#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 79 of 1
Yeah, but you don't know which one! To define a map from a disjoint union X u Y, we need to say what to do on both X and Y. That is, (X u Y) -> Z = (X -> Z) x (Y -> Z)
Looks good. Why not use evaluation at some point as the map M -> R? That way you can avoid using the fact that the maximum must exist
sometimes I don't see the obvious things haha, jeez, thank you very much! 🙂 
thank you for your answer, yes you're right, i thought about this, but after the exam ah ah. Moreover, the continuity of M is way easier to show.
I have an algebra related question while calculating the homology groups of a torus, why does the following hold?
$\frac{<a> \oplus <b> \oplus <c>}{<a+b-c>} \cong\mathbb{Z}^2$
damn_guuurl
Seems like a simple exercise but I'm kind of stucked. It's easy to show that all the usual opensets are open in the quotient topology in [-1,1]\{0}, but how would I show that there aren't any more open sets?
Choose a basis including a+b-c and then what remains when you kill that element is free. One such basis is a,b,a+b-c. To show that it is a basis consider the change of basis matrix. Is it invertible over Q? Are the elements of its inverse integers? It is upper triangular, so the answer to both questions is yes
okay I see that now, is only linear algebra
does it work the same for the klein bottle?
The homology of the Klein bottle isn’t free so it should be more complicated
finding homology groups directly with the definition will always include computing group quotients. since you seem to like linear algebra, you can write the boundary homomorphism d as a matrix to explicitly find its kernel and image in terms of a given basis {a,b,c,...} so yea homology is really linear algebra in a sense
Linear algebra over the integers, aka homological algebra
away from 0, 1, and -1, can you see what the preimage of a set, S, looks like? it looks like a bunch of copies of that set contained in disjoint open intervals of R. if the preimage is open, each of those copies is an open subset of R. but when restricted to any one of the disjoint open intervals, f is a homeomorphism to (-1,1). then you make a similar argument if S contains 1 or -1
ohhh nice! Thanks
@solemn oar this is a way to formalize the idea that "it's only linear algebra".
In mathematics, the Smith normal form (sometimes abbreviated SNF) is a normal form that can be defined for any matrix (not necessarily square) with entries in a principal ideal domain (PID). The Smith normal form of a matrix is diagonal, and can be obtained from the original matrix by multiplying on the left and right by invertible square matri...
It's kind of the RREF of free modules
Note that any 10x10 matrix of integers determines a map d^1 Z^10 -> Z^10 which is compatible with the rule d \circ d =0
Yes how do you set 1,-1,0 in a matrix though?
hahaha come on, I'm trying to get some intuition into algebraic topology
that makes a lot of sense, I will try, thank you very much
While doing this exercise, I was wondering if I may call the vertices all the same
Like this:
I tried computing it and got 3 0-simplices
The vertices of the first complex are identified to one vertex
The second complex has two edges identified (=2 distinct vertices) and is glued along one edge (1+1 vertices total)
So if you have n+1 complexes glued in this way you should have n+1 0-vertices
I did in the same way you did, but the picture I sent before is the solution
I don't understand why they identify all the vertices
If the edge [v0, v1] gets identified with [v1,v2] then v0 = v1 and v1 = v2, hence v0 = v2.
So we dont get two distinct vertices for each seperate simplex, but only one, which then all get identified to p
that makes a lot of sense, thank you very much
moreover I got to compute the homology groups, but I don't understand how the get the Isomorphism to $\frac{\mathbb{Z}}{{2^n}\mathbb{Z}}$ here:
damn_guuurl
the last isomorphism in the picture ? if you know about group presentations, this is like saying that your group is generated by 1 basis element e_n and that this element satisfies the relation 2^n*e_n = id. alternatively you can use the first isomorphism theorem and find a surjective morphism from Z<e_n> to Z/2^n whose kernel is <2^n e_n>
Thanks for answering, I actually didn't see why the second isomorphism follows
I know that I am kind of spamming question but I need to rearrange my thoughts
What is the intuition behind the zeroth homology group? What type of elements are contained here? How are the equivalence class defined
Its the most concrete one of them all, it counts your path-components
And it makes perfect sense why, the maps are all constant so homotopies between them are just paths between pairs of points. So any maps one-point image in one path-component are homotopic
oh okay that makes sense, I was asking because I don't see when two elements belong to the same equivalence class
Tbh I dont really know why this isnt just the trivial group
why do you think that it should be trivial?
Because the matrix
[\left(
\begin{array}{ccccc}
1 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 0 \
2 & -1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 2 & -1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 2 & -1 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 2 & -1 \
\end{array}
\right)]
is invertible
semer
(i didnt write that by hand...)
surjective too
If the quotient was $\langle e_0,, 2e_1 - e_0,, 2e_2 - e_1,, \dots,, 2e_n - e_{n-1} \rangle$ then it would be $\ZZ/2^{n-1}$
semer
I think
I find it somewhat weird that CGWH have the Hausdorff condition in the CG part but the WH condition on the latter part
I get that WH is the "right one" as it's the one "internal" somehow, and it gives nicer colimits; but it still seems kinda weird to mix them like that
hoping someone can convince me that this isn't that weird
Ok, I figured it out. There's an error in the intermediate solution: the quotient should be [\ZZ\langle e_0,\dots,e_n\rangle / \langle e_0,, -e_0 + 2e_1, \dots,, -e_{n-1} + 2e_n \rangle.] So the corresponding matrix looks like this
[\left(
\begin{array}{ccccc}
1 & -1 & 0 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 2 & -1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 2 & -1 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 2 & -1 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 0 & 2 \
\end{array}
\right)]
which has determinant $16 = 2^n$.
semer
This is Z/2^n because in the quotient we have e0 = 0 and e_i = 2e_{i+1}, hence 16 e4 = 8 e3 = 4 e2 = 2 e1 = e0 = 0
First time I got to use Kenzo for something useful!
What is the easiest way to compute homology of a product space, for example CP^n times CP^n? Künneth formula?
For what it's worth I don't think people who use the category of CGWH spaces care a lot about whether it's weird or not weird, they just care that it has the good formal properties they want from their category of spaces to carry out the kinds of arguments they want to carry out.
Like i'm sure many algebraic topologists care about the definition being well motivated but just as many are like "eh whatever it works for the theorem i'm trying to prove"
I kinda feel the same, but then why not use the absolute nicest? idk but I'd guess cw complexes are nicer
metric spaces are definitely nicer
etc
Right but CGWH/similar varieties are a good balance of nice spaces and nice categorical properties
hmmm thanks
guess I'll get more convinced once I actually see the nice categorical stuff
As far as "compactly generated" goes, I have heard that this is one of the weakest conditions you can use and still get stuff that sort of works in a way you expect.
There is always motivation to find the weakest hypotheses under which stuff works, then you get the widest variety of phenomena.
Don't know anything about "weak hausdorff" myself
yes Kunneth is exactly what you need for this
Or if you don't like fancy formulas, you can do it by hand, by using good old CW decompositions of your spaces and recover Künneth's formula 
In some cases, your spaces are so particular and you only need one specific group that this may be good enough 
I just cannot understand how to compute homology for certain shapes. How do I do so on a sphere with holes through x, y, z axis?
A solid sphere, i.e. a 3-disk?
Say, the sphere is at origin and of radius 2,
and each axis is cylinder of radius 1 along x, y, z
Ah right, a ball (= 3-disk)
This space will be homotopy equivalent to a bouquet of some number of circles
I think 5
Its not that easy
I guess it admits contraction into a wireframe of a cube
Yeah that was my thought
I somehow thought it was just the surface, and also thought it was ball as well
Am I inherently bad at algtop 
You need the right genes tbf
I am doomed
Should I stop pursuing math
Get your DNA scanned to find out
Why is C=ff^{-1}(C)? Doesn't seem to be the case for the identity i: [0,1] -> [0,2], with C=[0.5,1.5]
here "compact" means compact hausdorff
meant this pic^
Well this is purely set theoretic
It is true iff C is in the image of f
this is rather tautological if you unwind what ff^-1 C means
Yeah I'm confused by that lol
Also compact subspaces needn't be closed in general either lol
(Every finite space is compact, but not all are discrete)
I think the context is needed. Where was this written?
