#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 76 of 1
That term would be H0(∆^0)
DarQ
exercice: Let $f : X \to Y$ be a map between two metric spaces. Prove that the following conditions are equivalent.
(i) f is uniformly continuous.
(ii) For any any two sequences $(x_n)$ and $(y_n)$ of X, we have
$d(x_n, y_n) \to 0 \implies d(f(x_n), f(y_n) \to 0$.
solution: $(i)\implies (ii)$ suppose that f is uniformly continuous, then $\forall x,y\in A , \forall\epsilon>0,\exists \alpha>0 \mbox{ such as } \lvert d(x,y)\rvert <\alpha \implies \lvert d(f(x_n), f(y_n)\rvert <\epsilon$, if we impose $\epsilon \to 0 \mbox{ and } \alpha \to 0$ then we have (ii)
$(ii)\to(i)$ suppose that $ d(x_n, y_n) \to 0 \implies d(f(x_n), f(y_n) \to 0$, for all $x_n ,y_n\in A$ then we can say that $\forall\alpha>0 , \forall\epsilon>0$ we have $d(x_n, y_n) <\alpha \implies d(f(x_n), f(y_n) < \epsilon $ , and f is uniformly continuous
idk what i was doing
can someone help me solve this exercice
john.
Wdym if we impose ε → 0 and α → 0
in the single place where you used it
In Hatcher's book on vec bundles and K-theory he keeps talking about a classifying map f : B -> G_n but does not define this anywhere in the book. What is this map?
I would assume from context that what you write as $G_n$ is what is often denoted as $\mathrm{Gr}n$ or $BU(n)$, which is the colimit / direct limit $\mathrm{colim}{k \to \infty}$ \mathrm{Gr}_n(\mathbb C^{n+k})$ where $\mathrm{Gr}_n(\mathbb C^{n+k})$ is the Grassmannian of $n$-planes in $\mathbb R^{n+k}$ (the space of $n$-dimensional linear subspaces). There's a canonical vector bundle over $BU(n)$ which I'll denote by $\gamma^n : E(\gamma^n) \to BU(n)$. It is then a theorem that $BU(n)$ classifies complex vector bundles of rank $n$ in that for a paracompact space $X$, homotopy classes of maps $X \to BU(n)$ are in natural bijection with isomorphism classes of rank $n$ complex vector bundles.
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Does anyone know if vietoris rips complex can be computed fast
What is a proof that if a connected subset of the punctured plane contains a loop that's non contractible in C* then it contains a generator of the fundamental group of C*?
Depends on the number of points and the dimensionality of the features. If these become large, the complex blows up at larger distances. There's tricks to remedy this though. But idk about those.
I need to make for an input of nodes (so number of nodes is not fixed)
Edges are between spatially adjacent nodes; I don't know what you mean by the distances here (like which distance)
Also what tricks? 👀
By distance I mean the distance between points for them to be spatially adjacent. If this distance becomes larger (this is what you would need to compute persistent homology for example), more and more edges/simplices get added
How many points are you expecting, like 10 or like millions?
~10^3 to 10^5
I'll be able to adjust the distance parameter
Is the intent to then compute the homology? Or do you just need the complex?
If you need the whole complex, there's no tricks (other than the standard algorithms for range searching, maybe a BSP tree or something)
Here's an idea: any path gives rise to an injective path by "cutting out" any loops. Applying this to a noncontractible loop will give you a generator. I think showing that this is indeed a generator uses the Jordan curve thm.
I think you can lift to R²
And you immediately get contractible in C* iff loop and contractible in R²
I think I see an elementary argument. Let $\Omega$ be the subset of the punctured plane in question. The universal covering of $C^$ is the exponential map $exp: C\rightarrow C^$. If $\gamma$ is some curve based at $z$ in $\Omega$ that's non contractible in $C^*$, let $\tilde{\gamma}$ be its lift with $\tilde{\gamma}(0)=\tilde{z}$. Then $\tilde{\gamma}$ goes from $\tilde{z}$ up to $\tilde{z}+2\pi i k$ for some integer $k$. If $k=1$, we've won because it means $\gamma$ is a generator. If not, our goal is to show that we can get from $\tilde{z}$ to $\tilde{z} + 2\pi i$ using a curve in $\exp^{-1}(\Omega)$. The key observation is that the vertical translate of $\tilde{\gamma}$ by $2\pi i $ is also in $\exp^{-1}(\Omega)$. It is a curve from $\tilde{z}+2\pi i$ to $\tilde{z}+2\pi i (k+1)$ and it is bound to intersect $\tilde{\gamma}$ so we can hop on it to get from $\tilde{z}$ to $\tilde{z}+2\pi i$.
trout of Orms-by-Gore
im trying to find holes and their locations + chain complex to use for path finding
also i don't really understand persistent homology; some filtrations and barcodes, can't wrap my head around it
Is this a #linear-algebra question 
gawd i love inventing notation to simplify problems
This is nice! But how do you prove theres an intersection?
