think it should be straightforward to prove your proposition by contrapositive @sonic crane. Assume WLOG that X is disconnected and prove that X x Y is disconnected
Yes idea is correct
The contrapositive is “if X x Y is not connected then X or Y is not connected”
Is that the same thing
omg, sorry, I had a brainfart
I thinj its not the same thing
Np
Ya i was gonna say yesterday i dont think thats the contrapositive lol
@sonic crane please verify that because there is a chance that I am wrong but I think you already verified it.
I am not talking about set theory stuff
Oh?
Hmm
Oh
Well we are using that union of connected spaces are connected if they all have some common point
Yes
Now I am sharing the idea which used in Munkres
So let T_x = X × {b} union {x} × Y then T_x is connected.
Then T_x over x in X is X × Y and they have a common point a × b.
Same idea
7b) is easy isnt it? f is continuous and {c} is closed in R so f^-1({c}) is closed ?
Is it that easy or am i missing something? Also i wouldve thought it connected to 7 a) or else why are the questions linked like that
Yes it is correct
You know 7 a, is pasting lemma.
Yea i saw it in munkres before too ha
I think there is a link
can i have a hint for showing that the closure of a connected subset A is connected
i'm assuming for contradiction that it's not connected so that I can write Abar = U u V for disjoint open sets
(with subspace topology on Abar)
if you have a family of connected subsets such that there is a subset A such that none of the others are separated with A, then their union is connected
in particular, take A and the set of singletons consisting of points that lie in the closure of A but not in A
wdym by separated with A
A and B are separated means neither contain points from the closure of the other
Dude i was just looking at that in my notes
And i was confused on my profs proof
I was literally just looking at this and also thinking about it lol
lol nice
we didn't even go over connectedness in this class
mf just put all theorems on a problem set
It is equivalent to disconnected space definition
@sonic crane X is disconnected if and only if there exists a continuous map from X onto {0,1}, two-point discrete space.
its not
If A is connected then every continuous mapping from A to {0,1} is constant
In metric space?
its a definition about a pair of sets, not about a space
But if A and B are separated then A U B is disconnected
Let $(X, \mathcal{T})$ be a topological space. We first show that if $A$ is a connected subspace of $X$ and $A \subset B \subseteq \overline{A}$, then $B$ is connected. From this, it will follow that $\overline{A}$ is connected, since $A \subset \overline{A} \subseteq \overline{A}$. Suppose that $B = U \cup V$ for disjoint open sets $U, V$. Then either $A \subset U$ or $A \subset V$ (otherwise $A = (U \cap A) \cup (V \cap A)$, which constitute a separation of $A$) so suppose that $A \subset U$. If $x \in V$, then $x \notin A$, since $A \subset U$ and $U$ and $V$ are disjoint. Hence $A \cap V = \varnothing$. Let $x \in V$, so that $x \in \overline{A}$. Then $V$ is an open set containing $x$, so $A \cap V \neq \varnothing$ by the definition of $\overline{A}$; since this a contradiction, we conclude that $B$ is connected.
how this look
okeyokay
they are separated but their union is connected
How it is union is connected there is no 0, means it is not interval
uhh sorry i meant the opposite
they are not separated but their union is disconnected
How are they not separated?
Okay
@sonic crane So if you want to prove that A and B are connected then A × B is connected.
Let f: A × B -> {0,1} be continuous. We have to show that f is constant.
f(a,•): B -> {0,1} and f:(•, b' ) : A -> {0,1} is continuous.
Since A and B are connected so these maps are constant.
Thus, f(a,b) = f(a',b') because f(a,•) and f(•,b') is constant and agree at (a,b').
Hence, f is constant.
From Carothers
This is a great proof lol
I think it doesn't matter which topology we are let on {0,1}
It has to be the discrete topology, because any map to the trivial topology is continuous
Yes
In Janich, he introduced a disjoint union of Topological space.
Disjoint union of sets, if X and Y are sets, their disjoint union or sum is defined by
X + y = X × {0} union Y × {1}.
So topology on X + Y is given by { U + V | U is open in X and V is open in Y }.
So now I want to verify this, so an empty set belongs to this topology and also X + Y belongs to this topology.
Now let U_i + V_i be open sets over index set I, then their union is union U_i + union V_i, since U_i and V_i are open we get it is U + V.
Similarly for finite intersection.
Is it correct?
I was stuck showing R^2\Q^2 is path connected, but then i realize elements of this set dont have to be (irrational, irrational)
took me a second
products are confusing
My prof is following Janich. I do not like that book
Right?
They always trip me up
So much struggles in topology come from set theory
Agree! And the fact that UxV is open in XxY doesn't mean that U and V are open in X and Y 
Any reason?
Well i feel like its more of a casual discussion than a textbook
I feel like im missing so many details when reading it
Okay
is this a mistake? d(f(y), s_i) < e/2 by the triangle inequality
so e/2 is too strict of an upper bound
also I don't see how this shows that f is in F_{\psi}
Yeah lol
It's quite cute actually uh
You can prove that R^2 \ X is path-connected where X is any countable subset of R^2
Hey do you guys have an example of an open map that discontinuous from IR to IR
where IR is endowed with the standard euclidean topology
Here's an interesting one: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2933144
is S^2 removed from R^3 homotopy equivalent to S^2?
a sphere
but ig i got the answer
also similary how does R^3 complement the solid torus look like
Wait, what? Aren’t the projections open maps?
pi_1(UxV) = U, which is open because U x V is open by assumption and because pi_1 is an open map
Sphere wedge sum a circle.
Retract to the ball which contains the complement. This retracts to a sphere with a line segment connecting its poles which is then the wedge sum of a sphere with a circle.
Hmm @plush folio did u mean to say something different?
they are, but pi_1(UxV) = U only holds when V is non-empty
so there's a bit of an edge case there
Hmm that’s insanely cursed
Well I mean actually
Not really that cursed
Cause that’s basically just saying “everything times emptyset is emptyset and thus everything times emptyset is open”
Oops, yeah that's wrong
I was thinking about how open sets (or any set really) in XxY are not necessarily of the form UxV
are the connected components not immediately connected due to the definition of the equivalence relation?
ye i know i was just asking about the connected part
yeah
singletons are connected right
yes
two disjoint nonempty sets contain at least two points between them, so a singleton can't possibly be disconnected
assuming that i've shown that the closure of a connected set is also connected, could I just say that if y is in the closure of a connected component, then y ~ x for some x in that connected component and not in the closure, and hence y belongs to the connected component
Since $x \sim y$ if and only if $x$ and $y$ belong to the same connected subset, we see that $[x]_{\sim}$ consists of all points in $X$ which are contained in the same connected subset as $x$. Thus each connected component is connected by the definition of $\sim$. We now show that each connected component $C$ is closed. Clearly $C \subseteq \overline{C}$. Conversely, let $y \in \overline{C} \setminus C$. By problem 2, $\overline{C}$ is connected; in particular, $x \sim y$ for some $x \in C$. It follows that $y \in C$ by the definition of $C$, so $\overline{C} \subseteq C$.
okeyokay
Yeah this is good
There's another way to think of [x]_~
It is the union of all conected subsets that contain x
If you had that already, then by the fact that the closure is also a connected set containing x you could conclude that the closure is contained in [x] directly
Is there a relatively simple example of a quotient map that isn't open or closed?
