#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 89 of 1
There are totally-disconnected countable spaces which are not second-countable
A fun space with this property, which is also a counterexample for a few possible reasonable-sounding claims in point-set topology is "take an infinite rooted binary tree, considered as a discrete space, and adjoin a point at infinity, such that the neighborhoods of infinity are sets whose intersection with any infinite chain is cofinal"
Why does that work 
What if you take U = all odd layers and V = all even layers
Then U ∩ V is just {∞}
neither U nor V is a neighborhood of infinity
Oh do you mean cofinite
I do not!
But how are they not cofinal 
By "cofinal" I mean "in any given chain, there is some depth, such that EVERY element below that depth is included"
Oh, right lol, idk what I'm thinking
But those sets you gave are not cofinite in any chain
Each only includes half the elements of any chain !
To see that there isn't a countable neighborhood basis of infinity, take some collection of distinct chains indexed by N. For any given open neighborhood U you can get a function N -> N, via "in chain i, what is the last element not in U?". Given any countable family of such functions, there will be some function that is not dominated by any of them, by diagonalization, and you use that function to construct a corresponding open set which is not contained in your countable family.
I wonder if this generalizes to other monstrosities
For each chain starting at the root pick a nonprincipal ultrafilter to replace cofinite
Then it has the same properties
yeah, it'll be similar in a lot of ways.
Note that "N union infinity, where neighborhoods of infinity are given by some non-principal ultrafilter" is already enough to be not-second-countable
Thank you, isn't it the one point compactification of the discrete infinite tree?
It is not. Neighborhoods of infinity in the one point compactification are cofinite sets, not "things whose intersection with every infinite chain is cofinite"
Ohh I see, that's a fun space right
I get it I think. Yesterday I also thought about Q/Z (the contraction of Z), it is totally disconnected, countable, but not first countable at [Z], too, right?
Yea
Is it true that in a topoloigcal inverse semigroup S, the inversion map is continuous?
There exist topological monoids such that every element has an inverse, but the inverse map is not continuous. For example, the adeles are a topological ring. Thus the subset of invertible elements form a topological monoid. But the inverse map is not continuous. There is a finer topology on this set called the ideles that is a topological group
Thank you. What if the semigroup is also compact tho? Would that imply that the inversion map is continuous?
I think so
The way you make it a group is by taking the subspace of GxG consisting of elements a,b such that ab=e. [I’ve only done this in the commutative case and I’m suddenly nervous] This is a topological monoid with a continuous homomorphism to G and continuous inverse. If G is compact then this new G is also compact, but you can’t have two different compact topologies, so you haven’t changed the topology, and so inversion was already continuous
Can the long exact sequence for singular homology (… -> H_n(A) -> H_n(X) -> H_n(X, A) -> H_{n-1}(A) -> …) be expressed in terms of simplicial sets?
Actually, I have the same question for a lot of constructions in singular homology — e.g. the prism construction (homotopies of spaces induce homotopies of singular chain complexes), barycentric subdivision used to show that the singular chain complex "with support in" an open cover is homotopy-equivalent to the full singular chain complex (used to prove the Excision Axiom in Hatcher), etc.
The “total singular complex” of a space is a simplicial set. The free abelian group on this is a simplicial abelian group, which is a simplicial complex according to Dold-Kan, and which computes homology. If A is a subspace of X, the total simplicial complex of A is a subcomplex of that of X and the quotient computes relative homology. So you get the LES without concern about A being closed
I'm not sure I understand your answer. My question is essentially whether the (basic) standard singular homology theory can be developed with simplicial sets instead of chain complexes; sorry if that wasn't clear.
Well from a cofibre sequence A -> X -> X/A you get a cofibre sequence of their singular sets and same after applying Z (x) -
I don't know what a cofibre sequence is (and I'm going to need something simpler that ncatlab's (infinity,1)-category definition to understand it), sorry.
A → X be cofibration mayhaps 
I go learn what is cofibration 
Hatcher's ch.0 has it (?)
Oh homotopy extension
Although he never uses it
Yes IIRC
He later uses a "good pair"
But what's a cofibre sequence of simplicial sets then?
Looks like I need to learn a lot about simplicial sets first to learn about formulating singular homology with them…
I think A → X → X/A is a cofibration sequence of topological spaces
Then the C's are simplicial
Is it possible to give a simplicial homology on a 2-disk with, say, $k$ open disks removed from its interior?
ImHackingXD
I have seen a cell decomposition, for example when k=2 in this image
I am also confused as to why we need the beta and delta
I have a question about exercise 3 here. This question occurs in the context of H and H' spaces (so natural group structures on the homotopy classes pi_b(X,Y))
I know that the suspension and loop space functors are adjoint in that C(Sigma X,Y) = C(X, Omega Y), but idk how that helps me here
Hint: Eckmann-Hilton
Well this is notation I've never seen lol
does ,, Base of a topology'' that the topology ist generated by the base? so we can create every element of a topology by using base elements?
I just looked it up. Isn't comultiplication here an operation that takes in one input and outputs something in Y x Y?
For example, the operation on suspension that takes in Sigma Z and outputs Sigma Z v Sigma Z
Oh NVM, there's multiplication structures on the sets pi_b(YxY, X) and pi_b(Z, Y v Y)
so if we have a topoly T and a Base B of T then T=B?
topology*
we had an Notation T Topology and T_b , where b is a Base and i dont know what this notation means
a+
a*
we had a other definition of a basis: b subset of topology J if every element of J is a Union of basis elements
ahh ok^^
makes sense
thank you:)
so how can I approach this exercise?
i only have to show that b1 is a basis of tb1 and the other way right?
Eliza.
yeah but how
More generally, suppose I have a co-multiplication * and multiplication operation . on my set. Why is it true that (a . b) * (c .d ) = (a * c) . (b* d)?
That's part of the Eckmann-Hilton assumption
Right, but I guess I'm confused why that's the case in my setting
What is . and * in your case?
. in my case is the map on the homotopy classes induced by multiplication and * the map induced by co-multiplication.
So in my case, . is the map on loop spaces that just concatenates paths and * subdivides suspensions. But I should be able to make this argument more generally right?
Right this is exactly correct. No need for generality
You should be able to check that compatibility in this case explicitly
You're right, in this case the loopspace and suspension are not important just that it's Maps(X, Y) where X has a comultiplication and Y has a multiplication
I take my no need for generality comment back
Yeah, and I wanted to prove it in this setting since I feel it would be easier
Yeah not a bad idea
That's what I was having trouble doing unfortunately. The first assumption of the Eckmann-Hilton argument is obvious, but I was having trouble proving the second
subset relation
@nova fjord Honestly if you're having too much trouble you can always draw a picture.
A map Sigma^2 X -> Y is a square's worth of maps X -> Y with some boundary conditions
Composition is stacking the squares on top of each other
The fact that composition is abelian is then the fact that both squares can be shrunk a bit, then loopied around in the ambient rectangle, and inflated back up to reverse order
If I get stuck with formal nonsense I always switch back to pictorial arguments
(Secretly this is the same as Eckmann-Hilton except I'm using my right brain and not left brain. It is also the same as saying the little squares operad is commutative)
gromov again ya?
ya
@coarse night New edition of Eliashberg-Mishachev released, with Kai Cieliebak as another author
nice
A ton of new content that was previously available only in papers: folded h-principles, wrinkled h-principles, h-principle for multivalued jets
so what exactly is a "colimit of top spaces" and what makes it not a limit
Do you know the difference between “directed limits” and “inverse limits”? A colimit is a generalization of the first and usually an unadorned “limit” is a generalization of the second
An example of a directed limit is
Z-> Z-> Z-> …
where all the maps are multiplication by 2
The colimit is Z[1/2]
An example of an inverse limit is
Z/2 <- Z/4 <- …
The limit is the 2-adic integers
ok yeah this makes sense then
i was hearing this in the context of topological spaces tho
so why does inverse limit -> limit and directed limit -> colimit
Lol it hurt me brain to see it written as Z/2 <- Z/4 <- ...