Just above 3.2. here https://rezk.web.illinois.edu/cg-spaces-better.pdf
L is hausdorff, so C compact does imply closed
so as far as I can see, it shows that ff^{-1}(C) is closed, if we had a finite family of continous f such that ff^{-1}(C) cover C, then the result follows, but I'm not sure if there's always one
Well I haven't stared at it that long...but it sure seems like you're not gonna get around this
It could be a mistake considering it's a set of notes
yeah
buuuuut I'd expect this result to be true
After playing with it, my stance is that it is true, just not for the reason he says
I think you can probably prove it
I was doing this exercise and reading through the solution. Can somebody explain to me why it is important that the quotient is isomorphic to Z/4Z? I kind of not see how to argue and how to define the surhective function
Do they have to argue with that because it is an important condition of exactness? I know this question might be trivial for some of you, I'm sorry for that
does it have to hold because of this statement?
it's kinda the backwards version of that
they argue that Z_4 is iso to that quotient so you can view the second map as quotient map
like that surjectivity and exactness follows
because otherwise we'd have a contradiction to exactness right?
this is not by contradiction
you construct the exact sequence like that and that solves the exercise
Yes I see that, but If I can't find such a function i this means that the sequence is not exact right? (I know this should be clear, just making sure)
I mean yeah if there’s no injection from the one on the left to the middle one there cannot be such a sequence
That makes sense, danke dir! 
Gerne
lol it was so easy, tunnel vision hits hard
thanks
I'm doing this exercise and I'm stuck at understanding, why this statement is enough to show that A meets each path component
I don't understand why the last sentence follows
.... i is the inclusion map, isn't it?.....
Yes
A_alpha is a path component, so it should be nonempty
So what happens when A has nonempty subset inside X_b?
that the intersection is nonempty either
okay that makes much more sense now, thank you!
also here, why does the surjection imply that $H_0(X,A)=0$?
damn_guuurl
Np!
This is a property of exact sequence
Namely, H_0(X, A) is a cokernel of H_0(X) -> H_0(A)
So it is empty when the map is surjective.
I thought only the => part was true 
Which part is => ?
$H_0(X,A)=0 \implies H_0(A) \to H_0(X)$ is surjective
damn_guuurl
Yeah, the opposite is true as well
H_0(X, A) = coker ( H_0(A) -> H_0(X) )
(You know what cokernel is, right)
I guess in this case: H_0(X)/im( H_0(A) -> H_0(X))
Yep
which by surjection would be H_0(X)/( H_0(X))=0
okay that makes much more sense
I don't find the defnition of H(X,A)
Cause we did not define it as the coker
It's not the definition, btw
I guess you can regard it as a definition?
Since H_0(X, A) = C_0(X, A) (iirc)
For me, I read off of that
H_0(A) -> H_0(X) -> H_0(X, A) -> 0 is exact.
This gives that the H_0(X, A) is cokernel.
the thing is that we didn't rally look at cokernel, so we didn't even mention that equivalence
I know what a cokernel is through wikipedia hah
but what you write makes a lot of sense
Yeah, maybe I should have just said that it is quotient
Because it is basically quotient in this case
Question: Calculate cohomology $H^n(\mathbb{CP}^n \times \mathbb{CP}^n)$ \
Calculation: Endow $\mathbb{CP}^n$ with the usual CW structure, check that $H^{2n} = \mathbb{Z}$ and $H^{2n+1}=\mathbb{Z}$ and compute (by Künneth) $H^n(\mathbb{CP}^n \times \mathbb{CP}^n) = H^n(\mathbb{CP}^n) \otimes_\mathbb{Z} H_n(\mathbb{CP}^n) = \mathbb{Z}$ for even dimensional cohomology and $0$ for odd dimensional cohomology.
Could someone check my reasoning?
tracy
This might sound like a silly question but how much of point-set topology do you need to understand to be able to do Lie Theory?
Everything in Munkres up to fundamental groups is a good start, doable in a few months
Is it acceptable to say that an $n$-cell of $X$ is isomorphic to $Q(D^n)$ modulo $q(S^{n-1})$ where $Q$ is characteristic map and $q$ is glueing map?
tracy
No, for example consider D^2 where the 2 cell is formed by attaching D^2 via identity to a copy of S^1
The 2 cell is clearly just D^2, but according to your prescription it seems it should be D^2 mod boundary I.e. S^2
Another question: how do I show that if $X$ is an $n$-dimensional CW complex with non-zero $n$-th homology then there exists a non null-homotopic map $X\rightarrow S^n$?
My naive understanding tells me that if $n$-th homology isn't trivial then there exists some non-trivial "hole" whose boundary is $S^n$...? Not sure about what kind of argument should I use
tracy
I'm trying to calculate the base of the free abelian group $H_1(\mathbb{R}, \mathbb{Q})$, but I am stuck, I come up to the fact that it is isomorphic to $\tilde{H_0} (\mathbb{Q})$ (reduced homology group), but I don't understand why this should be isomoprhic to this
damn_guuurl
how are you arriving at this?
From LES you ought to get H_1(R,Q) = H_2(Q)
by using reduced homology and long exact sequences, then both \tilde{H_0}(R) and H_1(R) are 0, from which one gets that H_1(R,Q) \to \tilde{H_0}(Q) is an isomoprhism
you should get 0 -> H_1(R,Q) -> H_2(Q) -> 0 in there tho?
this is the sequence I got
How do you get this?
mixed up the direction mb
In that case, the reduced homology of H_0 is just H_0(X)/Z, and H_0 has one generator for each path-component of Q
That is clear to me, I don't understand where the Z<[p]-[0]> comes from, I don't understand how to calculate that
The reduced homology is the kernel of the map
H0(Q) -> H0(pt)
Which just maps a linear combination of points to the sum of the coefficients.
It should be clear that [p] - [0] is in the kernel, so you just need to show that the kernel is in this span. You can do this for example by induction on the number of terms in the sum. The idea is just that you take any combination of points, then subtract [0] enough to make the sum of the coefficients 0.
okay so you kind of just calculate the augmentation right?
Okay that makes a lot of sense, but firstly, how do you come up with the fact that [p]-[0] might be a generator?
also I have a more general question, when do y'all suggest to use reduced homology or general homology, cause I don't know if it is helping me in this case
[p] are the generators of the usual homology, so you just alter that a little so that the coefficients sum to 0. So just the kiss-principle (keep it simple, stupid)
kay this means that if I had calculated the above with the usual homology I would have just gotten the direct sum over Z right?
Yeah, or direct sum of Q, but that's the same thing
so when I calculate something like this I always have to calculate the explicit reduced homology afterwards given by the augmentation?
Well, it works out the same no matter which space you're working on.
H0(X) is the free group with the same number of generators as X has path components, and the reduced homology is free with one less generator.
I know I am asking a lot, but I'm having a hard time getting it, I'm relly sorry 
So if you prove that little lemma for yourself you don't really need to calculate it explicitly every time.
No need to be sorry, asking stuff is kinda what this discord is all about.
More than kinda
I will try to do the whole thing again, to rearrange the chaos in my heaaaaaad, thanks a lot though for being available! It's much more clear now 
Any idea on how to show 2.2.1. implies 2.2.2. from here https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/compactly+generated+topological+space#fnref:2 ?
For each non-open subset of X, choose a C and a continuous t: C -> X, such that the preimage is not open. (If such a C exists).
Since X has a set worth of subsets, this forms a set.
Now assume f: X -> Y isn't continuous. Then there exists a continuous function t:C -> X and an open set U in Y, such that t^-1(f^-1(U)) is not open. In particular f^-1(U) satisfies our above assumptions, so we have a chosen t and C such that t^-1(f^-1(U)) is not open.
homework question I will be asking about in office hours tonight, but does my argument make sense?
Ohhhh cool! But there's a slight problem, the C you're choosing from is a proper class, any idea on how to bound this class so that AC can be used?
Wait yeah it doesn't make sense
You wrote Z intersect O
I assume you mean like
{ Z intersect U : U in O}
There are various other set theory things that seem confused
For example you said A is the union of all its elements, which isn't true generally
e.g. {{}} is not {}
I see what you are saying for this one, but would it be O in U since U would be the open set for the tau on X ?
for the subspace Y, yes
This does just seem confused set theoretically
I would believe it 😅 it's week2 so I'm still going slow
Okay I will look more a basic ideas of subspaces before trying again. Thankyou
I guess the easy solution is just to assume global choice or something like that. But yeah, you can probably restrict the size of C somehow based on the size of X.
agreed, though I'm not sure how to actually do it
I think I was aiming for this, and I definitely agree with your statement about scriptA..
not the same at all D:
It would have been easier if you wrote out the elements of each restriction explicitly
so open sets of the form (U \cap Y) \cap Z vs. V \cap Z with U and V open in X
Ye
Bracket polynomials, why is that what it is for the top one, is there not only 1 connected component there?
