#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 77 of 1
That's correct, with the caveat that the interval might be degenerate (consist of a single point)
[a,a] seems fine to me
Yeah, but sometimes you're fine treating singletons as intervals, and sometimes you're not, so I thought I'd clarify that
f is defined as a function X to R
then they consider f(J) when J is a subset of R ??
Yeah, the notation is a bit inconsistent, but X has to be a subset of R containing J, otherwise the statement makes no sense
in the statement just above, any connected space
its a typo then
Almost certainly, yeah
As long as we take X to contain a subspace J homeomorphic to an interval in R it ought to be fine, but probably just a typo
right, i was wondering if the direct image were supposed to be a preimage or smth but that wouldn’t make sense either
must be that they mean X = R then
the parenthetical tells you
yeah sorry i’m slow, lol
f(J) is the image?
I honestly never heard that wordage outside of some functors
whaat? what do you call them then?
i may be more than averagely interested in functions on the form P^n(X) to P^n(Y) induced from f: X to Y
P^n(X)?
power set composed with itself n times
Well? What do you want to do with them?
pretend they’re all the same mwahaha
You can just apply the corresponding functor n times
oh? sounds like something i should get to sometime
the power set functor or functors in general?
cat theory

for practical use

they must be useful, seeing how often my prof manages to bring them up out of the blue in lectures
I can personally recommend vakil's first chapter. Its really good, even though the book is for AG
You'll see the most important definition is mathematics: a category
(you should at least learn categories, functors, and natural transformations, so that you recognize these (very common) terms in the wild)
thank you, i mean to
functors seem very intuitive
cats somehow less so simply due to how simple they are… and natural transformations i know absolutely nothing about
They dont have that much "meat" to them, they are "simple" objects just like how categories and functors are. But they turn out to be the correct notion often
You should familiarize yourself with objects defined through their universal properties first or right after
and phew yeah path-connectedness is proving much easier than connectedness
now why are these separation axioms such a mess 
Yeah, they are
how fine is your scale?
what does that mean?
how many T_i's are making your life hard*
actually i might drop Viro for this and follow munkres for this part
don’t have time to cover this in much detail
just two days of preparation until my exam and i still have a lot to cover
Oof, yeah there is still quite a bit to go over
All these axioms and still no use found for anything beyond T2
They have played us for absolute fools
ok it seems the important part is T4 => T3 => T2
Yeah, anything without T2 I wouldn't hesitate to call pathological
And anything beyond T4 is quite restrictive
making algtop folks sad in the process?
Algebraic topology is not real and can't hurt me
actually the algtop people in my reading hall are quite buff
But but tychonoff cube 🥺
I mean, that was obviously a sweeping and not entirely serious statement.
But also it does seem that T2 is the property the lack of which tends to break things the most
Still mostly correct tho
Want something more than T2? We had something for that, we called it compact hausdorff
I mean, metric
the important part is T6 and T2
And potentially that compact => T4 (iirc)
what is t6, lol
What was T6
while T4 only yields inclusion
T6 <= metric so that is cool
See, metric spaces are perfectly normal
I mean, once you can make distance arguments most of the T's are fairly straightforward
yeah ofc, this is one it's never taught in a purely metric context
this is necessarily a stronger condition than the conclusion in the urysohn lemma right
Why do we care about precisely separated btw?
that's T4
Like once you have urysohns lemma your separation axiom craving should've been satisfied
Mapping to [0, 1] I guess
Say the (*) here https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3547820/neighborhood-deformation-retracts-vs-cofibrations
But it is insanely beautiful 😍 and super useful
Show me the beauty of algebraic topology, I am still trying to recover from infinite lens spaces
it is! I just do nothing anywhere related
and in particular nothing that would require me to gaze into the non-Hausdorff abyss
don't you work regularly in non-hausdorff spaces 
where do infinite CW-complexes show up?
chrew
AG is a plague that haunts the earth 
Hatcher has a section on K(G, 1) in chapter 1 I think
i hate when people allow unions of sets of different types of objects 😭
wdym, they are all sets 
set theorists are fuming right now
let them deceive themselves all they want
all my homies know sets are not real, mwahahaha
that said, i am very fond of set theory
It's just a collection of objects, innit
a class, maybe even a category
boom
I was being deliberately informal 😛
The empty set is real and cool and my friend.
How do you feel about algebraic geometry
algtop ppl generally work with Hausdorff spaces
fake
my ignorance has been revealed (again)
just a string of symbols… Hilbert’s got my back, mwahaha
I've happily avoided any interactions with algebraic geometry until now
I mean I'm not dissing algebraic geometry, it looks interesting from a distance, but my path has carried me elsewhere
Something something Zariski?
There is a similar notion called separated in AG, and it is related to Hausdorff as both can be characterized with that the immersion into diagonal is closed
Non Hausdorff is usually not a problem as we mostly not use set theoretic product, but fibered product.
And by Grothendieck, non separated scheme is called prescheme.
hello guys, how can I formally write the definition of a topology? currently I do: given a set $\mathbb X$, $\tau$ is a topology on $\mathbb X\iff\mathbb X,~\emptyset\in\tau~\land~\forall O_1,...O_n\in\tau,~\bigcap\limits_{i=1}^nO_i\in\tau~\land~\forall{O_i}\subseteq\tau,~\bigcup{O_i}\in\tau$ but I don't like the $O_1,...O_n$ and ${O_i}$ notation
Jow
Also don't use \land in actual writing
The question was about a formal definition
If only one read the whole context
Yes, but I'm just saying in general
I don't think it's a useful or good habit to have
ofc
Sorry if it wasn't clear that that was not directly related to the question
that's one problem, what should I define it as?
Here's how I would do it
[ \forall C \subset \tau, \bigcup C \in \tau \land \bigl( \operatorname{finite}(C) \implies \bigcap C \in \tau \bigr) ]
${O_i}$ notation doesn't say what $i$ is, and I'm sure there's a more concise way of saying $O_1,...O_n$
I like that, but how can I not use the word "finite"
Define $\operatorname{finite}(C)$ to be something like [ \exists n \in \NN, \exists f, \text{$f$ is a bijection from $n$ to $C$} ]
semer
you mean $\exists n \in \mathbb N, \exists f, \text{$f$ is a bijection from ${m\in\mathbb N:m\leq n}$ to $C$} $?