It's a convention in category theory to name the construction where the described object points inwards as X and name the dual as co-X
hello arki
so what is the colimit of a series of topological spaces
If your sequence is a sequence of topological subspaces X1 ⊂ X2 ⊂ …, then the colimit is just the union
breh
lame
i figured it was just union
i guess in this case the morphisms are just inclusion mappings right
The morphisms of the diagram are the inclusion mappings
With the correct topology
The topology on the union is the collection of open sets whose intersection with every Xn is open
Indeed the underlying set of a colimit of spaces is just the colimit of the underlying sets
you then need to find the right topology to put on that set but yeah
ah right
would the topology just be the union of all the topologies of each top space
^
ah
For more general diagrams the colimit is a bit trickier to describe
are those equivalent statements
I don't think so
E.g. the colimit of [0, 1] → R with the usual topologies is R
But [0, 1] is not open
Not sure where to look for this, but what is a "fundamental cycle" in C_n(R^n; Z) - the singular n chains
It came up in a paper I was reading but can't find the notion referenced anywhere lol
I would guess it might mean any sufficiently generic map \Delta^n -> R^n, or like any embedding, but not sure
Yes
@unreal stratus For a closed n-manifold, the fundamental cycle is one that generates it's nth cohomology which is Z.
I don't know what the fundamental cycle for singular cohomology of a non-closed guy would mean. Are you sure it's not locally finite homology or anything
This is compactly supported so yes
Yeah then makes sense
Take a triangulation of R^n and sum over all the simplices
That's a locally finite chain which is a cycle
Generates H_n^lf
Wait yeah not compactly supported but Borel moore
Presumably that is the same as locally finite homology
Thank
Yep
bruh the paper does just write this though
rip
But from context i think it has to be this Borel-Moore stuff right
It better be lol
it's not standard but people do use compact nbhds etc
often we abuse terminology. if the abuse isn't clear from context then it's bad writing.
ah and i guess you can take the slant product of a locally finite chain with a compactly supported cochain without difficulty
here the point was they are slantproducting these "fundamental cycles" with some cochains lol and i was confusion
Yeah exactly
oop
lol
you have to change one of them i think for the perfect pairing right
don't think you can do both necessarily (?)
You can change both. Locally finite homology is dual to singular cohomology
sorry i mean you can't change both simultaneously right but you choose one to "replace"
Singular cohomology is dual to compactly supported cohomology
Yeah that's what I meant to say but I am terrible at writing symbols
if a metric space X is connected, then is the space of continuous functions from [0,1] to X (with the sup metric) necessarily connected? i don't see how this could be true, but i'm struggling to find a counterexample
i think i can show if the function space is path-connected then so is X, which restricts the search
You probably want X to be path connected at least?
Oh hmm, idk actually. If X is path connected then the function space is certainly path connected
yes
Let $Y$ be that spaceo f functions. Pretty sure if $f$ is any element, then there's a path $\gamma:I \to Y$ where $\gamma(t)$ is the function with $\gamma(t)(x) = f(tx)$
p-adic potato
So f is in the same path component as the constant function at f(0)
Then all of those are in the same path component because X is path connected
Oh lol this hasb een said
Rip
I thought you two wanted to change connected to path connected lol misunderstood
Any counterexample would probably be super messy lol
The constant functions embeds X into this space as a connected subspace. Any function f is in the same path component as the constant function f(0), hence in the same component as X. So everything is in the same connected component, the space is connected.
ah very good
I used path connectedness to show the f(0) are in the same path component, but just embedding X shows automatically those are even in the same component
Oooh very nice
yeah this was my idea too. great, thanks jagr
Is it true that a left-exact functor — for example, Hom(G, -) — applied to the singular homology (over Z or more generally a PID) of a topological space preserves homology?
It seems to be so, since then the ses Z_n -> C_n -> B_{n-1} splits and so its ses-ness is preserved by the functor, which also preserves the injectivity of B_n -> Z_n by left-exactness.
But I wanted to confirm.
IG it would have to be left-exact covariant or right-exact contravariant…
No wait, that doesn't ensure that H_n = coker(B_n -> Z_n) is preserved.
Please correct me if I'm wrong. In general, a fiber bundle can be expressed as P x^G F = (P x F) / <(pg, f) ~ (p, gf)>, where F is the fiber space, G is a topological group acting on F, and P is a principal G-bundle, right? And the bundle is flat if G can be chosen discrete, right?
Sure
Except flatness is an extra structure, not a property
Mmm, how so? In differential geometry, I can see how, flatness would be described by a particular choice of flat connection. But in topology...?
It's the choice of the discrete group G
The diffgeom and topology notions are equivalent btw.
Ah, makes sense, thanks.
Oh, right, what I actually wanted to ask is this. What exactly is the relationship between representations of pi_1(X) and principal G-bundles on X with G discrete?
representations of \pi_1 are so called local systems. When considered as bundles, these have locally constant transition functions
the property that these transition functions are locally constant is coming from discreteness
Here a representation of pi_1(X) is simply a group homomorphism pi_1(X) -> G, right?
yes
Oh, so it's basically sheaf on X such that there's an open cover {U_i} such that the sheaf restricts to each U_i to the constant sheaf with stalk G?
right, local systems correspond to locally constant sheaves
in certain situations you can also think about such local systems in terms of (flat) connections
if you have a principal G-bundle the data of a connection involves a g-valued 1-form (where g is the Lie algebra of G) on open subsets trivializing the bundle
flatness of the connection corresponds to this 1-form satisfying the Maurer-Cartan equation, its curvature should vanish
such a flat connection gives you a way to parallel transport along paths, and the sheaf of flat sections is a locally constant sheaf
My goal is, to the greatest extent possible, to replace the differential stuff with purely topological stuff in the problems that I'm given.
Rmk: You can think of the parallel transport as moving along the points (which are isolated) in G with the discrete topology, as you travel along a path in the base and keep using the transition functions to "develop" the bundle as you do so
Once you come back to the initial point, the point will have shifted to another point ie displaced by multiplication by a group element in G
That's the holonomy
Which gives you the representation pi_1(X) -> G
Makes sense, thanks!
Vaguely reminds me of the Milnor-Wood-Mather stuff.
What's that?
Essentially, it says every circle bundle over a manifold can be "approximated" by a flat circle bundle (ie topologically flat in your sense -- circle has discrete topology)
More precisely it says BHomeo(S^1)_d -> BHomeo(S^1) is a homology isomorphism
G_d is G with discrete topology
Approximated in what sense?
Yeah this is a little hairy to explain
Ah.
My situation is this. I'm interested in, or rather, I'm forced to deal with two manifolds $M$ and $S$, an open cover ${U_i}$ of $M$, and submersions $\phi_i : U_i \to S$ such that, for each $i$ and $j$, there's a fixed element $g_{ij} \in Aut(S)$ such that $\phi_i = g_{ij} \circ \phi_j$. (My manifolds are complex and my automorphisms are biholomorphisms, but the problem is the same if we work in the $C^\infty$ category.) Clearly, the $g_{ij}$ can be considered the transition functions of a principal $G$-bundle $P \to M$, where $G$ is a discrete group that maps to $Aut(S)$. I want to think of the $\phi_i$ as given a single section of $P \times^G S$.
Eduardo León
No. (0,2) has no elements of Z+ first of all
Can there be knotted surfaces and knotted volumes that are PL isotopic, but not smoothly isotopic? https://arxiv.org/pdf/2003.13681 mentions knotted surfaces which are exotic between the Top and Smooth categories and between the Top and PL categories. The reference in that paper (B Benedetti, Smoothing discrete morse theory,) indicates that up through 6 dimensions each PL manifold corresponds to a unique smooth manifold. (Theorem 1.8 (Kervaire-Milnor [35], Hirsch-Mazur [30], Munkres [52])) Can using the uniqueness of smooth structures for a given PL manifold then be used on knotted (surface/volume) complements to argue that smooth structures are unique for PL knotted surfaces and volumes?
Besides the Nielsen-Schreier theorem and a proof of the FT of algebra via winding numbers, what are some notable applications of topology to proofs of purely algebraic statements? I suppose most, if not all, of algtop might be filed under this, so I'm looking for other, more niche examples.