Using this:
Like, as in the shapes in the picture?
They all have one connected component besides the one at the bottom in any reasonable topology
Well the top one has been zero-smoothed on both 1 and 2, so why is that not just q^2
no the top has two connected components
So the shape is meant to be interpreted as two curves, one inside the other?
yes
Oh its knot thingy
Thanks, I found my notes for this and apparently specifically wrote down not to confuse that with a hole but forgot about that note and confused it with a hole 😆
This is what happens when they teach knots just after the rest of algebraic and point-set topology, I'm so used to looking at holes in shapes
Just wondering, what is the diamond meant to display
Next to names?
with the four funny shapes
The bottom thing on the first image?
Yeah
It's all the possible states after "smoothing" it
ah, like ways of killing crossings?
Because there's only 2 crossings, there's only 4 states (0-smooth both, 0-smooth one of them and 1-smooth the other * 2, 1-smooth both)
you use this to build the Khovanov complex which categorifies the Jones polynomial of knots
as you do
(or you just use it to compute the Jones polynomial)
I love how they put a drawing of the knot into the argument of J
This (the one I posted) is for Kauffman bracket polynomial (imagine being invariant amiright)
Someone tried to explain the Khovanov complex to me today
and I am terrified
It’s not that bad as a basic definition just kind of tedious to compute
There are definitely spooky relations it has to other fancy stuff like Floer nonsense
Something something spectral sequence relating Khovanov and Floer
Spooky
Spectre
Does anyone have a reference for the Gysin sequence in generalised (or at least complex oriented) cohomology?
I would conjecture that the sequence holds for similar reasons to the standard one if you replace a Serre spectral sequence argument by an AHSS one
woah what
I'm gonna be learning some Floer theory this sem
dumb question but why is hausdorffness not enough for regularity
are you just asking for a counterexample?
yes
here is an exercise from Bredon: "Consider the space $X$ whose point set is the plane but whose open sets are given by the basis consisting of the usual open sets in the plane together with the sets ${ (x,y): , x^2+y^2 < a, y\neq 0} \cup {(0,0)}$ for all $a > 0$. Show that $X$ is Hausdorff but not regular.
smay
Has anyone heard of a topological monoid?
is that like a topological group but a monoid
i mean all topological groups are topological monoids 
the nlab page for it is literally blank lol
but the related concepts are examples of topological monoids
the set of n by n matrices where the sum of each row and each column is 0 forms a topological monoid i think
i remember looking into this a few years ago. you can like decompose each element into a linear combination of permutation matrices.
Oooh okay that makes sense. It's a monoid that has a topological nothing more lol
Is this specifically not a group
yeah because the det is 0
its not a monoid actually
semigroup i think
close enough
You can always take an ordered group and get rid of inverse ones
straight up the set of nxn matrices under multiplication is just a topological monoid yeah?
Half plane is a topological monoid in a sense
but we want to make sure it isnt a group
it's not
Ah right
the set yeah
Any topological ring is a topological monoid in terms of the multiplication
another topological monoid the set of functions from N to N
How do you give a topology on such a function?
the topology is generated by sets of the form Un,m = {f such that f(n) = m} where n, m are in N
you can also define it in terms of closed sets being exactly the sets that are closed under pointwise convergence
you can also do this for bijections from N to N, which gives you a polish group
btw why isnt the fundamental group of the hawaiian earing free
like obviously it has to be locally free
Infinite group shenanigans 
pi_1(H) is incredibly complicated lol
like i don't really have a concept of what the group actually looks like
ive heard you prove its a subgroup of some sort of weird inverse limit
i don't like spaces that are not slsc
Is the fundamental group of the figure 8 free? I am not a topological and forgot all this.
yes it's free on 2 generators
Is the fundamental group of the trifold free, hmm
trifold?
it's homeomorphic to S^1
Also just fundamental group of it is.. yeah
Idk how one could work with knots topologically when they are homeomorphic to S^1
you can, however ask about pi_1(R^3\X) where X is a knot
that is an exercise in hatcher
Is the only way working through the complement?
i was about to mention that
I guess I can inflate the knot to become a torus and so you get loops for longitude and latitude
But then they might not be two generators
it would be homeomorphic to a torus
so pi_1 still doesn't help
unless you meant something else
Was talking about the pi_1 loops of complement
oh well i mean you get a homotopy equivalence from the connected component on the outside of the torus to R^3\X where X was the original knot
and the inside is homotopy equivalent to S^1 again
Yep
there are similar ideas that do get you somewhere though i think
Sorry, I do not know what I am talking about.. I am dumb
burger tensor 🍔
afaik knot complements are the only current method of calculating pi_1 without every fundamental group collapsing into the same one
you don't have to feel dumb for trying ideas that don't work
just saying
😋
Yeah, just that I know I am dumb
you like burgers? try calculating the metric tensor of a burger's surface
Oh god
like, a burger burger?
or just like a guy named..
whopper whopper whopper whopper
a burger burger
not a very healthy mindset, i think it's just okay to say you're not dumb just because something has not come easy to you
tensor i barely know her
algebraic topology did not come easy to me
im learning it now and its like the hardest class ive ever taken
funcy boi that takes two vectoers
Hmm, is it? I am relatively unaware of how to manage mental health.
and i already knew a lot of the concepts going in
there are some good resources that I can find later. I think it's important to recognize your identity as a multifaceted human being, and to not tie your ego too closely with the ability to understand math concepts in X amount of time. Some people think this becomes less important the more "advanced" you are at math, but actually it becomes more important
first homework made us prove that S^infinity is contractible. evil problem
Yeah, I make sure that my self esteem is not affected by the ability.
So I could have elaborated as “I am mathematically dumb” - does not mean I am smart otherwise, but eh.
i mean im not sure if thats even true
I wish I were a mathematical genius - unrealistic dream 
Excuse me. Is this hell
intuitively it's true
I would probably believe you if you told me it was false with enough conviction though
i was talking about absta being "mathematically dumb"
we are all mathematically dumb
Knot group of trefoil 
like the questions had dumb answers, but they were kind of interesting. i like the idea of finding a fundamental group-like invariant for knots
waltermath
knot theory? then what is it? practice?
there are other functors (you might know this already)
In mathematics, Khovanov homology is an oriented link invariant that arises as the cohomology of a cochain complex. It may be regarded as a categorification of the Jones polynomial.
It was developed in the late 1990s by Mikhail Khovanov.
sadly i dont know homology but im learning it this semester
every time i tried to get a prof to explain it i would walk away with like 0 intuition so i decided to just take the class
Homology for knots
I didn't know about this
Thanks smay
Isn't Jones polynomial already quite hard to compute? How do you compute this complicated homology
I guess one can compute using brackets. But-
Anyone available? This question is point-set topology but I couldn't find a better-fitting channel
@opaque scroll I was reading through this proof in Munkres and I suppose I'm confused about the proper definition of a subbasis
Why do those sets form a subbasis?
The definition of a subbasis is that if you include intersections of the sets, you get a basis.
(a, infinity) \cap (-ifinity, b) = (b, a)
Which is the standard basis for the order topology on X.
Is a < b in the statement you gave?
In which case wouldn't we have (a,b)
Not really relevant, but if a< b, then (b, a) is empty, so then the point is sort of mute
Oh, oops sorry, I meant to write (a, b) yeah
Sorry but if a > b then how do we get (b,a) as the intersection? Shouldn't it be empty?
Oh okay
Oh—so the elements themselves, in addition to the collection of their finite intersections form a basis?
Yeah, that's right
So in any of the nine possible pairings, we still get a subbasis?
As in we can have an open ray in Y, Y itself, or ø for each of two subbasis elements
Also, what about the subspace topology?
Can I say that because the lower and upper sets/rays form a subbasis for the order topology on X, I may intersect them each with Y to get a subbasis for the subspace topology?