Jow
Yes, often the numbers in N are defined to be sets of cardinality n
But this is the same thing ofc
oh, interesting fact
also that still has words `xD, I can do $|C|\in\mathbb N$
Jow
Right, but if you allow the cardinality function, then you might as well just use the finite predicate
Only using symbols doesnt mean formal ofc
btw, what's the most common notation for cardinality? on wikipedia I found $|C|,~#C,~n(C),~card(C),~\bar{\bar C}$, $|C|$ seems to be most common but I like $#C$ better
Jow
# is decent but it looks kinda ugly imo
comeon man! xd
*screams* IS DECENT
|C| is ok, unless you're also working with negative numbers
card(C) is always unambiguous
?
Cant mistake it for anything else can you
oh nvm, I thought u said "ambiguous"
wym? it could be misinterpreted as the absolute value of the elements of the set?
Maybe, or maybe C is a number
name_of_the_game(C)?
I don’t understand how the part starting from “Said differently” is relevant. It would make sense for Frechet-Urysohn spaces, where the sequential closure of any set equals the closure, but sequential spaces are concerned about something different
I mean, unless you like circularity you have to settle with primitive notions lol
closure is different from closed
i don’t have a problem with it at all, i just like to remind people that sets are informal objects, mwahaha
because i am evil
maybe you can explain why you think it would make sense in the frechet-urysohn setting? @tidal lynx
So in any topology the closure of a set is precisely the “net closure” (a point is in the closure of a set iff it is the limit of some net of points of the set). I read the last sentence in my image as “sequential spaces are the spaces where we can relax the word net (in my previous sentence) to sequence”
But what I have described is a space where the sequential closure is always equal to the closure, a F-U space
I guess my misinterpretation is the “any topology can be described in terms of nets” part, which I seem to have incorrect
what do you mean by this
the screenshot you posted says nothing about closures, so not sure where you got that from
I don’t know how to decipher “Any topology can be described in terms of nets, but sequential spaces are those spaces for which nets of countable length are sufficient to describe the topology”
So this was my attempt at giving meaning to “describing a topology in terms of nets”
But I guess it’s wrong
My course defined frechet-urysohn as: For any x in the closure of A, there exists a sequence in A converging to x.
Sequential spaces are:
A set A is closed iff all limits of sequences in A are contained in the A.
So in sequential spaces closedness can be measured using sequences, but limit points dont have to come from a sequence
I understand that part
I just don’t see the relation to nets
Is it maybe that in a general topological space “a set A is closed iff all limits of nets in A are contained in A” ?
That’s just a guess
Well, if you can test closedness without ever talking about nets, you can also talk about open sets. So you pretty much dont need to use nets at any step when dealing with the topology of the space
brain fart, fixed now I hope
No like in the Wikipedia image it says something like “for general topological spaces you need nets but here for sequential spaces you just need sequences”
edited
Yeah
Any limit point can be found with a net, all limit point able to be found using sequences is the property that frechet urysohn spaces have
With limit points I mean points of the closure of some set
And also, the first direction of:
“A set A is closed iff all limits of sequences in A are contained in the A.”
holds in general, correct?
so sequential spaces only really ask for the reverse direction
yes
Nice, thanks
If you care for it, id like to remember it as thinking of sequences as like a subset of things you can do with nets. Frechet-urysohn is equality and sequential space means that it is a dense subset in analogy to extending functions into R
Trying really hard to understand this analogy but am failing
its a "english class analogy" type analogy
Since sequential spaces are determined by how sequences in them converge, why wouldn’t you say equality for them
Edited sorry
whereas frechet urysohn tells you ALL limit points can be obtained through sequences, this is generally false in sequential spaces. But sequential spaces have the defining property that just knowing a set contains the limits to all sequences is enough to know it is closed
Agree
The latter is somewhat reminiscent to how if you have a cts function f: R -> R, you only need to know how f acts on the dense subset Q IMO
Will think about that
a set K is closed iff every convergent net in K has all of its limit points in K
this is false in general if “net” is replaced by “sequence”
oh you said that
what does a topology being finer than another mean formally?
The finer one has more open sets
I.e. (X, T') is finer than (X, T) if T' contains T
@paper crystal It's not about the number of open sets or their size, its about set inclusion
So t1 and t2 are incomparable, similarly t3 and t4. But t4 is finer that t2
alright, thanks man
alright, thanks man
alright
why isn't a topology necessarily closed under arbitrary intersection? it intuitively feels like it should be
Why? The intersection of infinitely many open intervals on the real line might well be a single point
And treating singletons as open is not usually what we do
meaning all topologies on R are discrete
how?
oh shit, yeah, yeah you're right
well, that's ultimately what I came for, an example
so thank you xd
hey, @alpine nest if you don't mind me asking (and also pinging you lol), you seem to know a lot about a lot in maths, ae you a student, prof ... ?
Used to do mathematical research, retired from that but I still teach a bit
I only know a few areas of math though 😄
really!? what research did you do?
dynamical systems
Sometimes topological, sometimes measure-theoretic, so those are the areas where I feel reasonably confident
that's really cool, damn the internet is a great place isn't it
lmao
can you tell me a bit about what mathematical research is concretely about? doing "research" in mathematics has always been obscure to me, I mean I just recently discovered my love for maths (I'm more of a physics guy originally) and the way it's presented often disregards the research aspect, everything is just presented as facts to know, and not as really as man-made constructs
Well, what exactly it's about, depends on the area, but it's solving problems and answering questions.
Either your own which resulted from your previous research, or someone else's
You read things, you talk to people you find out what questions could do with being answered
And hopefully you have some ideas of how to answer them
So basically like in other fields, you look at the current state of knowledge in your section of the field, and you try to expand it
Step one, familiarize yourself with what people in your field know/doesn't know and what the open questions are.
Step two, look at some examples and make some guesses or simple questions.
Step 3, Try to answer those questions, read theory you think might be relevant, talk to people and hear what they think.
Step 4, write down what you figure out in an article, present it at seminar or conference, publish it.
Step 5, profit (?!)
However, unlike most other disciplines you don't do experiments or surveys or delving into sources, you mostly just have a good think 😄
"profit (?!)" lmfao
Sadly there are a number of occupations that are much more lucrative than academic mathematics
well now that I think about it like that, it's kinda pretty obvious `xD
and yet some of the most lucrative occupations rely heavily on mathematical principles, finance, engineering, tech ...