What the sigma
Not an answer but FT of algebra is more analysis than algebra imo
Despite its name, there is no purely algebraic proof of the theorem, since any proof must use some form of the analytic completeness of the real numbers, which is not an algebraic concept.[3] Additionally, it is not fundamental for modern algebra; it was named when algebra was synonymous with the theory of equations.
Well a classic would be applications of the Brouwer fixed point theorem to game theory. but more broadly ig it depends what you mean by "topology" since techniques and things are used in, say, AG a lot so there'll be no shortage of examples
I guess it comes down to what qualifies as analysis vs algebra. You can prove it just from R being a complete ordered field, which feels pretty algebraic. Though a bit in the edge admittedly
Does this use that degree odd polys have roots? Is there a way to do that without IVT?
I guess it might just be reproving IVT yeah
In its proofs, absolutely, but content- and importance-wise it is 100% algebra.
Is it really though? Like content-wise it's a statement about real/complex numbers, which you need some analysis to define or stretch your definition of algebra quite thin.
And importance-wise, I don't see it being particularly relevant to algebra. I can't really think of any algebraic statements that favors the complex numbers over any other algebraically closed field of characteristic 0.
Yeah the main reason for considering R is for analytic/topological properties anyway
the 2nd question is kicking my ass and idk how, suppose I have a coherent topology and F is closed, want to show F intersect A is closed for A in the collection. I know that F^c intersect A is open i.e. (F^c intersect A)^c = F union A^c is closed but idk what to do w that
oh wait
I can use the empty set and X, this is stupid
didn't realize that coherent topology implies all the sets A are open
though I don't think that helps me...
okay scratch all this, I very much misread what the coherent topology was, I didn't see that the sets G intersect A would be open in A, not in X
the exercise is now trivial
How do they get the very last part?
in other words
F_{p^d} ⊂ F_{p^n}
Is it thatF_{p^k}is the splitting field ofx^{p^k} - x?
this is some weird looking topology
So you're saying it makes no difference to Galois theory/polynomials/algNT that C is algebraically closed? I don't think that's minor trivia.
I guess that's what I'm saying yes.
I haven't really seen C apear in Galois theory, other than as an example of an algebraic closed field. And algNT is all about algebraic extensions of Q, so that's not really related to C either.
Not sure what you mean by 'polynomials'.
Studying elements of Z[x] or Q[x] or R[x] and their properties, e.g. as in Prasolov's book.
I'm not familiar with that book, but for R[x] it make sense that complex numbers would be relevant. For Z and Q, I guess I would need to see it to believe it.
Reading Munkres, I don't get why in the proof for the existence of a lifting of a path homotopy F to a covering space it starts by lifting the restriction of F to the side of the square
To what use is it done for? It would seem a superfluous step to me
Well, how would you have done it?
Or you mean you don't see where it is used at all
In the induction steps for mapping all the rectangles it is assumed that the edges on the left and bottom are already mapped
If I get it right, once we have a fine enough subdivision of the square into a finite number of smaller closed squares, such that F sends each into an evenly covered open set (with lebesgue number lemma), then through connectedness of each subsquare and local inverses of the covering we can uniquely define the lifting on each subsquare starting by the bottom left corner and then progressively moving to a contiguous one, given a condition on where the lifting sends (0,0)
But in this process I can simply define the lifting on the edges as I move to the subsquares that intersect it
You're right, I think it's superfluous
It's strange I found the same proof outline in another book where it even presents the lifting of the edge as a lemma before, so I thought I was missing something..
Yes
As in that its the splitting field etc
sorry I just realized lol
is there an easy way to see
Note though that like if x^(p^n) = x then x^(p^n/d)) satisfies x^(p^d) = x
exponent is (p^n)/d or p^(n/d) in the second one?
If the first one I don’t see why that’s true, but the equation x^d = x is satisfied
if the second one I don’t see anything happening
Sorry my phone died lol
No problem I figured it out
this is some funky looking topology
what would be the definition of a point that is not isolated?
every open neighbourhood of it contains other points?
complete and countable metric space
yeah so Ux's are open because their complements are 1 point sets and therefore closed
why would a one point set be closed
well what would its closure be
you mean that in order for another point to be adherent
there would need to exist a sequences
ok
i get it
but what about an isolated point
wouldn't it be closed and also open
ok
so singletons being closed sets
only happen cause we are working with a metric space right?
It also happens in some spaces that are not metric, but it does happen in all metric spaces.
thanks
i was thinking i guess in general topological spaces
but reading about that T1 axioms
Yeah, T1 spaces are exactly the ones where singletons are closed.
What do you mean by "such x" here?
ok give me a second to write
yeah
i was trying to prove that the set U'x was open using the definition that every point in it must be an interior point.
isolated points are precisely the ones who are open as a one-point subset
but since i failed. I tried to prove that the singleton was closed but with the adherent point definition.
clopen sets only occur when ur space is disconnected
u have a metric so u can use balls
clopen lol
yep, standard terminology 😂
you are right. The book is called Intro to topology so i suppose the author was trying to prove everything in such a way that it would also work for a Topological space.
in a general top space points aren't closed
i mean in general for the whole chapter
the book starts with metric spaces
and goes very fast
A good book will make clear when it's talking about metric spaces vs. general topological spaces, but it won't necessarily be super pedantic about proving each theorem with the most generic assumptions possible.
yeah, moreover, unless that is a very explicit well motivated goal, stating each theorem with the most generic assumptions possible is frankly bad pedagogy
but thats my personal opinion
Is there any slick way to show that given continuous functions f, g: X -> Y that the function h: X x X -> Y x Y sending (a, b) to (f(a), g(b)) is continuous?
I know that in the product topology, a function from X x X to Y is continuous iff each projection is continuous
So I was looking for something along those lines to finish the proof
i mean you got it
each projection is clearly continuous
This is backwards. As stated it doesn’t make sense
Oh
But the correct version is what you need
A function h: X -> Y x Y is continuous iff the projections h_1, h_2: X -> Y (obtained by composing with the actual projections Y x Y -> Y) are continuous.
Ok so since the functions r_1, r_2: X x X -> Y, where r_1 sends (a, b) to f(a) and r_2 sends it to g(b), are continuous (?), we can apply the result
talking about continous functions. Is pic related solved with an specific inequality or is it more direct?
the functions in question are clearly Lipschitz
and therefore continuous
But now is there any “nice” way to show that r_1, r_2 are continuous?
wait what
Ok yea pre image is a cylinder
if the distance between sequences is less than epsilon, then the distance between their limit inferiors is also less than epsilon
so they are Lipschitz continuous with constant 1
are you saying that
the difference of the lim infs
is less or equal than the sup of the difference of the values of the sequences?
yeah
no
sure
yes i'm a reta r d

yes
The fact that you had to obfuscate it means you know it's a shitty thing to say.
i think the word is banned on the server
high in obvservational skill
Yes, for a reason. Don't try to loophole it, please.
