#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 83 of 1
If we introduce a different definition of "open" it'll be more confusing because now we have two definitions
what we talking about in here?
Intro chapter of rudin
How to prove (0,1) is open via the interior "every point is the center of a ball within the interval" definition
Hi I have a question
Let $f:X\to Y$ be a continuous function without any restriction on $X$ and $Y$. Is there a clever way to show that the diagonal function $id_X\Delta f$ is an homeomorphic embedding? I mean without proving that it is a bijection and bicontinuous
Milo
An homeomorphic embedding in the graph of f obviously
There is a map from X to XxY by the universal property of the product. It factors through the graph. There is a map from XxY to X by projection. Thus there are maps both ways between X and the graph
I finally finished my Hausdorff chapter of my topo book.
I just need to make sure this last problem looks good.
And here's the Problem 11.8 I referenced
Am I applying it correctly? Does 11.10 look good?
Yes
Yes nice, though you can also do this directly from the diagonal being closed
Maybe I am too much of a fan of that fact aha
But nah yours is very fast
Wow I'd have no idea how to do it from that
Try to view it as the preimage of the diagonal under a continuous map
C is the preimage?
Yeah
what do you mean by "the diagonal under a continuous map"?
preimage (of the diagonal) under a continuous map
still lost
Do I even know topology?
Okay so if $f :X\to Y$ is some continuous function (function and map mean the same thing)? Then I'm lost on what preimage of a diagonal means. Diagonal would be a subset of $X\times X$ and preimage of the map is in $X$ is it not? What am I not seeing?
SWR
there's a diagonal in Y x Y too
you're trying to show that a certain subset of X is closed
your hint is to look at the preimage of a diagonal
So what's the "diagonal under a continuous map"? Is it the set ${(f(x), f(x)) :x\in X}$ or am I way off?
SWR
it's not "(preimage of) (the diagonal under a continuous map)", it's "preimage (of the diagonal) under a continuous map"
that's what i was trying to say here
Okay. Let $f :X\to Y$ be our continuous function. Could you write what you mean in set notation?
SWR
to take the preimage of the diagonal you're going to need a map to Y x Y (or X x X, but since you're given maps into Y, this seems unlikely to be the case, no?)
come up with a map into Y x Y
take the preimage of the diagonal
So what? Like $f : \bR \to \bR^2$ s.t. $f(x)=(x, x^2)$ for example?
The diagonal is a set
SWR
The preimage of a set
you're a set

then you get all the points $x$ such that $x = x^2$ in the preimage of the diagonal
polynomial of order 256
so the preimage of $\Delta$ is just ${ 0,1}$
polynomial of order 256
we are literally treating the diagonal as a set here
and taking the preimage is just like taking the preimage on any other set
Oh so if $f : X \to Y\times Y=(g(x), h(x))$, then "the preimage of the diagonal under the map $f$" is literally just $f^{-1}(\Delta _Y)={x\in X :g(x)=h(x)}$?
SWR
Okay I think I see it. $(f, g) : X\to Y\times Y$ is continuous, and $\Delta_Y$ is closed in $Y\times Y$, so $(f, g)^{-1}(\Delta_Y)$ is closed in $X$
SWR
That's a really cool way to prove it too. Sorry for the struggle, but I'm glad my eyes have been opened to it now.
Perfect yes
There are lots of similar things to that
So for example, you can show that if A is a subspace of X, and if the inclusion i: A -> X has a left inverse r (i.e. ri = id) then A is closed
The inclusion being the identity function restricted to A?
Yeah
left inverse meaning i is injective?
Meaning there's (çontinuous) r: X -> A such that the composition r o i is the identity map on A
ç
Lol
Oh I see
One says A is a retract of X if this is true
I’m trying to show that the closure of the union of two sets is equal to the union of their respective closures
Is this proof fine? Or is there a mistake somewhere/step(s) that need more justification?
How did you get x' != x? What if A=B={x}?
How did you get from step 1 to step 2 here?
The definition of limit point I’m using states that a point x is a limit point of a set A iff all its epsilon-neighborhoods intersect A at some point other than x
Apologies, I meant to write x’ in step 2 there. That follows from the definition of the union
this is what I meant
(step 3 is justified from the definition of the limit point)
If I have an homeomorphism $f:X\to A\subseteq \mathbb{R}^k$ with k cardinal, $X$ Tychonoff and $A$ closed, what property are preserved in the restriction of $f|{F{\sigma}}$ to an arbitrary $F_{\sigma}$ subset of $X$? Can the restriction still be an homeomorphism?
Milo
Oh, I forgot to mention: can the restriction still be an homeomorphism to a closed subset of R^k
It can't be a bijection if F_\sigma is not X, so it can't be a homeo
What about $f|{F{\sigma}} :F_{\sigma}\to f(F_{\sigma})$
Milo
oh, in that sense any restriction of a homeo is a homeo
what you are talking about is called a realcompact space
they have some interesting properties in regards to extending real valued functions on them, but re subspaces i only know that if you take an open F_\sigma set in them then the subspace is also realcompact
(obviously it will probably be isomorphic with a different A \subseteq \mathbb{R}^k than X was)
heres a full statement (its from engelking)
by a functionally open set he means a co-zero set
Wow, I was trying to prove that ahahha
That is hereditary for f sigmas
well now you know where to look if you want to cheat xd
Yeah but the problem is that the encyclopedia of topolgy says that hereditary for f sigma implies hereditary for functionally open and for closed set
So I was trying to prove that without this corollary
Sorry for my bad English
If $\Gamma_1$ is a finite index subgroup of a Fuchsian group $\Gamma_2$, then limit set of $\Gamma_2$ should be finite translates of the limit set of $\Gamma_1$ right?
Symmetry enjoyer
how come this doesnt allow us to say that the product of quotients is necessarily a quotient in Top?
specifically, why doesn't
[X/\sim_X \times Y/\text{id} \simeq (X \times Y)/\sim]
where
[(x,y)\sim(x',y') \iff x \sim_X x' \text{ and } y = y']
follow from that third point? are we missing some kind of structure in Top
ok done editing sorry
maximo
Sets
Oh I found some online yeah I can share
But yes I think ur question is still important in that like, why does it fail for Top when we have similar universal properties
yeah im curious to see what makes locally compact important
maybe i should just look at the proof assuming locally compact and see how it is used
if they're from MSE or MO i'll just look up and find them haha
It'll presumably just be that you can't prove (A x B)/~ has the universal property without appaing to smth special about sets
Like if I give you maps into A/~ and B/~ then there is no obvious way to map into (A x B)/~
Like you have to pick representatives and show that you get smth well defined as sets
But like for top spaces you'd have to check that that map is actually continuous lol
it would seem so obvious that the maps would be continuous but that's probably because every intuitive (to me) topological space is locally compact
thanks for pointing out the set thing though lol
Q isn’t, for example
The key thing that makes this work for Set is that it’s Cartesian-closed
Which Top isn’t, (semi-)famously
This has been haunting my mind too
Lol
What I’m wondering is tho
What if we only take a quotient of A
So is (A/~) x B iso to (A x B)/~ (where we say elements in A x B are equiv iff their firts components are equiv in A and the second components are equal)
This example does a quotient both spaces in the product
Anyone know?