Yep
There is money in being good with mathematics, it's just typically not at universities
I'll take that as career advice xd
still a shame though
I'm having a silly moment: Why is not the uniform topology the same as the box topology?
From https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/315524/open-sets-in-uniform-and-box-topology?rq=1 I see that (xi-e,xi+e) is not open, but then how does the e ball around x_i looks like?
oh, I think it is just sequences that don't get arbitrarily close to xi +- e
Ah yeah.
That's an interesting distinction
what is this nonsense
let (X,d) be a metric space and A be a subset of X, prove that |d(x, A) − d(y, A)| ≤ d(x, y)
chatgpt says d(x,A)=inf{d(x,a): a \in A}
Chatgpt thinks it's obvious from the definition
I can't tell if this is meant to be sarcastic
I did the proof with that definition and it turns out to be true
do you have another definition in mind
nope
what is the issue then
good lord do not go to chatgpt for math stuff
I never use it as a primary source, and it can be pretty useful still
it doesn't seem to have done that in this case ...
ok ok, I'll never ever use it again, pinky swear
I mean, it will probably restate definitions and theorems corectly, but it's unlikely to produce a valid chain of reasoning because that's not the purpose of the model at all.
I didn't say I trust it 100%, but we can't just disregard it's usefulness completely
it has uses in many situations, but solving mathematical problems is not one of those, sadly
I sometimes throw stuff at it in hopes that it will spit out some keyword or name that I'd forgotten about and that's connected to the problem
since that's pretty much what it's designed to do - produce natural-sounding text based on associations
but associations are not logic, even if they sometimes do a plausible impression of it
yeah it might prove useful for searching the literature
broadly construed
but yeah for correct definitions or theorems or proving things…lol
I think it's likely to correctly state major theorems since they must have occurred a lot in the training data
On the whole the main issue in ChatGPT (in practical terms rather than in societal terms) is that it's not reliable, and when it's wrong, it's often wrong in ways in which humans tend not to be.
So if you want to trust the output, it requires careful verification, which often defeats the point of using the tool in the first place
yeah
the only people in a position to use it effectively dont need it
(though terry tao might disagree)
conversely all the people using it are also the people confused by utterly basic analysic problems
I have to say LLM tools have been surprisingly helfpul when writing code, but then they work as a highly advanced autocomplete
Tao is going into crank territory with his GPT nonsense lol
same thing happened to Voevodsky when he stopped doing motivic homotopy theory and started being like "homotopy type theory is the future" and "maybe Peano arithmetic is inconsistent but that's also okay"
lmao
Isn't Lean a different beast since it actually implements logical reasoning?
Unlike LLM's which are probabilistic in nature
tao wants chatgpt to merge with lean
Ah
so it will correct its math errors on the fly
As in using lean to verify and correct ChatGPT's output?
(idt he came up with this but he has advertised it)
like, make chatgpt automatically generate lean code with its answers, and also check them
and then generate a new answer if it doesnt compile
yeah I mean Lean is something you have to actually program yourself
it's a nice tool
it doesn't make up random bullshit for you like GPT does
i think tao acknowledges that its garbage atm
but i think he just likes the idea of a big autocomplete tool
basically just this
yeah I mean no LLM is going to be able to do this reliably
I think there's great appeal in being able to communicate with software using natural language for inputs and outputs, and ChatGPT and its ilk make it appear tantalizingly close.
its like OEIS
but way worse
is there actually appeal among like, professional scientists
I mean, for me writing up the actual paper was always the least fun part.
So if I could just tell my work to a LLM and have it spit out the LaTeX, that would be great 😄
do you mean
write in english and not typeset
or let chatgpt actually write
the problem with the latter is the scarcity of well-written math papers to train on
I was thinking (in terms of pure SF, I don't think that's remotely doable right now) that I could explain my result the way I would to a human, and it would write it up 😄
Although my pain is mostly with the typesetting and managing notation, writing out the English was fine
thatd be great lol
Also it's not really something I struggle with, but it's just tedious
yeah
also because I have ADHD, my papers always have a lot of inconsistencies in notation
i mean writing is very annoying
I need to find and check out one of these tools that generate TikZ code based on human description or image.
Because TeX as such I'm mostly fine with, but TikZ is awful to use
Incredibly powerful and versatile, but awful to use
Yeah, fair, I only use it occasionally
So by the time I get over the initial pain I'm back to not using it
It is fairly painful for complicated pictures sometimes
As long as you keep things simple with clean coordinates it’s not bad at all
most painful thing I have ever made in tikzpicture
looks great though!
Surely inkscape be pog
How do you even
amazing
Suppose the topology T' on X is finer than the topology T. Can this be detected by sequences? I.e. is there necessarily a sequence xn such that xn -> c in T' but not in T'?
No
E.g. Long line + point is finer than closed long line
But either way a sequence converges to ω1 only if it is eventually constant
The problem is that the topology around ω1 is so fine that it's not first countable, thus you can't detect limit points using sequences
A generalization of sequences called nets can be used though
Two topologies are the same iff they have the same convergent nets and each convergent net converges to the same point(s)
Thanks, yeah felt that'd be the case but couldn't find an example
that previous question is motivated by:
Let X be a set, and suppose we have a function that assigns to each sequences xn in X a set L (the set of the limits of xn). There is the very natural topology on X that has U close iff U is sequentially closed. I was wondering if this has a universal property (the finest/coarsest such that...) but it seems it isn't the case?
Yeah unless you have first countable spaces you want nets as Arki said (or filters)
You've just shown it's not the finest such that xn->c iff c in L. I don't think it's the coarsest either
yeah I know nets/filters work
I just find very weird that this natural definition doesn't have a universal property
first time I've seen that I think
I haven't played around with them, but it looks to be something about sequential spaces, so I would expect that this process is a (left? right?) Adjoint to the inclusion SeqSpace --> Top
ohhhh it does seem like a possibility, though you need extra data to carry the sequences and limits
but something like that seems like it could work
Well okay that would be if you applied it to the limits of an existing topological space. I agree it should be either coarsest or finest topology such that blah blah blah (has exactly those limits?) But I'm not sure which
not finest, as Arki shows
but doesn't seem the coarsest either
that's what I found very weird
if X connected and Y disconnected, is X times Y always disconnected?
Disconnected times anything is disconnected
Not clear if this even is a functor, as the domain is type dependent; i.e. it takes a set and a subset of limits of that specific set
except times the empty set!
A scholar of the empty set! 
thanks

I think it should be finest? 