The subspace topology just has as open sets the open sets of X intersected Y. So in particular a basis for X induces a basis for the subspace topology by intersecting with Y
can somebody tell me, where injectivity comes from here? I know that $H_1(A) \oplus H_1(B)=0$, thus by exactness I know that $H_1(X) \to H_0(A \cap B)$ is injective. $D_2$ is a copy of $D^n$ and $A= D_1 \cup D_2, B= D_2 \cup D_3$, with $D_1, D_2, D_3$ are the images of three discs, that get glued together
damn_guuurl
The only way a map between two 0-homology groups can fail to be injective is of two path components merge
where does this come from
It comes from identifying what H_0 is, I think
I found a proof on the internet, if you wonder where it comes from
Wiki says: "Thus if both spaces are path-connected, simply connected CW-spaces then any homology isomorphism is a homotopy equivalence of topological spaces."
What could be a simple counterexample, as in not path-connected not simply connected CW spaces + homology isomorphism but they're not homotopy equivalent?
https://topospaces.subwiki.org/wiki/Homology_isomorphism_of_topological_spaces#
since the statement comes from a weak equivalence you'd have to talk about path connected spaces i guess
i've never really dealt with homology isos but my guess is that it might come from some wedge product
I'm solving some old exam questions and there is one more: For every CW pair $(X,A)$ the $R$-modules $H_n(X,A)$ and $H_n(X/A,A/A)$ are $R$-isomorphic.
If I'm allowed to take $A=X$ then its obviously false. Is $(X,X)$ a valid CW pair?
tracy
Oh now I'm confused why its "obviously" false since $H_n(X,X)$ and $H_n(X/X,X/X)$ are both zero... Help?
tracy
It is good to have a formal proof but I would argue that it is even more useful to be able to "informally see" why the result is true. This is to truly see where a result "comes from", independently of a formal proof that painfully unwinds the definitions.
As others have said, the way to think about H0(X) is as (formal Z-linear combinations of) the path components of X. This is because two points are homologous iff they can be joined by a path. So the equivalence (homology) class of a point is the path component in which it lies. A formal Z-linear combination of points gets identified to the corresponding formal Z-linear combination of path components.
Given that this is understood, I would say that where the lemma quoted by jagr2808 comes from is the basic fact that a continuous map between topological spaces maps path component into path component (for, if c(t) is a path from a to b then f(c(t)) is a path from f(a) to f(b)).
Because of this, the map f#: H0(X) --> H0(Y) induced by a continuous map f:X-->Y maps path component to path component and the only way f# fails to be injective is if f maps two distinct path components of X into the same path component of Y. In particular, if X is path connected, this cannot happen! (this is what the text in your screenshot is referencing).
Thus, in your example, what you have is the map (i_A#, i_B#): H0(A n B) --> H0(A)+H0(B) induced by the inclusions of A n B into A and B respectively. By the above, i_A# is injective, and this suffices to conclude that (i_A# , i_B#) is injective.
this is a true claim
the RHS is the reduced homology and a CW pair is a good pair
Another question: If I'm given a positive free Z-complex, I can realize it as a cellular chain complex of some CW complex, right? I would just take a wedge of spheres and moore spaces... I guess..?
"the RHS is the reduced homology" = I guess you implicitly assume that A is contractible?
no, A/A is a point and H_n(X/A,pt) is the reduced homology of H_n(X/A)
So the relative homology of (X,A) is the reduced homology of X/A? Makes sense I guess
that's only true for good pairs but yeah
Does that construction respect the chain complex structure 
Oh, I have to construct boundary homomorphisms too...
I think you can build a CW complex by inducting on k-skeletons
btw this is something quite important so you should keep it in mind
Or maybe decompose into short exact sequences
Oh hm is every k-cycle the image of some map from a sphere
The intuition would be that relative homology (X,A) contains all homology classes not in A and this is equivalent to contracting A to a point and splitting this factor from 0th homology?
(given a good pair)
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/9829/realizing-complexes-with-bases-as-cellular-complexes
I found this answer which says that this is indeed true, but I think the details are best left as they are...
this is genius, makes so much sense, thank you very much for taking your time typing everything up
more of a soft question: I think the ultimate goal of algebraic topology would be to find a perfect invariant which would capture all topological spaces up to homeomorphism, but this is impossible. So you invent all kind of functors from topological spaces into, for example, Z-graded modules that best capture whatever phenomenon you try to work with. In this sense, is there the most refined algebraic invariant? I guess it goes like this: homotopy groups > cohomology rings > cohomology > homology?
Map S¹ to a meridian in any knot exterior
I'm afraid to ask but what is a knot exterior?
The complement of a knot in S³
All knot exteriors have H1 = Z as the only nontrivial homology group by Alexander duality
But the fundamental group almost uniquely determines the knot
There was an interesting discussion about this on stackexchange
Cohomology and homology are sort of on the same footing because you can get one from the other by the universal coefficient theorem
But yeah the ring is more refined
The two orientations of the connected sum of CP^2 with itself have isomorphic cohomology groups but not rings
I'm so bad at remembering proofs for point-set that I've decided the solution is just to remember definitions, write down the definitions and hope I can do something with them
Consider CW structure on CP^n. My textbook says that the gluing map is the canonical projection q^2n:S^2n-1 ----> CP^n-1. I'm a little confused, how exactly do I project a sphere onto the complex projective space?
CP^n is the quotient of S^{2n+1} under the action of the circle U(1)
I see, thanks
How was CP^n defined originally?
Exactly the same, I just had problems with dimensions because CP^n-1 lives in C^n of which the unit sphere has dimension 2n-1
We will never escape off-by-one errors
took me a second to figure out that 2(n-1)+1 is in fact 2n-1
There is this standard question proven by factoring the identity map through CP^n. I dont see why exactly the generator x of CP^m should be mapped to generator y of CP^n (multiplied by some scalar r). Surely we could map x to y^2 or something?
My understanding is that it isn't just a map between two polynomial rings, but a map between two cohomology rings so I have to map generator in degree 1 to another generator in degree 1? (pic for clarification)
If you assume CW, I don’t think you need to assume connected. The only issue is what simply connected means when not connected
An example that’s not simply connected. The Poincaré homology 3-sphere is a manifold with the same homology as S^3. It maps to S^3. Any n-manifold maps to S^n. Find a disk in the manifold and collapse the boundary and everything outside the disk to a point, yielding S^n. If the manifold was connected compact and oriented, this yields and an isomorphism on H_n. But that’s all the homology this manifold has, so it is an isomorphism on all homology from P to S^3
Also, what is P? It is the quotient of SO(3) by the icosahedral group
The map from CP^2 to CP^3 here is a specific map, and so it induces a specific homomorphism, there is no choice
There is an inclusion
Since n is greater than m, you always have such an inclusion in your composite
In general there's also a big factor of difficulty of the invariant - the most powerful ones are also the hardest to compute, generally
I have two sets $X = {(x,y)\in\real^2:x^2+y^2=2}$ and $Y = {(x,y)\in\real^2:1 \le x^2+y^2 \le 2}$ and I'm trying to show they're homotopic
JJP
So I know that there is a function $g(x,y) = {2(x,y)}/\sqrt{x^2+y^2}$
JJP
Draw a picture of what you're trying to show
And now that I say that I realise
It's just normalising everything then multiplying it by 2
You can think of it as pulling your ring to the outer circle
For some reason I was thinking it was something specifically for Y to X
And not just like all of R^2 to X
But also rubber ducking 
In an exam under pressure I definitely would not have thought of that even though it's so obvious now that I see it 😆
The answer sheet just assumes that the straight line homotopy works for showing this is homotopy equivalent to the identity on Y, not a fan of that
Usually the functions that you'd be expected to come up with shouldn't be too bad, but they can get pretty bad even if it's easy to picture in your head
Dear friends, is CP^\infty homotopy equivalent to any compact CW complex?
So because it is an inclusion, grade of the cohomology class stays the same?
No
A compact CW complex is the same as a finite CW complex. Its homology is computed by a chain complex with basis given the finitely many cells. This its homogology is finitely generated. In particular, it is nonzero in only finitely many degrees
i kept fixating on the fact that CP^\inf is a K(Z,2) but couldn't find a proper conclusion, that's nicer
A simply connected CW complex with finitely generated homology is equivalent to a finite complex
No, because it is an inclusion and you know what the actual map is, it is a specific map, and you can actually look at where it sends the homology class using the definition of "induced map"
You can look at a cell decomposition for example and think about it that way. There is a very nice cell decomposition for CP^n so I recommend you use that instead of simplicial or delta complexes.