If there's no intersection then you have a map I² → C* s.t. boundary has odd winding number
Twice the winding number of γ bar around z+2πi + twice the winding number around z+6πi, actually
(z-4πi? Something of the sort)
I dont understand
Take the map ‾γ(t1) - ‾γ'(t2), where ‾γ' is ‾γ but shifted
Cool
Why do you need a chain complex for path finding?
Persistent homology is not that difficult if you're already familiar with normal old singular/simplicial homology and Vietoris Rips
chain
Idk a lot, but it sounds like topological data analysis
Yeah, but he said he didnt understand persistent homology, so idk what the idea was
My nodes environment can move nodes around constantly, kill them/make them reappear, and I need to find possible paths from all nodes to a single node
I thought if I calculated a simplicial complex I could find out where the holes are (for coverage) and also calculate chain complex from it to find paths/update when nodes change
What are you guys favorite references on sheaf cohomology?
I learned sheaf cohomology from godements book on algebraic topology and that was an absolutely beautiful book.
Chern. Complex manifolds without potential
i love writing up random expressions for no good reason
actually i am curious, does this set of the interior of the closures of singletons ever appear in theory?
in a Hausdorff space the closure of a singleton is itself, and then the interior is nonempty only if the point is isolated
so you found a fancy way to describe the set of isolated points
but when it is not hausdorff? i was specificially hoping that this collection would make the set equivalence classes of topologically indistinguishable points, without bothering to think properly about it first

it seems extremely unlikely i would guess that correctly though
if it's not Hausdorff then all bets are off
the closure of a singleton might be the entire space
What happens on Spec(R)
Suffering
Is it the collection of components or sth?
I mean Spec(R) in general has lots of non-closed points
In some cases the closure of such a point can be all of Spec(R)
The closure of a point p is the collection of prime ideals containing p
Then the interior is the collection of s ∈ R s.t. s ∉ prime ideal → p ⊂ prime ideal
Wait my brain not be braining
Interior of the closure of a point?
Wouldn't the open sets be too huge to be contained in the closure
Not if the closure is say a component
If I take any topological space, then add one point and declare that every open in the new space is an open in the old space plus the extra point, then the point is dense in the space. This is what is going on when you pass from varieties to schemes: for every closed irreducible algebraic subset you are adding a point like this whose closure is that closed subspace
Ah, irreducible component. I was only thinking about irreducible spaces and excluding points whose closure is the entire space.
HI guys im looking for a book in topology and 3d spaces
i want it to abstract the grocery lists as much as possible and sum up materiel and become from beginner to expert
qualitatevly least quantitve as possible, as least verbouse and sperflous
You want it to what
abstract the grocery lists as much as possible
Thurston prolly?
I was happily understanding the proof of Urysohn's metrization theorem and then the book gives me this image
And now I am just confused like what part of R^omega is this blobby square representing
and why is Z (which represents the image of the imbedding F) a weird squiggly line inside of it
Each vertical slice of the square gets projected onto the line I get that but then what are the horizontal slices representing, if anything???
And why the heck is it overlapping???
When someone is talking about submanifolds representing cohomology classes are they somehow using Poincare Duality or how is this possible?
yes its poincare duality
Can you elaborate on this? Does every non-trivial cohomology class of a k-form correspond to a submanifold of dimension n-k?
well yeah
modulo some assumptions on the manifold
here look at section 5 https://www.homepages.ucl.ac.uk/~ucaheps/topics/pd_notes22.pdf
some of the discussion here might be relevant
usually you're just taking the fundamental class of the submanifold in Borel-Morre homology and then relating this to cohomlogy
but you have to be careful about issues of orientation and so on, which is discussed in the thread
if you're working with rational coefficients (or real coefficients) every cohomology class is going to be representable by some smooth submanifold; in general there are some issues with torsion
Rationally every homology class can be represented by a map from a closed manifold. But it might not be embedded. The image might have singular points that cannot be resolved
Any resources for computational algebraic topology?
Also https://www2.math.upenn.edu/~ghrist/notes.html (free)
Also https://www.aatrn.net/home and their yt channel https://www.youtube.com/@aatrn1/videos
yeah these are all good lecture notes. wasn't aware of the yt channel 
Same, this looks cool
Whats a continuous field of tangent vectors?
Wait, nvm, it's prolly a continuous function that goes to R^n
Depends on your manifold, but if you mean on R^n, yes
Is it be Hatcher hairy ball
It's a continuous section of the tangent bundle
Basically a continuous map M->TM which maps to x a tangent vector to M at x
I guess existence is pretty straight forward, just using the usual (a, b) |-> (b, -a) thingy
for 7.2 how does f • g^{-1} work? i thought the paths needed to have the same domain
It actually is the statement of the hairy ball theorem!
