#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 97 of 1
Ahh okay I see
Does anyone know a categorification of the classifying space approach to bundle theory
I.e given a bundle map E/B -> E’/B is there a corresponding thing happening in [B, classifying space]
I suspect there is but I can’t work it out
On second thought this is probably just pullback stuff
Can someone explain why we can not prove uniform topology is coarser than product topology in the same way as we prove box topology is finer than uniform topology
And second thing is, for box neighborhood U, can I change 1/2 epsilon into epsilon?( does it matter?)
Because they define the box nbhd as an infinite product
You don't have such elements in the product topology
is there an easier way to prove the equalities in problem 2 than A subset B and B subset A?? seems really tedious to do
I have that X' and X'' are both covering spaces of X, say with projections p1 and p2. How can I show that if, for some x' and x'' with p1(x')=p2(x''), there is a covering space map p: X' \to X'' with p(x')=x'', then it is unique?
I think it suffices to show that p1 = p2 \circ p but i dont know how to show this
oh also i have that X is locally simply connected
its not as tedious as it appears. its almost tautological
yeah i realize that the two definitions of each side are practically identical
but i cant rlly say "oh these two definitions are equivalent therefore the sets are equivalent".... can i?
if it appears clear to you and is acceptable by whoever is reading it (if anybody), then yes, that method works
what book is this from?
Not a book my problem set 😅
Hi I have a question regarding this problem:
let f: [a,b] -> M be the path from x to y. If there doesnt exist an t s.t. f(t) is in the boundary of A then there must be a discontinuity there. Im not quite sure how to prove that.
should this be infinite hausdorff spaces? edit: sorry, I think I misinterpreted what a limit point is, I figured it out
you can decompose M into the interior of A, the boundary of A, and the exterior of A (the interior of M\A).
if either x or y is in the boundary of A, then you are done. so WLOG, assume x is in int(A) and y is in ext(A) = M \ cl(A) = int(M\A)
(since, if x is in A, its either in int(A) or bd(A), similarly for y in ext(A))
you can show that if there is no path between x and y intersecting the boundary of A, then the path component of x and y is disconnected
using the decomposition of M will help
it is necessarily true that in a hausdorff space if a subset has a limit point, then the metric space is infinite. due to the hausdorff property, points are isolated from finite sets
well thats kinda the problem. I did that and basically got
i dont really know what do do with that
i know that E and I have to be disjoint and since [a, b] is connected, the thing i just wrote down is connected aswell
well i know that it cant be connected because the bpundary pf A is missing but i wasnt sure how to argue that
I'm quite struggling to show the first inclusion here. I tried to go by the definition of incusion (x in LHS implies x in RHS) and by the characterisation of closure as being the smallest closed set containing whatever and I've gotten stuck both ways. Can someone give a starting point please? (pls ping)
you are close. Let me give you another push:
let C be the path-component of x and y. You know that int(A) is an open nbhd of x disjoint from y, and ext(A) is an open nbhd of y disjoint from x.
how can you disconnect C using int(A) and ext(A)?
I figured it out using another characterisation of closure
What's nbhd
neighborhood
do you have a working definition of what it means for a set to be connected?
There is a continuous path s.t. the path is completely in the set
let me think for a bit, since it seems like you are unfamiliar with the standard definition of connectedness
My problem is that intuitively it makes perfect sense, it's just that I dont know how to formulate it
suppose that f : I --> M is a path from x to y, with x in int(A), y in ext(A).
assume for contradiction that the image of f never intersects the boundary of A
consider the following numbers:
a = sup{t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)}
b = inf{t in [0,1] : f(t) in ext(A)}
first, verify for yourself that the above supremum and infimum even exist.
next, how do a and b compare? is a > b? is a < b? are they equal? maybe you can only say that a <= b or a >= b?
finally, consider the intervals [0,a) and (b,1]: how are points in [0,1] which trace out the path f distributed among the sets
{t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)},
{t in [0,1] : f(t) in bd(A)},
and
{t in [0,1] : f(t) in ext(A)}.
put this all together and reach a contradiction
@uneven scroll
Sorry, I'm on my phone atm, I'm almost home. I'm thinking about it while walking. I'll respond in a few minutes if that's okay
all good, i was just pinging to make sure you saw
- I would say a and b exist since I is bounded in both directions. 2. Intuitively a = b. Im not sure how ti justify that tho.
- Why (b,0]?
did you mean (b,1]
meant (b,1]. (b,0] is empty
i mean, with the assumptions we made and with regards to the decomposition of M as int(A) U bd(A) U ext(A), which sets can the path f lie in?
intA and extA
thats what i meant by this, maybe i used wrong notation
the point is that {t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)} and {t in [0,1] : f(t) in ext(A)} union to [0,1]
wait maybe i read it incorrectly
not sure what you mean. the interval [0, a) isnt closed
for example
why are you focusing on not closed sets unioning to the entire space?
what does that gain you?
{t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)} = [0, a), no?
forget about them being open or closed or what not
what is the corresponding statement for (b,1]?
well i wanna explain my thought process first:
that was my thought process before
gamma([0,1]) is a subset of M, how are you concluding that it is a subset of [0,1]?
gamma([0,1]) != M cap gamma([a,b]). you are missing everything on the path going from 0 to a and b to 1
i think your intuition is there tho
no?
since gamma is in M
per definition M>A
maybe im misunderstanding something
that feels wrong
the situation we are imagining here is impossible if f is to be continuous
i would imagine that a = b
also gamma [0,1] < M
yes, and? its a path in M
yes
whats your point
this
i dont see how thats untrue then
no, you wrote gamma([0,1]) = M cap gamma([a,b])
this is true
oh sorry my notation went fromt the interval [a,b] for the path to your notation [0, 1]
i just mixed up the notations
instead of a b put 0 and 1
anyways, this is the right idea.
what i was trying to show you was that
[0,a) = {t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)}
(b,1] = {t in [0,1] : f(t) in ext(A)}.
combined with the fact that [0,a) U (b,1] = [0,1] and that a <= b, you reach a contradiction
because you are missing the entire interval [a,b]
wenn i already kinda knew that, my problem is that i dont know how to show a <= b
just me saying it must be true is not really enough
show that b is an upper bound for {t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)}
what would go wrong if there were some t in [0,1] with f(t) in int(A) and t > b?
t would be bigger than a
how do you know?
yes. this is bad since int(A) cap ext(A) = empty
the last thing to show is that [0,a) is actually equal to {t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)}
^
is this correct?