No
Indeed if f is a quotient map then f x id needn't be one
I'll try to find a nicer counterexample lol
Interesting
Well i think it's tricky idk
Yes please
Ping me if you do 😸
I am curious what could go wrong
i was going to read the proof to see what kind of intuition we need about local compactness
that would probably help cook up a good counterexample
Sweet
If you do ping me 🙏
I had to take a break from it for a day it was driving me crazy lol
could probably check "counterexamples in topology" too
im sure they'll have some good ones
Crazy
What an example lol
Awesome I am going to@thibk about this lol
Yea I should have done that immediately lol
I wonder what those suggestions were
Thanks guys interesting stuff I’ll be more careful from now on lol
Say $G,H$ are abelian discrete groups and $G$ finite. Why is $\mathrm{Maps}(BG,BH) \simeq \mathrm{Hom}(G,H) \times BG$? Apparently the map $\mathrm{Maps}(BG,BH) \to BH$ given by evaluation at the basepoint gives you a homotopy equivalence on each component, and if I have this then I'm done, but I don't see why that should be the case
Süßkartoffel
In the shrinking wedge of circles the path that goes through each of the circles is continuous, yet is clearly "weird". Is there some property of it does singles it out as weird?
do you mean like the hawaiian earring?
yeah
Hm I'm not sure in what sense it is weird other than by comparison to the normal wedge
hm
not the space, but the path
yeah that's what i mean
oh mb
Like it only seems weird to me when you compare it to paths in the bouquet of circles hm
One thing is that if you consider the classes (in π1) of maps which only go through finitely many then the group they generate doesn't contain the class of the weird path
this doesn't really make sense but the "immediate successor" of 0 is clear in a path in the normal wedge, but it is not clear in the hawaiian earring
@indigo frost this proof works, but it's a little long. You could do the whole thing in one go if you're familiar with just points of closure.
Hey @unreal stratus is there some clever way to prove this with diagonal mapping?
You seem to always have a diagonal map proof for every problem I've asked so far.
||G_f is the preimage of the diagonal under (x, y) -> (f(x), y)||
This was my first thought, but then I have to prove the the diagonal is closed now yea?
One I was not given. We went straight to showing all graphs are closed.
But perhaps showing just diagonal is easier.
This look good?
"point of closure of $\Delta$", not $\overline{\Delta}$
SWR
the "But X is hausdorff, so..." isn't clear
yeah i agree, you suddenly wrap up what you have shown with the fact that U_1, U_2 were arbitrary
and then apply that to the disjoint opens you get from hausdorff
actually apply hausdorffness explicitly
Is this not showing it?
Or should I state again at the end of the proof "but U1 and U2 were arbitrary"
you did not say they were disjoint
That's because I'm not proving by contradiction
okay
I'm proving that $(x, y)\in\overline{\Delta}\to(x, y)\in\Delta$\
SWR
hausdorff says if your points are distinct, then they have disjoint open neighborhoods. so when you start out with two points, they're either distinct or not. you're using LEM anyway
LEM?
law of excluded middle
This is equivalent to saying if two points have no disjoint open neighborhoods, then they must be equal, is it not?
it is, you're just not making that clear in your proof
ah. I didn't know it needed clarification
but for sure
Okay, well here's the rest of the proof. Just want to see if it looks good:
looks okay
continuity should be straightforward to prove right from the definition (or, you can appeal to universal properties if you don't want to write out open sets)
I haven't done anything with continuity where the domain is a product set. I'm sure it's straightforward, I just haven't gotten to it yet.
it's the same as any other continuity proof but the domain happens to have the product topology
if you know what continuity is (you do), and you know what the product topology is (you do), then you shouldn't have any problems
Anyone here knows the solution, or where to find it, to exercise 3.11.G of the Engelking?
is an open set of a open set of a topology also open ?
yes
thank you!

Maybe try posting the problem
I'm not at home anymore. However it says: show that if $f:X\to Y$ is a perfect open map from a realcompact space $X$ to a Tychonoff space $Y$, then $Y$ is realcompact.
Milo
what about an open set of a closed set of a topology, is that set closed?
in the subspace topology?
no, in the closed [0,2], the set [0,1) is open, but it's not closed nor open in R
No, as Shiranai's example shows. You do know that if C is closed in X and A is closed in C (with the subspace topology) then A is closed in X. So it works if you match open with open or closed with closed.
thank you both!
Can k-theory be obtained using Ext?
Topological k-theory
The answer is no https://mathoverflow.net/questions/11421/is-higher-k-functor-the-derived-functor-of-k0
Am I missing something? This space doesn't seem to be simply connected
this is poorly worded but hes asking you to take those symmetries of the grid described there and apply them to the entire plane
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
yeah my bad, it isn't even a covering space otherwise
thanks!
im trying to prove that any homeomorphism from S^2 to itself of finite order with a fixed point must have at least 2 fixed points total
i think this is equivalent to the hairy ball theorem somehow but i cant figure it out
like the orbits of the points induce a combing somehow if such a homeomorphism existed
A general strategy is to think about the quotient. Away from the fixed points it is a covering space. And then you glue in the fixed points
(Actually you have to decompose the space according to all the different types of orbits. But start with Z/p, so it’s just fixed and free)
wait this is just brouwer actually
Brouwer gives one point 
There is a (degree 1) self map of the sphere that has only one fixed point. Namely, translate R^2, which has no fixed point, and take the one point compactification
The space of all of these should be SO(3) and thus RP^3 but I can't reason out why in my current state
Is this necessary?