The map f:R²->R given by f(x,y)=x+y is open but not closed
And if X=[0,1]² with lexicographic order topology and we take
(x,y)~(x',y')
then the canonical projection is a quotient map and is not open
I think it's closed though
But I'm not completely sure
Anyway, is there some example where it's neither open or closed?
I have an idea maybe partitioning the ordered square into
[(x,0),(x,1)] if x is not 1/2
[(1/2,0),(1/2,1))
and {(1/2,1)}
The image of ((0,0),(0,1)) is {[(0,0),(0,1)]}
But that isn't open since the preimage of that is [(0,0),(0,1)] which isn't open
And I thinkkk that the image of the closed set [(1/2,0),(1/2,1)] isn't closed
Nvm it is lmao
Shaloming Home
I think I see what I was missing: a local homeomorphism only guarantees there exists some open neighbourhood of a point such that those properties in the first picture hold, it doesn’t say you can pick any neighbourhood you would like.
1 is true, since you take the union of two sets that contain all their limit points
2 is false. For example take Closure(Q) intersect Closure(R). You would end up losing limit points right? so its false
or could i take the intersection of Q with R-Q, which is empty and then thats not everywhere dense right
yeah your original answer for 2 doesn't work but that does
cool cool yeah i see, this is fun thank you 🙂
yeah you're welcome
I want to show that the 2-sphere and Torus are not homeomorphic. My intuition is that if we remove a closed surve from torus such that the torus is path connected (and hence connected), the image of that curve under a homeomorphism would be again a closed curve on 2-sphere. Now I want to apply Jordan curve theorem but I am not sure if it needs subtle approach since the result is for R^2. Any help is much appreciated
The result translates immediately to the 2-sphere if you know that R^2 is homeomorphic to the sphere minus a point
There is
I am trying to remember one lol
Pretty sure there is an example in Munkres tho
Oh, you refer to the one-point compactification of R^2. I am sorry but how does it translate to 2-sphere exactly?
one-point compactification of R^2 is the sphere
in general, Alexandroff compactification of R^n is S^n
It is the one point compactification yes, but the important thing is that if you remove any point from the sphere you get the plane. So if you have a simple curve on the sphere, then if you just remove a point not in the curve you get a simple curve in the plane.
is this closed since it's the preimage of {0} x [-1, 1], which is closed in the product topology of R^2? also, how do we know that closed set => largest element?
yes; compactness
when showing something is connected, is contradiction usually the way to go
can somebody tell me if this proof is correct pls
7.D. In the set N of positive integers, the relation a|b (a divides b) is a
nonstrict partial order.
7.1. Is the relation a|b a nonstrict partial order in the set Z of integers?
this is a partial order right? since like 3 doesnt divide 4, but 2 does?
yeah, I think that works 👍 I think you should write U = union of pi^{-1}(y) though, since U = {pi^{-1}(y) | y in Y} is a set of sets
oh ye ur right
thanks
ag wait i see it isnt for example -1/1 = 1/-1 but -1 != 1
Suppose I have a metrizable space $X$ and a continuous function (wrt. metric) on $X \setminus A$ where $A$ is compact. Is there a way I can extend this continuous function to X?
brayden
to being continuous on $X$ of course.
brayden
Not necessarily
Consider $\bR \setminus 0$ and the function which is 0 on $x < 0$, 1 on $x > 0$
Micose
Okay, maybe ill just be a bit more specific.
I am working on the sphere S^{n-1} here.
And
The compact set A is just going to be the closure of a neighbourhood
You can easily construct something that blows up at some point of the boundary of the neighbourhood
Something like 1/d(x, A) where d(x, A) = inf_{y \in A} d(x, y)
Are we still assuming A to be compact or no?
I think the answer is finally yes
If A is an open ball, then extending the function from $\partial A$ to A continuously is equivalent to giving a homotopy of the restriction to $\partial A \cong S^{n-2}$ to the constant function, which you can do as $\bR$ is contractible
Micose
Nice
And then if A is a neighbourhood an argument can be made using this
not nessecarily connected
Instead of spending the rest of the proof talking about U n U'
They're saying we're going to refer to it as U since it has nicer properties
Clearly if we find U_x subseteq U n U' with the desired property, it will also work for our original U so we will have still proved the lemma
And (U n U') bar is compact, hence why we can assume U bar is compact (because we've renamed U n U' to U)
Could you send the remainder of that argument so we can see what the "hence" is for
ngl
I have absolutely no idea
And this whole proposition and proof is just a mess
Why is there a vector space V in the set up of the proposition that isn't ever referred to again
"open closed W subseteq V" is another disaster given that I'm pretty sure that's supposed to be "closed W subseteq R" (just because nothing else would make sense in that context)
yeah i think these notes were typed up during class and the prof tends to sometimes make errors or maybe he made a typo
maybe i can find a proof online
What's your problem?
What have you tried?
Remember that to prove a function is continuous you can also prove that preimage of a closed set is closed
i dont know like
Take C closed in Y, h_inv(C) = f_inv(C) union g_inv(C)
so uh they are both closed
ok done? like i dont get it
Hmm, I don't think that can be the complete solution, because you haven't used the fact that A and B are closed. I think an implicit assumption here is that they're continuous in the subspace topology of X
but h_inv(C) = f_inv(C) union g_inv(C) should be correct
Yes lmao
Like yeah f_inv(C) is closed
Given that f is continuous
Same with g
And that's it lmao
Oh wait
Oh yeah there's the detail that f_inv(C) is closed in AuB given that it's a closed subset if A, which is closed in AuB
ok cause right now we know finv(C) is closed in A but maybe not closed in X?
Yep
its closed in A because
But closed subsets of A look like A intersected with a closed subset of AuB
and A is closed
Yep
When are we using the fact that f = g on A intersect B
Ans intersection of closed sets is closed
is that just so the function is well defined
So that h is a function
Yes
my problem is we didnt even prove this in class
Hmm
so annoying like we didnt even prove that basis for subspace top is basis element intersect A
i dont know why we are not proving these helpful results
i feel like i gotta do topology handicapped
You didn't cover subspace topology?
We did
but we didnt cover that basis elements for it are basis of X intersected
for example
That's stupid ngl
Bro ik
lmao
like its making me confused
on the topics
cause i dont have those basic results in mind
Yeah one needs the whole picture
Yeah
Like although it seems kind of backwards
The more theorems you prove the more you understand the thing
Yeah exactly
Like you see how things relate much better
Intuition gets much much better
What book are you using?