A homotopy from f.g^{-1} to the constant loop can be used to build a homotopy from f to g, and vice-versa
Note that this . operation is concatenation
Matplotlib
yea, but since f and g^{-1} have different domains would it change anything
You go from p to q via f, and from q to p via g^{-1}
So it is a loop
(concatenation makes sense if f(1)=g(0) ofc)
ah i see
so if the paths were already loops the concatenation would still be a loop
Yep
Going from p to p, and from p to p again
(I mean if q=p with the notations of the book)
the actual question im trying to do takes f and g in Ω(X,p) and it replaces f•g^{-1} with f^{-1} • g
So they are loops in your case, right? And you want to show that the concatenation f^{-1}.g is homotopic to the constant loop iff f and g are homotopic?
Just use the above with p=q and switch f with f^{-1} and g with g^{-1}, it's a corollary
yea that makes sense, i’ll see what i can do now, thanks
if f: I -> X then is f^{-1} : X -> I or is that not the case for paths?
it must be also I -> X otherwise the concatenation wouldnt make sense, am i overthinking this?
Matplotlib
yea i figured that, it’s slowly making more sense to me
would you just define $f$ as $\bigl((x_1, x_2, \dots, x_{n - 1}), x_n\bigl) \mapsto (x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n)$
okeyokay
have you tried that?
does it work?
yeah i think?
and?
Does the proof work?
yeah?
yea? or yea
if the proof works then its the correct homeo
That is the obvious map (what else would the map be) but I wanted you to actually try it in the proof before confirming
I mean, if you want the "correct" homeomorphism check the universal property
yeah, i guess it was more or less a sanity check
dont expect any surprises tho
Hm smth im reading talks about a "spherical element in the homology of [a space]" - how should I interpret this?
Google says an element of the homology is spherical if its in the image of the Hurewicz map
Single thank is enough
Lol
thank < thanks < many thanks
Guys
I tried reading first part of topology book and i was already confused and like wtf is going on
I feel like its a lot of set theory stuff and im not totally comfy with it yet idk
Basis for a topology already confusing me
are you familiar with metric spaces and the analysis on them? or i guess my question is in what kind of space did you learn real analysis
a lot of the motivation in general topology will just be generalizing concepts you encounter in RA
Lol is that Munkres
Ya lol
Chap 1 randomly does lots of set theory which you can probably skip
I haven’t done any lol
Then a lot of things wont make much sense , i highly recommend learning some real analysis with it if you are committing to topology , the definition of a basis for example naturally generalize how open intervals are a basis for the usual topology on R
What's your motivation to study topology?
There's different paths to topology, not just analysis or even geometry
idk man
to avoid depression probably
but if i dont have the background it will prob end up causing more stress and sadness
i wish my school offered another algebra course
i was enjoying that
if f is in Ω(X,p) then is f^{-1} concatenated with f the constant path? also is constant path concatenated with f is f right? because of the fundamental group
No, it's not the constant loop, but it is homotopic to it
And no, the constant path concatenated to f is not f, it's homotopic to it
But ofc, in the fundamental group, then all those statements become true
then ig my idea of taking H as the homtopy of f and g
so G = f^{-1} • H would be the homotopy between f^{-1} • g and the constant path wouldnt work
I'm sorry I'm not sure I follow; what are you trying to prove, and how are you trying to do it?
Because it seems like you're trying to concatenate a path to a homotopy, which can or can not bear meaning
show that given f and g in Ω(X,p) f and g are homotopic iff f^{-1}• g is homotopic to the constant path
my idea was (when i thought f^{-1} • f = c_p)
G(s,t)= f^{-1}(s) • H(s,t) where H is the homotopy between f and g since
when t = 0 H(s,0) = f
G(s,0) = c_p
…
So do both directions separately.
- First, assume that there is a homotopy H(s,t) between f(t) and g(t). This means H(0,t)=f(t) and H(1,t)=g(t) Try to build a homotopy between the concatenate of -f and g. You may want to use H for this! Try making a drawing of course.
- Then assume that you have a homotopy between -f.g and the constant loop, and do the reverse: use this to build a homotopy between f and g.
Also, if you already have shown that the fundamental is a group with the concatenation operation, then this fact is just group theory! (really a tautology in fact)
it’s shown already :)
i’ll try to make a drawing to see if it helps me
so the issue in here is that i assumed f^{-1} • f = c_p ?
Then if you have shown that the fundamental group is a group, convince yourself that you're trying to show that f=g iff f^{-1}.g=const
In the fundamental group, this is true. In the loop space, not
ahhh
yea f and g are in the loop space, i’ll see what i can do now, is it alright if i ping u later for more questions?
In fact, it's no problem that f and g are in the loop space. f is homotopic to g iff [f]=[g] in the fundamental group, and so you're trying to prove that: $$f\sim g\iff[f]=[g]\iff[f]^{-1}[g]=1\iff[f^{-1}\cdot g]=1\iff f^{-1}\cdot g\sim\mathrm{const}$$
Matplotlib
Here ~ stands for "homotopic to"
so my idea isnt exactly wrong it’s just lacking arguments?