ok
so for the difference of lim sups it works
but what if we talk just about sups
of tails
said
would the sup of the tail_n(x) - sup of the tail_n(y)
also be at an epsilon distance
@arctic mural you can say "i'm juglans" for the same effect
Hello chat. I come to you in my hour of need. Could someone verify these calculations are correct, this is for the Lyndon spectral sequence [E_2^{p,q} = H^p(\bZ/2\bZ ; H^{q}(\bZ/n\bZ; \bZ)) \Longrightarrow H^{p+q}(D_{2n})] with $n$ even
\begin{align*}
E_2^{p,0} &= H^p(\bZ/2\bZ ; \bZ)\
E_2^{0,q} &= H^0(\bZ/2\bZ ; H^q(\bZ/n\bZ;\bZ)) = H^q(\bZ/n\bZ;\bZ)\
E_2^{p,(1+2k)} &= H^p(\bZ/2\bZ;0) = 0\
E_2^{p,(2k)} &= H^p(\bZ/2\bZ;\bZ/n\bZ) = \begin{cases} \bZ/n\bZ & p = 0 \ \bZ/2\bZ & p \equiv 1 \text{ mod } 2 \ \bZ/2\bZ & p \equiv 0 \text{ mod } 2, p\neq 0\end{cases}\
\end{align*}
I want to make sure the $E_2$ page absolutely does not collapse before I start worrying about $E_3$. If the above groups are correct then it's clear that $d_2 = 0$:
[\begin{array}{ccccc}
\vdots & \vdots & \vdots & \vdots & \
\bZ/n\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \dots \
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & \dots\
\bZ/n\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \bZ/2\bZ & \dots\
0 & 0 & 0 & 0& \dots \
\bZ & 0 & \bZ/n\bZ & 0 & \dots
\end{array}]
So wouldn't the $E_3$ page just be zeros? I'm confused, the $E_2$ page doesn't collapse but $E_3$ contains absolutely no data? I must've gone wrong somewhere but I cannot for the life of me figure out where
Wew Lads Tbh
Well differentials vanishing means E3 is the same as E2
(Well, same groups)
@zinc hearth
Unfortunately there does seem to be room for non trivial differentials in E3 and indeed E_(2n+1) more generally
it may be over
It may be possible to use multiplicativity ig
Hm there is one thing I am unsure about though
Doesn't the cohomology of Z/2 with Z/n coefficients depend on whether 2 divides n
actually E_4 might collapse, most of the things on E_3 look like just ... -> C_2 -> C_2 -> C_2 -> 0
it does, I specified n even
Yeah but do you know what the differentials are
not yet
yeah, cause it's split
Ye
Well I mean that like
There is also a spectral sequence with the same E2 page converging to cohomology of the product
hmm
It could be they have the same cohomology ignoring the product I suppose
But idk
Scary
but there's definitely no twisting going on because it is legit split - maybe the cohomology is the same?
Tbh idk enough group cohomology aha im mostly going off topology stuff
@zinc hearth You write H^p(Z/2Z; Z/nZ) = Z/2Z if p = 1 mod 2 etc. What if n is odd?
Isn't that just 0 then
@tiny ridge
It is indeed just 0 when n is odd
Which is why that case is significantly easier 
Ah, yeah
Missed that completely
@zinc hearth Yeah I don't see a way to do this by the LHSSS
Would you like to see a magic trick?
Hi, I'm trying to show that P^2 # P^2 is homeomorphic to the Klein bottle K^2, and I quickly noticed that the argument in the picture quickly solves this. However, if I am to give the spaces coordinates in R^2, defining a homeomorphism becomes a bit more intricate, which led me to the question: can one formalize this sort of "cutting and gluing" argument so that showing quotient spaces to be homeomorphic becomes quicker in many cases like these? For example, does anyone know of a book that builds things up rigorously using simplicial complexes?
I'm currently following Bredon, but since cell-complexes seem easy to work with, I'm looking for a source that develops the theory with cell-complexes as well (also, I didn't like the presentation in Hatcher because of his handwavy arguments, so I'd prefer to stay away from his book)
Magic 
There is no such book.
What do you did is perfectly formal.
Your drawings are in summary a chain of formal reasoning with copies of [0, 1]^2 modded out by various equivalence relations which are shown to be homeomorphic by iterated applications of the universal property of quotient spaces
the formalization is the tikz used to draw it in latex
Regardless, I find a different calculus convenient to do these cut & paste surface arguments, rather than cutting fundamental polygons and pasting them back -- which is somehow quite unsystematic for me and I get confused
Here's what I call "1 D Kirby calculus", explained in a take home final I had to write this for.
the spectral sequence should collapse at E_2
if you're doing this with homology you should see that H_i(D_2n,Z) is Z for i=0, Z/2Z for i=1 mod 4, and Z/2nZ for i=3 mod 4 for basically the same reason
This cannot be true, because all abelian subgroups of finite groups with periodic cohomology are cyclic. D_8 contains a Z_2 x Z_2
You're probably computing D_2n with n odd
sorry yeah I meant D_2n for n odd
Right. I realised this because my "magic trick" was supposed to be trying to find a free action of D_2n on a sphere lmao
And that's not possible because these guys don't have periodic cohomology
So there's no magic trick. Dunno how to do this for even n
This is super cool. Do you have any good references to learn more about Kirby calculus perhaps?
Dim 1 Kirby calculus? There's no reference for this particular thing that I know of but I gained a lot from thinking about the pictures in J Scott Carter's "How surfaces intersect in space"
Ch 1 does some of this a little but the drawings are somewhat extrinsic
For usual Kirby Calculus the perfect book to begin with is Gompf-Stipcisz
How does continuity look like for maps between ordered abelian groups using order topology?
That's a topological group I think?
I wonder if they are all subgroups of lexicographical ordering on R^⊕S for some totally ordered S
Is it possible to keep choosing a maximal subgroup isomorphic to a subgroup of R, identify it with some summand of R^⊕S, and quotienting it out
This feels doable
hmm alright I'll think about it
my naive guess was that we could have epdilon delta continuity or sequential continuity equivalent to continuity, do you think that's actually possible?
Sequential continuity is generally weaker than continuity
Since they may not be first countable
E.g. R^⊕ω1
Epsilon-delta may still work tho
Since epsilon balls form a basis
Does anyone know if the following property has a name: A topological space X has property P of there exists a basis of X such that every element on that basis is homeomorphic to X. For example, X = IR^n
No, not a common or rather useful property to have a name
can you think of any other examples of spaces that have this property other then spaces with the trivial topology @coarse night ?
Trivial space doesn’t have that property
isn't {X} a basis?
Also no, very useless property to be thinking of
Sure! Thought you mean discrete but anyway
Cantor set!
Oh, that's that's a very nice example. Thanks!
But I agree it's generally a fairly exotic property and not common/useful enough to have a name
well then the points form a basis and all singletons are isomorphic
But not homeo to space X because of cardinality
This property doesn’t have a name, but spaces X that have this property yield a class of spaces called X-manifolds
Examples:
X=a particular Banach space
X=Hilbert cube minus a point. Spaces modeled on this are called Hilbert cube manifold, not Hilbert cube minus a point spaces. There is a lesson here
A sequence of spaces starting with the cantor set minus a point, then the Menger sponge minus a point. See Bestvina 1984
If this property had a name, it should involve the word homogeneous. Something like scale homogeneous or fractal homogeneous
In the definition of fiber bundle, is the topology of the group acting on the fibers part of the definition?
If the group is part of the definition, the topology on the group is
In practice fiber bundle usually means structure group homeomorphisms, so everything that matters is captured in the projection map. (Or diffeo, but that’s captured in the smooth structure.) If you care about the group, you just say principal bundle
The main exception is vector bundles. Giving linear structure is the same as reducing the structure group to GL
But occasionally people talk about, eg, flat bundles of manifolds. That means the group is the homeo/diffeo, but discrete topology
That's precisely what worries me. That there might be fiber bundles that don't come from a principal bundle.
If the group G acting on the fibers of E -> X has a known topology, then the cocycle of transition functions defines a principal G-bundle P -> X, and we can reconstruct our original bundle as E = (P x F) / <(pg,f) ~ (p,gf) : g \in G>.
A fiber bundle is the same as a homeo(F) principle bundle
Where Homeo(F) has what topology?
If the topology on Homeo(F) is too coarse, then the action on F might not be continuous. If the topology on Homeo(F) is too fine, then the transition functions might not be continuous.
Compact open. I guess this is only true if that topology has the right formal properties, in particular if F is locally compact
any hints on how to prove this?
just Hom properties are enough ig since those are direct sums
How could I show that a continuous endomorphism on an ordered topological group with order topology is monotone?
Tbf this is kinda like true lol
yeah
really simple question which I'm stuck on for some reason: is there a continuous surjection from S^1 to [0,1]^2?
i believe yes, by a general theorem on stuff being surjective images of stuff even from [0,1]
But I'm trying to think of an explicit construction lol
But yeah e.g. wikipedia has a nice treatment of the connstruction of a space filling curve
take a space filling curve and then go backwards
ye
space emptying curve
Take the obvious continuous surjection from S^1 to [0, 1), composed with sin(pi*x), which I think is continuous onto [0, 1], then finally the Peano curve gets you to [0, 1]^2. Does this work?
I think you mean the obvious map from S1 to [0, 1], then the Peano curve (or some other space filling curve).