So again for example we never said that closed sets in subspace topology are closed sets in X intersected with the subspace set
I love munkres
I asked prof about munkres and he said he hates it
That sucks
Munkres was what i liked when i was studying a bit before classes started
He says its too dry
it is a bit dry but at least it really gives u the full picture
Yes Munkres is very thorough
When im reading janich im like bro is not explaining anything
lucky
Yup
lol
yea and my prof for algebra is following hungerford
like bruh y not dummit and foote
hungerford scares me
lol
I dont like dummit and foote
thats fair tbh
But this is getting off-topic lmao
lame
wow, I looked up the subspace topology in Janich, and he literally devotes only three paragraphs to it 
😂
its like coffee-table topology
put it on the coffee table for like a casual whatever read
I really like Lee's ITM for topology, I think he explains a bit better than munkres, and he covers the universal property for subspaces, products and quotients
ITM?
introduction to topological manifolds
Oh i see yea i wanted to get Lees books on diff geo
You know you study math
When you start throwing acronyms around
And they mean introduction to topological manifolds lmao
for textbooks lol
yall like a/m?
i do fuck with atiyah macdonald
I like how its thorough but then at the same time doesnt painstakingly explain each detail
forces the reader to figure it out more properly themselves
Do you need any more than 3 lines for subspace topology tho
I'm trying to understand why the Bit
``$X \cup_f Y$ consists of the disjoint union of $X$ and $(Y-A)$"
plexcty
is true
So $X \sqcup Y$ has multiple definitions, say I choose to define it as ${(x. 0)~|~x \in X} \cup {(y, 1)~|~y \in Y}$
plexcty
then $X \cup_f Y = (X \sqcup Y)/\sim$ will be a particular subset of the power set of $X \sqcup Y$
plexcty
This is clearly not the same "type" of object as $X \sqcup (Y-A)$
plexcty
What am I missing?
coffee-table-top-ology
well yeah, I would atleast expect a mention of the fact that C is closed in A iff it is the intersection of A and a closed set in X. And ideally a mention of the universal property, how the inclusion map is continuous, and maybe an example or two
Fair enough universal property is important
they're not the same set, but there's a canonical bijection between them
taking each element of the disjoint union to the equivalence class it belongs to
For projection map X x Y onto X, i am trying to convince myself that opens in X x Y map to opens in X
Ok yea i thinj its good
Opens in X x Y are unions of (open X) x (open Y) so when you collect all the x values that will still be open in X
yep. specifically, the key lemma you figured out here is that in order for a map to be open, it suffices to check whether the generators of the topology on the domain map to open sets
there's a few useful lemmas like that; for example, for checking continuity it suffices to check that the preimages of the generators are open etc
I'm sure there's more, but I forgot 💀
Yea! Thanks!
Unfortunately I do not have a copy of Steve Vickers' Topology via Logic. However, hearing about it made me curious what the "logical" approach to locales / topological spaces is. How do they arise from logic ? I'm really curious.
Thanks, I was able to prove that it is a bijection
The circle is homeomorphic to a closed interval?
or like half open interval?
its not
when considering as subspace topologies at least i guess
oh but we can still argue the circle is connected from the interval being connected which is what i was trying to say anyway
because u can still have a cts function
I think this is not complete
Now Im thinking i need to show a common point for ALL Xy union Yx simultaneously
each pairwise thing i can find a common point but now im not sure how to show there is a common point for everything at once
A, B ⊂ X and any f : X → Y
f(X-A) = Y \ f(A)
Well if x is in X, and x is not in A then x is in X-A and F(X-A)
let X be {0,1,2} and A be {2}.
Now lets say we have the constant function. that gives us lets say {3}
Then F(X-A) = {3}
while X-A is {0,1}
then Y - F(A) is {3] - {3} = \empty
So theyre not equal? is this right?
Also i cant seem to find any kind of inclusion here
if you got a response please ping me im going to lay down to sleep 🙂
Okay but have you seen other proof?
Are there any more well-known constructions of the Stone–Čech compactification of a topological space X than the following?
- Take the closure of the image of X in ∏_{f: X → C, C compact Hausdorff, |C| <= 2^2^|X|} C.
- Take the closure of the image of X in ∏_{f: X → [0, 1]} [0, 1].
- When X is discrete, take the set of ultrafilters in the powerset P(X) of X (with an appropriately constructed topology).
That's correct: it's not true in general that f(X \ A) = Y \ f(A). Neither inclusion holds in general either.
To be more precise:
- Y \ f(A) ⊂ f(X \ A) if and only if Y ⊂ f(A) U f(X \ A) = f(X) if and only if f is surjective.
- f(X \ A) ⊂ Y \ f(A) if f is injective, since then f(x) for x not in A cannot be equal to f(x') for any x' in A.
Instead you can use the following lemma:
Let X be a topological space and { U_i : i in I } (with I non-empty) connected subspaces of X such that for any i, j in I, we can find i = i_0, i_1, ..., i_n = j in I such that U_{i_0} ∩ U_{i_1}, U_{i_1} ∩ U_{i_2}, ..., U_{i_{n-1}} ∩ U_{i_n} are all non-empty (in other words, for any two of the U_i's there is a chain of other U_i's joining them with consecutive U_i's intersecting). Then X is connected.
(Hint to prove the lemma: ||suppose Y is a clopen subset of X, so that we want to show that Y is either empty or all of X. Consider what the intersection of Y with each U_i can be. Then consider whether it is possible for Y to intersect one U_i but not another.||)
bumping since I buried my own question 
Thank you!
what have you tried?
we aren't just going to do this for you
I'm not so sure about how to start. I'm just asking for hints
Never said I wanted you to do it for me
you never said anything
anyways, start with the definition of compactness
if K is compact, then every open cover of K should have a finite subcover
does f(x,y) = (-x,-y) on the Torus serve as a counterexample for browuers fixed theorem?
on the torus.
also for the borsak-ulam?
Why is null set clopen?
it is open by the definition of the topology
and it is closed since its complement is open
so in real number set for ex because null set has no elements therefore it has no boundary points so it is open but because R/(empty set) is still R meaning it is open,we can conclude its closed too?
in an ultrametric space an open ball is both closed and open. whats the intuition behind that. i got the proof via some mse but whats the intuition?
Yes if you have shown that the empty set is open then also it is closed. But in general, we define topology on a set X, as collection of subsets, in that collection we assumed that empty and X must belong, and follow some properties, closure under union and closure under finite intersection
Yeah I know that part but I'm still not sure about how to go from there.
does anybody know what 1_X is here?
is it just the function which sends everything in X to 1
I get that the map is continuous, but why is its inverse continuous? (example 5.6 at the bottom)
nvm
ok wait so X is compact
but how is A* hausdorff?