- i mean
both sets are non-empty and bounded above. the set corresponding to a is bounded above by 1 (and a tightly by b), the set corresponding to b is bounded below by 0 (and tightly by a)
so yes
so by the same argument we can show that a>=b and thus a=b
i don't actually think you have that much control over a and b
all you can say is a <= b
no, because we are showing that b is an upper bound for the set corresponding to a. unless im missing something that you want to explain in more detail
showing that a is a lower bound for the set corresponding to b is just a <= b again
yeah juzt realized that
okay so basically i wanna show that the sets you mentioned look like [0,a) and (b,1]
what do you mean by one inclusion
{t in [0,1] : f(t) in int(A)} is a subset of [0,a)
im a bit worried about one thing that im hoping won't be a problem
i don't think thats quite right
not <=
i think i made an oversight
what we're running into is this issue
where the path can skip back and forth
and thats why {t in I : f(t) in int(A)} is easily seen to be a subset of [0,a), but not necessarily the other way around
tbf this is a lot easier if you know the definition of connectedness
this was my attempt at an ad hoc solution avoiding it
are you by any chance german
do you have a chatgpt acc
yea, why?
yea, this is what's usually called path connectedness
ein metrischer is something like a metric space?
yeah metric space
we also know that if A is connected then f(A) is also connected for f continuous
right. so. in a metric space M, M is said to be connected in there are two non-empty, disjoint, open subsets of M which union to M.
this is useful here because we don't have to worry about this situation
A Is it a topological space?
A is a subset of M
and M is a metric space
idk if thats a topological space
i dont think we defined it that way
i think if M a topological space and A subset of M and yea if M path connected and a map go to another a topological space if f not homemorphism not f(A) path connected
maybe we can avoid it
if we just stick with a
we can use this 🙂
define the function F : int(A) U ext(A) --> {0, 1} as F(x) = 0 if x in int(A) and F(x) = 1 if x in ext(A).
look at the path F o f : [0,1] --> {0, 1}
if the image of this function is to be connected, what can it be? ({0,1} has the discrete metric)
{0,1} as in the boundary of [0, 1]?
i mean, its fine to think of it like this
if you can show that F is continuous, then you should be making good progress
How is F continuous if you jump from 0 to 1
try working it out using the definitions
int(A) and ext(A) are both open subsets of int(A) U ext(A)
what are you trying to show
great. so fix your epsilon > 0. if your epsilon larger than 1, then any delta works since U_epsilon(x) = {0,1} for any x in {0,1}
so you only need to consider epsilon <= 1
that might be a stupid question but why "U_epsilon(x) = {0,1} for any x in {0,1}"
when epsilon > 1, that is true because for x in {0,1}, |x - 0| = |x| <= 1 < epsilon and |x - 1| <= 1 < epsilon
oh
not a huge deal
well my x is not allowed to leave intA
i specified that the x here was in {0,1}
Im so sorry my brain is not made for topology, linear algebra is way easier :c
what im thinking is
if the green line is [0,1]
and the black line if F(x)
then i cant choose delta s.t. a is in Udelta
then why add the green line?
i was just visualizing [0,1]
i dont follow your picture
well im realizing that i misunderstood what F was
F is just like an indicator function. it tells you if you are standing on int(A) (F has output 0) or ext(A) (F has output 1)
yeah
so for epsilon bigger than 0, we can look at U_epsilon(0) in {0,1} first
we need to find delta > 0 such that F(U_delta(x)) is contained in U_epsilon(0)
for a fixed x in int(A)
are you following so far?
i think so yes
how are we going to use the fact that int(A) is open to get our hands on a delta?
f(U_delta(x)) meaning F o f (U_delta(x))
mhm
the forall t needs to come first
same goes for extA
right. so can you see how F is continuous?
tbh no. I dont understand why it should be continuous if you can jump from 0 to 1
somewhere inbetween
int(A) and ext(A) are, separated. so its okay to jump between function values wherever the domain has gaps
its the same reason that g : (-infty, 0) U (0, infty) --> R defined as g(x) = 1 if x > 0 and g(x) = -1 if x < 0 is continuous
if that seems unfamiliar to you, i would suggest taking a detour to try and prove that g is continuous on (-infty,0) U (0,infty)
I proved it in a different way.But thank you so much for painstakingly running me through your ideas. Im very sorry for being stoopid ><
just as a rough scetch: I used the a you defined earlier and used the continuity of gamma to show that a cant lie in intA and extA
because those sets are open and gamma continuous gives us a U_delta region
Anybody here knows about topological data analysis?
I need some help on Ex 1.28 at the bottom
The S^1 case i think can be shown by considering a small rotation
I don't have any progress on the higher odd dimensions
The excercise wants me to use the 'Facts without proof part'
how ı find connected surfaces of a topological space ?
I know some people that work with TDA if that counts
It looks cool!
Consider R^2n = (R²)^n
Ye
Wow okay very cool 👍
(did you already solve it)
Yeah I got a sol in another server to find a transformation such that inner product is 0
Another server!?
What is it
Oh the homework help one?
why finite product can not assume a form of elements like product (x_ -1/2 epsilon, x_+1/2 epsilon)? I mean how does it matter to finite and infinite for the existence of this element.
Because there's infinitely many sets in that product that aren't the entire space
I'm not sure what you mean
What's the definition of the product topology
And how does it differ from the box topology
finite product of topological space?
and box is infinite product
So concretely, given topological spaces X and Y, what is the product topology on X x Y?
it should have basis element U product V, U is open in X and V open in Y
Mhm
And what are the basis elements of the box / product topology of ∏i Xi
For infinite index set
I think I might say if basis element of a product topology can be product of U_ and we let index be finite? and in this case, why we can not prove that uniform topology is coarser than product topology by saying finite product of ( x_-1/2 epsilon, x_+1/2 epsilon) is basis of product topology
For a finite product, all three topologies are the same
But for an infinite product they are different
ok I see, really appreciate that
is there a difference between the statements
"a function f : G x X -> X is continuous "
and
"a group action f from the topological group G to topological space X is continuous" ?
Usually the latter is defined to mean the former
if an action is continuous that doesnt mean that every open set has an open image, right ?
if a continuous group action, let G be a topological group and X top space (g,x)--->g . x for G x X---->X if this is working yea is a continuonus and you right action is continuous that doesnt mean that every open set has an open image by definition meaning this is not important for continuous group action
i am trying to understand why an equivalent relation which is induced by a continuous action of a group G on a topological space X. gives its topological properties to its equivalent classes (orbits) . for eample if the e.r is G delta then its orbits are G delta on X.
i guess it has to do with the continuity, but i am not sure how
does anyone have a pdf of the book of donald yau on colored operads?
i found that u can piece together two paths via a common point to find a path between any two points in $\cup A_\alpha$, but I have struggling to show that the resulting path is continuous
Henry
in particular, the union of topogical spaces is not neccesarily a topology itself, so how can u even define continuous in this case?
i think this is not working (ı talking on about image)
This is the correct approach. It is continuous by what is often called the gluing lemma
But all you need fro this is that given a function [0,1]->X, if it is cntinuous on [0,1/2] and [1/2,1] then it is continuous
sorry that working
in the second image (the second part of the proof), isn't he assuming that $C$ is connected already when trying to prove that fact? In particular, he uses the fact that for a point $x_0$ of $C$ and each point x of $C$, $x_0 \sim x$
Henry
C is the connected component of x0. by definition, C is the collection of points x such that x ~ x0, i.e., x0 and x are contained in some connected subset. this connected subset is a subset of C
What is finite-sheeted cover?
It's a covering space in which each fiber has a finite cardinality
why is the topologists sine curve connected but not locally connected?
like how do u see those 2 facts
Then a finite covering space ( from compact space go to compact space) a finite sheeted cover?