S1 doesn't map onto [0, 1)
If you uncoil the circle, you can map one end to 0, but wouldn't the other end be open? What do you map to 1?
Uncoiling the circle isn't continuous.
For the obvious map I was thinking just mapping (x, y) to |x| or some other expression in x and y
Can't you just take the argument of each complex number on the circle, or angle with the x-axis or whatever?
Or that's maybe discontinuous because of the jump at 0
It is not continuous because there's a jump, yes
I see 👍 I don't have a very good intuition for continuity yet, but it seems you can always glue something together in a continuous way, but you can't break it apart again without introducing a discontinuity
That is exactly the right image to have
how do you prove (b)?
I don't see it
like, I don't see how compact fibers help at all when the preimage of a compact set might be the union of uncountably many fibers
(which obviously isn't necessarily compact)
wait, ig, closed map means image of X is closed?
hence the preimage of any compact set is closed
Closed means that the image of every closed set is closed
yea, but the whole space is closed, right?
Yes, but how do you use that?
I dunno
this is all I could deduce
wait, I think I'm wrong
a closed subset of a compact set is closed but a compact subset of a closed set isn't necessarily closed 
maybe just take an open cover of F^-1(K) and work with it
like if U is in the cover then F(X\U) is closed in Y
nah, you can't extract a subcover of U since F(F^-1(K)) isn't necessarily K
I had to look up the proof in my textbook, but if you let y be in K and U be open cover of F^-1(K), then you can look at the finite subcover of f^-1(y) wrt U
and then find a way to apply the assumption that F is closed
given a basis, what is the best way to prove if it's countable or not? I guessed finding a mapping between my basis and a countable/uncountable map, but what properties must this mapping have to be a valid argument? or is there a different way?
you look at it really really hard until a solution materializes in your mind
nothing really special about bases, usually you try to find some unique or almost unique thing to associate with each set so that its apparent that there are as many sets as there are things
if tried pushing really hard but something else materialized
alright thanks, i (think i) got one for my problem, wondred if there was a more efficient way
Potentially trivial question about spectra: Let X and Y be spectra (of pointed simplicial sets). Then there is the mapping spectra [X,Y] whose n^th term is the mapping space Hom(X, nth suspension of Y). Is the simplicial structure on Hom(X, nth suspension of Y) given by Hom(X, nth suspension of Y)_k = maps X x k-simplex ---> nth suspension of Y (where k-simplex = image in spectra of the k-simplex)
This seems like the obvious things to do, but I wanted to make sure
Also, are products of spectra formed in the obvious way (term by term)
I know smash product isn't, but I have no idea about the normal product
Yes
This follows from the fact that the n-th space functor is a right adjoint. The 0-th space functor is known as loops infinity
Sounds right
Is this really a question about spectra or a question about simplicial sets? I think you should think of building spectra from a model of spaces with an internal Hom and you shouldn’t need to open up that black box
Idk lol. This was something I thought of as I was about to go to sleep and it kept me up
Is the nth space functor the adjoint of the n fold delooping (in spectra) followed by the infinity delooping?
Or loops infinity as you call it
Wait sorry
Delooping is something else
I meant taking the n fold looping and then the infinity looping
Also, even if we blackbox the internal hom on our category of spaces, we need to do some work to define what the nth space in the spectrum Hom(X,Y) is, don't we?
Well I guess we could work with spectra model independently
Yes, the n part is new going from spaces to spectra. The k is internal to spaces. Do them separately before combining them
Right
Is this correct (after replacing delooping by looping everywhere)
That is the n-th space functor. It is not adjoint to it. The adjoint is suspension spectrum functor, followed by deloop by n
Oh wait yeah, that's what I meant
Can you guys explain what a retraction and an inclusion map are?
Usually if $A$ is a subspace (or subgroup, subset,...) of $B$, the identity map $A \to B$ is called the inclusion
Crystalline Potato
If $f: A \to B$ is a map (of spaces, sets, groups, anything...) and $g: B \to A$ satisfies $g \circ f = \mathrm{id}$, then $g$ is called a retraction of $f$ and $f$ a section of $g$
Crystalline Potato
I can never remember which is retraction and which is section lol
It's like plugging in a USB
No matter which I think it is, it's the other one
USB
section's meaning in terms of cross section doesn't help me tho
Huh?
just a regular marshmallow gun
Does anyone know how to implement topology deep learning
a partial inverse is a choice of representative from every fibre. It is pretty literally a cross section
also a section is a smaller part of something so it makes sense to me it goes from the smaller thing to the larger thing
Yeah but not all retraction is like fiber bundle, is it
Not all fibers come from fiber bundles
What was generalization of fiber bundle, ahain
Ah wait
Many maps A -> B just have fibers..
By "fiber" I just mean the preimage of a single element
Yeah
Yeah use torch.nn.cohomology
Hm, I have it just the opposite. Retraction is a bit nebulous, while section has a very clear image.
If you project a 3d object into the plane then take a section, that's exactly a cross section.
Which sets are closed in a set 𝑋 with the finite complement topology?
ans) the whole set X, and the finite subsets
correct me if i am wrong, i have just started this subject some hours ago
correct
is topology through inquiry a good text to learn the subject ?
for firing marshmallows at people?
I didn't like it, or at least the course that was based on it. I don't know that I particularly like their approach to learning (just a personal opinion), but in particular, they are missing some important stuff (e.g. there's absolutely no mention of either nets or filters), the order is a bit odd to me (e.g. they delay continuous maps far too late into the textbook for such a central concept). I can't speak on the secong half of the book but I imagine it suffers similar issues.
If you're fine with learning basic category theory (or already know it) I would recommend "Topology: A Categorical Approach"
If you don't want to learn category theory as well then idk what the great books are, the standard reference is i guess still munkres but i don't love it, #book-recommendations might have something in the pins or something in #books-old
if you're sticking in a usb the right way, the shape should look like a U
Aren't some modern USBs bidirectional anyway
Yea I assume he's talking about USB-A
yea I'm talking USB A
huh I've never noticed
Wat
I want to replace GCN with topology gnn
Hi I want to know what details I missing for open cover consisting of two set van kampen theorems says that pushout and fundamental group functor are commuting. It is in general true that colimit and fundamental group functor are commuting?
No. Even the Van Kampen theorem fails if the push out is not along open inclusions
There are some cases where it works. For example if you have a direct limit along closed inclusions of T_1 spaces, then that commutes with homotopy groups
But these are rare situations
If you take restriction of functor to inclusions?
Nope, there are conditions on the inclusions in these cases, and even then it's not true of most colimits
I guess really the point is that the van kampen theorem is about "homotopy" pushouts, which in some cases coincide with usual pushouts (in particular under the conditions of the theorem!)
and van kampen talks about π_1 playing nicely with those
Is that equivalent to van kampen? I don't see it
Also homotopy groups commute with products
This is closer to what you'd expect. Homotopy groups are defined by mapping from something into your space
So should be respected by constructions that play well with mapping into them
wait maybe i am over simplifying lol
I read this from nLab and there is very nice version that hocolimit commute with functor
But it fails in the general case because you take homotopy classes (that's the whole difficulty of homotopy categories)
What's the statement?
bleh okay yeah i oversimplified ig lol i don't think they are equivalent
Certain hocolims commute with certain functors yes
but like
Ah that's the fundamental groupoid
i think in many cases the condition guarantees it to be a homotopy pushout right
I didn't know that fact, that's cool
Yeah but I feel like hopushout is weaker
But what is hocolimit?
ye
Homotopy colimit. Normal colims don't play well with homotopy classes of maps, so you fix it by somehow taking coproducts and gluing up to homotopy
It doesn't have the same universal property of course, and it's not quite the colimit in the homotopy category, which makes it harder to work with. But it has nicer properties than just normal colims when working with homotopies.
Tldr does it say they are equivalent?