Since if the natural topology T exists and any other T' has the same limits then any closed set is T' is a closed set of T?
Applying the proccess to the closed long line would not give you the point I think
I think the natural topology should be long line + point
This is one of the reasons the empty space should not be considered connected!
I'm a bit confused by
any closed set in T' is a closed set of T?
could you elaborate why?
it should be
any sequentially closed set in T' is a sequentially closed set of T?
Right?
closed ==> sequentially closed
the nlab agrees with that, so I must agree too 
So you take this topological space X, you get a collection of sequentially closed sets (which includes all closed sets), adn then you form this new topological space on the same set, say X_seq, which has all of these as closed sets. So it's a finer topology.
Which means the map id: X_seq --> X should be continuous, which should tell us which sided adjoint this is
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sequential_space#Categorical_properties which agrees with what was written here
ohhhh this makes it very clear
thanks!
if X is connected and infinite and F is a finite subspace, i’m struggling to show X x X \ F x F is connected
wikipedia say that it must be with its own product
weird
Yeah, it has to be the categorical product for it to be cartesian. So this should be (I'm assuming we're right that the right adjoint is this process you described) this process applied to the usual product topology
Try a particular example, let X=R and F={0}, see how you can "go around the hole"
Cool, sequential spaces seem to be both nice and form a convenient category at the same time, dont see that often!
Yeah it's cool I'm just a bit surprised I've never actually seen them called a convenient category before lol
i can see it visually but i don’t know how to show it formally 😭
For finite products you can quickly work this out
Actually, maybe it isnt clear. I recommend convincing yourself that products are distributive over unions
right, since you’ll get a product including an empty set
Actually I am overcomplicating this, fix a projection map and use it
oh even better
yeah mb I was thinking of path connectedness lol
I think you can make use of the "path" visualization anyway
Note that being in the same connected component is an equivalence relation
is there enough information to define a continuous surj from X^2 \ F^2 to {0,1} ?
for a contradiction
um, i phrased that incorrectly but hopefully the idea is clear enough
This feels like a problem you have to draw out
If it was path-connectedness this would be fairly straightforward, maybe a similar argument works for connectedness
And that products of connected spaces are connected
Oh lol Jens
Then you can draw a "path" with "horizontal" and "vertical" "lines" representing the relation
Actually, X x X / F x F is the quotient space here right
yeah mb
my problem is with the set difference
Good question
Yeah Jens dw that's what i'm saying
Sol: ||For any (x, y) and (x', y'), take a finite sequence of points in X²\F² starting at (x, y) and ending at (x', y') such that consecutive points have one coordinate equal.|| Then ||consecutive points are in the same component by considering X × point||
It should suffice showing that the union {x} x X of X x {y] is connected, so maybe showing that any map to {0,1} would have to factor through X?
Ah my solution is basically equivalaent to yours arki
I think mine is perhaps easier to see though - for a hint: consider the characterisation in terms of functions into {0,1} (with discrete)
oh lol what kerr said
omg
that’s amazing
Basically if you draw it out
You get uh
if you have a function X x X \ F x F -> {0,1}
it's constant for each fixed x and y
So you can see it must be constant overall
But yeah that is actually almost identical to Arki's nvm sorry 😭
i don’t follow
In hindsight it justs making sure that being in the same connected component defines an equivalence relationship
and then given two points x and y in X x X \ F x F just consider the horizontal slice containg X and the vertical slice containing y, then their common point forces x and y to be equivalent
X x {x_2} is connected after all, so anything in it is equivalent to x. Same for {y_1} x X with y
Ye
ok thanks for all the help but my brain has shut down and i will have to return to this later
i think i should also do some auxiliary problems connectedness and products behave with each other first
and the thing with connected spaces sharing a point implies their union is connected
in either case my top exam tomorrow will not go well
rip me
Keep us updated
i expect to pass, but not with a good grade :S certainly below a C
which will be my worst grade in a maths course but oh well
:/
i’ll probably take the exam again my first semester in my masters
(assuming i can get that far)
Anyone have a direction? It’s from Hatcher 3 manifolds book, right after the chapter on prime decomposition
I think I’m missing something really easy
ok so i have figured if X is connected and homeomorphic by f with Y, and if A is subspace of X such that X \ A is disconnected, then so is Y \ f(A)
but i am trying to find a way to show two connected spaces X and Y are not homeomorphic by means of seing how their connectivity differs after removing points from each
Yes there are simple examples
the classic example involves your, probably, favourite basic top space example
Well isn't that immediate from what you've done
i just realized i haven't even tried doing this directly with R and R^2 yet, and skipped straight to trying to generalize the procedure
Or do you just want examples
i think so too but i'm not sure how to explain why and state the result
Well if f: X -> Y is a homeo then X \ A -> Y \ f(A) is a homeo
right
I am confused, what are you trying to do?
So in particular if you can remove a point from each with one connected and the other not
Then the original spaces are not homeo
As it contradicts what I wrote
right, so simply by contradiction
i am just struggling with language, well, among many otherthings
Ye
it is clear some spaces are in a way "more" connected than others, is there a term for this? like, perhaps it can be measured by the cardinality of the least subspace such that it's complement is disconnected
Well
no because that would not be a topological property would it
There is path-connectedness, and then there is stuff that spiritually related
There are notions of connectivity but they are probably not quite what you want lol
ye i think i can construct a counterexample
Basically you consider maps of spheres into your space and consider then they can be deformed to constant maps
And the "0-dimensional sphere" case is path connectedness
whaat
(there are certain extra things with basepoints but yes)
But anyway the simplest example here is the fundamental group
potato i love you just so you know
like for each space X with a fixed point p, you consider loops in X starting and finishing at p
up to "deforming them"
potato corrupting the youth with homotopy theory
that gives you a group
(you can do one loop then another, etc)
And this is often useful for studying spaces
so for example under this, R^2 \ a point is less connected than, say, R^2
Because in R^2 \ pt you can't just like deform a circle about origin to a point (it has non-trivial fundamental group)
homotopies seem a lot of fun, i wish i had focused more of my effort into topology earlier
It's okay, you can make a lot of progress w stuff anyway once you start
i blame my taking complex analysis last semester for my current unpreparedness, lol
some point set topology is necessary + it's good you're doing some
*insert jens duck pray*
what duck deities are you praying to
the duck god, duh
Monoduckeistic? Heretic
*insert jens cat evil smile*
does this top on X = [0, infty) have a name? T = {ø,X} u {(a, infty) | a >= 0}
viro calls it "the arrow," but wikipedia uses that name for the lower limit topology, which is not homeomorphic to this one
uh
Mmmm i recognise that topology but I dont think it has a proper name
no, the above is compact
wait which do you mean by the canonical topology here
the subspace from R?
the (a,infty) and (-infty, b) generate the canonical top on R, I just didnt see that the latter was missing
oh ok
tf is this terminology lol just randomly deutsch mittem im Satz
What?