I don't have an answer, sorry, but I'm curious, what subject is this? Looks like a mix of topology and algebra
these are course notes from a graduate class called "intro to topology and analysis"
sometimes the professor marc rieffel goes on rants about algebra and stuff
so it's included in the course notes
I see
I guess you're not following a particular book?
he recommended lang real and functional analysis
but yeah basically he just teaches as he wants
Btw, is it possible they meant that A* has the weakest topology such that ev_a : A* -> k is continuous? Because a |-> ev_a is a map from A to Hom(A*, k), I'm struggling to understand what it means for this map to be continuous
yeah i talked to the guy who made these notes and he said that it doesn't make sense
and that he would revise it
yes, judging by the fact that it later sends x to 1
lol okay thanks
Let $\varphi : S^1\times S^1\to \R^3$ be defined by
$$
\varphi(e^{i\alpha}, e^{i\beta})=((a+b\cos\alpha)\cos\beta, (a+b\cos\alpha)\sin\beta, b\sin\alpha)
$$
where $a>b>0$ are constants. What is a simple way of proving that $\varphi$ gives a homeomorphism $S^1\times S^1\to \varphi(U)$, where $\varphi(U)$ has the subspace topology? That it's continuous and bijective is clear, it's just showing that it's open. I mean I can do it but I don't see a way to do it without writing too much
croqueta3385
I think you can use the closed map lemma, since S1 x S1 is compact and R^3 is Hausdorff
thanks!
the line "$x_0 \in S \text{ with } a \in B(x_0, \frac{\epsilon}{2})$" is a mistake right since we only know balls of radius epsilon cover $X$
okeyokay
i guess it doesn't matter since we can just take epsilon = epsilon/2 in all parts prior to that sentence
I’ve recently started studying topologies, and I learned about topology inheritance. In the lecture I’ve watched, however, said that if there is a continuous map $f:M\rightarrow N$, and we create a topological structure from a subset $(S,T); S \subseteq M$ then there is a continuous map $f|_S: S \rightarrow N$
In an attempt to prove this, I tried to show that there exists a continuous “identity map” so to speak, that: $id: S \rightarrow M; id(s) = s$, but I could only show it was continuous iff S was an element of the topology with respect to M. And as far as I’m concerned this is a special case of topological inheritance. If anyone can help me with this, I’ll be grateful.
Schiza
you've made a mistake somewhere in your proof, since f|S is definitely continuous for all subsets S
you should post your attempted proof so that people can figure out what that mistake is
I’ll try and formalize it once I’m home
If Y is a subspace of X and A is a subset of Y but is a connected subspace of X, is A a connected subspace of Y?
I said that weird and also i guess obviously its still a connected subspace
I said that so confusingly wtf 😂
Like the open sets of A as a subspace of Y is the same as A as a subspace of X right
Yes: my question is,
A is a subspace of Y which is a subspace of X. Is A considered as a subspace of X the same as it being under Y?
This is true
Ty
For this, could we instead conclude by bar(A) subset bar(C), but C is closed in B bc it is part of a separation so bar(A) subset C
So B has to be contained entirely in C
Basically im asking could we have concluded like that instead of saying “since C bar and D are disjoint blah blah”
Yeah, I prefer your argument
If f : X -> Y and g : Y -> X are both continuous and surjective, is that enough to conclude that X and Y are homeomorphic?
I see, thanks for the examples 👍 I had an idea that if f : (X, T_1) -> (X, T_2) is continuous then T_2 is a subset of T_1, and vice versa for g : (X, T2) -> (X, T1), but I realize that argument doesn't quite work (I think it only shows that T_1 and T_2 are equinumerous)
yep. I'd say the reason for this is that the subspace topology on A w.r.t. X can be defined as the pullback of the topology on X along the inclusion A → X, this inclusion is the composition of the inclusions A → Y → X, and there is a lemma that pullbacks behave well under composition
i.e. whether you pull back the topology to Y or first and then to A or directly to A doesn't matter
of course there's many ways to prove simple things like that though, this lemma is just one of them (but a useful one I think)
Hehe, taking the universal property route i see
I get that but honestly in this case it may be more straightforward to just look at the actual topology
that is true, but: pushforwards and pullbacks are my new best friends
the reason is that I've finally understood that they actually occur all over the place, and can be used to get the same results in many categories at once
topological spaces, measurable spaces, diffeological spaces, bornological spaces, converge spaces etc all have the property that the set of structures (i.e. topologies/sigma-algebras/...) on any fixed set forms a complete lattice, and that you can push and pull those along functions in a way that makes sense
same thing with topological/diffeological/measurable monoids/groups/modules and other things like that, just that you're looking at base categories other than Set there
Is this a category theory thing
what I wrote after that somewhat is, but pushforwards and pullbacks of topologies are just a topology thing
idk, maybe you even know it already but under a different name
what I mean by pushforward is that for any topological space X, set Y and function f : X → Y, there is a finest topology on Y such that f is continuous; it consists of all sets whose preimages are open
and in the other direction, for every set X, topological space Y and function f : X → Y, there is a coarsest topology on X such that f is continuous, consisting of all preimages of open sets in Y
so you can sort of pull back or push forward topologies along arbitrary functions. there's a lot of good properties this process has
“Every closed subspace of a compact space is compact”
What is a “closed” subspace? Is it a subspace that is closed in the ambient top space?
I guess there is really nothing else it could be lol
I think subspace is the same as subset here
maybe they used the word "space" to indicate that the subset got the subspace topology
my guess is that they so far only told you what a compact space is, not what a compact set is, and so are using the word subspace to hint that the set can be considered as a space with the subset topology
Yea this was just from munkres
Does it even necessarily matter if we throw out the X-Y set ?
Ohh yea cause we just want finite subcollection from A
Regarding this, I think I proved it, here’s my work (a bit messy)
bruh
I dind't respond to the original post
hold on
this
Can someone tell me what does the first sentence agree on a dense open of X that is not the same on all of X mean? And if possible, can someone give me some hints for this one?
you want two maps f and g
such that f(D) = g(D) where D is a dense open subset
but f is not equal to g
for a dense open subset, I can think of the complement of cantor set, denote [0,1]/C, but I can not come up with a space non-hausdorff, any suggestions here?
the cofinite topology is non-hausdorff
try that
so maybe an example would be take some discrete space and map it into a cofinite space
so that the continuity is easy to check
i consider map from {1,2,3}->{ empty, {1,2,3}, {1,2},{1,3},{2,3}, {1},{2},{3} }, do you think this one will work?
you need two functions
that agree on a dense set but do not agree over the whole space
so another set still from {1,2,3} but onto different space {empty, {1,2,3}, {1}}, is that correct?