Yes because infinite discrete spaces cannot be compact.
Thank you Apoc
Hatcher has many interesting exercises on this topic.
I think because this covering space a locally homeomorphism and every point in X is finite in another space. No idea on about it is enough for proof
And I saw on here
connected because its closure of the image of a connected space under a cont function
as for locally connected im less sure
i believe it's something to do with the origin
For me, sometimes a space is connected only because you have few open sets, and then it may fail to be locally connected. Broom space is another nice example
whenever you zoom in near zero small enough, you see a bunch of disconnected line segments, which is not something one would hope for if it were to be locally connected
for instance, if B is a nbhd basis of the origin, then the open box (-ep,ep) x (-1/2,1/2) intersected with the topologist's since curve contains a connected open subset B of the topologist's sine curve in B.
But B cannot be connected, since it is a disjoint union of line segments
you do not know that connected components are connected subsets just from the definition of connected component in isolation since there are no assumptions imposing that a connected component actually be connected
it is a consequence of the definition and the theorem that you proved that connected components are connected
this is the def given in munkres:
\textbf{Definition - (Connected) Components}: Given $X$, define an equivalence relation on $X$ by setting $x \sim y$ if there is a connected subspace of $X$ containing both $x$ and $y$. The equivalence classes are called the \textit{components} (or \textit{connected components}) of $X$.
Henry
so doesn't C being a connected component mean that it is connected?
oh i see it means that there is a connected subspace of C that is connected?
hmmm, but then in this next proof, at the very end, it uses the fact that C is a component => C is connected
It does, but not by defn
ohhhh i see
sorry i didnt see that message
in case of this definition, it means that there's a connected subspace of X containing any two points in C
now in the those theorems you showed, he proves that by consequence of the definition, each of those subspaces is contained in C and C is a connected union of those subspaces
so then he uses the proven fact that C is connected in the following theorems
Is $B_1(0) \subset \mathbb{R}^2 \setminus {(x,0) | x \in \mathbb{R} \setminus{0}}$ simply connected?
Gangster Spongebob
Yes
you can deformation retract that space to the origin
I know that some closed curves are not homotopic to a constant curve, because inside the closed curve there is missing an element. Are there any other reasons for why a closed curve is not homotopic to a constant curve?
It could take too long to homotope to the constant curve
Like Hawaiian earring but each circle has its own cone
(don't take this literally)
Maybe I am being stupid, but in case I'm not: For n >= 4 The mapping class group of S_{0,n} is generated by half-twists about simple closed curves which surround 2 of the marked points on one side and n-2 of the marked points on the other side.
Right?
I see, thanks. That means, I need to use more abstract arguments in my assignment..
Also don't worry, I can distinguish intuition from rigour
If I'm doing my computations right (for another thing) this fact is
- Deeply fortunate
- Deeply Unfortunate
- Trivializes part of a problem I was thinking about, but in a weird way
- Seems to furnish a contradiction in math
so...joy???
me when I am confused: 
Notably I mean if I have any fixed n choose 2 of these (one for each pair of points), then that's enough
this reminds me, the wikiped pag for the hawaiian earring mentions $( \prod_{i = 0}^{\infty} \mathbb{Z} ) / (\bigoplus_{i = 0}^{\infty} \mathbb{Z} )$ as a summand of its first homology group, and that group is like, my favorite group at the moment, its fun to think about
terdragontra
truly an emotional rollercoaster
Can someone explain how the algebra encodes topological information ?
Context: i know some algebra up to a bit of modules, and i learned some intro topology just the basics (up to like defn of hausdorff space and homeomorphism stuff in munkres)
do you mean like algebraic invariants of topological spaces?
like fundamental groups/homology/cohomology
I guess so. Is that what it is?
I guess im just not totally sure what the algebra part in algebraic topology is trying to do
right so here's the example you usually start with
Oh ok well its capturing some aspect of the topology using algebraic structures and going back to topology to interpret it there
Right
It continues. I thought I resolved this this afternoon. But now I don’t believe my resolution of the problem
Deeply unfortunate
for any (reasonable) space X with a basepoint x you can consider the fundamental group \pi_1(X,x)
this is the group of homotopy classes of loops in X based at x
two loops are homotopy equivalent roughly speaking if one can be continuously deformed into the other
\pi_1 is a homotopy invariant of spaces: if two spaces are homotopy equivalent then their fundamental groups are isomorphic as groups
a loop in a space X is a continuous map from the circle S^1 to X
if you like it's a continuous map f:[0,1]->X from the unit interval to X such that f(0)=f(1)
the basepoint of the loop is such that f(0)=f(1)=x
This is crazy 😂
one way you can use this is like
if you have two spaces X and Y that have genuinely different fundamental groups then they cannot possibly be homotopy equivalent, in particular they cannot possibly be homeomorphic to each other
more generally you can consider the group of homotopy classes of maps S^n->X and this defines the n-th homotopy group \pi_n(X)
in general for n>1 these groups are insanely hard to compute
there are other much easier to compute invariants like homology and cohomology, and in a similar way these assign Abelian groups/modules to spaces in a way that is homotopy invariant
they are useful because they let you "linearize" problems in topology
like in many cases doing (linear) algebra is much easier than doing topology directly
That is cool
well any lol
Linear algebra over Z hits a sweet spot. With Z coefficients, you can detect the orientability of a compact manifold (unlike Z/2Z coefficients), but you can also assign a nontrivial top class to a compact non-orientable manifold (e.g., RP^n for even n). But Z-modules don't have excessively long free resolutions, and you can use Künneth's theorem without lots of annoying higher-order Tor terms or spectral sequences...
Wow i dont have enough math maturity yet to understand this but come back to me in maybe a year! Lol
Tbh i havent learned anything about manifolds for some reason
I would like to so im not ignorant
Work over all fields at once. Easier than working over Z. Less information, but don’t worry any that until you have an example where it isn’t sufficient
just because you can doesn't mean you should
I’m confused. How is [a, b) open due to it being a basis element that generates R_l. [a. b) surely doesn’t look open.
[a,b) isn't open in the Euclidean topology of R, but it's open in the new topology they're defining.
In fact, one important point is that you can endow the same set with different topologies.
I need to show R_l and R_k is not comparable. If I pick [0, 1) \in R_l, this is not in R_k, right (need to justify because R_k elements are of the form (a, b) \ 1/n \in Z+)? Then I can consider (-1/10, 1/10) - K.
Should I add that we cannot use the basis B'' to generate [0, 1)?
To show that R_l and R_K's topologies are incomparable, you need to exhibit two things:
- An open of R_l that isn't open in R_K.
- An open of R_K that isn't open in R_l.
thinking how to form the argument rigoriously
By definition, [3,4) is open in R_l. However, it's not open in R_K. To see why, notice that, the topologies of R and R_K are indistinguishable on (2,5). So [3,4) is open in R_K if and only if it's open in R, which isn't the case. That solves the first part of the problem.
How are these indistinguishable on (2, 5)?
the topologies of R and R_K are indistinguishable on (2,5)
Because 2, 5 are not in 1/n, where n \in Z+?