You can ask where this inclusion map sends the various cells since the induced map works by post-composition
There is some truth about what you said though considering this is an inclusion of cells; it sends cells to cells of the same dimension
But it can be sent to a cell that ends up being a boundary in the new space and gets grade 0, so it's not strictly a fact
Thanks! The speed at which I have to learn the material is so fast I'm just trying to survive 😄
Yeah that's typical. Many people benefit from seeing the material again in an algebraic topology elective.
It's less complicated than it seems, but the concepts are always difficult to get from the page to the brain.
Empty and singleton spaces are trivially Hausdorff, right?
Yuh
Question: Suppose $X\times Y$ is Hausdorff, is it implied that $X$ and $Y$ are both Hausdorff? My book wants me to prove this, but suppose that $X=\emptyset$ (making $X$ Hausdorff). Then $X\times Y=\emptyset$, making $X\times Y$ Hausdorff too, regardless of $Y$ being Hausdorff or not. Is my book wrong saying that $X$ and $Y$ are Hausdorff if and only id $X\times Y$ is Hausdorff, or did I make a mistake somewhere?
SWR
(Ah, my book requires that topological spaces be non-empty) 
Looks like some other books say that empty spaces are allowed too. What do y'all prefer?
If the empty space isnt Hausdorff, then the category of Hausdorff spaces isnt a reflective subcategory of Top anymore
It's an arbitrary restriction, and it makes the category of spaces less nice. The empty space is a unit for disjoint union, after all.
You'll have to add a "non-empty" condition to some results, but that's a small price to pay.
It's fair to assume that here you should restrict to non-empty spaces.
if f, f', g and g' are chain maps: X->Y such that f and f' are homotopic, and g homotopic to g'; does it follow from transitivity of "is homotopic" that f + g is homotopic to g' + f' ?
I guess you can add the chain homotopies 
f + g is homotopic to g' + f' *
Is cup product with coefficients in Z_2 commutative? If it is graded commutative with ab=(-1)^ij ba, then in any case -1 is literally 1...?
Yes
Based
Another question: Any map $S^4 \rightarrow \mathbb{CP}^2$ should induce a trivial map on (singular) cohomology except for degree 0.
My reasoning: $H^*(\mathbb{CP}^2)= R [x] / (x^5)$ so any induced map, if not trivial, should map generator in 2nd degree to $x$. Since 2nd cohomology of $S^4$ is empty, this means that we have a map $R \rightarrow R[x]/(x^5)$ mapping $1$ to some scalar and nothing to $x$ so its trivial...?
tracy
Need to verify my intuition on the following : if we're in a metric space, is the closure of an open ball always equal to a closed ball? My guts feeling tells me no, for if the metric space is not connex, we could build up a counter exemple where we had a rogue alpha point "far away from the rest" (in terms of the metric) in the same open set. Let X=(0,1)U{a} and I=(0,1) two open sets of the topology. Say d(a,x)=1 and the open ball be B_1(1/2). Then the closure of B_1(1/2) is I, but the closed ball is X. Would that connexity hypothesis be necessary and sufficient otherwise?
The R-cohomology of CP² is
R[x]/(x³)
With x in degree 2
No. It will always be closed but it needs not be that the closure of the open B_r(x) is the closed ball of radius r at x; take, for example, the discrete metric on Z, and balls of radius 1.
But even if it were what you wrote, that reasoning doesn't work
Thanks a lot for the quick response! I actually like your example a lot because the discrete metric on Z is absolutely not connex since all sets of singletons are open and closed. It's like the extreme version of what I was thinking.
Right, so the closed ball is always contained in the closure, but I'm now wondering if the space being connex is a sufficient condition for the closure of the open ball B_r(x) to be contained in the closed ball?
The closure of the open ball is always in the closed ball of same radius
Taking https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convex_metric_space as the definition, the converse does not hold for convex metric spaces
E.g. [0, 1] U (2, 3]
Consider radius 2 ball at 3
If you mean convex subset of R^n then it holds
I meant the space being connex, not convex.
But that's actually interesting to check too!
Connected space?
Basically the only open and closed sets of X are X and the empty set.
Never heard the term connex before tbh
It took me a while to discover
But uhh connected isn't necessary, consider Q
It also isn't sufficient
Say something like this but the 0 and 3 are joined by an arc
Source?
Hatcher
I see. Would there be another hypothesis that would make the equality true?
It's true for convex subsets of R^n
My intuition was to check for connectedness, since what stands out so much in that counterexemple is how disconnected the discrete metric on Z was
I meant for a topology in general, not just R^n
https://fr.wikipedia.org/wiki/Connexité_(mathématiques), simply lost in translation 😅
Ah makes sense lol
I use this all the time: https://topospaces.subwiki.org/wiki/Cohomology_of_complex_projective_space
I mean it'll be true for, say, normed (R)-vector spaces. But ultimately it's a condition on the metric, not the topology I think
does somebody know a counterexample of 1-point-compactification, where f:X->Y is not a homeomorphism and thus the function induced f^: X^->Y^ is also not an homeomorphism
That's a good point!
1 point compactification isn't functorial, I don't think. What would the induced map be?
E.g., consider the inclusion of (0,1) into R. There's no way to extend this to a map defined on the circle
Something like "for any x, y ∈ X, r ∈ (0, 1) and ε > 0 there exists z ∈ X s.t. d(x, z), d(x, y)-d(z, y) ∈ d(x, y)*(r-ε, r+ε)", probably
The most general I can think of
Definitely something related to the metric, it feels like.
Lol dw I was just joking
I guess induced maps on cohomology do not respect grades, right? I can send a generator x of degree 2 to 0, for example.
I use the wiki all the time too
I'm just trying to find some good source on how to do this kind of problems and I guess I have to read about how to construct induced maps...?
It should respect grading 
For example here in the second to last paragraph it says "it has no choice but to send these to 0" from which I infer that induced maps do respect grading
0 is a homogenous element of all degrees
generic point
Well the argument is that since it respects the grading, x2 and y2 are sent to H2
And are therefore sent to 0
This was what I'm trying to understand:
Z -> 0 -> 0 -> 0 -> Z = cohomology of S^4
Z -> 0 -> Z -> 0 -> Z = cohomology of CP^2
In the second degree, any induced map S^4 -> CP^2 is trivial.
Since H*(CP^2) is R[x]/(x^3) and generator x lives in the second degree, I can then infer from this data that the map in 4th degree is also trivial.
Or no?
Okay this is a bit vague
Apparently it is how it works
You mean induced map H* CP^2 -> H^ S^4 i guess
I'm not sure what you mean "map generator in second degree to x"
I actually need both 😄
x is sent to 0, so so is x^2
H*(CP^2) is R[x]/(x^3), so the basis is {1,x,x^2} which corresponds to degree 0, 2 and 4.
I'm asked if there is any map S^4 -> CP^2 inducing a map on cohomology which is non-trivial in degree >0
My reasoning is that then it has to map something to x, but since H^2(S^4)= 0 this is impossible
But then that means x^2 is sent to 0 too etc
This makes it very clear
But also the other way around, CP^2 -> S^4 should work too
No actually
So there are neither CP^2->S^4 nor S^4->CP^2
I think there is a degree 1 map
CP^2 has a cw structure with 1 cell in dimension 0,2,4
Collapse the 2 cell to a point and you get S^4
And that ought to give you a degree 1 map CP^2 -> S^4
(By examining the long exact sequence on cohomology)
A fun exercise might be to try prove Borsuk-Ulam for S^n -> R^n
By looking at induced maps on some RP
For pairs where X = CP^2 and A = S^4?
A = 0-cell + 2-cell probably
Just to be clear, we're seeing Q here with the topology induced by the euclidean metric?
Since reduced (co)homology of (sufficiently nice) quotient space is relative (co)homology
Yes
Thanks a ton for the help, by the way! Just started a class on all of this, and it's going at a fast and furious speed.
This
Basically you collapse the 2 skeleton and then like
Since the 2 skeleton has vanishing cohomology in degree > 2, the collapse map X -> X/A induces isos on top coho
This is a useful trick in general lol
This is very smart
There are similar examples if you consider uhhh
Maps between surfaces
Like, there's a degree 1 map from the torus to the sphere for the same reason basically
I can probably collapse 1-cell in RP^2 and get map to S^2
Are there any tricks how to compute cup product? I'm asked to show that S^3 x S^5 is not homotopy equivalent to some suspension of a finite CW complex.