Like, I just did it like this\\
Since $M$ is bounded, then there is a $c > 0$ such that $||x-y|| \leq c$ for all $x,y \in M$. In particular, $||\alpha_j e_j|| \leq c \Rightarrow |\alpha_j| \leq \frac{c}{||e_j||}$ for each $j$
Mari
I didn't have to use the Lemma 2.4-1
Okay, I think I get why. M is any subset, so aj ej might not be in M
how exactly does this question make sense? i'm letting $O$ be an open interval of $\mathbb{R}$, and I'm considering its preimage $d^{-1}(O)$. Now this is a subset of $X \times X$ - but i'm not sure how to show that it's open given that the definition of an open set in a metric space involves that metric and i don't know what the metric is supposed to be on $X \times X$
okeyokay
does the phrase "product topology" mean anything to you
or have you only seen metric spaces
oh yeah oops i forgot about that
you can put a metric on X x X. one way to do it is to copy how the metric on R^2 is defined in terms of the metric on R
d((x_1, y_1), (x_2, y_2)) = sqrt( d(x_1, x_2)^2 + d(y_1, y_2)^2 )
you could also do max(d(x_1, x_2), d(y_1, y_2))
or any p-norm of (d(x_1, x_2), d(y_1, y_2))
a metric on X x X is not necessary to show continuity of d, though. all you need is the product topology
oh okay i think i got it using the product topology
thank you
nvm
i feel like i'm making this a lot harder than it should be
like i'm trying to find open balls such that the product of those open balls equals the preimage of some open interval of O under d
hint: use ||triangle inequality||
yeah okay here's where i'm stuck on: i'm letting $O = (a, b) \subset \mathbb{R}$, and letting $(y_1, y_2) \in d^{-1}(O)$. then there exists $\epsilon > 0$ such that $(d(y_1, y_2) - \epsilon, d(y_1, y_2) + \epsilon) \subset (a, b)$. If $(x_1, x_2) \in B_{\frac{\epsilon + d(y_1, y_2)}{2}}(y_2)$, then $d(x_1, x_2) < \epsilon + d(y_1, y_2)$ by triangle inequality, but i'm having trouble getting the other side
okeyokay
reverse triangle inequality
I mean I would just do it by triangle inequality and limits yeah instead of by definition
wdym
i don't know how you can show that if you already have the inequality d(x_1, x_2) < e + d(y_1, y_2)
wait
so the best approach to this question is just to find some open subsets $U_1, U_2 \subset X$ such that $d^{-1}(O) = U_1 \times U_2$ for any open interval $O \subset \mathbb{R}$ correct
okeyokay
no, this is probably not true
given two points p, q we wish to find radii r_p, r_q such that distances between pairs of points in B_{r_p}(p) and B_{r_q}(q) are close to d(p, q)
don't overcomplicate it
I was reading a proof, and during the argument the author wrote: given a subspace $F\subseteq Y$ of $Y$, enlarge the topology of $Y$ by making both $F$ and $Y\setminus F$ open. How can I show that this new family is still a topology on $Y$?
Milo
Of course the union and intersection of F and Y - F are the entire space and the empty set, so they must be open. But what about the intersction of an arbitrary open with F or F - Y? And what about the union of a family of sets which contains F XOR F - Y?
is there any case where the continuous tangent vector field of an n-sphere has an Euler characteristic greater than n?
I cant speak for the intent of the author, but I suppose "enlarge" means we should generate all of those new opens, like for a subbase.
Is it always possible?
Yes, look up subbases
Ok, thank you
Yep, so given any family of subsets of a set X, you can consider the topology generated by such a family
The intersection of all topologies containing the family
Oh I see
It’s very akin to the subgroup generated by a subset of a group G
But there is another little problem, later in the proof he says that the new topological space is Tychonoff. (Y was tychonoff as well)
I studied that the axioms of separation are expansive properties for i less or equal to 2.5
So how can I justify that this new space is tychonoff?
I think only when n=0
can you prove there are 2 sets separated by a continuous function?
would the tangent vector field then be in dimension n-1?
Wait what did you mean by the continuous tangent vector field?
I thought you meant the tangent bundle
if given a function so that every point p has a tangen of the n sphere
which can be expressed in a dimension = n-1
I dont understand
Sure thats a vector field of the 2-sphere
I figure it can be defined in higher dimensions too
and tangent itself is the tangent vector field of a 1 sphere
the surface of an object can be expressed in 1 dimension lower
assuming all vectors were projected onto the flat plane
only accounting for the dimensions in which it is expressed
No, the picture you sent is a 2-sphere. It is a surface of dimenion 2
Anyway I think youre looking for the Poincaré–Hopf theorem?
the boundry of a 3 ball
How is this a proof?
the 3 ball is what I meant by "object"
on an n-sphere if n<1 the would a tangent vector field become non-vanishing?
No sorry, I misread your question
is there any definitive answer you could think of?
i assume you know this already, but if a < b are distinct and a < t < b, then t not being in X implies that (-infty, t) and (t, infty) is a separation
normal by urysohn's?
did you mean to reply to someone else?
no I'm just an idiot
What's the Euler characteristic of a vector field
how many points the magnitude is 0
If 0 is considered even the tangent vector field would be of -1 dimensions
?
The Euler characteristic of S0 is 2 and the only tangent field has index 2
Not sure what you mean by -1 dimensions
I'm asking how this is a proof that intervals are connected, all he does is refer to 3.2.3. What you're saying is that non-intervals are disconnected, the converse of what I'm asking.
Proofs of the connectivity of intervals rely on the completeness of R (and are probably equivalent to it for all I know) and he doesn't use it in any discernible way here.
You implicitly use the characterization of completeness with sup and inf
I guess?
Yeah but that's the whole proof, lol
That's my point
I wasn't sure if I had missed something
I don’t see the problem then
I agree it's kinda weird. It is still left to prove that an open interval is connected. If "an open interval being connected" was considered an obvious fact then it's not such a stretch that "any interval being connected" is also considered obvious.
Exactly. Which is strange, since the book is very thorough otherwise.
if there is a finite closed cover (or open cover) with empty intersection between any two elements, does the gluing lemma still hold?
The gluing lemma still works if the closed sets don't intersect yes. And if the intersection is empty then two functions automatically agree on the intersection.
yo just a quick stupid question
the m-simplex [p1,...,pn] is homeomorphic to the cone [p1(omitted),p2,....,pn] x [0,1]/~ with vertex p1
by just gut sense i found the homeomorphim just sending the linear combination sum(t_ip_i) to (sum(t_ip_i),t_0) where t_0 is the coefficient of the ommited vertex
and it works
why cant i use any fixed t tho?
is it because to have p_1 to not be ommitted , you would have t_0 to be 1 which should be glued to have the vertex of the cone p_1?
cool
ty
In the book, it says it is "trivial" to prove that a net $(f_i)$ that converges uniformly on compact sets to $f$ also converges to $f$ in the compact-open topology
while this intuitively feels clear, it took me a bit to prove it. Can someone check if this proof is accurate and/or suggest a better proof?
lems
Proof:
Let $f_i \to f$ uniformly on compact sets, and let $L(K,U)$ be an arbitrary neighborhood of $f$; i.e. $K$ is compact, $U$ is open and $f(K) \subset U$. As $f(K)$ is compact, $U^c$ is closed, and the two sets are disjoint, the distance $d(f(K), U^c)$ is greater than $0$. Now, let $\varepsilon = d(f(K), U^c)/2$ and consider the open set $V := \bigcup_{x \in K}B(f(x), \varepsilon)$. By the choice of epsilon, we have that $V \subset U$. Since the net converges uniformly on compact sets, there exists $\lambda_0$ such that $\lambda \geq \lambda_0$ implies $|f_\lambda(x) - f(x)| < \varepsilon$ for all $ x \in K$. It follows that $f_\lambda(K) \subset V \subset U$, whence we deduce $f_i \to f$ in the compact-open topology.
lems
Whats that theorem the characterizes topological spaces/toplogical manifolds/smooth manifolds/blahblah/ based on genus? I'm trying to remember a theorem that was something like "Everying [toplogical/smooth/analytic/SOMETHING] manifold is [homeo/diffeo/something-eo]morphic to to the genus-n shape that is a smooth connected sum of n tori"
classification of surfaces?