No, that's not enough.
It's because the whole interval (2,5) doesn't contain any point of K.
So any open of R_K inside (2,5) must be a union of whole intervals (a,b), i.e., it must be open in R as well.
hmmm
By definition, $U = (-1,1) - K$ is open in $\mathbb R_K$. Now suppose $U$ were open in $\mathbb R_\ell$. Since $0 \in U$, there must be a basic open $[a,b)$ such that $0 \in [a,b) \subset U$. In particular, $a \le 0$ and $b > 0$. But, for large enough $n \in \mathbb Z^+$, we have $a \le 1/n < b$, meaning that $1/n \in [a,b) \subset U$, contradicting the fact that $U \cap K = \varnothing$. Hence $U$ isn't open in $\mathbb R_\ell$.
Eduardo León
And that solves the second part of the problem.
Actually, without even mentioning U, you can simply notice that any neighborhood of 0 in R_l contains points of K. (In fact, infinitely many points of K.) But, by definition, there are neighborhoods of 0 in R_K that don't contain any point of K.
I follow this more. For part 2
Can’t we use a similar argument for part 1?
I used the same kind of argument for both parts.
I don’t get this last sentence
I understand now!
Ah, good.
Brilliant arguments
So we could use many different examples right, any overlapping with 0 example for part 2 (-3, 3) for example, or any inclusive set for part 1, such as [2, 3)
This makes a lot of sense, thanks @lusty trench!
No problem. You're welcome!
Yes for part 2. If by “inclusive set”, you mean “half-open interval not containing 0”, then also yes for part 1.
How could one prove that [0, 1) is not an open set in the K-topology over R (or is it an open set)?
The argument is above
nvm im dumb
i readd #❓how-to-get-help and im ready please help
It's quite simply, actually. The Riemann sphere $\mathbb CP^1 \cong S^2$ is the quotient of the unit sphere $S^3 \subset \mathbb C^2$ by the action of the unit circle $S^1 \subset \mathbb C$ by simultaneous rotations: $t \cdot (z_1, z_2) = (tz_1, tz_2)$. The Hopf fibration is the projection $S^3 \to S^2$.
Eduardo León
And how do you generate the images? Consider $\mathbb R^3$ as an open subset of $\mathbb S^3$ using the stereographic projection, and then restrict the $S^1$-orbits in $S^3$ to $\mathbb R^3$.
Eduardo León
If a group $G$ acts on a space $X$, then the $G$-orbit of a point $p \in X$ is the set of points of the form $g \cdot p$ for $g \in G$. In our case, $G = S^1$ and $X = S^3$.
Eduardo León
sure
but I struggle to translate this into an image that seems to consist of a bunch of rotated tori
It's not a bunch of rotated tori. It's a fibration of S^3 by circles.
circles, yes
Hmm what happens if you take cross sections of the sphere
Do you get a bunch of tori in S³
Plus two circles at the end
I think this gives you the solid torus + solid torus = S³ construction
i am aware that "the hopf fibration" is not just this single image and that this is a projection of some subset
but i wish to compute these circles
rather, find some parameterisation of each of these circles
Would this be a valid proof for R_k not being finer than R_l... or would i need to elaborate more??
To me it seems a bit wishy washy and not very concrete but maybe im wrong
Ig this gives the parametrization
for example, this image appears to simply be a set of circles that have been angled and rotated around some common central axis (like z=0 or whatever) - is this correct?
Yea
That's telling you that the central axis in R^3 corresponds to the circle in S^3 that passes through the North pole - the point not covered by the stereographic parametrization.
interesting
and each of the circles in R^3 corresponds to a point on S^3?
these are fibres, right?
Each circle in S^3 corresponds to a point in S^2. One of these circles is the vertical axis in R^3, and it corresponds to the north pole in S^2. The remaining circles are still circles in R^3 and they correspond to the other points in S^2.
Oh, right, missed that. I'd have to check, but it's plausible.
In particular the R³ visualization is given by (x, y, z, w) → (x/w, y/w, z/w), so rotating about the z/w-axis corresponds to complex maps (s, t) → (zs, t) in C² (I think)
oooooooooooooooooooooh
right okay
so i suppose this image is some set of equidistant equatorial points on S^2
and you're saying the "axis" they are rotating around is actually just some degenerate circle of infinite radius
yeah i can grind out the algebraic part from this
nice, thanks
More like a circle perhaps
Not necessarily equatorial
the "angle" of each circle is 45 degrees and the chirality probably comes from the "handedness" of the projection
sure
Are you making a new mathcord banner logo 
What's a “mathcord banner”?
bigger plans than these my friend, bigger plans than these...
Vector bundles are ubiquitous in geometry and topology, and characteristic classes are a powerful tool to measure how far a vector bundle is from being trivial. Do we have a similar theory of “algebra bundles”, where fibers are (not necessarily unital or associative) algebras over a field? For example, given a “Lie algebra bundle” (is this a thing?), I'd like to know if there are any obstructions to reconstructing a principal bundle (or maybe some other more general kind of fibration) from it.
Im stuck with (b) it seems impossibly long and tedious... is there a simple way to do it that im missing??
the smallest topolog on X containing T_a is the topology generated by sub-basis S = Union of T_a. from there i have to prove any topology containing T_a contains the T_S
but that just seems so lonnnggg
intersection T_a is a topology on X (a) and its the largest topology contained in all of T_a but i dont see how that helps with the smallest topology containing T_a?
Well, smallest means "it's a subset of every other topology containing all of T_a"
ye
So every set that's in that smallest topology will also be in all topologies containing T_a
Which is where the notion of intersection comes in
So u can construct the smallest topology from the topologies containing T_a? or smth else?
But from part a the intersection of topologies isnt necessarily a topology
Yes, the starting point is the collection of all topolgoies that contain all of T_a
It is, and you've already used that property. It's the union deosn't have to be
OHHHH oops i got it backwards
So then the smallest would be the intersection of all those topologies
Depends what you mean by "those"
all topologies that contain all of T_a
Yep
but then how would i prove that its "unique"?
Probably worth noting that this family is nonempty, because the discrete topology contains every other one.
If T_1 and T_2 are both the "smallest" topology, then each of them is a subset of the other, so they are identical
Incidentally, this is an argument worth putting a pin in, because something similar shows up in other contexts (such as generating vector subspaces or generating sigma-algebras in measure theory/probability)
oh because definition of smallest is that every topology satisfying blah is a subset of it
Yep
And the approach every time is "take the intersection of all the subspaces/sigma-algebras/etc that contain your original collection"
ohh yeah i recall my professor saying something about intersections being nice and unions not so much
How would i construct the largest topology contained in all of T_a then? with intersections too?
(a) literally gives you the construction.
I thought that was the thing you had already done
This is correct
So one is the intersection of all your starting topologies, and the other is the intersection of all the topologies that contain all of your starting topologies
wait im confused
the intersection of all topologies that contain starting topologies is the smallest topology containing all of the starting topologies
but isnt the intersection of all starting topologies smaller than each topology? How is that the largest topology contained in all those topologies
Largest topology contained in every T_a = Intersection of the T_a's.