Yup, the idea was there
ok good to know
Hm how should one think about the classifying space construction more invariantly / homotopy theoretically? Thus far I've been able to get away with the classifying space of a discrete group, which is well defined up to weak homotopy equivalence, and you can work with a specific construction to get an actual functor, but I wondered if there is some universal property, perhaps on the level of infinity categories
I'm wondering what you mean. If it's well defined up to weak homotopy equivalence it must have some universal property that characterizes it. What is the proof you know that it's unique up to weak homotopy equivalence?
And is there not a universal property implicit in that proof?
Oh what I mean is that for discrete G, BG is just a K(G,1) and those are unique
But for topological groups and stuff it's not so simple
(afaik)
It classifies principal G bundles. That identifies it in the homotopy category. I think you can upgrade this to infinity
Ok. I see.
In topology we study vector bundles and more generally fiber bundles and fibrations. A vector bundle is a map which is locally the product of a vector space with the base space and the transition maps between the local trivializations respect the coordinate systems so that linear algebra can be done in one coordinate system and transferred to another.
The idea of changing between trivializations "respecting coordinate systems" can be generalized beyond vector bundles to maps where a topological group G acts on the fibers and the transition maps between local trivializations are required to be G equivariant. We recover the theory of vector bundles when G is GL_n(V).
G bundles are fibrations btw and this is an important part of the theory.
A basic problem in the field is to classify bundles over a given space B with given fiber F and topological group G up to isomorphism. Upon studying this problem it quickly becomes obvious that F is irrelevant to the classification problem and we might as well replace it with the simplest space with a G action, namely G. Such spaces are called principal G bundles.
A morphism of bundles (p, E, B) -> (p', E', B') is defined to be a commutative square such that the top map is G equivariant.
Similarly there is a notion of homotopy between morphisms of bundles and the homotopy between top maps should be equivariant.
There is a distinguished "homotopy-terminal" bundle in this category, pG : EG -> BG such that every principal G-bundle p has a bundle map p => pG unique up to G-equivariant homotopy. Probably as bw says up to higher G equivariant homotopy.
Principal G-bundles can be pulled back along continuous maps between the base spaces so for any map f : X -> BG you can form f*(pG) over X and this has a canonical bundle map to pG.
These two last points combined means that for every principal G-bundle p over X there is a map f : X -> BG whose pullback is p, and f is unique up to higher homotopy
So Bun(X) \cong [ X; BG ]
You shouldn't focus too much on BG. The important thing is the whole bundle pG : EG -> BG.
EG also has an interesting property, it is the unique contractible space with a "nice" G action (think like, free of torsion, the quotient map is not too ugly). It can be thought of as a cofibrant replacement for the singleton in the space of G spaces with a nice action (obviously the singleton has a G action but it has a lot of torsion)
You can see Dale husemoller, Fiber bundles for more on this. Actually any textbook on fiber bundles treats this, for example steenrod.
A nice proof of the important theorem is in "partitions of unity in the theory of fibrations" by dold. The paper is a bit technical, and addresses exactly what it says in the title but among other things it gives a nice proof of this theorem stressing the connection to homological algebra and the method of acyclic models.
Oh I mean I know about classifying spaces for bundles and somehow blanked about them for the second (sorry for wasting your time oop)
I guess I was sort of interested in the functoriality of the construction
But perhaps the point is just that any map G -> H induces a map from Bun(G) -> Bun(H) and that corresponds to a homotopy class of maps BG -> BH by yoneda
oh yeah sure and the map Bun(G) -> Bun(H) is just from (-) x_G H (induction)
There are functors due to a number of people, for example, Milnor, and independently Milgram.
I think basically I just have been thinking about operads and have been thinking of B(-) as "delooping" rather than anything with that sort of geometrical content
But they are different things in general
Yeah there's that Milgram bar construction thing isn't there
I think this is what I want basically
Like okay this means we go from group maps to homotopy classes of maps on classifying spaces
Yes.
and then I guess the constructions lift that to Top
Milgrams bar construction is probably one of the earliest important examples of a coend
I can't believe i blanked about BG classifying principal G-bundles for a bit and feel ashamed lol
Oh how come
Hm
I didn't say it was super important. It's modestly important and was early lol
Mac lane published a paper proving this.
bar constructions 
May I ask what BG means, when G is a group? It was part of why I failed a algtop exam.
Is B a ring?
If so it could be a group ring
Nah, just notation
classifying space of G
yeah especially in the context of AT this should be the classifying space
B is for base, the base space for the universal G bundle

what if it's etale
I did not skip a class, but I somehow did not learn classifying space in class
Lol
simply intuit
Maybe entire
algebraic topologists: here is a complicated infinite dimensional space that models BG
algebraic geometers: it's */G
sometimes yes
I guess prof lectured this in cohomology class which was the only class I was absent
[*/G]
BG = 1/G
Stack
EG=G/G
When the thing is badly behaved so you just do a formal version
That's copium
And good mathematics ig
Wh
Yes, probably a German word for total or entire
also just a common letter to denote vector bundles
Lol
It's because the letter E is contractible
E is overused
8 = S^1 v S^1
It might be because E is near in the alphabet to F, for fiber
EHP, E_n algebra, Lubin Tate theory E_n, E(n), ... lol
Total space of a bundle generically
Generic name for a cohomology theory
So what defines the bundle map EG -> BG ?