Yeah lol it's funny
also slightly annoying to my eyes since it should be im Kleinen ig
Hi, I am currently reviewing topology problems to prepare for an exam. So lets assume I have an ideal point x* in a unit square, which is not in the left corner. So it is somewhere in this unit square, but when I compare two spots that are the same distance to the ideal point I prefer the one closer to the lower left corner. Disclaimer I am not a math student so I am not used to proving things, so sorry in advance. So I wanted to check if the preference relation is rational in a) and in b) if it is continuous. Since for rationality I need Completeness (so every point in this unit square has to have a preference) and transitive (that the preference has to be consistent, so e.g. if one point A is closer to the ideal point than another point B, if C is introduced and further away than B it should be less preferred than A). So first of all are my proofs somewhat correct?
Moreover if rationality and continuity is given then there should exist a utility function correct? If so how would it look like/ how would I formulate it?
Also is there a difference if the choice is given by real numbers (for the distance) or by pixels? Thanks for the help in advance!
I had posted it in a help channel but was asked to try to find help here, so sorry in advance if that is not the correct way to do it.
what is an ideal point
Imagine I want to place an ad on a website and my ideal point would be where I place it on the screen
what is a rational relation?
well rationality is given when the decision is complete and transitive
I don't really understand what you are saying
Or how it has anything to do with topology
I assume these are economics terms?
So completeness is for any x,y in X : x > y or y > x, whereas reflexive means for any x in X : x has a relation with x
wait i kind of understand
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rational_choice_theory
These preferences are assumed to be complete and transitive. Completeness refers to the individual being able to say which of the options they prefer (i.e. individual prefers A over B, B over A or are indifferent to both). Alternatively, transitivity is where the individual weakly prefers option A over B and weakly prefers option B over C, leading to the conclusion that the individual weakly prefers A over C. The rational agent will then perform their own cost–benefit analysis using a variety of criterion to perform their self-determined best choice of action.
And transitivity would be for any x,y,z in X : [x >=y and y>= z] => x>= z
so it's a partial order or a preorder i think
i think linear order
is "indifference" <= and >= or incomparability
indifference
yeah this article says total order
wait
"total order minus some assumptions"
great
in detail the relation is: given a pair of points p, p'; p > p' if d(p, x*) > d(p', x*) or [d(p, x*) = d(p', x*) and d(p, 0) > d(p', 0)]
think lexicographical
ok it's a "total preorder"
and a preference relation is continuous if a>b implies that there are neighborhoods of a and b (B_a and B_b) such that x >y for all x in B_a and y in B_b.
and if {(x,y) s.t. x >= y} is a subset of X x X is a closed set: I.e. if {(a_n, b_n)} is a sequence of pairs of elements in X for which a_n >= b_n for all n and a_n -> a and b_n b, then a>=b
ohhh
yes
So it is related to topology no?
ya
did you show the first part?
Maybe that is of help, so for it to be a total order it should also be antisymmetric
it's almost antisymmetric, for any point there is at most one other point that shares the same preference
I hope so that I did this in part b
I hope this makes any sense
under the second definition you gave, and assuming i understood the relation correctly, i don't think the relation is continuous
I never had to prove things properly before since as economics students we always take things as granted (shame on us), so now im struggling quite a bit when having to write proofs like these to even get a starting point. Not to speak of the notation which is probably disgusting
Oh okay
by "distance to the origin" we mean the euclidean one right
yes
like sqrt of sum of squares
yes
Sorry this is a problem from a problemset not related to this but there is the definition for d included
if i interpreted the relation correctly, blue is the set of points whose preference is higher than p, right
bundle?
I would interprete it that the the ones in the lower left quadrant if you would devide the unit square on the ideal point are the preferred ones no and not the whole rest
Since when two points having the same distance I prefer the one closer to the lower left corner as they like to call it
take like (0.1, 0.1)
Bundle is is here I prefer some x_1 and some x_2 so basically the point
Hm yes that’s true
also why would we see quadrants? aren't all our distances euclidean? (aka we should only see circles, and intersections of circles etc.)
Makes sense in my foggy mind I chose the easy way of dividing it but you are correct
i feel like i might be missing the important context but unfortunately i don't know economics
if we fix p, and consider a sequence of points (in the blue set) that approaches the dashed part of the circle, this says that the relation is not continuous
because their limit will be more preferred than p
but i mean the biggest circle you could draw would be one around x* that is going through 0,0 no?
The ideal point is not in the lower left corner. When comparing any two spots, you prefer the one that is closer to the ideal point. When two spots have the same distance to this ideal point, you prefer the spot closer to the lower left corner. This is all what the problem says
right, and a spot where we'd prefer p over is exactly a spot in the blue region
ok so the region is drawn correctly
sorry what's the point behind this?
well it might not be, like if x* was really close to 0,0 then we could draw a bigger circle
sorry ignore it
the ideal point could also be close to the top right which makes the point behind my thought irrelevant
does this read btw
just making sure, the ideal point is the same for all spots right
So basically we would then experience a "jump" since we prefer p until some point of the sequence reaches the dashed line correct?
which makes it not continuous
sorry for this sloppy expressions but i don't know yet how to express it in math terms
no worries
I see but how would I prove this I was so happy with my solution haha
btw the first definition of continuity also fails; e.g. if we choose a point q on the solid part of the circle, then p is preferred over q. but any neighbourhood of q contains points that would be preferred over p
True
i just don't understand what's being written with the implications, sorry ;(
i think usually math people like using words
because it gives more context
Oh really I thought they like all these fany notation thingies
I tried to verbalize the proof but i got lost in the middle so if i would do a proof by contradiction so: Show that a rational preference relation on X is continuous if a is preferred over b implies that there are neighborhoods of a and b such that x preferred over y for all x in B_a and y in B_b. would be the first proof and the second one would be to show that on X is continuous if {(x,y) s.t. x weakly preferred over y} subset of X x X is a closed set...." and then show through the assumption that they are not continuous correct?
i'm finding what you wrote very difficult to read
the first proof? i thought that was the definition of continuity
same for the second
I see you would use the graph and simply use the verbal description to prove it
you can translate it into a more formal proof, i.e. make the sequence explicit, show that the point the sequence converges to is really more preferred
Man thank you so so much, really your help was much appreciated
btw i think it's worth it to show that the two definitions are equivalent
it helps gain familiarity with moving between X × X and X
hm might be a good task to study thanks for the tip
Again thank you for helping me out and dealing with my sloppy math 😄
hints: ||a isn't preferred over b if and only if b is strictly preferred over a|| ||open sets and closed sets are complements.|| ||what is the definition of an open set in X × X?||
Thank you will definitely come back to that later on 😁
Is the fiber bundle commutative?