Smallest topology containing every T_a = Intersection of the S_b's, where {S_b} is the family of topologies containing every T_a.
Well yeah, if it's contained in each of them then it has to be smaller than each of them. But out of all those small topologies, one is the largest.
oh i think i confused contained in all of T_a for union of T_a instead of the topology is contained in each T_a
(^ is that what the problem is trying to say/ask)
Yes, you're looking for the largest topology T such that T is contained in T_a for every a
kk tysm u saved like an hour of wasted work lol
And you'd correctly identified that one as the intersection of all the T_a's
*by accident i think but hey ill take it at this point
Isn't this basically definition of intersection?
Largest topology contained in every T_a = Intersection of the T_a's.
yeah but unless u prove it it aint true -probably
You do need the fact that the intersection of topologies is also a topology, but the rest is indeed mostly just definition of intersection.
Does bredon mean "A space D equipped with the discrete topoloy" by "A discrete space D"?
Yes
thanks
Is this correct?
Yea, but {a, b, c} is redundant
why?
That's X
oh, thanks!
is is true that $$lim(A) \cap A^c = \partial A \cap A^c$$?
asfda
What it A^c? Complement?
yes
What about the lim?
Okay so I have encountered an interesting idea.
Take this. Or the equivalent interior operator.
These always give you a topology on X.
Now throw K3 into the bin. Instead ask of your operator to be eventually idempotent. I.e some n in N s.t c^n+1=c^n
This
Is a discrete dynamical system
The spaces equipped with this operator are eventually topological spaces
Or some sort of almost topological
limit point of A (x is a limit point iff every open neighborhood U_x contains a point in A that is not x)
It is if eventually means c^∞
Actually even without this c^∞ works I think
( \partial A \cap A^c= (\bar{A}-A°)\cap A^c= \bar{A}\cap A^c - A°=lim(A)\cap A^c - A°=lim(A)\cap A^c )
Where A° denotes opening
No
I have not checked those
I don't even know how to do some other stuff
But cool idea
God Of Bushes
It precisely means after some number of applications of closure or interior operator the space behaves like a topological space
By c^∞(X) I mean the union of all c^n(X)
If you choose the same n for all subsets then it might not be possible for c^n to yield a topology for any n
But if they can vary then it's doable (equal to c^∞)
Why do we care about quasi components?
they're a bit better behaved in some senses
They're not necessarily connected so how is that possible
||Do we care about quasicomponents||
ehhh well you know
I'm thinking from the point of view of like set-theoretic topology and stuff, but honestly if you're in a context where components and quasi-components are the same thing, you've made some kind of mistake in your life in the first place
They only seem important if you care about more advanced pointset for its own sake - they've never come up for me lol (as a "user" of pointset topology)
Right
There's a connected metric space with the property that none of its non-trivial separable subspaces are connected
And that's a metric space
not some arbitrary weird topological space
Mhm I see
metric spaces can be weird tbf lol
The general impression is that we don't care about them so I won't either
c.f. topologist's sine curve
yeah but I work with metric spaces all the time, so I have to be okay with them
yeah it is all relative
I get really annoyed when dipshits on reddit are like 'uhh, Cantor space isn't really a space cuz not CW-complex'
Lol
First mistake is using reddit
cantor space is the only real space
I mean I am partially of that view and partially against it lol
"Not being a cw complex" is kinda silly reason not to like a space
did you know, every compact space is an image of a closed subset of the cantor space
I was going to say that. Isn't Cantor space, like, one of the most fundamental metric spaces?
But i guess it is something that is pathological/weird from pov of alg top (for some things)
At least it has a renaissance from condensed maths lol
For example, you can construct the compact interval [0,1] as a quotient of the Cantor space, and that's related to the binary (or any other base) expansion of a real number.
need to be metrizable
every compact Hausdorff space is a quotient of 2^kappa for some kappa
well i just said cantor space instead of cantor cube of weight kappa
cuz i didnt want to explain what cantor cube is
and you ruined it
I'm sorry

I'm just still mad about the fact that Lubos Motl answered a question about Hilbert spaces on the physics stack exchange with 'all Hilbert spaces are isomorphic' with no size qualification and despite comments pointing out that the answer is wrong, it's still up
I miss his blog. It was a fun read.
Entire field of study in shambles
Perhaps but he was a sexist asshole
Maybe physicists have no reason to care about non-separable Hilbert spaces?
So they shouldn't although they sort of in principle show up in quantum field theories
but those have like superselection rules that (iirc) should restrict the 'real' part of it to something separable
shouldve went further
all vector spaces are isomorphic
I mean Cantor space never stopped being relevant in logic
How relevant is logic for “normal” mathematics? By the way, point-set topology looks like a part of logic to me.
I mean it is certainly important to different areas lol
I mean that like it is now relevant to more people perhaps
This is morally true
pointset in the modern day is descriptive set theory which people would say is logic
it shows up every now and then but if you want to avoid it you can
But not really too seriously since cantor space already turned up via p adics lol
extremely powerful in entirely useless ways
like model theory heavily intersects my own work
Are you a model theorist perchance
no
Well okay so the two parts of (classical mathematical) logic that end up touching grass most often are probably model theory and descriptive set theory. Results from those fields are still sometimes used to solve things in other fields. And both of them use Cantor space a lot
I mean, it's not like Z-linear algebra, which is completely unavoidable if you do geometry or topology, in the honest geometric sense of algebraic or differential topology, rather than point-set topology.
oh nice, what's the connection?
I work in operator algebras and quantum information intersection
aaah
I do continuous logic and I used to do physics
so in principle I should be equipped for that kind of thing but I'm not
and some very hard chains of equivalences (MIP*=RE if u know these words) have been trivialized by some cont logic
yeah I know about this
they build models of platonic solids out of papier mache, the art of building them is called model theory
I've talked to Isaac Goldbring about it quite a bit
oh nice u know isaac?
yeah
wait r u ultra lol
Oh, okay.
there is a good chance i know u also 
no im in waterloo
hmm
but i feel like i have met all of isaacs students?
I wasn't Isaac's student
ah ok
but yeah me and ultra will be cooking using some model theory to find non-hyperlinear groups soon^TM
lol
$\texttrademark$
Eduardo León
What?
probably a font thing
noo the basterds trademarked punctured neighborhood
Lol
Would it be fair to say logic is the part of mathematics that physicists would be indifferent to if mathematicians suddenly decided to change the rules of how it works? (By contrast, suppose we changed the foundations of analysis or differential geometry. Physicists would be up in arms!)
it is unclear to me what that entails
like if we chose a different foundation from ZFC? i dont think most people would care
Oh smort.
I’m not so sure they’d be up in arms. I’ve talked to physicists/chemists/etc who can’t say what a hilbert space or group representation is
Look I used to be a physicist and they don't give a shit about the way calculus is currently formalized
I think it's fair to say that the real numbers are intended to behave the way certain physical objects behave. Like, if your definition of the real numbers didn't uphold the intermediate value theorem, then you'd reject it, because the physical counterpart does uphold the intermediate value theorem.
sure
although I guess like
honestly
I kind of can't see physicists jiving with intuitionistic logic
You used to be a physicist?
yes
huh..