Since cup products are trivial in suspension, I guess I should check cup product in S^3 x S^5?
Künneth
But yes correct
Seems like Künneth is the answer to 30% of all algtop questions.
Often cup product can be nicely computed via Poincaré duality but you may not have seen that yet
Could you elaborate a little on it?
Ah yes I messed up the variance mb
Am I missing something or $\mathbb{Z}2 \otimes\mathbb{Z} \mathbb{F}_3 = 0$?
tracy
Yeah
But why did you use the Z notation for one and the F notation for the other lol
The exercise asks for coefficients in F_3
But its Z_3, right
So when there is some torsion with (n,3)=1, I get 0 out
Yes
Thank you
It’s similar to how R or Q coefficients just get rid of all torsion terms
Only the torsion terms that are “compatible” with your coefficient ring sticks around
Why dont we just do R coefficients... would be much better suited for written exams...
Ain't that true
Who needs torsion if there aint no torsion
🥵
the projective plane doesnt exist. it cant hurt me
According to this document, the homology of RP^\infty vanishes for n>0. Is my calculation correct?
0 -> 0
1 -> 2
2 -> 1
It doesn't say that in the document though
indeed the coker is generally non-zero
I had spent some time recently reviewing point set topology because I had just read some places it was a fairly important prereq to understanding a lot of concepts in topology, analysis, diff geometry, etc. Then I had a math professor(a fairly smart one) recently tell me he didnt think that was so true, and that I should spend my titme learning group theory instead.
they're both very important
coker would be F_3 / F_3 or?
for the classes you mentioned, topology is much more important than group theory
Oh you're working over Z/3 lol
Then yeah sure
group theory hardly even appears in these classes
More generally you get zero in any ring where multiplication by 2 is an isomorphism
Never once in my life I've thought "I wish I knew more group theory", but almost every week in my algtop class I think to myself "I wish I knew point-set topology better"
and that's the "analysis" class with the most group theory by far
it's hardly analysis
@pallid delta Yeah I thought so too. The only areas of point-set topology I have learned and continued to review include continuity, compactness, connectedness, and the different standard topologies i.e. product, quotient, subspace. Is there anything else I should try to add to my point set topology review to strengthen my knowledge of it. I guess I never learned much about covering spaces.
I can't see it. Does it mean I am blind.
All the maps are either multiplication by 2 or 0
Okay I see now. Thanks god for tensors
(What you mean, we just tensor everything on the right by F_3 and everything gets 0'd)
completeness, things about metric spaces
Then it depends on where you went to head
algtop, geodiff/top, func anal, etc, don't focus on the same parts of topo
but to take them all, which, unless you're an algebraist focusing on group theory or wtv, you should, you'll need to know lots of topo well
Shouldn't be 0
you get alternating between isomorphisms and 0
though I have taken none of those classes, so I'd be glad if the other people here could correct me if I say anything wrong
But then it's fine, since either 1) kernel is 0 or 2) previous map was surjective
Thanks! I guess I won't trust my mental calculations anymore.
Would cl(B(x,r)) = F(x,r) iff for any y in F(x,r) we have d(y, B(x,r)) = 0 work?
Where cl() is the closure, B(x,r) is the open ball with radius r, and F(x,r) is the closed ball with same radius r.
Yes
Dear friends, can someone give me a reality check:
If I have cross product S³xS⁵, then the only non-trivial homologies are in dimension 0,3,5 and 8, right? And they're equal to Z.
anyone has a source/resource for that ? can't find anything about this "prison operator" online. there must be an alternative name for that
this is my lecture notes
can we see the definition
Is it supposed to be "prism" ?
yea most likely (just googled it)
thanks
that's actually hilarious
that's how bad my professor's handwriting is
(and pronunciation)

yea I suppose
but the construction goes farther than just I x X
it's a whole simplex thing that homologists care about I suppose
Yeah it's not not unusual to call it a prism, but these structures exist in more general categories (model categories) and then theyre more usually called cylinder objects
Maybe this is just an "I learned things in the wrong order so I only know it for model categories" thing
Sorry I don't know what a triangle is, I only work with infinity categories
person who only knows cubical sets
one more quick question: is this how the singular homology of the pair is defined ? as I said my lecture notes are really bad
I mean how would B_q(X) even be a submodule of Z_q(X, A)
sanity check, the free suspension of the empty set is the empty set, right?
Not two points? i.e. S^0
nlab defines the suspension as the usual thing for non-empty spaces, and S^0 for the empty space
Yeah, I'd expect the suspension of the empty set to be S0, but The cone over the empty set computes to empty/empty, which should be 1. Quotiening again shouldn't give 2, I think
I'm not sure what you mean, are you saying that by convention we should define the suspension of the empty set to be S0?
yep
I see, thanks; honestly kinda confused which step of the proof I have that (suspension of Sn) = (Sn+1) breaks down for the -1 case
The idea for the suspension is to take two points, put your space in the middle, now connect everything
If the space is empty, youre left with only the two points
yeah, it actually works for homotopy type theory
homotopy theory in general
which is what confuses me more for normal spaces
Oh you mean as a higher inductive type? sure
yeah, but if it works with HITs it should work with the actual empty set in set theory, and not just by convention 🤔
I think maybe I should use reduced suspensions but idk about them yet
It doesn't seem the right idea
You can't control d(x, A) with some random point y that is possibly far away from the closest point in A to X
Ah yeah
Taking the infimum over all of y to bound it to find delta makes it closer to the right idea?
I guess, since that's the definition of d(x, A)
Ok cool thanks
Sanity check: Tensoring homology theory with any finitely generated R-module M gives another homology theory, right?
$M\otimes_R \mathcal{H}_*(-)$
tracy
What happens to the long exact sequence associated to a pair when you try this?
Exactness goes wrong because tensoring is right-exact and there is def some counter-example?
Right, and so in general this recipe will not give you a homology theory. The obstruction is given by Tor groups, as in the universal coefficient theorem.
I don't have a counter-example off the top of my head, but constructing one should be a good exercise.
How is this space called? $\overline{\mathbb{CP}}^2$
tracy
I think this stands for CP2 with the opposite orientation.
how does "addition" of chain complexes work?
that's substraction
how does subtraction of chain complexes work?
Another question: Assume we have a CW-complex X and its covering X'. I know that the covering map is injective on fundamental group, but not injective on homologies. Example: A_5 as X and Z_3 as X', then abelianization of A_5 is trivial but abelianization of X' is Z_3 itself.
But what if I take homology with field coefficients? Shouldn't it get rid of torsion and give me a nice injective map on homologies as well?
What do you mean? You can add and subtract chain maps as you would homomorphisms between abelian groups, but the only "additive" operation you'll see on the complexes themselves is direct sum.
idk 
(sorry I had to do this joke)
Are there any nice theorems like $H_1(X)=\pi_1(X)_{ab}$ but for higher homology groups?
tracy
(Except for Hurewicz)
I resolved this one by random (tried S^2 and RP^2 and it worked out)
Hurewicz is basically the only one if you consider things like spheres
Well, there are enhancements of Hurewicz which are nice, but yeah
So for example there are versions of Hurewicz due to Serre where everything is an isomorphism "up to" a group in a collection of groups C called a Serre class
So for example C being all torsion groups or finite groups
Sounds like a very large Serre class
Yeah it's cool
For path-connected spaces X,Y, the induced map on 0th homology is identity. Can I construct (not path) connected spaces X,Y such that it is multiplication by n?
I somehow even struggle to imagine what multiplication by n on 0th homology would mean geometrically
I guess the answer is no, because if there is path-connectedness, then it is always an identity map but if there is none then it is a trivial map
I'm not really sure, i'm just trying to wrap my head around what i[x] does. From the exercise statement it seems that x is a chain complex, so you take the chain complex "minus" the chain complex you get when you apply the sequence of homomorphisms on it, and then the boundary maps?
I have to represent the Cw complex of $\mathbb{R}P^2$, but I'am struggling, since I can't really imagine how this space looks like. Does somebody know a good source from where I can get a good intuition? Or maybe already in $\mathbb{R}P^1$
damn_guuurl
You take S² and quotient the antipodal points
There's a CW complex for S² that is symmetric with respect to reflections through the origin
That's clear to me, but because of this I first thought that we only had the upper half of R2
but I think that is completely wrong, since we have to rotate the points as well(?)