I have a question: Is discrete space dense?
wdym dense
a set is dense iff its closure is the whole space
a space is seperable if it has a countable dense subset
are u asking if the discrete space is seperbale?
seperable*
wdym another set
do u mean another function
u need maps
yes, I seperately list f and g maps
the question writes agree on a dense open of X
what is ur dense subset
{1,2,3}, but I think it can not be dense subset so Z is correct?
do u know what the closure of a set is
i think closure of Z is Z, because all elements in this set is both open and closed, so they are all dense because it equals closure
what is z
i mean integer
f:{1,2,3}->{ empty, {1,2,3}, {1,2},{1,3},{2,3}, {1},{2},{3} } g:{1,2,3}->{empty, {1,2,3}, {1}}
.
also u have to define f
im not following
at all
what does define f mean?
i gtg continue doing hatcher
u should first define
whta is X and Y and what are the topologies
and then define two functions from X to Y such that they agree on a dense open subset but do not agree on the whole space
i think u should try doing it with more knonw topologies instead of like trying to define the topology on ur own
it is easy to prove the claim for when Y is hausdorff btw u can try htat
remember that a dense subset intersects every open
good luck
You said I can try a map from a discrete space to cofinite space, I know about cofinite topology but I can only come up with set like {1,2,3}(but it is hausdorff and I think it is cofinite space?),are you willing to share how you will construct these maps?
the cofinite topology on an infinite set is never hausdorff so u can take for example N
so you set Y=N with cofinite topology on N? And how will you set D such that f(D) =N?
i have proved this, any hint for the converse to be false ?
yeshua
i should have used L_1 and L_inf to represent the norm
if two metrics generate the same topology, what can we say about them?
In mathematics, two metrics on the same underlying set are said to be equivalent if the resulting metric spaces share certain properties. Equivalence is a weaker notion than isometry; equivalent metrics do not have to be literally the same. Instead, it is one of several ways of generalizing equivalence of norms to general metric spaces.
Throug...
not much aside from all topological properties being the same, I think
the uniform structure and bornologies on the two spaces can both be different, so pretty much anything related to uniform continuity or boundedness doesn't have to be preserved, I think
will it be worthy to spend time with hilbert cube ?
Can a Hausdorff completely regular/Tychonoff/T3 space X be recovered from the R-algebra C(X) of continuous functions from X to R, possibly equipped with some further "purely R-algebra" structure on it like the topology of uniform convergence on compact sets?
As some motivation, this is possible when X is compact and Hausdorff because X = {maximal ideals of C(X)}, with the closed sets of X precisely the intersections of the zero-sets of families of elements of C(X) (in other words, with the weakest topology making every element of C(X) continuous).
Does the Cantor-Bendixson derivative respect countable union of nested sets?
for example, is $\left(\bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}U_\beta\right)^{(\gamma)}= \bigcup_{\beta<\alpha}U_\beta^{(\gamma)}$ if $U_1\subseteq U_2\dots$?
qwerty
I seems like It should be true, but I can't quite prove t
by that derivative you mean just the set of accumulation points, right?
yes
do you place any condition on the U_β, like compactness? the source I found when looking Cantor-Bendixson derivatives up requires them to be closed and compact
also, what is α? you do mean to take the union over all countably many U_β, right?
The U_\beta sets are not necessarily closed or compact
yes take the union over countably many U_b
then your answer is no
I mean, that one of the two is a subset of the other is easy to see
but if you try to find a counterexample to the inclusion in the other direction, I think you'll find a simple one
Would the result be different if the U_b were compact?
the funny bit is that if the U_b are all compact Hausdorff and their union is too, the sequence actually becomes constant after finitely many U_b, so you actually just have the finite case
wait, no. I messed up somewhere
Hmm I see, I will work on it a bit and see what I come up with
there actually is a counterexample where the U_b and their union are all compact Hausdorff spaces
(just in case you're curious where I previously messed up: what I said here is true only if you also require each U_b to be a subset of the interior of the next)
Can I get a hint to the counterexample?
what I have in mind are some really simple subsets of [0,1]
you can also think about it more analytically though. every accumulation point of an U_b is also an accumulation point of their union; so if you want the equality to not be true, you're looking for an accumulation point of the union which is not the accumulation point of some U_b
||that point being an accumulation point could for example mean there's a sequence of points in the union of the U_b converging to it. what does it not being an accumulation point of any U_b mean for the elements of that sequence? can you construct such a scenario?||
0 is a limit point of the left hand side while it is not in the right hand side (= (0,1])
No, the definition Im using is that the derivative of a set is the limit point of the set that is in the set
0 is not a limit point of any of the [1/n,1] sets
it's also not in the union of the [1/n,1] though, which I think is what he means
it's not hard to modify the example though
Ok, I think I am misunderstanding the definition. I will read up some more. Thanks for the help
the open unit ball in $(C[0,1],L_\infty)$ is not open in $(C[0,1],L_1)$
yeshua
Draw a 'spike' function. It can be as high as you want and the area as small as you want. Then argue by contradiction.
Can someone tell me what does the - above intersection represent and why we can get these two intersection in this diagram?
it is about irreducible space
my best guess is that’s a (incredibly bad) notation for the closure
\bar and not \overline
emme
no help anymore, I am stupid bc C is a cross lol
If a set is connected, is the closure and interior also connected?
I also want to prove this so any ideas on how to start would be nice
I got the proof now
I have proven part a, b, c. I need help for part(d): I suppose cl(Z) is irreducible and cl(Z)=A union B with A,B proper closed of cl(Z), and it is also closed in X. I have shown if Z is open, then it works, and it is trivial if Z is closed. But if Z is neither open nor closed, I am stuck
summarize: I want to show if Z is neither open nor closed, cl(Z) is irreducible as well
or if you have alternative approach, please share
well if \overline Z is reducible it can be written as A \cup B
What happens when you intersect A and B with Z?
you mean (A union B) intersect Z?
intersect both individually
or A intersect Z and B intersect Z?
so do you come up with the solution to this one?
A intersect Z is a closed subset of Z
B intersect Z is a closed subset of Z
Their union is Z
But since Z is irreducible Z has to be contained in one of them
now I'll let you do the rest
Z=A intersect Z or Z=B intersect Z. .hence Z contained in either A or B. since cl(Z) is smallest closed set containg Z but we can find either A or B be that smaller closed set containing Z, then we see the contradiction
Yeah basically
can i have a hint for finding a homeomorphism between (-oo, a) and (b, oo)
(explicitly and not just using some theorem for existence)
A hint could be that the number -1 exists
LOL okay
this would just be -1/x i hope
and then for the general case we just translate by (b - a)...
so something like -1/x + (b - a)
b - 1/(x - a) mayhaps
yes though you can pick an even easier map
oh just -x lol
yup
got an infinite ray pointing to the left and want it pointing to the right? just rotate it around
rigid body transformations already work in this case
almost, your signs aren't quite right
bro im trippin
i know -x won't work because what if a > 0 and b > 0
maybe -x + b + a
that would work if they're both positive
uhhh
ok yeah this would map into (b, oo)
For an example of a space $X$ which is not connected but $X/\sim$ with the quotient topology is, does $X=\R$ with the discrete topology and $a\sim b$ for all $a, b\in\R$ work?