@lime sable thats what i was looking for! Thanks
Really? The sphere is homeomorphic to a closed subset of R^@?
R^2*
my topology is a lil weak, but if the idea is to identify the edge with a point on the sphere, why doesn't this violate continuity? In the same way, why wouldnt a homeomorphism have to rip the sphere to turn it into, say, the closed unit disk?
What? There's no such homeomorphism
ah nvm i was misinterpreting a picture on that page
You know those classic models of a "Klein Bottle"? Somebody said that they act (in terms of fluid) in the same way that theoretical Klein bottles would, I disagreed because it's not even in the same dimension but I'm not actually confident in my answer on that, any information about the difference in properties (physically, I know the difference in theoretical properties)
This is what I said, and I usually feel the idea of "99.9% of people have done less topology than me" but at the same time, I don't want to assume that I know more than other people 😅
I thought the reason why they wouldn't is because it's merely an immersion.
From the perspective of the abstract Klein bottle, you can go in a straight line along the place that the model says the surface intersects with itself without having any problems.
Yeah, I think the person just maybe didn't get that you can't truly "visualize" a real Klein bottle (except using xyzt space but I didn't really want to explain what that is)
I mean, the thing younger me didn't get was that it was merely an immersion. An explanation of "The abstract surface doesn't intersect itself" would've sufficed for me.
I didn't think it would suffice because they mentioned it was a non-orientable surface so I thought maybe they knew some stuff about it, but the more I read back the message, the more I think they might have just read the first sentence from Wikipedia on it
I'm not good at visualisations though, I mean like 90% of what I do is group theory now 😅
It would've sufficed for post "orientable" but pre "immersion" me
(i learned what "immersion" meant after learning what "orientable" meant for a differentiable manifold)
...
is it Differential Manifold, or Differentiable Manifold?
I learnt them both when I did an intro to Topology module so I think very similar times 😆
How do you generally show a normed space is finite dimensional? Like, you would need to show it has a basis with a finite amount of elements, but I don't think you can do that when the dimension can be anything
There are infinite dimensional normed spaces, in case you are trying to prove there aren’t
The standard result is that a normed space is finite dimensional iff the unit disk is compact
Yeah um
That's exactly what I'm trying to prove 🥲
Apparently this is supposed to help but I can't see how?
Like, I guess I could let Z = X, but then what would I set Y to be? And then how is that even going to do anything about it being finite dimensional?
It feels like a proof by contradiction works best but I can't seem to find a contradiction
Like, I guess I could set up a sequence of points in the unit ball where each one is linearly independent but then I don't know how that causes a contradiction
I mean, I can prove X is complete, if that helps
I just don't see how that lemma comes into play and how it can help
if the sequence of points on the unit ball is spaced out enough, then it won't admit a convergent subsequence
it looks good 
Suppose, by contradiction, that $X$ is not finite-dimensional. Let $x_1 \in M$ such that $||x_1|| = 1$. Since $x_1 \neq 0$, then ${x_1}$ is linearly independent. Let $X_1 = span{x_1}$. Since ${x_1}$ is a basis of $X_1$, then $X_1$ is finite-dimensional and therefore closed. Since $X$ is infinite-dimensional, then $X_1$ is a proper subset of $X$. By Lemma 2.5-4, iterating through each $n$, there's an $x_{n+1} \in X$ such that $||x_{n+1}|| = 1$ and $||x_{n+1} - x|| \geq \frac{1}{2}$, for all $x \in X_n$. Therefore, ${x_1, \hdots, x_n, x_{n+1}}$ is linearly independent, since there are no scalars $\alpha_1, \hdots, \alpha_n$ such that $x_{n+1} = \alpha_1 x_1 + \hdots + \alpha_n x_n$. Let $X_{n+1} = span{x_1, \hdots, x_n, x_{n+1}}$. Since $||x_{n+1}|| = 1$, then $x_{n+1} \in M$. Since ${x_1, \hdots, x_n, x_{n+1}}$ is a basis of $X_{n+1}$, then $X_{n+1}$ is finite-dimensional and therefore closed. Since $X$ is infinite-dimensional, then $X_{n+1}$ is a proper subset of $X$. We thus have that $(x_n) \in M$. However, for all $n,m$ with $n \neq m$, we have $||x_n-x_m|| = ||x_m - x_n|| \geq \frac{1}{2}$. Therefore, no subsequence of $(x_n)$ can be Cauchy, and since any convergent sequence is Cauchy, then $(x_n)$ has no convergent subsequence, contradicting that $M$ is compact. Therefore, $X$ is finite-dimensional.
Mari
When I read this, it just clicked for me. Idk why
it's the entire idea
i remember struggling to prove this because i couldn't recall this definition of compactness
Honestly, if I could go back to like, an hour ago, I would tell myself to just imagine an infinite-dimensional normed space and try to construct a sequence that doesn't have a convergent subsequence on the unit ball
Then I'd see why only a finite-dimensional one works
Trying to create geometric visualizations and come up with examples like that usually help so much to visualize the problem
How can I prove that if $\mathcal{Z}$ is an ultrafilter on $X$ with the countable intersection property, then $\mathcal{Z}$ is closed under countable intersection?
Milo
So, i need to give an example of the space $X$ and a subset $A \subset X$ such that $A$ is a weak retract of $X$, but not a retract. I am considering that the following example works, let $X$ be an unit disc at $(1,0)$ with radius $1$ and let $A$ be boundary circle without the point $(2,0)$, then if $r$ is a retraction it should fix $A$, but this would imply that it fixes $(2,0)$ and hence the whole boundary and so it can't be continuous. On the other way, consider $r(x,y)=(0,0)$, it obviously sends an entire disc into the point which is homotopically equivalent to $A$. Is this example correct?
poTato
Homotopy equivalent isn't enough for a weak retract right
Your answer seems to use a different definition of weak retract to what I find elsewhere
$ri$ should be homotopic to the identity on $A$, i think it is correct that for the punctured circle and it's point this works
poTato
Could you provide a definition
You omitted that it's a weak deformation retraction which is kinda important lol
oh, the second image is not the right one
inclusion of a point is always a retract, see if you get anything useful there
this is the right exercise
okay sure
I don't think this is totally standard Terminology but yes ok
I agree with your answer yes
there's an example in hatcher which should work
do you remember any keyword to search for it?