it's the universal G-bundle
Basically you take a contractible space EG on which G acts freely
I mean the choice of EG
Then BG = EG/G
Ah, I see
EGG
For example for G = Z/2 you can take S^infty with the antipodal action
Sounds like K(G, 1) is relevant
it literally is a K(G,1) yes
For discrete G you get a K(G,1)
In general it isn't so easy
e.g. BS^1 = CP^infty
IIRC the exam was about discrete group
Which is a K(Z,2)
something something enriched bar construction
So the prof stumped me
by using terminology I don't know
I'm really liking it but I also really need to sit down and work through some of the details more
gn 🥔
Me with all maths
My message above is an explanation of what BG is
Riehl's book is good. The stuff in it that refers to Garner's factorization systems is outdated though. Garner published a really good paper a few years later that makes the older paper obsolete
Ask me how I know this.
|| I accidentally reproved several of Garner's theorems from said really good paper because i had no idea it existed ||
let me guess the explanation is an entire page long
yup
Ahh.. sorry
Noted, thanks
Not sure if I was gonna read that section anyways but nice to know of good papers
Also been reading some of Shulman's paper on homotopy limits, is quite nice
I have read some of this paper but I did not finish it. I got enough through it to get some interesting ideas out of it
A certain ethereal homotopy type theory student recommended it to me
she lives up in the clouds and comes down to answer mortal questions once in a while
fascinating
Are modern algebra and topology necessary prereqs to take a first course in algebraic topology?
The professor claims that these prerequisites won’t be needed but I’m a bit wary.
you need to know the basics of what would be covered in either course and be comfortable with a lot of the content in them
it would be wise to take them first
Would a course like that use more alegbra topics, more topology topics or a fair mix of both?
In other words, if I were to only take one of those courses which would be more worthwhile
I mean that would depend on what you already know
I haven’t taken modern algebra or a general topology course, so not much. I’ve done measure theory but I doubt that overlaps here
Sounds like it wouldn’t make sense to skip steps here. I’ll do algebra and topology first
you should probably at least take a group theory and general topology class
oh im 2 hours late 
Consider the category of topological spaces with morphisms being formal signed sums of continuous functions (i.e., apply the free abelian group functor (which preserves monoidal products) to all the homsets of the usual category of topological groups to get a category enriched over abelian groups).
In this category, we have a cochain complex $(C^n, d^n : C^n \to C^{n+1})$, where $C^n = \Delta^n = [e_0, \dots, e_n]$ is the $n$-dimensional standard simplex, and $d^n = \sum_{i = 0}^{n+1} (-1)^i [e_0, \dots, \hat{e_i}, \dots, e_{n+1}] \colon \Delta^n \to \Delta^{n+1}$, where I'm going to hope you can guess what $[e_0, \dots, \hat{e_i}, \dots, e_{n+1}$ means without my explaining it.
(For $n < 0$ take $C^n = 0$ and $d^n = 0$.)
Then for any topological space $X$, the singular chain complex of $X$ is the image of this cochain complex under the contravariant functor $\operatorname{Hom}(\mathord{-}, X)$ (valued in abelian groups).
This suggests that this cochain complex is in some sense the "universal" complex behind singular homology. (Indeed, some of the basic results like the prism construction showing that homotopies of maps induce homotopies of chain complex homomorphisms seem to in some sense carry out an argument for this universal cochain complex and then use the Yoneda embedding.)
\renewcommand*{\labelenumi}{(\roman{enumi})}
\begin{enumerate}
\item Is this perspective useful?
\item Are there other cochain complexes of topological spaces which the $\operatorname{Hom}$ functor is applied to obtain a well-known homology theory?
\end{enumerate}
Raghuram
To me this seems closer in spirit to talking about simplicial sets
I don't understand how he got to this conclusion
Look up the Dold-Thom and Dold-Kan theorems
planning to ace this topology exam mwahaha (i haven't gone through even half the material and the exam is in 10 days)
You're much more prepared than most students then!
swag
i worked through everything in the first couple of sections of Viro's general topology textbook over the last two weeks, but though it was going well it was also going way too slowly
i need to learn to prioritize or omit certain things
so now i'm just going to work through all the prof's recommended exercises in munkres instead, which is way way less work than viro and should be perfectly doable if i can just work somewhat consistently
You got this, lets do a quick warm up
Write down the entire proof of tietze-urysohn from memory
(When was the last time someone had to use metrization theorems actually?)
What kind of metrization theorems?
Like urysohn and the other one
The munkres book metrization theorems
A space with property P (purely toplogical) is metrizable
IDK about metrization theorems themselves, but I have seen the fact that a countable product of metrics is metrizable, mainly in two places:
- If a topological space has an exhaustion by compact sets (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Exhaustion_by_compact_sets), then uniform convergence on compact sets is given by a metric (uniform convergence on each compact set K is given by the sup_{x in K} |f(x) - g(x)| metric).