Sara
Seems like it, yes
is this realted to the subspace topology at all?
Yes in that the subspace topology is a special case of 9.5
And is also the same as 9.D
if i have a covering space E --> X
if x is in X; U being the nbd of x evenly covered
must the sheets cover E?
i don't think so
nop
helix cover circle
take any arc
containing x
that isn’t the whole circle
yeah makes sense
i saw this proof of something and it said that so ig im misunderstanding
ty every1
How do we know exactly why c = sup A0 must be in [a,b]?
Is it just because b is an upper bound of A0 and b is in [a,b] so the least upper bound of A0 surely will be in [a,b]
oh, I only just saw that the map p defined there has domain R. I thought it was defined on some interval
R then
R is definitely connected
yep. then what can you say about A_0 and B_0, using a)?
It says they're separated which I managed to provr
Prove*
Hold on a sec
a) says they're seperated, yes
OMG of course
I think I got it
If t_0 doesn't exist then R would not be connected because it would be a union of separated subsets
As in if there was no t_0 not in A union B @iron bolt

the exercise is phrased a little weird, because it defines the map on R and but then asks you to find a t in (0,1)
so it is actually connectedness of (0,1) you need
but either way, you got the idea
if case you're curious, I would actually prove that convex subsets are connected with a slightly different sequence of steps than the exercise suggests:
- [0,1] is connected
- images of connected sets under continuous maps are connected, so γ([0,1]) is connected for any path γ
- a set is connected if every two points in it are contained in a connected subset of the set, so in particular path-connected sets are connected
- star-shaped sets are path-connected
- convex sets are star-shaped
each if those should be doable if you think about it for a bit
Wow, im like severely confused by this proof
and it does tell you a lot more about connected sets than just proving the result for convex sets directly
Why is there some open interval (d,c] contained in B0
Im confused why its closed at that endpoint
Oh
(d,c] is not an open interval
Ok
Ok im slowly understanding this but its more confusing than i first thought it was gonna be tbh
Verifying my understanding of a proof of the claim: If X is connected and f: X -> Y is locally constant for each x in X, then f is constant on all of Y.
Choose a y in f(X) so the set finv({y}) is nonempty. finv({y}) is open, since each x in there has an open set around it by hypothesis (then just union them all up). finv(Y-{y}) is open by the same argument, yet this set must be empty otherwise it would make a separation of X, and we know X is connected
So finv({y}) = X
"locally constant for each x in X" does not make sense to me
do you just mean locally constant?
also, I'd f say is constant on all of X then, since that is the domain
I mean replace 'for' with 'at' and these are equivalent
oh, I see
I've never seen somebody talk about a map being locally constant at some point
Let $f: X \to Y$ be a continuous surjection of topological spaces. Suppose $Y$ is Hausdorff, and that for all $y \in Y$ the subspace $f^{-1}({y})$ of $X$ is open and Hausdorff. Show that $X$ is Hausdorff.
Vic
How would one go about proving something is Hausdorff? I am trying to view examples in my textbook but am struggling to understand them as I'm not sure I understand the definition of Hausdorff.
Pick two points in X and show that they have disjoint open neighbourhoods
unrelated to what the exercise wants you to show, but: all fibers of a continuous map being open is a really strong condition
actually, I think it's equivalent to being locally constant?
yep
would this suffice as a proof?
oops that should be U_1 \cap U_2 in the first line of the third paragraph
one thing I'd change is that you don't actually need a surjection
like, at this point instead of saying "such y exist" you could just say "let y := f(x)"
or not even name them, and just talk about neighbourhoods of f(x_1) and f(x_2)
the proof is correct though, those are just stylistic things
i mainly included it because it was in the problem statement so i figured i'd include it in my response.
but stylistically i see your point.
hehe. in my eyes it's always cool when you can just drop unnecessary hypotheses from the problem statement and prove it anyways
It's not 100% correct, you haven't used the assumption that the preimages are open and Hausdorff. The reason you need those assumptions is that x1 and x2 might map to the same element in Y
but your proof would work if f was injective
oh, right
well, if a proof is what convinces other mathematicians, it did work as a proof on me 😆
Mochizuki would be proud
I even thought about the f(x_1)=f(x_2) case earlier, but then didn't think of it when reading your proof
wait are these line not using that assumption?
nope, preimages are always open and preimages of disjoint sets always disjoint
oops, I meant that the fibers are open
"we can find disjoint nhds U_1 and U_2" is the problem
fibers are the preimages of singletons, which are usually not open, so continuity of f doesn't necessarily mean that the fibers are open
that's why openness of the fibers is assumed in the statement
I guess another way to prove it is actually just that openness of the fibers means that X is the disjoint union of its fibers, and so a disjoint union of Hausdorff spaces if they're Hausdorff
you don't need Y to be Hausdorff
uh, sorry if that was a spoiler - I figured it was fine since you already have a proof that almost works, it just needs that one additional case
i think i see what you are trying to explain. let me try to execute that into the proof hold on.
Nice proof
you're right that that is a pretty strong condition
it would also mean that X is disconnected unless f is the constant map, right?
yep
locally constant maps are always constant on connected components - and that condition is just equivalent to being locally constant if you think about it for a bit
the one with the fibers I mean. being constant on connected components is not strong enough to imply local constancy
ah, I see it now, it is almost the definition of locally constant; just take the fiber as the neighbourhood, which is constant
yep 
took me a bit to see too
I wonder if the book the exercise is from is doing that intentionally - not phrasing the statement in the cleanest and most general way possible, to give the students some room to explore and make improvements
it is what doing actual research feels like too after all - often you seek understanding, not proof of something you already know the precise and most general statement of
at least from my limited experience so far
yeah, might be a good idea that some exercises are like that - usually when doing an exercise, the first thing you do is to gather up all the assumptions and see how you can use them. You never get to practice the art of knowing which assumptions to use
sorry to interrupt, but i'm having trouble seeing where this would fit into the proof. could you perhaps give a hint at which paragraph of my proof i should look at further?
oh oh i missed that entirely lol
no worries, lol
Do case analysis on whether f(x1) = f(x2). You have done the case where they are different already. If they are equal you can't use the Hausdorffness of Y to find disjoint neighbourhoods
Concrete Mathematics has some interesting paragraphs about different levels of problems in textbooks
I rarely see level 3, and I don't think I've ever seen level 4
I've already seen too many mistakes in papers to not see many lemmas as exercises of level 3, lol
got myself convinced to have found a counterexample to a lemma quite a few times already; a few times it was true, most others not so much
working through the proof with the supposed counterexample in mind usually clears it up quite quickly
the problem with level 4 is that there's no longer a unique correct answer, but many answers that are true to the spirit of the exercise to varying degrees
Q := P always works for a start
is this better? or did i make it worse D:
if you change 4 to an "interesting sufficient and necessary condition" this is actually just level 4 applied to P := true :p
nope! this bit is actually false
true 😆
sadness so i didn't understand what you meant.