I believe it's in the exercise of section 0 or 1
something that looks like a Infinite comb
also I believe the std terminology is weak homotopy equivalence
could not find it, but i believe my example is ccorrect
No this is very different
weak deformation retract? I was talking about that. I didn't see there's multiple def given
You said weak homotopy equivalence
there's weak retract as well as weak deformation retract
But weak def retract is also different
A weak homotopy equivalence is a map induces isos on pi_i
(all spaces are CW KeK)
one more question
strong deformation retract fixes the subset for any t
i thonk Mobius strip should work
woth $A$ considered as the "main loop"
poTato
hence the boundary of Mobius strip
Try this
i am not sure that for the last exercise this will work, strong and ordinary deformation retract are the same if you retract to the point
Try picking your set A carefully
oh, okay
Take the bottom line U some part of Y axis
show that the collection of countable intersections forms a filter
then use maximality
how do i prove this
I am not able to make sense of the E intersection cl(U X/E) condition and why its significant
the sets E are not given open or closed specifically
wlog the union of \mathcal{X} is just X. then in fact each E is open
oh so i had to work with relative topology?
given a subspace S, and a subset A in S, the closure of A wrt S is contained in the global closure of A
so in the subspace you retain the disjointness
ah okay
and in particular E is the complement
ah so thats why E intersection thing being empty was significant?
i thought this was related to pasting lemma after this , i can use that basically
yes, afterwards it is that
so does that mean it generalizes to arbitrary top spaces?
okay, Thank you
can someone help with this? how do i get the convergent subsequence?
Take x(i)_n to be a sequence in X.
Consider a subsequence [i in I0] such that x(i)_0 converges to x_0. Consider a subsequence of I0, [i in I1] such that x(i)_1 converges to x_1. Continue constructing In.
Construct a sequence J by picking the first element from I0, the second from I1, third from I2, etc. Then x(j)_n converges to x_n
but how is this a subsequence of the original sequence? and why would it converge?
It's a subsequence just by definition. To prove convergence you have to do a little more:
Consider eps > 0, consider n such that 1/2^n < eps/2. Consider N such that the distance between x(m)_k and x_k is less than eps/4 for all m > N in Ik and k <= n. Then
d(x(m), x) < eps/4 sum_k 1/2^k + sum[k>n] 1/2^k < eps/4 * 2 + 1/2^n < eps
(For any m in J larger than max(n, N))
not sure where this question goes but I hope this is the right channel. Set
$$G(n) = \mathbb{Z}\Delta[n]/\mathbb{Z}\Lambda^0[n]$$
and
$$F(n) = \mathbb{Z} \Delta[n]$$
I know that
$$F(n) = \bigoplus_k G(k)^{\oplus {n \choose k}}$$
From this, how are retracts of $F(n)$ also direct sums of $G(n)$'s?
havrebra
I am specifically looking at Charles Rezk's answer in https://mathoverflow.net/questions/195936/a-more-natural-proof-of-dold-kan and I am unsure how the above shows that every object in the Karoubi envelope of Z\Delta is a direct sum of objects G(n)
By Jordan Holder type arguments, two direct sum decompositions have a common refinement. But if End(G(n))=Z, then it has no summands
sorry I'm not sure I'm following. Could you explain a bit more?
An object in the Karoubi envelope is a direct summand of F(n), by definition. By this calculation F(n) has another direct sum decomposition as a sum of G(i). Composing the map for G(i) into F(n) to F(n) onto G(i) gives a idempotent endomorphism of G(i). It is either 1 or 0. Thus the given element of the Karoubi envelope is a sum of some subset of the G(i)s, the ones for which the endomorphism was 1
wait why is the given element of the envelope a sum of some subset of the G(i)'s?
Do you agree I have given you a recipe for which subset it is supposed to be?
Again, Jordan Holder is a very general technique. In fact, it is overkill in an additive category
A Karoubi envelope is an abstract setting, so you have to check that the intuitions can be actually made to work, but the intuition is to intersect filtrations
How good is prasolov book for self studying
Not sure about prasolov, i am currently using "a first course in algebraic topology" by kosniowski and it seems really good
although i think there is no chapter on homology
what
A first course entirely without homology sounds dreadful
Straight to cohomology 

Would there be much difference
a little bit yes
But it’s possible to teach it in this order
If you were forced to teach only either homology or cohomology for reasons of time constraints cohomology tends to be more useful
Although you can just as well teach them both in parallel
No reason to separate them so much pedagogically
I was wondering, it's known that if we have a topological space X, and Y a subset with the induced topology, then for a point y of Y, any neighbourhood basis N_y of y in X gives rise to a neighbourhood basis N'_y of y in Y: we take the family {U intersect Y for U in N_y}.
But are these the only possible neighbourhood bases of y in Y with the induced topology?
That is, if I suppose to start with a given neigh basis of y in Y, how do I show the existence of the corresponding neigh basis in X such that the above happens; or otherwise, how do I show a counterexample? I thought a little bit but couldn't come up with anything, even though it should be a simple question
Considering the nontrivial case when y is not in the internal part of Y
Is it possible to have $$A \subset B \subset X, H_{n}(A) \cong H_{n}(B) \text{ for all n but } H_{n}(X, B) \neq H_{n}(X, A) \text{ for some n?}$$
dompa
yup, one example might be something like take X to be D^2 wedge S^1, A to be the boundary of D^2, and B to be S^1.
A isnt a subspace of B though? their intersection is the point where the disk is attached to the circle
ohh sorry I didn’t see that, hmm lemme think
If the inclusion induces the isomorphism, then the relative homologies will be isomorphic. But if it’s just an abstract isomorphism, you lose control
That was my thinking too, but i can't really figure out subspaces with this property
perhaps i can use excision?
maybe something like this would work for a counter example (when inclusion doesn’t induce the isomorphism)
I think H_1(X, B) should be trivial, but not H_1(X, A)
I always like examples with H_0
X = [0,1] cup {2}
A = {0,1}
B = X
Does anyone have any suggestion?
@umbral panther @tawdry valve thank you very much for the help, very intuitive examples
Actually A and B dont have the same homology since A is path-connected and X isnt?
or is there some subtlety that i'm missing?
what are the "unreachable" points?
or rather what two points cant be connected by a path in A?
there are only two points in A
A (given the discrete topology) is disconnected, so it certainly can't be path connected
arent these intervals?
if i have two spaces homotopy equivalent
if i remove a point from each are they still homotopy equivalent
no
wait idk
ok
take R^2 and an isolated point far away from R^2
then this is homotopy equivalent to R^2 isn't it
No. R is homotopy equivalent to R². But after removing one point from R it becomes disconnected while doing the same to R² does not disconnect it
uhm maybe not because you have a path that is just the isolated point alone, I thought you wouldn't consider these
Contractible space magic
Or R^1 and R^0
Or even [0,1] and [0,1] (which are clearly homotopy equivalent!)
or for the failure of the converse, S^1 and S^0
ty everyone
does the first stiefel-whitney class of a line bundle determine its isomorphism class?
yes, because H^1(X;Z/2) is just the Picard group of real line bundles over X
sweet thanks
Wheres the fault in taking a Cauchy sequence in Y then taking it's inverse image then can't we say it's inverse image is also Cauchy as f^-1 is cts so it has a lim in X map that and claim the output of that to be lim of y
Ah idk if f^-1 is uniformly CTS right?