I vaguely remember this being relevant in complex analysis (uniform convergence on compact sets preserves holomorphicity, so it's relevant, and metrisability relates compactness with sequences having convergent subsequences). - Two definitions of Fréchet space in functional analysis are a complete space with topology defined by a countable family of (separating) seminorms, and a complete space wrt a translation-invariant metric.
You don't need to know the details if you don't want to, but a seminorm gives a (pseudo)metric and to go from the countably many seminorms to a single metric, one uses the same idea.
Technically neither of these use the fact that a countable product of metric spaces is a metric, but the (apparently?) stronger property that the topology generated by countably many (pseudo)metrics is (pseudo)metrizable.
Also don't quote me on the first one, though I remember it being mentioned around the time we saw the Riemann mapping theorem, I don't remember how or if it was actually used.
Yeah I can see those ones, mostly because the metric you obtain derives from other already understood metrics
Well i have to check other metrization theorems but urysohn is highly useful in certain areas , existance of cut-off functions in R^n is widely applicable in distribution theory for example. A consequence of urysohn which is partition of unity is also a important tool that shows up in Reisz-Markov representation theorem and many other areas.
I see
The one way I have seen metrizability used is equating compactness with sequential compactness (in functional analysis). So that's the only possible application I can offer.
I am not analyticpilled enough to appreciate it in its full extend 😔
Oh, that's another example (but again only the countable product is metrizable one): the weak* topology on the continuous dual (or is it just its unit ball?) of a separable normed space is metrizable.
this is what i was talking about , extremely useful.
Analysis aside its also useful in differential geometry ( most likely Diff topology too but i cant speak on that)
Its so useful ive seen even the name in AG
Is the partition of unity thing used to prove the metrization theorem or was it a corollary, I dont remember
Urysohn's metrization theorem only uses Tietze's extension theorem AFAIR.
Okay its used in some way in smirnov's theorem
isn't that the vodka
Although I still think
man screw you :(
Although I still think I prefer the drinks over his theorems
i don’t even remember the statement rn, lol
I can't even spell Urysohn from memory
shouldn't there be an easy proof just using the urysohn lemma?
oh that is the proof given in wikipedia
ok not so easy then
Partitions of unity are the standard tool to deal with any sort of sum or integration over a space
It is a lemma in the category of topological spaces that has the universal property of me deciding ill try to go through the proof tomorrow instead
lovely
Guys I'm a little confused by the proofs of "every regular space with a countable/countably locally finite basis is normal". Why is it necessarily the case that $\bigcup_{i=1}^{n}\bar{V}_{i}$ is closed?
Minimarshoo
Couldn't it in some situations be an open F delta set?
Or wait... I just wrote the answer to my question in latex already.
is this notation used at all or did it come to me in a dream
[ \prod X_J := \prod_{\alpha \in J} X_\alpha ]
Jens
That's niche but I've seen it before
thanks, then i probably have too, though i've no idea where
don't think i've ever seen that
more common just to supress the set and just say \Prod X_alpha
if you need to use a shorthand
oh ye that seems much more sensible
That notation is awful. People who want to be really short write X_J
A_J is very common with adeles, but there is inconsistency in whether J are the included coordinates or the excluded ones
what do you mean by included or excluded
oh is it perhaps something specific to adeles?
I really really need some lemma to prove a result i have issues with, but I am not sure if it holds and how exactly to show it. I am trying to prove the following lemma:
Suppose we have some topological space $X$ (which is perfectly normal, but we might not need all of that to prove it). Then, suppose we have a closed set $B$ and a closed set $A$ in $X$, such that $B \subseteq A \subseteq X$. Further, suppose we have another set $C$, such that $\overline{C} \cap A \subseteq B$. Can we find an open neighborhood $W$ of $C$, for which $\overline{W} \cap A \subseteq B$?
matcool473
One step closer to crankery /s

If it isnt true i would also appreciate just a counterexample
regular is enough , take interior of C and find W with closure subset in interior C and conclude.
But then W does not include the entire C if C is not open?
I dont think i understand what exactly you mean
oh my bad i read W contained in C 
W is meant to be open in X?
The hypotheses are too weak in that case, arent they? Let A=X= real numbers, and B=C=[0,1], then W would be forced to be [0,1], hence not open
Hm yes in my case we can assume that A has empty intersection with C
Yes, specific to the adeles. you have a fixed product indexed by I and then you take products over subsets J of I
right
Let X be R^3, A the plane z = 0 B the line y = 0 in A, C the plane y = 0 with B removed. C is disjoint from A, it's closure intersected with A is just B, but any open neighborhood of C intersects A \ B
Huh, adeles?
Look away absta, they are trying to corrupt you with their number theory
Ah, restricted product over local fields
Nooo 
quick question: what's this | notation that hatcher's using?