In more elementary terms every line pierces S^2 in two points so we throw lower half of S^2 away and the rest gives the CW-structure
You can build a RP² CW complex from this one
RP² can be thought of as R² + line at infinity
Where each point on line at infinity is an equivalence class of parallel lines on the plane
Then you can look at points that have height, lets say in coordinate z, equal to 0 and greater than 0 and "normalize" by z.
You get points with z=1 on the plane and points with z=0 on the circle so RP^2 = R^2 (the plane) and RP^1 (the real projective line)
(this is the quotient of R³\0 approach)
(this is the projective approach)
E.g. If I travel along the hyperbola y = 1/x, I can start at (1, 1), go up to the vertical point at infinity, then come back up from below to (-1, -1), then go to the left towards the horizontal point at infinity, and come back from the right side to (1, 1)
This can be identified with the quotient of S² by placing a light bulb in the center of the sphere and projecting onto a wall = R²
I'm not seeing how this space is homeomorphic to S2 with antipodal points identified
I imagine this space like a closed disk, where the boundary "teletransports you" to the antipodal point of it
doesn't seem similar to S2 with antipodal points identified, since inside the boundary there is no teletransportation allowed, unlike in the modified S2
okay well that makes a lot of sense
Now this question was related to this exercise, in aprticular b
do you agree with me that RP^n can be obtained as two n-cell Bn glued to the boundary? Or am I flipping
But don't you have to identify opposite points, so you have only one n-cell in each dimension? x is literally -x
you should be right, that makes much more sense
My mental model consists of two facts:
- $S_{n-1}$ is boundary of $D_n$.
- $D_n/S_{n-1}$ is $S^n$
So you inductively start with $S_0$, glue $D_1$, identify with $S_1$, glue $D_2$, ....
but how do you glue that to the boundary of B^n modded out by (x ~ -x)?
tracy
The glueing is in part explained by this picture, 0 is the "quotienting out" of the boundary. Like when you take D^2 and identify its boundary with a point it becomes S^2.
I struggle to imagine the part with *2 and just ignore it and work with the definition though 😄
I would be glad if someone has neat ways to visualize RP^n or CP^n
Like CP^4 is an 8-dimensonal sphere with holes in dimension 2, 4 and 6? I guess? idk
I wouldn't say that ig hm
I think visualising them in terms of lines can he helpful but generally hard to get too much traction since they only embed in very high dimensions
Like for example the same reasoning would tell you that RP^2 is S^2 with holes, but that isn't helpful intuition, especially since RP^2 doesn't embed in R^3
Well can you even visualize R^n to begin with
Yeah lol
I still have no clue how to visualize 3-manifolds that are not S³ or RP³
get on my level, I can also visualize R3
I can't even visualize R3
I can visualise R^0
I can visualize the Cantor set which is all I usually need
actually how to visualize S3?
RP³ is same as RP²
That's cheating
Points at infinity in each direction
You can go zoom off upwards and then come back from below
S³ is one point at infinity
So you can zoom off in any direction and come back from any direction
Makes sense
In particular this gives a visualisation for S³ = solid torus ∪ solid torus
You draw a standard solid torus, then you draw the meridional disks for the second solid torus by having the center eventually explode to infinity, loop around the entire space, and come back from the other direction
how is S^3 one point at infinity...
Same as S2 is one point at infinity for R2
Ok so, why exactly do we define the L genus and the  genus via these weird looking formal power series?
Why are these particularly important to geometry and topology?
I have the same curiosity concerning the todd genus
Is there a more conceptual way of thinking about these constructions?
Btw, are there standard ways of defining K-theory for principle bundles in a way that generalizes K-theory for vector bundles?
The formulas are for calculating. Ultimately you need them. Eg, Milnor’s showed that his first exotic sphere was exotic because there was a numerator in L2 and it is 7-torsion because that number was 7
You can interpret wrong way (shriek) maps in terms of Thom isomorphisms. Riemann-Roch theorems are at comparing wrong way maps in different cohomology theories.
Todd for complex K-theory
The Thom class for a complex line bundle in K-theory is 1-L. The class in ordinary cohomology is c1(L). Applying the chern character to get from K theory to cohomology turns 1-L into 1-exp(c1(L)). So that’s the numerator and denominator of the Todd class. And you use the splitting principal to reduce to this case
From my understanding, the origin of this is in Thom's work... For orientable manifolds of dimension divisible by 4, there is this God-given homotopy invariant called the signature. The intersection pairing $(a,b)\mapsto \langle a\cup b, [M]\rangle$ in rational homology is a symmetric bilinear form so it has a signature (also called index). Turns out this is 0 on boundaries so it descends to the cobordism ring $\Omega_$ to a ring homomorphism $\Omega_\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$. And so, I think there was a desire to understand these objects and find more of them. The Pontrjagin numbers being cobordism invariants, it is natural to try and construct more homomorphisms $\Omega_\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$ by looking at power series in the Pontrjagin numbers. The multiplicativity property is equivalent to the constant term in the series being 1 so that the homomorphisms $\Omega_\rightarrow\mathbb{Q}$ are in bijection with the formal power series with constant term 1. Alright, so, in particular, the signature must be expressible as a power series. Since the cobordism ring is basically generated by the complex projective spaces, it's not that hard to compute the coefficients, and we find the formula L(x). I learned this from Milnor-Stasheff.
trout of Orms-by-Gore
That’s the history, that Thom computed the cobordism ring and showed that there must be a signature formula. He didn’t know what it was, but me knew you could check it on complex projective spaces. Hirzebruch came up with the L class. But this doesn’t explain the formula
And then H proved Hirzebruch Riemann Roch using the Todd formula. I don’t know how much sense it made. Grothendieck’s proof made sense of the formula, in the Thom sense I sketched above
Yeah you can get the genuses (genii?) in a topological sense from the power series by plugging in pontryagin numbers
isn't there plural of genus "genera"?
IIRC there's a theorem that $\Omega \otimes Q \cong Q[x_0, ..., x_i]$ where x_i is of order 4k
not excision
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do you happen to have any references which talk about this relationship between the genus of a surface and pontryagin numbers?
For any formal power series with constant term 1 you get a notion of "genus". The L-genus, the A-genus, the Todd-genus, etc. So for instance the L-genus is the signature.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genus_of_a_multiplicative_sequence
In mathematics, a genus of a multiplicative sequence is a ring homomorphism from the ring of smooth compact manifolds up to the equivalence of bounding a smooth manifold with boundary (i.e., up to suitable cobordism) to another ring, usually the rational numbers, having the property that they are constructed from a sequence of polynomials in cha...
I already said that ring morphism $\Omega_*\rightarrow \mathbb{Q}$ and formal power series 1 + ... are equivalent. There is a third equivalence in terms of "multiplicative sequences".
trout of Orms-by-Gore
Incidentally, this wiki article also provides answers to your question "Why are these particularly important to geometry and topology?"
Yeah lemme find a PDF I read on this
Haha I already had this open to 4.1 in my Firefox mobile from previously talking about this with you and nG
What 200+ tabs does to an mf
You are like a little baby
not for the faint of heart
what is a book i should start with to get into topology (as a refrence im not familiar with metric spaces /compactness/open sets and other things i might need/ i just have basic knowledge of linear algebra and a bit of analysis )
Munkres
I don't like a ton of tabs on desktop where it makes the size smaller
Firefox has a minimal size of ~2 cm and then lets you scroll the tab bar
Killer feature, also killer of RAM
I have 32 GB or more on all my systems
"Why do you need this beast of a computer just to do math? It's not even applied math"
Lol
How is Topology without Tears compared to Munkres?
Less dense
Can someone explain what does "if a category has enough injectives" mean as if I'm a five year old
The five year old knows about Ext (but has limited understanding of what this supposed to mean)
Have you seen the definition of an injective object in a category yet?
and injective modules? (which is probably the most concrete example of this notion)
This is like projective but instead of lifting we go down (I guess)
Caveman understanding
Hence the question
the idea is that you want a category to have enough injectives because that let's you take injective resolutions without issues
I guess I'm interested in what happens if it doesn't. Then we can't do math or we still can but with even more obstructions then before?
The idea of the ext functor is to somehow measure the failure of the exactness of the hom functor in the category of R-Modules.