But f being a homeomorphisms still seems like it should be
Why would it fail if it did so
that is the question, yes
try to wildly distort cauchy sequences. hint: ||you don't need to go far beyond R||
I was initially trying to look in R I don't have several functions up my sleeve
Pls describe 'wildly distort cauchy sequence'
homeomorphisms are not in general uniform. what's the best illustration for this?
Huh really!?
why should it be true
Cause close things stay close up?
but as you noted
you need some uniform control
which is much stronger than just continuity
Is [0,infty) to [0,infty) f(x)=x^2 works?
I don't have any sequences on me such that xn-yn ->0 and x^2 n - y^2 n --> 0 but I think that x+y in (x+y)(x-y) should do sth 💀
I am actually quite bad with coming up with counterexamples
no, no one is good at coming up with counterexamples
maybe first just choose a continuous function that isnt uniformly continuous
So basically I need to close it so that it's domain is not comoact
But then again my mind goes blank when I think about it
x^2 is not uniformly continuous
Oh 😩
I see
idk just try things and see what happens
Isn't that like the most general advice
never fails
Agree
do you know any spaces that arent complete
Q
ok that is complicated though
Any not closed set of R?
Uhhh 😭
it might be a bit simpler to use (-1,1)
Okay
though doesnt matter ultimately
x*-1 + (1)*(1-x)
Wait
Not
It's supposed to be the other way
😭
I can draw a Function
💀
I don't how to write it
It has asymptotes at x=-1 and x=1
yes
you probably learned about a function like this in high school
not -1 and 1 but anyway
If you're pointing at 1/x then uhh
We probably need to modify that
By shifting it or sth
Okay tan x?
anyway more importantly do you see why the vertical asymptotes are obstructing completeness
you should think about that
another approach to this problem is to try to just find a non-uniformly continuous function and strategically choose a cauchy sequence
so maybe think about what would happen if you did that with tanx
(0, 1) being incomplete is such a tragedy
You should have known by now I am very bad(absolutely terrible) at strategies
But I'll try
Thank you
I'll come back if I still get no progress
Also here it's X is complete Y is ... So I need to take X as R and Y as (aymp1 , asymp2)
And consider tan^-1 ?
Also it has bdd derivative so it's uniformly CTS?
There's just tan is not cts 💀
Oh wait but I have restriction
Restriction?
Yes
So uhh tan^-1 works as a counter ex?
,w plot tan^(-1) x
Looks fairly continuous ime.
fairly cts ?💀
It's differentiable
Yeah
Are you sad that this happens to work?
Ahh
Anyways thanks again @hexed steppe
It's okay, most others will struggle as well

Solve a lot of exercises, then you could be confident!
I'm having a bit of trouble with a project I'm starting, so I've done my undergrad in math and I've completed a course in metric spaces, but now I want to do a project on a topic in topology, any suggestions of topics or how I can think of choosing one? I have a project superisor etc. but I want some ideas before seeing him, thx in advance.
Topology is incredibly broad, any particular directions you're interested in? Maybe algebraic topology or knot theory or manifolds or smooth manifolds or algebraic geometry or functional analysis or logic (heyting algebra/sheaves) or computer science (domain theory or persistent homology)?
If you've only done a course on metric spaces it will be good to read at least a text on point-set topology and how many definitions from metric spaces translate to topological spaces.
What is the reason/intuition behind this? If q is a sequence of isomorphisms from H_n(A) to H_n(B), can't we construct the following diagram and isomorphisms fall out using five lemma? I suppose there is some issue with commutativity?
If the isomorphism is induced by inclusion, then it follows by the five lemma. If the isomorphism is arbitrary, you can’t build a map of long exact sequences. That is, you can’t make the diagram commute
But why does inclusion yield commutativity?
That’s what it means to be a functor.
The classification of surfaces is a fun one.
Oh okay i see, so it's because they preserve composition?
Thank you so much for the response, I'm kind of knew to topology, I've only finished one book that was mostly focusing on metric spaces and I was very unsatisfied, I'll take this as a starting point and work from there, thanks so much for the great response.
I'll also look into this, appreciate the response thx!
trying to wrap my head around the formal definition of persistent homology
it's always defined as "a map in homology induced by an an inclusion between chain complexes" or something similar. but... what does this map actually do, and what does "induced" mean in this context?
If you look at the definition of homology etc the point is that like
Any map X -> Y of spaces gives rise to a map C_*(X) -> C_*(Y) which gives rise to one H_*(X) -> H_*(Y)
How exactly that map is defined depends on what kind of homology you want
Cellular or simplicial etc
You mean an inclusion of cell complexes or something?
The usual definition I've seen, is you take your data set and let X(r) be the union of balls of radius r around each point. Then the persistence homology is the homology of X(r) together with the maps from the inclusions X(r) -> X(r') when r' > r.
This is then usually restricted to only those r where the homology changes.
And then the idea is that the kernel of such a map is topological features that disapear, where's the cokernel are features being created. Then you're interested in features that persist
what's the easiest way to see that ${(x, y) \mid xy = 1} \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ is closed
okeyokay
zero set of continuous function
I'm actually just unsure where to go with this
😔
I think that I want to show that all the connected subsets of S containing p are open
and then the connected components of S must be open
this might not be true
huh
how else do I show that the connected components are open
wait
I can just find a subset of them
that should be open
right?
wait then can't I just take the union of the neighborhoods V
take a point in one of them and show that you can find an open neighbourhood of it contained in the component containing that point
or somethign like that
yeah and then that tells us the component is open
by the local criterion for openness
ok I don't know why I didn't see that earlier ty
how exactly does the deformation of the closed unit ball into the unit 2-sphere work again
is it just that the boundary is identified with the top of the sphere
like we pinch it
and then the interior is like the outside of the sphere
If by closed unit ball you mean a disk then yeah
Is it feasible to deform 3 dimensional ball into 2-sphere
uhh I don't believe so - but a sphere with a point missing is homeomorphic to a disc
btw I would think of 3 dimensional ball and 2-sphere as being the same object
?
No
Well
They aren't homeomorphic (Proof: We can look at the top homology group).
There is no deformation retract (Proof: Brouwer's fixed point theorem)
I mean 2 dimensional ball and 2-sphere are not homomorphic, either.
(Not even homotopic iirc)
They aren't. Easy proof for this case looks at the homotopy group
2-ball is simply connected
Err, shit, nvm, 2sphere is too
2-sphere is.. also simply connected. Yeah
This process delineates the deformation of closed unit disk into unit 2-sphere
Homology of sphere is ℤ in top dimension.