Restriction of domain
thx
Does closure and inside of set cancels?
consider [0,1)
Or {0}
wairr thats and open or a closed set
Yess
true thank u, so it cancels only if the starter set is a closed or open set
first elaborate on exactly what you mean by “cancel”
closure of interior of A = A
Or the oposite
consider (0,1) what is the closure of it’s interior?
you’ll probably want to look into the relationship between closedness and closure, openness and interior
also the boundary of a set, which is defined to be the complement of the closure with the interior
Ive exam in 2 days ill check out thanks for advice :v 🫶
Here's a funny problem: In a general topological space, how many distinct sets can be created by repeatedly applying only the closure and interior operations on some given subset?
no idea, more than 3... 14?
Kuratowski 
That's for closure-complement cheater!
This should be phrased as "what's the maximum number of distinct sets ....", as if your set is clopen this is trivial!
0, (1, 2)(2, 3), Q∩(3, 4)
0, [1, 4]
(1, 4)
[1, 4]
(1, 2)(2, 3)
[1, 3]
(1, 3)
Maximally by kuratowski
(Boundary is monovariant)
Anyone here experience in weak topology?
I'm interested in getting a better understanding of how to use math to map a planar 3d model which does not contain any holes to best fit a square with minimal distortion. I'm hoping someone might have expertise in this area and be able to help? Thank you! Also let me know if this is the correct place to be asking a question about 3d space manipulation, or if that is a different course?
If you have a functional f: X to E with E being a Banach space equipped with the weak topology sigma(E, E star) and X is a topological space.
To show f is continuous at x in X, do you need to show for all epsilons > 0, for all natural number k, and for all {g_1, …, g_k} in E*
There exists delta > 0 such that for all y in X if | x - y |_X< delta then for all i in {1, …, k}
|g_i(f(x)-f(y))| < epsilon?
Cant use epsilon delta
That is for real or complex
Need to use the definition of continuity at a point from topology
Btw whats f_i?
f_1, …, f_k is a finite set of functions in E*
So for all i in {1,..,k}, f_i is in E*
Ohhh
In any case I think you need a norm in X or at least be a Banach space. Other wise you need to use the definition of continuity from topology not epsilon delta
Ok thanks
X in my problem is a topological space so it comes with a norm
When i say for all y in X such that | x -y |_X i mean in using the X norm
So what i said before is correct?
Yes
Wait no i mean X is just topological space
Journeys today in the chat
you didnt even reference f here
Then its a normed space not a topological one
What? Im confused now
I made a typo
now it is somewhat more plausible but
again if X is an arbitrary topological space
“|x-y|” is meaningless
If X is a topological space shouldn’t it have a metric?
no
Those that induce a metric are called metrizable
you should in fact ignore me and just read what alex said initially
namely that you need to use the definition of continuity
for arbitrary topological spaces
From a metric space you can make a topological one. From topologic to metric no
Ok that clears things up
Sorry for the confusion everyone, but thanks for the help.
Its ok dw
i am having trouble with 12.3x
how are they supposed to be related
Fr A here means boundary of A
12.2x => 11.26
notice that int A, int X-A, ∂A partition X. if F ∩ ∂A is empty, then we can define F -> {0, 1} by pasting constant maps defined on F ∩ (int A) and F ∩ (int X-A) (both open in F) that are 0 and 1 respectively. but the image of a connected set is connected, so WLOG F does not meet int A, and since it doesn't meet ∂A, it doesn't meet A.
11.26 => 12.2x
let f -> {n_i}_i be locally constant on the connected subset F of X, where the n_i are distinct points of a discrete space. then the fibers f^-1(n_i) are disjoint open (clopen, even) subsets whose union is F. but since F is connected, there can only be one value of i such that f^-1(n_i) is nonempty. therefore the image of f is actually this particular n_i, meaning f is constant. (you can abuse 11.26 instead of using this fact about connected sets by setting A = f^-1(n_i) and concluding that it's empty or F because it doesn't have a boundary)
right! thank you
so swag Viro
Does anyone know about Jones polynomial? I wanna gain insight about its cursed nature
It comes from U_q (SL2C), how does one even deal with it?
This book is a detailed introduction to the theory of finite type (Vassiliev) knot invariants, with a stress on its combinatorial aspects. It is intended to serve both as a textbook for readers with no or little background in this area, and as a guide to some of the more advanced material. Our aim is to lead the reader to understanding by means ...
This is a good introduction to the topic
There's also a book by John Baez called Knots, Gauge Fields, and Gravity that covers the development of some of these ideas
In the context of Chern-Simons observables reproducing the Jones polynomial
i just realized i have, without thinking, gone from describing maps between topological spaces by how they act on points, to describing them by how they act on sets

points are such a bother
this is a very odd experience though
i catch myself writing down expressions that i have not even defined, yet they make perfect sense to me
now you are ready for pointless topological spaces
You mean half of the examples in a point set course

spaces with no points but which are distinct from the empty space
unfortunately i am not sure that would help me pass my top exam
Scare away the professor with category theory and algebraic structures?