I was in a physics PhD program for a bit more than 4 years before switching to math
wow
I’m just about to enter a physics phd program…
i mean
i did a math undergrad
but I’m not sure I’d want to or could do math
condensed matter physics
I mean, you can assign the name “real numbers” to whatever. At some point, you’ll want to talk about limits in an ordered archimedean field, and then you’ll get the reals whether you like it or not
cause it’s just so bizzare and weird and cool
some people get kind of mad about the whole 'reals as a set of points' vs. 'reals as an abstract locale' thing, but that would also be almost entirely irrelevant to physics
ah nice, yeah there's a lot of neat stuff there
mhm
I did string theory, incidentally
apparently some category theory gets used
i see
i think that’s mostly something I’m trying to avoid as long as i can
oh I wouldn't recommend engaging with string theory
I think that a lot of the criticisms people use against it aren't really founded, but it is also somewhat dying as a field
there's a lot more jobs in condensed matter
yeah it’s like
hmm how to say
i feel like I’ve gotten unreasonably lucky with my interests…
this happened in my undergrad too
i really liked all the applied math courses
but i also happened to score very well on the exams for them
are you more interested in experiemental physics or theoretical physics?
okay
I’m just not good with my hands
Are you interested in actually trying to go into academia?
i don’t know…
I don't really know what the academic job market is like in condensed matter physics, but I think it's probably better than high energy stuff
you don't need nearly as much money to do condensed matter experiments
it’s fine you can
im just some random masters student after all
well, former masters student
graduated today
You didn't really say this, but one of the things I find annoying is that people peg the experimental difficulty with string theory on string theory itself when it's really a fundamental problem with quantum gravity research in general. All of those problems apply just as much to loop quantum gravity, for instance
but string theory gets all of the shit for it
mhm, i see
i remember my standard model lecturer mentioning this
that the incompatibility between GR and the standard model is kinda overblown
you can couple gravity to the standard model just fine, and it works
until you get to very extreme situations
but these also happen to be situations where we don’t exactly have a lot of experimental data anyway
And some of the criticisms are just actually wrong. People will sometimes say string theory is just like 'curve fitting' where it's so flexible you can make it do anything, but this is the exact opposite of its problem. It's far too overconstrained, and they had a lot of difficulty finding vacua that even broadly resemble reality (they found a lot of anti-de Sitter space, but reality looks more like de Sitter space)
i guess doing a phd in it really
makes you know a lot about it..
yeah
i hope i won’t suffer from a knowledge problem for my phd
wdym by a knowledge problem?
like…
i’ve only really gotten into the maths discord in the last couple months
and i’ve met so many people who’ve done a ton of self-study
it feels like their gaps are bigger than my entire knowledgebase
it’s just not the kind of thing i’ve done at all
well almost all of the physics stuff I'm saying now is stuff I picked up in my PhD
mhm, right
I do know it’s something I have to get used to
my mode of learning has been
idk much, but what i do know i know very well
as opposed to having a lot of breadth
but I’m not sure i can really keep this up in a phd
it is something to be concerned about, a phd can be pretty intensive
yep
though i did ask a phd student here about their experience and
they said it was definitely easier than the masters here
so that’s kinda reassuring
The difficulty of graduate classes is all over the place. Some intro classes can be really tough but then in a higher level class, especially one where the prof doesn't want to grade, there can often be very little homework
In principle, string theory should be able to predict new particles or other experimentally accessible physics. Its failure to do so may mean string theory is wrong or it may mean that string theorists made a serious error in their approach. (Maybe Calabi-Yau compactificaiton is wrong etc.)
Why should it be able to do that in principle?
im not doing my phd in the us so i wonder how much this changes things
Like why does the underlying physics of reality need to occur at energy scales that can happen in particle accelerators that fit on the Earth? I don't see any reason a priori why that needs to be true
Any compactification will predict particles. It should be expected to reproduce the standard model and something new we can test.
I don't think string theory is right but I also don't think your argument is valid
It's very heavy higher category theory mixed with tools used in low-dimensional topology.
The Planck scale is just really big
Using a standard particle accelerator you'd need one on the scale of the solar system to probe it. This isn't a unique failure of string theory, it's a fundamental barrier to experimentally testing quantum gravitational stuff
So no
Its failure to do so may mean string theory is wrong or it may mean that string theorists made a serious error in their approach.
this is just an incorrect statement
uhhhh
that sounds really complicated…
gosh
Like does this mean that 'the theory of gravitons' is just necessarily incorrect since we can't reasonably build a particle accelerator that can produce them?
Sorry, I replied to the wrong user.
Originally, the hope was that there were only a small number of compactifications. The one corresponding to our universe would reproduce the standard model exactly etc. This failed becaue it turned out there were a huge number of potential compactifications (10^500 was thrown around) and people turned to speculating about statistics of the swampland (the weak gravity conjecture (which antedates that is one example), but there are several others. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Swampland_(physics)
In physics, the term swampland refers to effective low-energy physical theories which are not compatible with quantum gravity. In other words, the Swampland is the set of consistent-looking theories with no consistent ultraviolet completion with the addition of gravity.
Developments in string theory also suggest that the string theory landscape ...
I feel like the higher category theory isn't that complicated and the topology isn't that hard either. What confused me is that it wasn't obvious how to plug it into other physics. Namely, if I wanted to add fractional spins to a supersymmetric string Lagrangian, how would I do it and what would my options be.
Okay but I still don't understand your point here. I wasn't saying that string theory didn't end up failing to give a clear realisitic model (I pointed that out explicitly)
i mean you say the words “higher category theory” and it’s already waaaaay over my head
I'm saying that statements like In principle, string theory should be able to predict new particles or other experimentally accessible physics. aren't really substantiated by anything other than like naive experimentalism. We're pretty confident on theoretical grounds that gravitons should exist and we already know that they're not going to be realistically visible to things like particle accelerators, so what 'principle' dictates this?
Higher category theory means chain complexes
It does?
I think it should be some sort of "don't give up on obtaining experimental predictions; if some ideas haven't panned out consider new approaches within string theory" principle. It's quite possible that the next big discoveries are far beyond the reach of our technology, but if it looks that way we should probably act like we've done something wrong.
Why does that mean we've made a mistake?
I'm not saying people shouldn't look for experimentally viable theories, but like I said we more or less know that we don't know how to directly observe gravitons. Is that a mistake?
No, I don't think it is. But string theory predicts a lot of particles. We should be able to observe some.
Why?
Can all models of higher categories be expressed as chain complexes even the strict ones?
No, this was hyperbole. The main point of (oo,1)-category is that it is the right structure on the category of chain complexes. But there are triangulated categories that are not chain complexes, such as spectra. Categories enriched in spectra are the (oo,1) version of additive categories, but there is also the nonlinear case
The first place this arises in string theory is homological mirror symmetry, which is chain complexes
You can just think of a category and imagine the Hom-sets are categories themselves (and there are two composition rules) and build upward from there with the higher Hom-sets being their own categories.