Not “deformation retract”, ofc.
...how are you deforming it? what kind of deformation is allowed here
2-disk can be mapped to the top hemisphere
Ah, maybe deformation is a poor choice of words
This construction was used in some exercise in Hatcher that proved something about a vector field on either the disk or sphere.
That's why I think of it
You can identify the boundary into a point ye
It's just keeping the x,y coordinate but moving the z coordinate up
This is true.
Would calling it 'deformation' be incorrect usage? Think I forgot the usual term for this..
I want an explicit description of closed sets in R(Standard topology) so is it union of (a, infinity) and (-infinity, b) ?
Thats open
Closed sets in R are of the type [a,b] or (-inf,a] or [b,+inf) even points {a} are closed
There's far more closed sets
Just told him the form of few of them
Cantor ternary set has no nontrivial closed interval [a, b] and is closed in R
Yes, then how can I write [0,1) as a union of closed sets and an intersection of open sets?
Because the intersection of the open set of R is the form of (a,b), right?
[0,1+1/n] for example
Intersection
Arbitrary intersection of closed is closed
Yes
Oh you asked union
Yes
Ig [0,(n+1)/n] works
First how I show that [a,b] is a closed set.
That means I want to show that union of (-infinity,a) and (b, infinity) is an open set in R.
But I want a finite union of closed set so how n+1/n goes to 1 in finite case
Those are open and the union is open too
Yeah but how I show that (a, infinity) is open set
When you said union I assumed countable at least my bad
I think a finite union of closed set
You can express it as an arbitrary union of (a,b) with b>a
Like idk, union of (a,b+n) for n natural
Okay
I think [0,1) cannot be expressed as a finite union of closed sets. Because it will implies that is closed and by definition is not. The complementary is (-inf,0)U[1,+inf) where [1,+inf) is closed not open
As an union of closed must be countable like with n natural
You can use this one
Since (n+1)/n<1
For the intersection of open ones mmmm
Okay thank you
For X is the union of elements of ∆, I want to show that ∆ is a basis for Ω.
I showed that ∆ is a basis but how I show that it is a basis for Ω?
Product topology has two basis?
For product topology on X×Y
First {U × V | U is open in X and V is open in Y}
Second {B × C | B belongs to the basis of X and C belongs to the basis of Y}
You write "the basis of X" but there is no unique basis. Otherwise, yes, prove it (every U x V can be written as a union of B x C's)!
Okay thank you
Heyo; I understand that there are two versions of twisted (co-)homology: the one with systems of local groups, and the one with a reprensentation of the fundamental group. Steenrod describes for former; do you have a reference for the latter, and that explains how to get a system of local groups from a rep of the fundamental group?
My answer to all questions is
Bott and Tu
i guess you mean local system of groups rather than system of local groups right?
Why? Isnt it just the circle?
what
o wait nvm
Yeah thats a torus

wth is that emoji
In particular the fundamental group is Z^2, not Z*Z
There are other configurations of a circle and a line where the fundamental group is Z*Z
i know that f.g of a torus is indeed Z^2
i think im gonna want to figure out a way to separate this into U,V such that f.g of U,V is just Z, the intersection is Z, and have the relation be ab=ba?
because if we can do that we end up with <a,b|ab=ba> which is just Z^2
Thats not going to work
You need U,V with pi(U) = Z*Z, pi(V) = 0 and the intersection is Z

I think it would not be that hard to write down a Z cover with fundamental group Z
whats a Z cover
A cover with covering group Z. That is, a space X with a free action by Z whose quotient is your space
Yes, sorry, I mean local system of groups indeed!
Thanks bw, I'll go check Bott&Tu then
Actually, no, I did mean system of local groups (Steenrod calls them this):
Archaic language

What does a cohomology give? Like homology gives a set, and homotopy helps you find paths, what does cohomology give?
Homology and cohomology and homotopy all output groups
Specifically n-indexed groups
The cohomology groups also have a product structure on them
You can package all the n-th cohomology groups, for all n
And you get a graded ring
And this ring reveals structures which are non-trivial with homology or homotopy
I'd also say homotopy groups don't really help you find paths
As much as tell you about the space you're looking at
I forget does cohomology ring actually reveal anything the homotopy groups don't for a nice space
I don't remember either, but I definitely read about it
Eilenberg Mac-Lane spaces: you know the homotopy groups of a K(G,1), for instance, but their cohomology is non-trivial (it is the group cohomology of G too)
Heyo; indeed, I even lost the active role
All higher homotopy groups are trivial; wasn't that the question?
You mentioned the groups, not the homotopy type of the space!
That's true
Because, at least in the CW case, it's roughly the same
I tend to think of the two as being isomorphic
(the homotopy type and the cell structure)
Yeah I only really care about CW complexes haha
However, there are CW complexes with all trivial groups but which are not weakly HE
So probably their cohomology would distinguish them
Probably
Huh?
A CW complex with all homotopy groups trivial is contractile
A CW complex with all homology trivial need not be contractile, but cohomology won’t help you
Ah, yes, sorry, you're right; however, there are pairs (A,B) where pi_n(A)=pi_n(B) for all n but they are not WHE.
The special case of all pi_n(A)=0 indeed implies a WHE
Also, reading from Wikipedia, Whitehead+Hurewicz gives:
A continuous map f : X → Y between simply connected CW complexes that induces an isomorphism on all integral homology groups is a homotopy equivalence.
But again, having all (co)homology the same doesn't mean the isomorphism is geometric
I am starting to get confused. I think this system of local groups should be equivalent to locally constant sheaves, but when I try to read the original text, I come across Théorie axiomatique de la cohomologie by Henri, Carta. He says the sheaf cohomology is somehow different from Steenrod's local coefficients.
And why he says Steenrod's definition is plus particulier?
I must say, I'm also very confused by this, and I couldn't find an easy self-contained modern exposition of this topic...
Local systems are sheaves, but they are only a special case (plus particular) of sheaves
Ah. I see now. Yeah my french is really terrible.
That being when the space deformation retracts onto the wedge sum S^1 v S^1 instead of S^1 x S^1 , right? You would have the line outside the circle for this to happen.
I find in Hatcher's algebraic topology chapter 3 appendix H: local coefficients. On page 331, he describes how to associate a group to each point of the space. Here Hatcher's "bundle of groups" is equivalent to Steenrod's system of local groups, and he shows how to obtain one from actions of the fundamental groups.
In this case it is not hard to see that this bundle of groups is just local system of groups using the etale spaces.
And to see that we have an equivalence of categories from local systems to representations of pi_1, there are a lot of literature.
e.g. search monodromy representation for local systems.
Oh, thanks a lot!
question
in math
is a distribution a generalization of a function
im trying to read this paper
so the input valued are test functions i.e., real valued functions of compact support?