Not immediately sure what that means, are you sure you're using the right term?
Can you always interchange the fiber and base space?
Well unless it is a trivial bundle, it's not really a product. The way the bundle turns out is going to depend on automorphisms of the fiber, and if you switch the two, you're going to have a different automorphism group, so different gluings will be possible.
Consider the mobius bundle, a line bundle over the circle. If you "commute" and make a circle bundle over a line, and it doesn't seem possible to do this without it being a trivial bundle (naively...maybe somebody will show a non-trivial circle bundle over a line).
You can think of a fiber bundle as two things (roughly): a collection of product neighborhoods where factors are the base and fiber, and a collection of maps from the fiber to itself that show how to glue the product neighborhoods together.
the line is contractible, so all (topological) bundles are trivial
wow almost all topology books i’ve looked at has introduced the same topological ideas from different starting points
i love this one:
someone plz critique my two proofs here, i am not sure if i am missing something
They are fine
Maybe the second one is a bit too wordy
Like you could've looked at the pre-image of 0 and 1 and by connected argued one of those must be empty
i generally prefer that over too little words
right that would also work
i like how i can evade any mention of symmetry in my first proof though
but i feel it's a bit more handwavy than i prefer
What symmetry
in S^0, you can interchange the two elements, lol
i suppose you achieve the same by just saying as you do here that one of the two has to be empty
So?
I still don't know what you mean by symmetry in the first proof
The image is connected, so you need a non-empty connected subset of S^0 as your image, this forces you to have your image to contain only one element
yes, and there is a symmetry in "image with only one elements," as it contains two possibilities which are symmetric
I am not sure what you are getting at
Yeah, there are two choice functions and they act exactly the same
X Hausdorff iff the diagonal in X x X is closed, is so weird to me
and wow it generalises to X/~ Hausdorff iff ~ is closed in X x X
that's so swag
What?

Rare point-set be pog
It is super useful
what what?
Nice application: if f:X -> Y is a (continous) map, Y Hausdorff and G := {(x, f(x)} is the graph, then G is a closed subset of X x Y
Good exercise and has a v short solution using what you just mentioned
whaat
The statement
This is useful for example because you immediately know that, like, the graph of a curve is closed lol
i did not know continuos images from hausdorff spaces were always closed
So many things you can draw in R^2 will be closed lol
They aren't
That's not what mine is anyway
oh, of X x Y, right
Yeah
An important criterion to know for a map to be closed is that the domain is compact and codomain is Hausdorff
um can you restate in less condenced language
Sorry
aha
thank you
i have just over an hour until my exam starts, and it is abundantly clear i have not looked enough at separation axioms and compactness
rip
The diagonal being closed criterion is so good that AG uses it as it's own version of "hausdorffness", which I find kinda cool
oh actually i knew for metric codomains
Yeah nice
Yeah the diagonal being closed is nice as it doesn't mention elements or anything
Another usefull criteria i have been using lately is f is cont on compact set E iff its graph in E is compact
think i was trying to bound integral phi(x,1/x) where phi smooth and has compact support in R^2 and it ended up being usefull
Oh interesting
how does R/[0,1) looks like? I.e. [0,1) identified to a single point
Hm it should be the line with two origins
Like R/[0,1] would literally just be crushing down [0,1] to nothing
so you just get R
and that is just R/[0,1) after you identify the point [0,1) with the point {1}
Is not quite the line with two origins, since a set like
(-1, 1) is open, but looks like (-1, 0] in the quotient
Yeah good point
But I guess you can describe it as R with a special point x, such that the open sets are open sets of R or x with an open set of R that has 0 as the limit of an increasing sequence
Or at least contains a neighborhood of 0 intersected (-1, 0)
i am confident in my answers to exactly 50% of the exam
but then again i only answered 55% of it

so not much to hope for
the last 30% were clearly modelled on/ along the lines of the proof for the Urysohn lemma, which i am not at all famliar with beyond “you use some dense set” and that i consequently had absolutely no idea how to answer :S
the last 20% i am missing i spent like two and a half (out of four) hours on, getting nowhere, i suspect i missed something really obvious ehehe
there was this problem (10%): X and Y both connected, compact Hausdorff spaces, and some surjective f: X -> Y continuous with for each x in X some nbhd Nx of x with f(Nx) a nbhd of f(x), show that for each y in Y, f^-1{y} is finite
oops forgot a probably crucial assumption: each f|Nx is an imbedding
This gives f^-1{y}, by injectivity, the discrete topology
oh
for each f|Nx you mean
but one can also show f^-1{y} is compact
and take {Nx : x in f^-1{y}} as an open cover
Yeah each Nx only hits a single element in the fiber
So it has the discrete subspace topology and is compact. Hence it must be finite
thank you very much Kerr, and lol i was certain there was something very simple i was missing
i’m not sure how i even managed to miss this 😭, i set up everything else i needed, that is, i found the finite cover of Nx’s of f^-1{y}, and i managed part before to show that f is surjective, which was originally not an assumption
i suppose i just forgot to remind myself f|Nx imbedding means it makes a bijection with it’s image
dosent this prove the stronger statement that every function f:D^n->D^n has a fixed point where x is in D^n-S^(n-1)
since if every point on the boundary was a fixed point, and were the only fixed points, there would still be a contradiction?