To calculate cohomology you have to find injective resolution but if it doesn't exist then...?
then you aren't guaranteed to have an injective resolution for every object
So a lot of the math falls apart
you can still calculate things like homology in certain cases but it gets complicated
and subtle
Injective resolutions appear because you want to define derived functors, and if you don't have injective resolutions you can't even define them in the first place (since they are defined as the homology of the complex u obtain by applying your original functor to this injective resolution).
Alright. I guess it's like saying we work in the CGWH category, just ignoring stuff where it isn't defined
What kind of derived functor comes after Tor and Ext? If I study algtop further
Sheaf cohomology appears as a derived functor
The category of sheaves of abelian groups over a space is an abelian category
and you have a functor from this category to the category of abelian groups, which the functor that associated to every sheaf its group of global sections
this functor fails to be exact
And sheaves have associated chain complexes too?
and what measures its failure are the sheaf cohomology groups (which are defined as the derived functors of the sheaf o global sections functor)
The left derived functors of the inverse limit functor show up in the milnor exact sequence
hmmmm
well
In a sense yes
It's possible to define sheaf cohomology also in terms of coverings
This is so called cech cohomology
So derived means something like Tor is derived from \otimes N failing to be exact?
Turns out only the first derived functor lim¹ is non zero so it's a particularly simple case
and cech cohomology can be defined by a more explict chain complex
Yes
Is this Galois theory on schemes
Idk how to answer that tbh
oh
I suppose you are interpreting covering here as in "covering space or something analogous to covering space"
But no
I'm talking about open coverings
To every space, every sheaf of this space and every covering by open sets in this space you have an associated cochain complex called the cech complex
the cohomology of this cochain complex is the cech cohomology of the covering with values in the sheaf you have fixed
and the cech cohomology with values in a fixed sheaf is the limit of these cech cohomology groups over all possible coverings of your space
Turns out that in a lot of cases
The cech cohomology with values in sheaf over a given space is isomorphic to the sheaf cohomology of this space (the one defined as the derived functor of the functor of global sections).
I think I realized that I'll deal with this in grad school
Sounds like a good year worth of studying
a small question on understanding, but is euclidean topology almost synonymous to the balls we have in R^n in metric spaces?
what i mean by this is that a set A is open in the euclidean topology in R^n if we can surround it by an open (n-1)-sphere thats contained within A ?
They are synonymous
Hm well i would be careful, as your description seems to imply A is an open ball itself
But yes you can surround each point of A with an open ball contained in A
I.e. A is a union of open balls
can someone give me an example of connected components in a topological space that's not open?
connected components of the set of rationals
singletons
makes sense
thankyu!
can someone give feedback on my proof?
Hey guys, I have a question regarding cellular homology. I didn't quite understand on how to determine the maps d_k needed in the cellular chain complex and also it's degree. Does somebody have a suggestion on how to do it?
associate with each
set Oppoint p
Op ~ Op'p ~ p'
etc
The cellular complex is
… → H3(X3, X2) → H2(X2, X1) → H1(X1, X0) → H0(X0) → 0
The boundary maps are compositions (E.g.)
H3(X3, X2) → H2(X2) → H2(X2, X1)
H2(X2, X1) → H1(X1) → H1(X1, X0)
Each of the maps are given by a relative sequence of pairs.
One can visualize (Xn, Xn-1) as the quotient Xn/Xn-1, which is a bunch of n-spheres joined at a point, one sphere for each n-cell.
So H2(X2, X1) → H1(X1) takes a 2-cell of X (a 2-sphere of X2/X1), and maps it to its boundary in X1.
oki
Then H1(X1) → H1(X1, X0) maps this boundary into X1/X0 (the collection of 1-cells)
thx 
I.e. you represent the boundary of the 2-cell as a linear combination of 1-cells
And this is how you calculate the boundary maps in general
If your CW complex is a simplicial complex it should coincide exactly with the steps for calculating simplicial homology
Hn(Xn, Xn-1) really just means "the collection of n-cells"
I think I overcomplicated it, this sound easier then all the other homologies
Thank zou very much, I will try computing it now and see if I success
Well there is the cellulary boundary formula which you probably want
In order to compute the boundary
Ye "represent the boundary of n-cell as (n-1)-cells" is cellular boundary formula
I forgot that had a name
Yeah it basically just comes from working out what the inclusion and projection maps from/to the various cells actually are
darq finally doing topology?
Am I flipping or there is something wrong in this proof of the Euler formula in R^2?
Perhaps they're counting the exterior of the graph as a face
but first of all, they should take G in R^2 right?
and then look at its behaviour in S^2
But then why are we looking at the euler characteristic of S2 if we are interest on the one of G (?)
this is the exercise
Oh yea the exterior is also a face
The behaviour on R² and S² is the same
The only difference being it bounds an extra region on S²
Which is the outer face
So they ask you to consider that as well
Notice the Euler characteristic is independent of the way you assign a CW structure, so you can use the fact that χ(S²) = 2 for this choice of CW structure
And the 0-cells / 1-cells / 2-cells of this CW structure for S² is precisely the graph vertices / edges / faces
oh okay, so G wraps technically the whole space right?
Yea
oh that's nice
I didn't consider that, kind of never thought about it
That makes much more sense now, thank you very much
that was enlightening

If you don't count the outside face, then it matches the euler characteristic of R^2
Good evening gentlemen. (i) is just 5-lemma applied to LES of pairs, right?
That's right
genus
funny typo, it should say genus
there are only three genders (spherical, flat, and hyperbolic)
In german it is called like this
Genus is literally translated as "gender" in portuguese.
so we can unironically say stuff like "the gender of a cissoid" 
english missing out smh
doing surgery to topological surfaces, call that gender reassignment

How would you folks draw (like, with actual strokes) a genus 3 surface which sits in a symmetric way like this?
I guess I would basically draw a fidget spinner
My best attempt so far...
Yeah but no, I want it sitting like this specifically, because I'll need something more
(here, red is the fix-point set of reflection along the plane they sit on)
Ye nice
Rly? It's good enough?
Is for me lol

I think up to homeomorphism you can view it as being like two (hollow) tables with legs between them
which is slightly simpler to draw i suppose
But not much advantage either
A table sitting on a mirror is a genus 3 handlebody 
Oop
Thanks for that realization 
So I did it in Inkscape, this is what it looks like! I'm quite pleased with the result, what do you think?
Can I draw like this
Oh, that looks very nice
Yeah topologically that's a genus 3 surface 
Nice stool 👍
Actually:
• a 3-legged stool sitting on a mirror is a genus 2 handlebody, and
• if you stand up on a mirror and spread your legs, you're a doughnut!
The object looks good, the arrows are a little bit distracting but I don't see how you'd improve that
Yup I tried several things, and eventually I tweaked the arrows so as to minimize the number of crossings, but yeah idk how I'd do better... I considered removing some of them, but it triggered my ocd
(like, only showing the left-most circles for instance)
Giving them colors would not help the case, right
I think it's bad practise to use colours when you can avoid them, as articles in print are almost always in black and white
But for the arXiv it's totally fine
Oh, did not know that it ends up non-colored
Maybe a legend? The arrows all point to identical looking things in the diagram
RF: Smile with 3-4 eyes
F \cap CG_0: black dot
Yeah I would just explain what RF is in words or smth
Im thinking you have the RF arrows behind the shape but you make them close and have similar directions
so that way they look different enough from the other set of 4 arrows
hi matt :)
what is the appropriate index category in order to define chain complexes as diagrams
hey guys, can somebody tell me, why bot f and g are homotopic to the costnant map1?
Any path is nullhomotopic
because these aren't path homotopies :)
in more detail, you don't care about preserving the endpoints during your homotopy. so you can literally contract the entire path down. explicitly for a path p: I -> X this looks like I x I' -> X defined by (s, t) ↦ p(s(1 - t)) (this is a homotopy between p and which constant map?)
a constant map p(0)?
yeah
okay so buy equivalence relation I get that both f and g are homotopic right?
(I know these questions are really basic, I'm sorry)
yes
but try not to brush past the details when you're starting out ig
so we have a homotopy f -> f(-1), and a homotopy g -> g(-1)
Kinda funny cause I already passed topology and I'm doing algebraic topology haahahha
it's even more convenient because f(-1) = g(-1) (but this doesn't matter)
so we can concatenate f -> f(-1) = g(-1) -> g
which show that both have to be constant right?