Hausdorffness guarantees you disjoint neighbourhoods for every two distinct points. otherwise only the empty space would be Hausdorff, since x never has a neighbourhood that's disjoint from x
if f(x_1) = f(x_2), that doesn't give you a contradiction. it's just its own case you have to deal with
hint: ||x_1 and x_2 live in the same fiber then, and you have some assumptions on those...||
maybe i'm confused by this - what do you mean by fiber? I think i'm confusing terminology.
oh, sorry about that
just any preimage of a single point
the terminology is most often used in the context of fibre bundles and in particular coverings I think, but it's also often just used regardless of what map you're dealing with
Out of curiosity, what were 1 and 2? "Verify that P(x) holds for specific x", and "Prove P(x)"?
Nice extrapolation, that's correct
Prove P(x) for a specific object x, and prove P(x) for all x in some set X
Just to clarify: you seem to have picked y1 and y2 in Y first, and did a case analysis on whether x1 is equal to x2. That's the wrong way around; we pick distinct x1 and x2 in X first, then we map them over to Y. So we know that x1 and x2 are distinct by definition. And remember that surjectiveness doesn't really matter
i have a feeling i'm straying farther from the answer the more i think about this.
oh. this is indeed even more wrong now
sorry for putting it so bluntly, lol
one thing I'd recommend is to never introduce the shortcuts y_i := f(x_i) - just call them f(x_i) directly
so then, what you're saying at the bottom is that you can find a neighbourhood of x_i that does not intersect f^-1(f(x_1))
can you see the problem with that?
no no i appreciate the help haha. bluntness is what i need.
it's also still true that you need to take care of two cases, that where f(x_1) = f(x_2) and that where they're different
so basically, your proof structure after "we want to show that X is Hausdorff" should be something like this:
To do that, let x_1, x_2 be two distinct points in X; we now want to show that they have disjoint neighbourhoods. If f(x_1) ≠ f(x_2), we can do that by...
If however f(x_1) = f(x_2), we can...
was what i originally wrote many moons ago sufficient for the case where f(x_1) \neq f(x_2)?
actually let me just rewrite everything and resend it.
it was, yup
it was a bit more complicated than it needs to be, because it used the unnecessary condition that Y is Hausdorff
but it did work, so you only had to also account for the case f(x_1) = f(x_2) to get a valid proof
okay
i am super tired i think i need to put this proof away for now and revisit in the morning. thank you all for your help though!!
sounds like a good idea, yeah 
Am I allowed to post stackexchange link here and ask question about one of the solutions?
for the first sentence of the hint, is it correct to write there is a map q: S^n->S^n/C2 defined by: x->-x for all x in S^n? Second, can someone tell me what does Cw complex with number of cells in each dimension from 0 to n mean, namely what does cell refer to?
third, what does the symbol reverse cartesian product represent? I remembered that for disjoint union topology, it should be of form like {0}*A union {1} * B?
cells are just the things you glue together to get a CW complex
so the interval [0,1] for example would with its canonical cell structure have one 1-cell and 2 0-cells
the antipodal map x → -1 is relevant, but it isn't q; it's the map that C_2 acts on S^n with
q maps every point x to the equivalence class {x,-x}
it's the disjoint union. the set of all pairs (i,x) where i ∈ I and x ∈ X_i is one possible representation, but really it's anything that functions as a disjoint union of all X_i in some canonical way
Here the question is about the Cantor-Bendixson rank of a tree
At the very last part of the answer, they say that $T^\alpha_\alpha={\langle\rangle}$. I just can't see why.
qwerty
and here, x is in S^n and C_2 acts on S^n maps x to equivalence class {x, -x}?
may I ask what does canonical cell structure have one 1-cell and 2 0-cells look like?
your 0-skeleton is just two points {0,1}
the 1-cell is D^1 = [0,1] glued to them by the attaching map that takes 0 to 0 and 1 to 1
it's all really close to the definition of a CW-complex - you probably want to look at that a bit more
so 0 cells means singleton right? and if possible can you tell me what is CW-complex, when I search google it tells it obtained from gluing copies of k-cells, but i have no idea how to measure number of cells.
or I can just think n-cells is object in n dimension? like [0,1] is 1-cell by gluing singleton boundary point. and circle is 2 cells by gluing all its boundary in 2-dimension and keep going?
it's a bit like asking "given a graph, how can I tell how many edges and vertices it has?"
there's not some clever way of doing it, it's just part of the definition
a graph is defined as a set of vertices with a set of edges between them
similarly, a CW-complex is defined as what you get from gluing disks together in a certain way
cells is just what those disks are then called, similar to how you call the points of a graph vertices just because that's the convention there
one slight nuance I guess: when people say cell, they usually just mean the interiors (i.e. open disks), not the full closed disks that are glued together to get the space
but of course for the number of cells that doesn't matter
so you describe one-cell as an interval [a,b], and attach more than one intervals by attaching its boundary. How you will describe like say 2-cell and 3-cell?
namely, for 2-cells or 3-cells or more cells, how you will glue these disks, any examples here?
like the definition says - an n-cell is a disk D^n, glued to the (n-1)-skeleton via its attaching map S^(n-1) → X^(n-1)
i.e., you specify how the boundary ∂D^n = S^(n-1) of D^n gets glued to the gluing of lower-dimensional cells you already have
you could for example describe S^n as a CW-complex by giving it a single 0-cell *, no 1-cells, and a single 2-cell that you attach via the constant map S^1 → {*}
or RP^2 as a CW-complex by giving S^1 the cell structure like above and gluing a single 2-cell to it via the attaching map S^1 → S^1, ω ↦ ω^2
I have a question about the product topology of a set $X$ which is the Cartesian product of a finite number of sets $X_j$. I know a base for the product topology are unions of sets of the form $U_1\times\cdots\times U_n$ where $U_j\subset X_j$ is open. This description of open sets is...descriptive. Now comes my naïve question. Is there a similar thing for closed sets? Can we say that closed sets are unions of the $U_1\times\cdots\times U_n$ where $U_j\subset X_j$ is closed?
psie
look at say the product topology on like X and Y
u know how open sets look like
look at their complements
and to answer ur question
no
not unions
you can think of an easy example
or counterexample
to what ur saying @uneven bronze
in R^2
ok, thanks. Well, the reason I'm asking is I'm trying to prove $\overline{A \times B}= \overline{A} \times \overline{B}$ for $A\subset X, B\subset Y$. The argument for one inclusion goes like this: \
First, $A\times B\subset\overline{A}\times\overline{B}$ and $\overline{A}\times\overline{B}=\left(\overline{A}\times Y\right)\cap\left(X\times\overline{B}\right)$ is, as intersection of closed sets, closed in the product topology. Thus $\overline{A\times B}\subset\overline{A}\times\overline{B}$.\
How can I know that $\overline{A}\times Y$ and $X\times\overline{B}$ are closed in the product topology? I have no description of the closed sets in the product topology.
psie
use this to prove that the cartesian product of closed sets is closed
now u probably already know that the closure of a set is (by def) closed
so that should clear up ur like misunderstanding
hmm, ok 
yeah]
hint: this is just set theory
ok 🙂
good luck
but... (U times V)^c is not necessarily equal to U^c times V^c
what is it equal to
If U,V are open, I know their cartesian product is in the base of the product topology I mentioned earlier
suppose U and V are closed
figure out what (U x V)^c is
U subset of X and V subset of Y
Unfortunately!