A function from D^n to D^n with only a fixed point on the boundary is the constant function that lands on a point in the boundary
why
any constant function has exactly one fixed point
bw claimed the converse
I dont think this is true? Take the interval [0,1] and the function x/2
Yeah, in general just moving everything closer to a single point will only have that one point as a fixed point. Wheter that be on the boundary or not
I think what @hexed steppe said is actually a response to your original question, instead
hm, how
my point is that if f only has a fixed point on the boundary, the construction in this proof still gives a retraction
By “a function” I mean an example of a function. A counter example to what was claimed
no
Oh right I see
i was answering the question about bw’s example
Yeah I misunderstood bw, I though you meant "any function"
this is not a realistic scenario
or rather
the proof shows that the set of fixed points cannot be S^{n-1}
but that is way weaker than your claim here
if there are no fixed points in D-S, the map given in the proof is a retraction?
No because it's not continuous!
Try it with the examples we gave
yes which is a contradiction
I think the question was: why cant we prove that the fixed point must in fact lie in D\S by modifying the original argument to say "Suppose that f(x) =/= x for all x in D\S"
The problem being that the g so constructed may not be continuous
Of course we already knew that the (possible unique) fixed point can lie on the boundary as well (using any of the examples)
Now that I think about it, if a function D^n -> D^n has only a finite number of fixed points, must it always be an odd number?
you're saying that my strong claim is true then?
maybe
its not true for S^1
Obviously since S^1 may have no fixed points at all, i.e. an even number
so if there is a fixed point in the boundary but not in interior, then the map given in the proof is surjective, the identity on the boundary, but not continuous? is this right
Yep
is there an intuitive way to see why its not continuous
or do i need to do the calculation
F(x)=x^2 has two fixed points, 0 and 1
why is it surjective
The easiest to see is D^1 with a constant map to one boundary point
Yeah surjective to S^{n-1}
no that is not correct
i dont understand what oyu are even asking
the map cannot be defined
if there is a fixed point
it is a proof by contradiction
i thought if there is a fixed point it gets sent to itself
since the "ray" between f(x) and x is just the point
or i guess its not even a ray
Yes it can if the fixed point is only on the boundary, just define g(x) to be the identity on the boundary, have some imagination!
no that is a completely different situation than a ray
???
yeah obviously this wont be continuous
Yeah that was the question, no?
i genuinely dont know what the question is
setting g to be identity on the boundary
my question was based on the assumption that the ray between x and f(x) is x if x is faixed p[oint
In the proof we assumed that f has no fixed points, in order to derive a contradiction
right, but i was thinking that the same proof implied that there had to be a fixed point in D-S
so assuming that there are no fixed points in D-S, but maybe on S
you cannot get a contradiction because there are continuous maps which fix only one point on the boundary
sure you can define g(x) = x for x the fixed point
i see
Yeah, a modified argument can't go through because g may not be continuous
you dont really know anything about this g
you should really try to prove the map here is continuous
that will probably clarify a lot
yes that is what analytic geometry usually connotates
oof
Define g via the ray method on the interior and the identity on the boundary (this defines the same map as the original argument in the case that f has no fixed points at all). If f has a fixed point on the boundary, then g is not continuous, hence the argument doesn't work
yeah maybe it would help to do an example
so the equation of the ray is f(x)(1-t)+tx, t>=0
consider f a constant boundary-valued map
g?
The function in the argument
im not responding to your analytic geometry question lol
just think about that
for more than 2 seconds
and see if you cant figure it out
i am instead trying to outline an example
which might further illustrate why g ought to be discontinuous in the case where f fixes a point on the boundary
The easiest is on D^1
what is the difference between f and g in your example
No
oh i like D^2 better lol
i dont understand
f is the constant map
and as semer said
g is the map in the argument
On D^1 you dont have to think about annoying intersections with a circle
guys can yall rank
algebraic geometry, differential geometry, algebraic topology, differential topology
by difficulty
It doesn't really work like that imo
They are all very difficult if you learn them thoroughly, and not so much if you just want to get by
There is a ton of overlap material too
Different people will excel at one or the other too
Some people love geometric arguments but hate abstract topological ones, some vice-versa. Depends on how your intuition works.
If you like coordinates and calculus and analysis, differential geometry can be more like that. If you prefer clean abstractions and abstract algebra and logic, algebraic geometry and topology are more like that. Differential topology mixes both.
There are subflavors of each, so it would depend on your instructor too. Some people teach diff geo like it is basically an analysis class, some people avoid coordinates like the plague. It depends.
They are huge subjects.
thx for the in depth explanation well written imo
like im a noob at math and i 100% understood that (unlike edit:any analysis textbook)
If you are looking at undergrad classes, it's common for the undergrad differential geometry course to follow something like Do Carmo's 'differential geometry of curves and surfaces', and it's taught like an extension of multi variable calculus where you do more interesting geometry. You could check that out for the flavor.
What "algebraic topology" means as an undergrad class can vary a lot by institution, so you could look up whatever the course text is.
Algebraic geometry is typically not offered at undergrad because you need a lot of abstract algebra just to understand the basics afaik.
Rudin is evil!!!
There are good reference books and there are bad ones
rudin is a fantastic second read after you’re more familiar with the material

Love him or hate him he spitting theorems
Every Rudin book:
I quite like them as reference, but I really wouldn't recommend any of them to someone learning the subject for the first time.
AH yes my fav book
So true lmao
i was taught analysis from rudin
but i looked at the book maybe 3 times the whole semester
prof actually took care to elaborate on things and i learned a ton
Spivak's calculus is my favorite first encounter
I found an error in it once and he included it in the errata. This is the most famous I will ever be lol
that's swag
Wow
it happens way more often than you'd think
Still, great feat
Hello, im taking a “multivariable analysis” course as they call it in Sweden. We’ve been introduced to very basic terms from topology regarding sets in the (Euclidean) space R^n, like compactness, openness, etc. and the definitions use neighborhoods/open balls and set theory.
That is, we haven’t explicitly been introduced to metric spaces or topological spaces so im saying all this as a disclaimer(?) if I don’t understand something, since I couldn’t find an appropriate channel to ask this in
I have a question regarding an infinite union of closed sets, specifically, $$\cup_{n=1}^\infty [\frac{1}{n},\frac{n-1}{n}]$$
Aslan
Why does the resulting set become open? $(0,1)$
Aslan
Well do you agree that (0, 1) is open
Yeah
Arbitrary unions of closed sets need not be closed
Yep
Although finite unions are closed
are you asking why the union is (0,1)?