Or does one imply the other?
well there's this
Hmm excision
But yeah I mean I don't doubt that it's a hopushout
I've seen that statement before
Yeah lurie deduces excision for homology and van kampen using this
i'm sure this isn't like new or anything, just had never realised that (but hoped you could do it like this in terms of simplicial sets)
I guess the excision for homology is fine because hopushouts give you hopushouts in stable homotopy and those give you Mayer vietoris
Van kampen is surprising
But why most of time the domain of functor is topology category not homotopy category it give advantages?
it does still require some work, but (at least to me) it's prettier than the usual proof
A topological category is essentially a category with homotopies (it's what is called an infinity category) so if you can take a hocolimit that plays well with homotopies, then you can throw in homotopies in your domain itself, and the hocolim will respect all of that extra data
Well it factors through the homotopy category but it can be useful just to work in terms of spaces
I assume by topology category you mean the category of topological spaces
or am i wrong idk
Okay thanks
Actually this has, like, reignited my interest in "basic" AT results moldi aha
having a nice different perspective
Yeah I go back to classical stuff a lot
It's really cool
I recently got a cool proof of a generalization of Hurewicz from someone in the AT server
i have an exam in like 3 weeks so i have no choice soon anyway aha
Ooh which kinda generalisation
The funny proof I am aware of is like
considering $X \hookrightarrow \mathrm{SP}^\infty X$
Crystalline Potato
That a map of simply connected spaces is an isomorphism on the first n homologies and a surjection on n+1 if and only if the same is true of homotopy
Ah sure
Generalizations may not be the right word because you need Hurewicz to prove it lol
Does that fall out of the serre spectral sequence
You take the natural map Dom(f) → hofib(hocofib(f))
And repeatedly apply Blakers Massey to this

Dom(f) is notation i have not seen in like
maybe a year lol
But okay hmm
Lol was just too lazy to name things
Blakers-Massey is something I have like never really properly looked at
The map Dom(f) → * is 1 connected, so each time you apply B-M you up the connectivity of f by 1 until you reach n, after which the loop fails
This recursive looping is the best part of the argument
The easiest statement to remember is
Is you have a span B ← A → C
Take it's homotopy push out and then the homotopy pullback of that hopushout
You get a natural map A → that hopullback of hopushout
B-M says that that map is at least as connected as the sum of connectivities of the 2 maps in the original span
And here it applies because hocofib is hopushout where one leg is to * and hofib similar
Yep
Yes that's right
very nice
thanks
i love this sort of thing in homotopy theory lol it's what makes it particularly fun to me ike
how you can prove (or state) theorems using this categorical nonsense lol
of course the game is sort of rigged initially ig but ye lol
Well
It requires some topology
Yes
But Charles rezk has a note on B-M proof through abstract nonsense
Yeah I just saw heh
Which I do not understand
But apparently that works very generally
So here's the proof of the harder direction of the earlier claim
You have
X → Y
You take
X → Y → C
↑
F
Where C is cofib and F is fib of that. If f is homology iso up to n and surj at n+1, then C is n+1 connected by LES of homology and classical Hurewicz. Then by LES on homotopy, F → Y is n-connected. Now applying B-M to X → F, it is 2-connected, but that makes the original map a composite of a 2-connected and an n-connected map, but then B-M makes X → F 3-connected, and so on
I find it unbelievable that this works
It's so crazy, never seen a proof like this before it's like induction but kinda more self sustaining
I guess B-M is handling the whole recursion step
So not too crazy perhaps
But I like it
Bruh
This is pretty cool yes, thanks for sharing
Np
Connectivity stuff is smth I wanna get more of a hand on kinda
This is from Kaya Arro on the AT server
My uh academic sibling showed me smth cool using similar connectivity stuffs recently lol
Ye when I first read connectivity stuff from concise it made me want to end myself
Yeah lmao
Honestly I'm not entirely sure what n-connective means for maps cause I may be off by one lol
I assume it is that the hofib is n-connective
Now I just remember it for spaces - so n-connected means homotopy vanishes up to and including deg n (I keep in mind what 0 and 1 connected mean) and then an n-connected map is one whose homotopy fiber is n connected
and then that means homotopy groups < n vanish
Ye
I'm saying connective
That's the annoying bit
That terminology needs to be buried
Sorry
Well like n-connective should mean < n homotopy groups vanish
I think the point is like
Nonnegatively graded should be connective
Yeah makes sense
shh
Aka nnective
truncated
I guess yeah fair
Idk why truncated and coconnective both exist
Maybe there is some difference idk
Cotruncated

Idek where this terminology originates
I guess it is a more invariant way to talk about non-negatively graded stuff idk
Perchance
You can't just say perchance
They just did
Mayhap I can
Fundamental groupoid is like mapping out. If you define it by covering spaces, it is mapping to the classifying space of a symmetric group(oid)
More slickly, you can define the fundamental groupoid as the universal map to an aspherical space
Does it coincide with the P^1 from the postnikov tower then?
Sure
Oh that's cool. Makes sense too
Ah because you are essentially doing P^1 on the singular simpset
Very nice
btw @empty grove lol i looked through and the proof of that statement with excision for singular sets is more or less the usual proof of excision lol
Just you phrase it all in terms of singular simplicial sets
like this is the key bit
Can someone explain in english what the values of | |S| | |S| I(S) and then the bottom | | S | | mean?
still new to this whole math language
It says | | S | | is the number of shaded components in the lemma, but I see way more than 2 shaded regions on that knot diagram
at first I thought it meant it was a link and each link has a component with parts shaded, but I traced it and its definitely a knot
And what is a circuit?
I(S) is the number of internal vertices and i see 4 but it says 3
like im obviously missing something here
Where is it from?
I see, thank you. Can’t help with the question, just wanted to read it too
n
p
Kauffman is wild
Do you guys know any tutors for self studing
Lol very familiar
the book + this discord + mathexchange is a pretty powerful combination
P sure this is specific to the paper
I am constructing an explanation on the proof of Nash's existence theorem via Kakutani's fixed point theorem, but I only have a surface knowledge of topology. In this step I am showing that the mixed strategy profile space for the game is compact. The game's strategy profile space is a cartesian product of the individual player's action spaces, which are simplices. I've already explained that simplices are compact subsets of Euclidian space. To explain that the mixed strategy profile space for the game is compact, I know I could just use Bolzano-Weierstrass since I am working in a metric space... but would I also be right in making a claim that the compactedness of the mixed strategy profile space also follows from Tychonoff's Theorem, since it is a cartesian product of simplices?
Thanks!
can you help me to prove : let f be a function from X to {0,1} where {0,1} has a discrete topology prove that the function is continuous.
i try to solve it : the open subset of codomain are {0},{1},{0,1} and phi so the f inverse for {0,1} is X which is open but i do not know what is the f inverse of {0} and {1}?
is there no other conditions? its false since you can take f:R -> {0,1} where R has the standard topology, and take your favourite non open subset of R, U say, and define f(x) = 1 if x in U and f(x) = 0 otherwise
f^-1({1}) = U which is not open, so f cannot be continuous
you can just take any non-constant function into {0, 1}
there is a non-constant continuous function from X to {0, 1} iff X is not connected
as R is connected, there are none
sorry i do not mention that X is connected + f is constant function , but how i prove that f is continuous
can someone help me understand if this would be a T0 space?
oh wait, I think I understand my confusion now. I was mixing trivial and discrete topology up which confused my understanding of T0 space
so is it one or not ? i dont know
every constant function is continuous, I don't think you are phrasing the question correctly
are you sure the question is not: suppose X is connected, f : X -> {0,1} is continuous, prove f is constant
there is lemma say : a topological space X is connected iff the only continuous function from X to {0,1} are the constant function
the question said : this lemma implied that the constant function from X to {0,1} are continuous prove that
as I said, constant functions are always continuous, you don't need a lemma to show that
for X and Y any topological space
can someone explain why we exclude A from the neighborhoods of 0 here? Does the counterexample not work otherwise or is it just to make the counterexample more extreme?
If we didn't exclude A from the neighborhoods of 0, then X would just be R with the ordinary topology, and A is not closed there, so the obvious map X -> X/A would not be continuous.
hmm wait, are quotient maps not always continuous by definition of the topology on X/A?
oh wait
I did not realize we required the sets be closed here
so we need A to be closed so that the quotient map is upper semicontinuous, thus closed
I should go back to trying to solve this exercise, I failed at my first attempt
Hm yes, that sounds better.