And I need help decoding Lemma 2 of this paper I am unsure what they mean by
$\Bbb{R}_y^k \times {0}_z$
MyMathYourMath
is that the y slice of R^k crossed with the zth axis
Im doing a project on de Rham cohomology and am learning it on my own so..
wasnt sure if this qualifies as alg top or diff geo
lol
also, is this MOF worthy or MSE worthy for asking
MSE
oof I asked MOF :/
lol
yeah some of the notation is throwing me off here
surely you would already know the answer by now if you tried using google
I know this
but what is extendible distribution
tldr
I know a distribution is a generalised function
which acts on real valued functions of compact support
as apposed to just mere points
never heard of this
right?
is it not defined there
nope not defined
heres the paper
sorry
um distributions do not take points as input
Lemma 1: Any extendible distribution on the interior of an n−simplex S⊂Rn, i.e., any element of the dual of
{u∈C∞(Rn):supp u ⊂S},
is the restriction of a distribution on Rn with support in S.
in the same sentence
“as opposed to just”
implies that they take points, as well as functions, as input
but distribution takes on functions as inputs
ahhh youre right the i.e. is the defn
well that clears that up
I still have questions
its in my MSE post
this papers a tough read with no exposiure to de Rham cohomology
im learning it on my own
yes
I get the definitions and such
but like look at my question on lemma 2
the text doesnt answer these
like whats meant by that subset of rn
i think you should learn more distribution theory
ok thx
like distributional derivatives
a more comprehensive reference is hormander vol 1
the title is like “intro to pde” or something
oh ive heard of this text
but it is harder to read
thanks man
link the paper in your question
btw I hope I asked the question in the appropriate chanel ..
make your question as easy to answer as possible
I think it’s a typo. He defines “extendable distribution” by saying “ie,” but his definition seems like it’s just the definition of a distribution. Extendible sounds like it should be the conclusion, not the hypothesis: an extendable distribution is the restriction of a distribution on a larger set; the function it defines on test functions on the small set extends to a function on all test functions
You should read Conway's functional analysis texts there is a whole chapter on weak topologies. That's how you make sense of distributions I think.
I think rudin's functional analysis text actually has some exercises
awesome thanks man!!!! I have both of those though I think i misplaced my grandpa rudin..
ahhh its an extension theorem?
oh wow for some strange reaspon (and I was like why would this text have it) but I thought yhou were referring to Conways Complex text
🤦♂️
I don’t have either 😢
Also is this question appropriate for this Chanel ?
It’s not diff geo is it
Or is it diff top
also, did some1 from here upvote me lol
on my MSE post for this question
Yeah it's not appropriate for this channel you should go in advanced analysis I think
when in doubt, go to foundations and have them point you to the right channel 
I do not understand how I can relate the closure concept? If I have a set then how can I get closure of that set?
its the set
union
limit points
@prime elbow
or
intersection of all closed sets containing the set
the latter is the definition
the first is a proposition or somthng
there are like a million ways to define the closure of a set
true
but that imo at least, is the most pure way
the others saying u equal ur closure if ur closed n such are to be proven imo
but this is true some authors define it to be
set union limit points
or i should say space union
limit points of space
or just $\bar{X}:=\cap_{F_\alpha \supset X, F_\alpha \text{closed}}F_\alpha$
MyMathYourMath
$\alpha \in A$, $A$ arb indexing set
MyMathYourMath
and arb intersection of closed is closed so the closure is a closed set
Yes but I don't know how to compute a closure of given set
find the limit points
union them with the whole space
i.e., the limit points that are not already in the set
if a set is closed
its its own closure
Okay thank you
I don't understand, sometimes to show one Topological space is different from another topological space, they take basis elements and sometimes open sets.
I am not sure about product topology and order topology. Is there any source from where I can learn?
Yes
Perhaps
Any lecture?
I want to prove that X has property that if all finite point sets are closed then for subset A of X, if x is a limit point of A then every neighborhood of x contains infinitely many points of A.
So let x be a limit point of A and assume there is a neighborhood of x U which contains finitely many points of A.
So by x is a limit point intersection of U and A-{x} has finitely many elements says {x1,......,xN}. And this set is open.
Now I use the result that if V is open and B is closed set then V-B is open set.
So U-{x1,......,xN} is open set containing x but this set has no other element of A except A, it contradicts that x is a limit point.
Hence our assumption was wrong.
Therefore every neighborhood of x contains infinitely many points of A.
Is it right?
"this set has no other elements of A except A" what do you mean by this (I assume it's a typo but want to make sure)
For x to be the limit point of A , every neighborhood of x contains an element of A which is not equal to x. So if x is the limit point of A then U-{x1,.....,xN} has a element of A except x but it has not therefore x is not the limit point.
Yes it is a typo. Thank you
In the Hausdorff space any singleton set has no limit point, right?
I think so
yes
You can go weaker than hausdorff to the same 'finite sets are closed' property (also known as T_1) and it would still be true
To prove the Subspace of Hausdorff space is Hausdorff space.
Let Y be a subset of X, then
let y1 and y2 belongs to Y then it also belongs to X so there exists U1 which contain y1 and U2 which contain y2 open sets in X such that they are disjoint.
So take intersection of U1 and Y , and intersection of U2 and Y so these are disjoint open sets in Y which contains y1 and y2, respectively.
Is it right?
Yes
There is a mistake, I used it except x no if x does not belong to A then intersection of U-{x1,........,xN} and A is an empty set , it also works but I assumed x is an element of A which is wrong.
Which book should ai use to self study primarily?
Show that X is Hausdorff if and only if the diagonal ∆ = {x × x | x ∈ X} is closed in X × X.
So first if X is Hausdorff space, then to show that ∆ is closed, I will show that any limit point of ∆ lies in ∆.
Let there is a limit point which is not in ∆ then it has form (x,y) where x≠y.
So if (x,y) is limit point then for all basis element U×V which contains (x,y) ( U is open in X and V is open in Y) has non-empty intersection with ∆.
But if x≠y then there exists U and V open sets which contains x and y respectively and they are disjoint so U×V contains (x,y) and intersection with ∆ is empty.
Therefore limit point of ∆ lies in ∆, thus ∆ is closed in X×X.
Now let ∆ is closed set.
For any x≠y, (x,y) does not belong to ∆ then (x,y) is not belong to closure of ∆.
If (x,y) does not belong to closure of ∆, that means there exists a basis element of X × X , U×V which contains (x,y) such that it is empty intersection with ∆ hence U contains x and V contains y is open set and they disjoint. Hence for x≠y, there is open set U which contains x and V which contain y and they are disjoint. Hence X is Hausdorff space.
Is it correct proof?
Upper limit topology on R has T_1 axiom how?
I assume I have to do this by contradicting the connectedness of B but I can't find a way to do it. I don't even see how I'm supposed to use the hint.