I would naively take the limit
But don’t quite know how to reason it down to being open
From taking the union that is
you should take any element of (0,1) and show that it's in the union, and any element of the union and show that it's in (0,1)
and then since (0,1) is an open interval, it's open
if you find a simpler form for your set, then it'll be clear that it's open
What if I don’t know that it’s (0,1)?
well you should reason that you get (0,1), and then prove that the union is (0,1)
use your geometric intuition, you basically will get everything in the interval without the endpoints, but you won't get 0 or 1
alternatively, you have a sequence of closed intervals $[a_n, b_n]$ where $a_n$ is decreasing and $b_n$ is increasing, then the union of all such intervals will be $(a,b)$, where $a = \text{inf} (a_n)$ and $b = \text{sup} (b_n)$ as long as $a_n$ and $b_n$ are not eventually constant
smay
imagine the interval expanding to contain more and more things
(if $a_n$ attains it's minimum then you get that the lower endpoint is contained in the uinion)
smay
Reason I’m unsure about my intuition is for example when such a union is closed(?), so I feel uneasy going with my gut feeling unless im missing something
this is why math has proofs, our intuitions are often not good enough
It might help to check the endpoints specifically
if you intuit something, try to prove it and if you can't, or find out that what you said isn't true, then try to update your intuition
Is there any [1/n, (n-1)/n] containing 0?
No
Is there any [1/n, (n-1)/n] containing 1?
No
Is everything in between contained in some [1/n, (n-1)/n]?
Yes
this is also why you draw pictures when you're given problems
so that you know what questions to ask
I’m sorry if it seems I’m ignoring some of your replies just trying to respond to at least one of you while slowly reading your replies
you should have some suspicions every time you draw a picture, and those are all avenues of possible solutions, some might get shut down, but you can always go back and try another one
it's all good
take your time
Thanks for the help i appreciate it
So i should be wary since theres no n s.t 1/n = 0? or resp. (n-1)/n =1 ?
yes that’s right
the union is the thing that “contains all the elements in all of the sets”
it’s actually a bit different
Hm
1 being in the interval happens to be equivalent to "(n-1)/n = 1 for some n" because you are suspecting that the upper endpoint of the union is 1. The point is that 1 is not in the interval becuase none of the upper endpoints are greater than or equal to 1 (resp. lower endpoint not being less than or equal to 1)
but like you have the right intuition anyways so I shouldn't actually be pedantic about it
but yes this is the correct intuition to have
I dont mind it, if anything i appreciate it!
If its possible could you expand on that last bit?
I think im not fully getting it
draw a picture of the first 3 sets, and notice that there is space in between the upper endpoints. The union will contain all those values that you're shading, even the irrational ones. But does that mean that there's some n such that we have r = (n-1)/n for all r in (0,1)? no, the point was that r was contained in at least one of the intervals
which is to say that r was less than (or equal to, but it doesn't have to be equal) the upper endpoint and greater than the lower one for at least one interval
1 is not in the union because it doesn't meet that condition for any such set, since our upper endpoint is going to be less than (not just "not equal to") 1 no matter what n is.
I think im missing something, i just cant follow the arugment you're making :(
Just to make sure, is it the "red space" youre talking about here?
sorry what I meant was draw the first 3 nontrivial sets lol, it'll be more illustrative, draw out like, [1/3,2/3], and [1/4,3/4] and notice that there is no such n satisfying 1/n = (any of the points in between 1/4 and 1/3)
and notice also that there is no n satisfying (n-1)/n = (any of the points between 2/3 and 3/4)
but all of those points are also going to be contained in the union anyways
Hm, so taking it to the extreme is your point that there will will be no point inbetween 1/n and 0 for large n, and since we're never actually reaching 0 there will only be abritrally close rationals to it?
consider $\bigcup_{0<r<1}[0,r]$
quasi_semi_group
you would agree that this is [0, 1), right
Sure
why
r never reaches 1?
This feels weird now lol, it was a bit easier when there was discrete steps like in the union above but now i cant even begin doing anything exepct naivley doing an uncountable union(?)
try to think of the reason
forget the "approaching" nature of the union from earlier
Where do i start for example in this case?
yeah, unions of sets can be unnatural to think about at first, but the point is that there is a good definition of union that makes it more clear, you should recall the definition of a union to start and then we can do an example
why is that in the union
like what is a union
Alright by definition a "single" union if i recall correctly is just the set of all say x's such that x is in some set A or in some set B
a miserable pile of elements
okay yeah, and what about the union of any number of sets
By "single" you mean the union of two sets, and that's correct
While thinking of the def. i've only seen one for families and not one like above where r can range in R
so like U_(i in I) where I is an index set
they are the same actually
Well, that's what happens here, except your index set is (0,1)
U_i in I is just taking the union of the family A_i
For every index i you have the set A_i, and thus you have a family of sets, one for each value of the index.
And you take the union of that family, i.e. the set of elements which belong to at least one of them.
Oh okay
I.e. the union consists of all x for which there exists an i such that x is in A_i
So like @gentle girder mentioed somehwat i think my issue now may stem from the def. of taking union of a family
yep
Havent really thought about it at all
if you tried to rephrase this for a large index set, you would end up getting the same definition :)
a hint: ||you already have the union over at least one family, A U B is the union over the two-element index set {0,1}||
So A_0 or A_1 or ... etc? which i guess is this right^
(btw i really appreciate the help on this I think im learning something lol)
yes, but if you want to phrase it to accomodate uncountable index sets it's more like ||"all elements that are contained in at least one of the A_i"||
Well, that works if your set of indices is the natural numbers.
Well, what about this one?
you can't list an uncountable set
so having it as a list can't refer to anything indexed over some uncountable set!
but usually these kinds of statements are generalizable
what does Hatcher mean with Hom(-, G)?
Damn
You plug in your objects into where the - is
hom is a functor from chain complexes to cochain complexes since it's a contravariant functor R-mod -> R-mod (or abelian groups if R = Z)
I would never take up on this subtieltily (cant spell) if someone mentioed it (like now)
And get maps given by pre-composing
you don't really need to worry about it, as long as you know what you're doing
you are allowed to be told about this subtlety, you can usually list stuff and everything will be all right, people will know what you mean
for instance, it's important to learn what an argument based on countability looks like
and to know that you can't use it if your index family is not countable
Cool I see
anyways the definition is good and all, but it's good to get practice of moving between your geometric intuition and the abstract definition
In this case picking r=0.99 works because theres exists some x such that x \in [0,0.99]?