You can use Tychonoff’s theorem up to the subtlety that the resulting space is only compact in the product topology. Counterexamples in any finer topology are easy to find, for instance, collections of singleton sets in infinite products of discrete spaces given the box topology
(But it’s worth a remark that the box topology is in some sense too fine to care about anyway, in that the product topology satisfies a universal property in the topological category)
What's a simple, concrete example of a non-normal covering map? By “simple”, I mean involving actual manifolds, rather than more general CW complexes. (Otherwise, I could just apply the B functor to the inclusion of any non-normal subgroup, of course.)
Thanks!
Take a bouquet of 2 circles, fundamental group free on 2 generators. Find a non normal subgroup
If you really want a compact manifold, you can do a genus 2 surface. In fact that maps to the bouquet
I mean use a finite index non normal subgroup. Take a morphism to S_3
I did a google image search for nonnormal covering space. 14.03 here
https://www.homepages.ucl.ac.uk/~ucahjde/tg/html/gal-03.html
MATHM205: Topology and Groups
Nice, thanks!
Or Hatcher example 3. It looks simpler, but it must be the same
One way to tell that this example and the previous are not normal is that one lift of a starts and ends at the same vertex, while another lift goes between different vertices. In other words one conjugate is in the subgroup and one not
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1981079/covering-spaces-of-s1-vee-s1
you dont really need counterexamples even, compact topologies are minimal wrt the partial ordering of (Hausdorff) topologies, so any finer topology will not be compact
What have you tried so far? I'm assuming $X,Y$ are topological spaces? I'm thinking of trying singular homology
Element118
i tried to use a short exact squence by universal coefficient thm
but i dont know how to go on
did you identify any short exact sequence that would help?
Imagine that I have a Hausdorff Compact space X and a function f from X to X. I want to prove that f is continuous. Does the fact that X is compact make it easier, as in: Is there a property P weaker then continuity such that P + X is compact => f is continuous?
not really
continuity is a local property
global properties like compactness can’t really help with that
Thank you
Then, how would you tackle a problem like this: Imagine that we have a compact inverse semigroup S. Prove that the map that maps each element to it's inverse is continuous.
what is an inverse semigroup?
in a semigroup S, we say that t is an inverse of s if sts = s and tst = t. An inverse semigroup is a semigroup S such that every element has an unique inverse
okay but does the multiplication have anything to do with the topology??
yes. Multiplication is continuous
also is your compact inverse semigroup Hausdorff as well?
Yes. S is compact, Hausdorff and multiplication is continuous
Okay here is a useful lemma to solve this problem: let X be compact and Y is Hausdorff. Then if f: X \to Y is continuous and bijective, it is a homeomorphism
you should try to prove this then use it to solve your problem
But how would that help to solve the problem? I already considered that lemma but I don't see why that would help
you don’t see the relevance of a lemma which shows that the inverse of a continuous map is continuous to your problem where you want to show the inverse of an element defines a continuous translation map?
so you are saying that the map that maps each element to his inverse is the inverse of a continuous map?
because the map is the inverse of itself
that would not be useful no
Then how do I use the lema in this context?
compactness is hereditary to closed subsets, so it can certainly help
i would argue that compactness is a local property rather than global
well
more local than global
certainly can help, for Chaus X and Y, "f^-1 preserves compacts" implies continuous, for example, though it is kinda silly
wait I'm using haus not compact
nvm
local in the sense that failure to be compact corresponds to a non-principal ultrafilter of closed sets
Did you receive this as an exercise, or why are you convinced it's true?
I know for a fact that this is true
Oh, it's an exercise yeah haha
I see. It being an exercise also suggest that the proof should be somewhat doable I guess
I'm having some trouble because I suck at topology
Feelz
Anyway, I don't know how to solve this problem, but how I would aproach it would be something like
We know there are groups with continuous multiplication that don't have continuous inverses. So study those examples, and try to pinpoint why the fact that they're not compact is relevant. Then see if that can pivot into a proof
I'll give that a try. Thank you
Alternatively, get hands on with some compact inverse semigroups, and see if there are some special relationships between the multiplication and inverse that might generalize into something useful
Ah okay, it’s actually even a bit easier
the main thing compactness helps with is that it allows you to control things in the product topology
In particular f: X \to Y with Y compact Hausdorff has a closed graph if and only if f is continuous
So now we look at the graph of inversion, the set of (x, x’) with x’ = x^{-1}
then this is cut out by the conditions that xx’x = x, x’xx’ = x’
because multiplication is a continuous map and X is Hausdorff these conditions are closed
so then the graph is closed
so we win
the thing about inverses being automatically continuous is a red herring
Wdym by the conditions being closed?
I mean the set of (x, x’) satisfying each condition is closed
because $(x, x’, x)$ is closed in $S \times S \times S$ and $(m \circ (m \times 1)) \times \pi_1: S \times S \times S \to S \times S$ is continuous, and the diagonal of the target is closed by Hausdorffness, so the pre-image of the diagonal is closed
Math_Discord_Final_Girl
\pi_1 here is projection onto the first factor
maybe I can say it more simply: if S is Hausdorff then the set of s such that f = g for any f, g: S \to S is closed
Now we apply this to the map (x, x’) \to (xx’x, x) as a continuous map from S\times S \to S \times S
So we see that the (x, x’) such that xx’x = x is closed
And thus the set of (x, x’) such that x = x^-1 is closed
Finally using compactness we see that inversion is continuous by the closed graph theorem
the result is not so interesting but it’s a great exercise and uses a lot of nice ideas from topology
does this make sense?
I think so, but I'll look at it with more detail later. Thanks for the help 🙏
Hey I need some help. Prove that X is locally compact Hausdorff, with one-point compactification Y, if and only if Y is also hausdorff (and compact, therefore locally compact).
I’m trying to prove Y being hausdorff implies X being locally compact. I’m not sure how to use Y being hausdorff though. Any hints?
Y being hausdorff means X is open in Y
Consider X as a subspace of Y. Clearly, two points of X can be separated in Y by the same open subsets that separate them in X. So the only issue is whether you can separate the point Y\X = {q} from any other point p \in X.
If X is locally compact, then p has a compact neighborhood K. And Y\K is a neighborhood of q. So int(K) and Y\K are opens in Y that separate p from q.
Now, for the reverse implication (Y Hausdorff implies X locally compact)...
Let U and V be disjoint neighborhoods of p and q, respectively. You can shrink V to a subset of the form Y\K, with K compact. So U is contained in K, which is a compact neighborhood of p.
so I found this on wikipedia and I was wondering if there is any topology book in which I can consult this definitions and some properties of it. For example if X is metrizable then it is equivalent that every sequence x_n != p that converges to p satisfies f(x_n) = p. For general topological spaces is there some alternative characterization, with nets perhaps?
it's funny but no topology book (that I know of) seems to define the limit of a function between two topological spaces
Let's say when Y is Hausdorff so that this limit is unique.
I think it is not equivalent that for every sequence xn ≠ p, f(xn) converges to f(p)
If X,Y are metrizable then yes no?
rudin
anyway, is there some book/reference in which I can consult this definition/equivalence?
Oh it's assumed p is a limit point, nvm
yeah
Perhaps munkres?
Actually, wikipedia seems rather comprehensive https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Net_(mathematics) https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Filters_in_topology
not in munkres
the book never seems to define the limit of a arbitrary function
The thing is that in that article no mention of the limit of an arbitrary function is mentioned
I understand my question is a little bit odd because you can define limits of nets, limits of sequences and so on. But no one seems to define limits of arbitrary functions except for metric spaces
for example this in rudin
the definition in essence is just this but idk, I don't seem to find any place other than wikipedia that discusses this.
That sounds weird
Surely you can just define the limit as the value that makes the function continuous at that point
Or values
oh that makes sense
in general with nets
a function is continuous at x iff for all nets x_lambda converging to x the net f(x_lambda) converges to f(x)
and as aforementioned, you don't really care about the "limit of a function" in topological spaces because essentially all functions you deal with are continuous
in that case, the limit of a function at x, however you define it, would have to equal f(x)
unless you want to get wacky
you could say, if it is the case that for all nets x_lambda converging to x that f(x_lambda) converges to some value y, define that as the limit maybe
for all nets that don't take the value x
Or maybe something like y is a limit value if there is a net that ...