For (\infnty,1)-categories the idea is more like spaces with the higher levels being homotopy.
Yeah the issue is like
I am not an algebraist
You say it like it’s so easy..
It’s not a story a physicist would tell you
I am a physicist, so..
Chain complexes are the main topic of this channel. Topology, not just algebra. It’s grad math, but low level and widely studied. Higher categories are cutting edge research, but it’s mainly guardrails for using the chain complexes correctly
(Chain complexes are pure algebra, but they are often applied to topology)
also like
i have spent a while in this channel and not needed chain complexes
hmm what even is a chain complex
lemme look it up
right…
i mean i can parse the def
but not sure i really understand it
welcome to higher-level math i suppose..
The first example of a chain complex is differential forms and the exterior derivative
My fav ones
Ah yeah, i guess I’d need to learn diffgeo for that
I’ve only ever really worked in coordinates
And not like abstract differential forms
Googling, there doesn't seem to be an algorithm to determine whether a knot is slice or not. Is there some barrier to developing an algorithm? Why can't you just use PL knots and try out all possible PL disks? Is it impossible to lower bound the size of the simplices needed?
How would you get a bound on the number of necessary simplices?
Compared the theorem that unknotting is decidable (in fact in NP)
I would try to argue that the bounding disk can't be much more complicated than the knot. The slice-ribbon conjecture is a big deal. Someone must have thought along those lines before.
Benson once said he didn’t understand why ppl did knot theory or HF since the classification problem was solved 
Sometimes he would be a bit dumb
if you measure complexity in terms of number of simplices clearly you can always take a barycentric subdivision of the disk and get something messy so i think you want some argument to establish bounds on the minimal number of such simplices, or some other notion of complexity, right?
But I dont know how you would do this in R^4
in S^3 Haken's algorithm uses the fact that normal surfaces in triangulated 3 manifolds come from points in an integer lattice
so i guess you would want a similar theory/set of results for an arbitrary triangulation of S^4
maybe these exist but i dont know of them if they do
A good reason to care about chain complexes imo:
Rank nullity is one of the best theorems about vector spaces. At a (very) abstract level. It tells you if you have maps f : V -> W and g : W -> Z with the kernel of g the image of f (imagine a projection from W to V^perp) then W is V + Z
This fails for more abstract things (like abelian groups) but the structure is still useful. The kernel = image means exact. The fact W =V + Z is to say this splits
Chain complexes encode sequences that have similar properties. And attached to chain complexes are algebraic invariants which detect things like
- how far off is it from exactness (this is homology/cohomology)
- how badly does splitting fail (this is…also homology/cohomology LOL, but of a different type, e.g group cohomology)
Another way to view chain complexes is just as a big bundle of algebraic data that’s convenient to give a name to
Why it shows up so much in topology is sort of a minor miracle
A (connective) chain complex is an abelian space
i feel like it makes sense because basically the only method we have of understanding topological spaces is stratifying them into data of various levels and then understanding how the levels combinatorially relate to one another
Well i should not say only
But one of
Basically the only
Everything has to boil down to combinatorics eventually
Humans only deal with finite data after all :)
But on a more serious note like you can model spaces with simplicial sets and replacing set by an algebraic category gives you (up to equivalence) (connective) chain complexes
The fact that out of these you can build actual chain complexes satisfying d^2 = 0 is the “minor miracle.” It’s not clear from the defn of chain complex that these would arise from combinatorial data in topology
yeah
i suppose one way to think about it is that d^2 = 0 is basically an algebraic expression of some kind of compatibility condition
e.g. of cocycles or whatever
And often finding a good chain complex to consider is how significant progress gets made in developing new homology/cohomology theories or doing computations
Indeed basically all the "ad hoc" signs and d^2 = 0 just seem to come from more natural simplicial objects lol
Seething at the category theorists being right
for example in floer homology it and its proof demonstrates the compatibility of a hammer with my skull
How is the simplicial point of view "more natural"?
By the simplicial pov, do you just mean singular homology/cohomology defined on simplicial sets?
The one where you take the free ab group on n simplices and define maps using alternating sums
Well, sure, singular homology factors through a functor from spaces to simplicial sets.
I'm just a bit confused what exactly potato meant by simplicial pov
Because if it's this, I didn't see why the alternating signs follow from the simplicial pov
I can't tell for sure, but it's probably something along the lines of "we care about simplicial gadgets for their own sake, rather than as tools to solve other problems we actually care about".
Somehow I always thought of the alternating signs as being the condition we need to get d^2 = 0, which is needed to compute homology/cohomology
Indeed.
Sure but at some point you'll have to start alternating signs and I can't think of a justification other than d^2 = 0
Surely alternating follows from topological intuition for boundary
Or like Stokes' theorem
But I wouldn't say one is more natural than the other
Maybe if you're someone whose idea of homotopy theory is the nLab's skewed version of it, maybe in that case you would think simplicial gadgets are more natural because they're used in actual constructions of infty-categories or some such?
Anyway, I had a question about the stabilization of infinity categories. Is the following characterization correct: given a pointed infinity category C, the stabilization of C is a pointed category Sp(C) with a functor C ---> Sp(C) such that the functor preserves suspensions, Sp(C) is stable (i.e. suspension is an equivalence), and this functor is (homotopy) initial with respect to this property
The other definition is stabilization is the one on nlab
Which presents it as a homotopy limit
One direction is straightforward I think. Given something that satisfies the definition on n-lab, we can infer our characterization by noting that filtered homotopy limits commute with finite homotopy colimits (like the suspension)
The other direction seems trickier. We basically want to show that the functor C ---> Sp(C) not only preserves suspensions, but also limits
I think this characterization might be incorrect because I can't think of a way to show that but it seems like it should be the obvious characterization in terms of universal properties
Can someone sanity check me, we can just define a map f: [0,1] -> X by f([0, 1/2)) = {p}, f(1/2) = {q}, f((1/2, 1]) = {p,q} and this is continuous by open set definition right?
The only issue is that f([0,1]) should be connected too
oh
maybe {{p} ,{q}, {p,q}} is connected
I don't understand your definition of f
Especially f((1/2,1]); what's f(3/4) for instance?
{p,q}
oh I think I see
Your space is X = {p,q}
right
And it has a topology in which the open sets are {emptyset, {p}, {p, q}}
And I want to show p and q are pathconnected
And that [0,1] is homeomorphic to its image in your space
Dold-Kan
I think f([0,1)) = p, f(1) = q works then
Well, it's continuous
the inverse of open sets is open as [0,1] is clopen
Actually hang on, they can't mean arcwise connected in the usual sense, it must be used a synonym of path-connectedness
Because you can't have an embedding of [0,1] into a two-point space
I only know one definiton I'm afraid
Yeah, that's path-connectedness
Arcwise connectedness often has another meaning
It's a stronger condition
Yes, I even linked directly to that section
Yes I didn't realise
But your space definitely isn't arcwise connected because an embedding is a bijection, and you can't have a bijection between [0,1] and a two-point set
right
It is path connected (so in the sense of your material it is arcwise connected, but it's worth remembering that the terminology might vary)
Gotcha, thanks for clearing this up 👍
Basically welcome to topology, where each notion has several dozen slightly varying definitions that aren't at all consistent in literature
lol. even when I do know what the terms mean they're still wacky
quasi-components not necessarily being connected was not obvious from the definitions givenb
thank you random user on MSE for the counterexample 🙏
Already pirated it 🫡
Consider the case of spaces. If you take compact spaces and apply your definition, you get the Spanier-Whitehead category. If you take all spaces you get finite desuspensions of suspension spectra, not all spectra
If you define your target category as compactly generated categories, then you get ind(SW), which is the right answer. But that’s kind of magic and it would be better to have a more explicit construction, and that’s why limits
Is there a way to characterize the stabilization in the standard universal "it is the initial/final object satisfying blah?"