I have my topology midterm tomorrow !
In my homework we showed that the “slice” {x} x Y as a subspace of product topology is homeomorphic with Y
It should be also true that some finite {x1,x2,…xn} x Y is also homeomorphic with Y right?
Also, the projection map is continuous and an open map, but its definitely not injective so its not a homeomorphism?
Oh wait
Hm not really
Because now u have choice of xi , y
That singleton cross Y was homeomorphic with Y cause u just had that same x always tacked on
are you willing to share your solutions to this question?I think I can understand much better after I see the solution
and also, can I say give a single 1 cells and a single 2-cell here? but it seems like 1 cells should glued to 0 skeleton that map to nothing(am I correct?)
I actually did in the case n=2 already
right here
so RP^1 is just one 1-cell glued to a 0-cell in the obvious way (it's just the circle S^1 after all). RP^2 can be described as a 2-cell glued to RP^1 via the quotient projection S^1 → RP^1. can you see how that generalised to RP^3 and above?
sorry, I mean a single n-cell attached via the constant map S^(n-1) → {*} here. in the case n = 2 it's what I wrote though
that cell decomposition doesn't have any k-cells for 0 < k < n; that's sort of the point of it, it's super simple
you can put different cell structures on S^1, like one consisting of one 0-cell, one 1-cell and two 2-cells (the 0- and 1-cell form the equator, then you glue one disk to it for each hemisphere)
exactly one 0-cell, one 1-cell and one 2-cell isn't possible though
On my homework, i said x^2+y^2=1 is connected , but prof said “i see it visually, but whats the quick way to show this?”
In my homework i said its the continuous image of an interval which we know is connected
So then, what IS the easy quick way to show the circle is connected ?
Show path connectedness maybe? Which is even easier if you define the circle as { exp(2pi*i*t) | t in [0, 1] }
Oh ok, yea defining circle in that way is like already stating what the continuous path function is
I think this argument is fine imo
Rp^3 can be descirbed as 3-cell glued to RP^2 via quotient projection S^2-RP^2. but i remembered RP^1 is a line in 2 dimensional space through the orign, so why we can say it is just 1-cell glued to a 0-cell?
it's homeomorphic to it
there's many different ways RP^n can be constructed, that are all homeomorphic
one is like you said the space of all lines through the origin in R^(n+1) - but another is as the quotient of D^n where antipodal boundary points are identified
and that's basically what this cell complex gives you
for the another part, you refer to S^n/C_2 right?
it's related, but not quite
RP^2 is homeomorphic to S^n/C_2
but it's also homeomorphic to a quotient of D^n where only the boundary points are glued in that way
it's basically what you get when restricting the quotient map S^n → RP^n to a single hemisphere
In definition of sequential compactness, a metric space (X,d) is said to be compact iff every sequence in (X,d) has at least one convergent subsequence. A subset Y of a metric space X is said to be compact if the subspace (Y,d) is compact.
So if a subset Y is compact that means any sequence in Y has a convergent subsequence which is converge in Y, right?
Let X be Hausdorff space and Y_i are a compact subspace of X so they are closed.
Now their intersection is also compact because they are closed and since intersection of all Y_i is closed subset of Y_j, for some fixed j.
A closed subset of a compact space is compact, right?
Thus the intersection is compact.
closed subsets of compact spaces are compact, yes. what are u trying to prove?
yes
In Hausdorff space arbitrary intersection of compact space is compact
You show that the intersection is compact in Y_j, right? Does this imply that it is compact in X?
I think yes
ah, it's because the subspace topology of the intersection Y in Y_j is the same as the topology of Y in X?
I am not sure but yes if Z \subset Y \subset X then subspace topology Z of Y is same as subspace topology Z of X
can I have a hint for showing that connected components in Y contain only one element
take a connected component C of Y. suppose C contains c. if C - {c} is non-empty, then what can you say about C?
idk, maybe something like C - {c} is open and if I can show that {c} is open then C is not connected which is a contradiction
wait maybe not, bc that would imply that singletons are open
thats okay. take a singleton set {c}. let c_k be the kth component of c in S. then {c} = prod {c_k}
since each of the singletons in S is open, then the above product is open
assuming that your basis is the collection of all products of opens in S
i thought that the product topology requires that you only have a finite number of elements in the product which are not equal to the entire space
or is that only for the basis elements
and how would we write a singleton as a union of those basis elements, because all of those basis elements will contain the whole space in one of the elements of the product and thus "cover" the kth component for each k
or wait maybe i'm mixing up union
ah, okay. so i was working with the box topology. all good
got it
in showing that every element of B is actually closed, why do we know that every element of B is open (which is implied in the problem statement?)
i was thinking about writing {x} = {x} n B and since B is open in Y, {x} is open in Y, but this argument wouldn't work since this would generalize to any topological space to show that singletons are open
basis elements are open since they are the unions of basis elements
can you elaborate pls
he's asking to show that every element of basis element are closed
not that every basis element is closed
or is that a typo
at first i assumed it was a typo so I showed that every basis element is closed but now i'm not so sure
open sets generated by a basis are unions of basis elements. a basis element b is the union of just b
hence b is open
points of the B in this picture are basis elements
since that B is the collection of all basis elements
how do we know that the points are basis elements?
it says, "Let B denote the usual base for the product topology"
so B is the collection of all basis elements
points, or elements, of B are basis elements for the product topology
i don't understand, the product topology has basis elements which are of the form \prod U_i where U_i = X_i for all but finitely many of the i; hence a point cannot be a basis element for the product topology, since a basis element must have one of the open sets in its product equal to the entire space
B is the collection of all sets of the form you have just specified
the elements of B are those sets
lol
thank you
still thinking of a hint for you about the connectedness part
yeah, i'll come back to it probably
been banging my head against the wall for like 2 hours on it
Hint: There's a reason they want you to first show that the basis elements are clopen.