And if Y is Hausdorff then they should be unique right
um
if f is continuous yes
to clarify, hausdorff says that the limit of each net is unique, continuity says that each net f(x_lambda) converges to f(x)
otherwise, two separate nets f(x_lambda) and f(x_mu) can converge to different pts, hausdorff doesn't prevent that
hausdorff prevents one net f(x_lambda) converging to more than one point
sorry for bringing this up again: why is the space K of constant functions necessarily connected as a subspace of C([0,1],X) ? if U, V are open in C([0,1],X) and disconnect K, i'm trying to show e.g. {f(0) : f in U} and {f(0) : f in V} disconnect X, but I can't even show that these sets are open
oh never mind, i've figured it out
you should post this in #real-complex-analysis
oh i meant to, not sure why it's here! thanks
I'm struggling to understand the solution to question ii) here:
First of all, it is unsatisfying that they don't prove that we can find the eps_x and eps_y mentioned, they just claim it is possible
Secondly, I don't get the argument for why V_px and V_py is open. AFAICT it doesn't follow immediately from the quotient topology, because p^-1(V_px) is not necessarily open
I think this is just the sort of thing which is obviously possible so they omit the slightly tedious details
For example the line is a closed set
I agree, when thinking about n=1 or n=2 it should be obviously possible, but as a beginner in topology, things that are evidently true often turn out to be false
but what about the final argument? They seem to argue that p⁻¹(V_px) = p⁻¹(p(B(x, eps_x)) = B(x, eps_x) is open, so V_px is open by the quotient topology
but p is not injective, so this argument doesn't work
Well this is in R^n so your intuition is actually a good thing
Especially since we have just lines so it reduces to 2D essentially (consider a plane with your point and the line)
I think I got it now: you can write p⁻¹(p(B(x, eps_x))) as the union of B(lambda * x, lambda * eps_x) for all lambda in R, so p⁻¹(p(B(x, eps_x))) is open
I guess it's obvious once you know it. I hate these kinds of DIY proofs. If I wrote that on an exam I doubt I would get a 100% score
I'm struggling with the second question here, forward direction. If the product is 1st ctble, easy to show each factor is, but I need to also show all but ctbly many of the factors are trivial
I was thinking of doing like, let $x \in \prod X_\alpha$, and suppose $\mathcal{B}x$ is a ctble nhood basis at $x$. Then, each $B \in \mathcal{B}x$ must contain a basic open set of the form $\bigcap{i = 1}^n\pi{\alpha_i}^{-1}(U_i)$
lems
and if there are uncountably many nontrivial factors, there are uncountably many options for these basic open sets and that feels like it will lead to a problem?
one B in the nhood basis must contain uncountably many of these basic open sets, that feels like it is close to some contradiction, idk
but it also feels like I'm making it too complicated and there should be a more straightforward approach
X={a,b,c,d,e}
T|X={X,{},{a},{e},{b},{a,e},{a,b}, {e,b},{a,e,b}}
Y={1,2,3,4,5}
T|Y={Y,{},{1},{5},{2},{1,5},{1,2}, {5,2},{1,5,2}
f(a)=1
f(b)=5
f(c)=3
f(d)=4
f(e)=2
f:X---->Y homeomorphism it is correct?
what have you attempted
Given any two points of RP^n, there always exists an open subset U of RP^n which is homeomorphic to R^n and contains both. Then separate your two points by open subsets of U.
People often talk about the (co)homology groups of (some) topological space. But aren't there multiple (co)homology theories for topological spaces? Which one does the unqualified term refer to?
Disclaimer: I don't actually know any about algebraic topology — only that (co)homology just assigns a sequence of abelian groups to a topological space, giving you another topological invariant to work with.
Can someone explain why the definition of the homotopy coherent nerve is the correct generalization of the normal nerve of a 1 category? Let X be a simplicially enriched category. The n-simplices of the nerve of X are given by morphisms Hom(C[∆^n], X) where the objects of C[∆^n] are 0, 1,..., n and the morphism simplicial sets from i to j are given by the (usual) nerve of the poset category of subsets of [i, j] containing both i and j
Suppose we have an element f of Hom(C[∆^n], X), I.e. the nth level of the homotopy nerve. Then for any k-chain of subsets of [i,j], all containing i and j, we get an associated k-simplex of C(f(i), f(j))
How should one think of this k-simplex?
With the normal nerve of a 1 category, the nerve is just given by chains of composable morphisms
Cech cohomology and singular cohomology coincide for locally contractible spaces, and coincide with de Rham cohomology when over R if it's a manifold
Homeomorphic to a subset of R^n you mean? Yeah, that's a nice way to prove it 👍 You would have to prove that you could find such a subset U, that's maybe easier if you construct RP^n from antipodal points on the n-sphere
I'm talking about the affine charts of RP^n. I'll elaborate when I get to my PC.
Okay, now I'm here.
Let p and q be two points of RP^n. Then p and q are two distinct lines through the origin in R^(n+1).
Find a hyperplane H of R^(n+1) that contains neither p nor q. Then the image of R^(n+1) \ H in RP^n is an open neighborhood U of p and q.
This U is actually homeomorphic to R^n, which you know is Hausdorff.
So you can separate p and q by opens subsets of U, which are also open subsets of RP^n.
Since p and q were arbitrary, RP^n is Hausdorff.
Hmm, I think I understand... H goes through the origin, right?
Of course.
And, also of course, you still need to prove that U is homeomorphic to R^n. I won't do that for you, but I can give you a hint. Use a linear change of coordinates of R^(n+1) to move H to a coordinate hyperplane, say, x_0 = 0. Then what does the projection R^(n+1) \ H -> U look like?
Or rather, do the points of U look like, when H is a coordinate hyperplane? Write this in terms of the coordinates x_0, ..., x_n of R^(n+1), and recall that [x_0 : ... : x_n] denotes the point of RP^n that corresponds to the line generated by (x_0, ..., x_n).
I can't quite see the proof you're hinting at, but if I think about the case n=1, then RP¹ is just every line through the origin, and U is just every line except one. So you could identify each point in U with an angle with the x-axis for example, so you would get that U is homeomorphic to (0, pi)
If H is the hyperplane x_0 = 0, then the points of U can be written as [1 : x_1/x_0 : ... : x_n/x_0], and in fact this can be thought as a “canonical” representation of the points of U, relative to our coordinate system.
so for n=1, U would be homeomorphic to the open half-circle, and I guess for n=2 it would be homeomorphic to the open half-sphere
what does the colons in [1 : x_1/x_0 : ... : x_n/x_0] mean?
It's just notation. The points of RP^n are lines through the origin in R^(n+1), and [x_0 : ... : x_n] denotes the one line that happens to pass through (x_0, ..., x_n) as well.
In particular, for any nonzero scalar b, we have [x_0 : ... : x_n] = [bx_0 : ... : bx_n].
So, if x_0 \ne 0, we can take b = 1 / x_0.
Which is why the points of U have a unique representation of the form [1 : y_1 : ... : y_n].
If you want to think about it geometrically, notice that, if L is a line through the origin on R^(n+1) which is not contained in H, then L meets the parallel hyperplane H' : x_0 = 1 exactly once.
Let (1, y_1, ..., y_n) be the point of L \cap H'. Then we use y_1, ..., y_n as the coordinates of L, considered as a point of U. This is what lets us identify U with R^n.
Oh my god I get it now 🤯 If you let the hyperplane be x_0 = 0, then every point in U can be written as [1 : x_1/x_0 : ... : x_n/x_0], which is clearly homeomorphic to R^n
Thanks for the help 🙏
I think you still need to elaborate a little further. But anyway, you're welcome.
The elaboration that you need is that the projection R^(n+1) \ H -> H R^(n+1) \ H -> U can be done in two steps.
First use the homeomorphism (x_0, x_1, ..., x_n) -> (x_0, x_1/x_0, ..., x_n/x_0), and only then discard the coordinate x_0.
(This homeomorphism is well-defined, because we're working away from H.)
R^(n+1) \ H -> H should be R^(n+1) \ H -> U, right?