It is the inverse limit of the loops functor. Didn’t you mention this characterization, but didn’t like it?
I was thinking if there is a characterization of stabilization as the initial/final category where looping/suspending is an equivalence + other conditions
As you demonstrate in your example, just requiring looping/suspending to be an equivalence isn't enough
I guess you could just unpack the limit definition into that form
But that feels like cheating
both the "spanier whitehead category" and "omega-spectrum objects" constructions occur as (co)limits of ∞-cats
in a sec I'll find the HA citation
It is the direct limit of the suspension functor, in the category of compactly generated categories. That’s a great definition. The only problem is computing in this category
Fair enough
ok i actually don't get it, is this sag or something?
HTT. The point is that this is a very general proposition in HTT (on Kan extensions, roughly) that gets applied a lot
In fact, the definition of spectra as ind(SW) is Adams definition, before omega spectra. But it was unwieldy then
ah i was looking for HA.1.4.2.24
I think when I found it in HTT I was like eh not worth learning it, seems rather specific, but then it is used a lot
oh right
this is the one for the people who are extremely keen on citing like
Well to talk about subcategories of diagrams admitting colimits, roughly
every little HTT thing
Iirc it is applies to say that essentially the functor from pushout squares to arrows (taking one of the "original" arrows) is a Kan fibration, and a trivial Kan fibration if cofibers always exist
you know, homotopy theorists come in two types
so that you can have a sigma boi
the 4.3.2.15 types and the 7.3.2.1 types
relative adjunctions
or
ah
there are also the non-Lurie model category enjoyers i guess
But we don't talk about them
ah right, the "my citation for this fact is this entire 100 page paper from peter may" crowd
also tbqh I'm still holding on for like
the post-HTT/HA higher categorical people to reign supreme
slowly but surely we will replace HA with things that are at least on the arxiv
Yet a third definition is Goodwillie’s definition as homogeneous linear functors. Basically Brown representation
That’s the equivalence between small categories and compactly generated categories: Yoneda embedding. Colimits in the domain of definition become limits in the categories of functions
ummm hello? hiiii? haiiii?
Lol
What if we were homotopy theorists but we just shared cat memes
You'd betcome category theorists
do homotopy and category theorists do anything else?
Real
C2 equivariant homotopy is quite trendy nowadays
hi ı find different definitions of Cell decomposition, ı need a topological space and a open cover that is true meaning X a topological space and E a open cover if (X,E) a cellular decomposition provide axioms this is a true definition right?
A cell decomposition of a space X isn't given by an open cover of X. It's given by a partition of X's set of points, such that
(a) For each part Y, there exist a number n \in N, called the dimension of Y, and a continuous map f : D^n -> X, called Y's attachment map. Here, D^n is the closed unit ball in R^n.
(b) The restriction of f to the open unit ball is a homeomorphism between said open ball and Y.
(c) The image of the unit sphere is contained in the union of parts of dimension < n.
thank you
Is there a conceptual reason for why cohomology allows for richer multiplicative structure than homology? As far as things go I would expect them to be equivalent
The diagonal map d : X -> X x X and the projections p1, p2 : X x X -> X induce the product on cohomology.
Yeah, the technical reasons are clear. Maybe there is like a phylosophical (?) reasoning to it, like the Hom functor being more expressive or maybe I'm just trying to intepret too much.
Can someone check my argument please?
Let $f : X \to R$, $g : X \to R$ be continuous functions such that for $p,q \in X$, we have $f^{-1}(0) = p$, $g^{-1}(0) = q$. Let U, V be open sets in $\mathbb{R}$ containing 0. $U \cap V$ is then too an open set containing 0. Consider $f^{-1}(U \cap V) \cap g^{-1}(U \cap V)$. These are open sets containing $p,q$ respectively. If they are never disjoint (if X is not hausdorff) (not disjoint for arbitrary U,V open containing 0), then $\bigcap_\alpha f^{-1}(U_{\alpha} \cap V_{\alpha}) \cap g^{-1}(U_\alpha \cap V_\alpha) \neq \emptyset$ but this infinite intersection is simply $f^{-1}(0) \cap g^{-1}(0) \neq \emptyset$ which implies that $p=q$, a contradiction. Thus X is hausdorff.
swifteeee
I don’t understand how you get from the pairwise intersection not being disjoint to the full intersection not being disjoint
also wow i was trying to come up with a counterexample before I read the exercise
neat that this is a true result
use the fact that R is Hausdorff
And note that if q is not equal to p, then f(q) is not 0
Yeah, I didn't know that one
how to describe surface such as at the pic? without using Bézier curves on glued rectangles
Ok this is maybe too much of a hint..
Twisted rectangles
This has thrown me off, they can be not disjoint in different ways so there's no guarantee that the inifnite intersection should be nonempty
Mhm
if q is not equal to p, then f(q) is not 0. There exist disjoint open sets in R, U, V containing f(p), f(q) respectively as R is hausdorff
Lemma: $f^{-1} (V) \cap f^{-1} (U) \subset f^{-1} (U \cap V)$.
Pf: if x $\in$ LHS, then $f(x) \in V$ and $f(x) \in U \implies f(x) \in U \cap V \implies x \in f^{-1}(U \cap V)$.
Then, as U,V disjoint in R, $U \cap V = \emptyset$, so $f^{-1}(U \cap V) = \emptyset$, and by the lemma above, $f^{-1}(V) and f^{-1}(U)$ are disjoint open subsets containing p,q respectively. Thus, X is hausdorff.
swifteeee
Yeah this should work
Though one thing that’s nice to know is preimage preserves basically every set operation
That's OK, although your inclusion is actually an equality: $f^{-1}(U \cap V) = f^{-1}(U) \cap f^{-1}(V)$
Outsider
Mhm
Yeah that
Basically cause preimage has both a left and right adjoint
And you don't need continuity or any other properties of f for this
It holds for every map.
I'm always sceptical about preimages so I only stated as much as I could prove
Preimages are much better-behaved than images
They preserve union, intersection, complements
I think you need continuity to make sure pullback preserves openness
That's why continuity and measurability are defined in terms of preimages
I mean it’s basically cause subsets are naturally contravariant
tbh I'm sceptical about any function operation on sets
Yeah, I mean you don't need continuity to have the fact that preimages are compatible with set operations
oh right

about it.