Don't believe you, send 200 cat pics into my DMs
so i am only two degrees of social separation away from maclane mwahahaha
i forgot to mention that i am afraid of cats
You have a maclane lane of 3

Highway lanes usually aren't indexed starting at zero
i wouldn’t know, i’m a proud pedestrian
How is the prep going anyways
horribly
have been sitting at my desk for four days without being able to concentrate
whats are the circles for?
the set of unions/intersections in a collection of sets
as opposed to the union/intersection over a collection of sets
Oh so it’s just the definition of a topology generated by a subbasis ?
Product topology ?
Yeah
personally id just put the < and > on the outside
i use single < >s in the manner of bourbaki to denote direct (or inverse) images of sets, they are double since it is a direct image of direct images
direct image of what?
the topology is on $\prod_{\alpha\in J} X_\alpha$, where each $X_\alpha$ is generated by a basis (\mathscr B_\alpha)
Jens
and $\pi_\beta\colon \prod_{\alpha\in J} X_\alpha\to X_\beta$ is given by $x\mapsto x_\beta$
Jens
so the repeated J subscript above is just a cheesy shorthand for...
so even though pi_beta is really a function from prod_alpha X_alpha to X_beta, i write as if it were a function from P(P(prod_alpha X_alpha)) to P(P(X_beta)

...which is why i emphasize with the angle brackets what we are doing
Where f: A → B, f.: P(A) → P(B), f*: P(B) → P(A)
oh
P(A)?
i don't mind the ^-1 notation
Power set
yikes
6 function formalism
The what?
A 6 functor formalism
It phrases cohomology as assigning derived categories of sheaves to spaces
I mean the power set doesnt really have anything to do with that
Ahh, yes.
Okay that was probably their joke in hindsight
Lmao 6 functors
I can never remember where all the symbols go f^*, f_*, f^!, f_!, f_????
Then again I cant even remember if the index of a cochain complex is subscript or superscript
Superscript
Usually contravariant stuff is in superscript, covariant in subscript and I have no idea why
oh ig it makes some amount of sense for the yoneda embedding y : C -> Set^(C^op) cause then y^c_d are morphisms from c to d
thats not too bad actually
Wait, is the standard n-simplex written as Delta^n or Delta_n ?
Delta^n would make more sense in that case I think
Have you worked a bit with the pushforward and inverse image functors in AG? Once you rigidify a few in your memory things should to fall into place
tbh I don't know squat about ag. I only know the notation from Kan extensions. But it works in a topos too right? I should learn more about those...
wtf is that last thing supposed to be
I can't visualize it
I understand up until then though
Ohhh I see
You need to "glue" so the arrows have the same orientation
Hence the twist in the middle
How do you define orientation? Is the Mobius strip topologically just a square with two edges of opposite orientation glued together?
How does one "visualize" a motivic spectrum?

same way you visualize spectra
just more complicated
idk what sort of answer you want lmao
I dunno lol
Is a set compact iff it has a finite amount of non limit points
That’s a defn this book is giving me I’m unfamiliar with
Perhaps there be context? 
“Topology of plane sets” by Newman.
The definition reads “13. The set E is compact if every infinite set of points in E has at least one limit point in E”
This reads the same to me as containing a finite amount of non limit points, for if you contained an infinite amount you’d be able to construct an infinite set of non limit points.
It’s a chapter on the topology of sets of points.
I really don’t know much about topology beyond some basic real number stuff like Heine Borel thm and whatnot. The definition I’ve read before is “every open cover of E has a finite subcover also covering E”, I was wondering if these two definitions were equivalent.
Also lmk if wrong channel I know this is super basic
On a metric space (eg subset of a plane), compactness is the same as limit point compactness: E is compact iff every infinite set of points in E has a limit point
I don't think this is equivalent to having finitely many "non-limit points"
Compactness implies there are finitely many isolated points (but not the other way around), if that's what you mean
Or are you referring to the limit points of E in the plane?
Then all limit points of E are in E itself since compact sets in the plane are closed
Waiittt
I misunderstood it as every infinite subset of E contains a point that is a limit point of E; does it actually mean that from every infinite subset of E you can construct a sequence that converges to a point in E?
As in the subset itself contains the sequence of the limit point, not necessarily the limit point itself like I previously understood
Yes
What is the intuition behind the cohomology ring of S^n being Z[x]/(x^2)?
Well the cohomology groups are H0 = Z, Hn = Z, and 0 elsewhere
The only choice is Z[x]/(x^2)
waw, a good space
give it a little pat
ok so this is something i desperately need cleared up...
is $U\sqcup V$ just a shorthand for $U\cup V$ where it is understood that $U\cap V = \emptyset$ ?
Jens
Yeah
then why have i also seen people define something along the lines $U\sqcup V := U \times {0} \cup V \times {1}$
Jens
these are slightly different notations, you should try to use only one for each
$\sqcup$ for the former situation and $\coprod$ for the latter
Kerr
i see
Eh it's not really a problematic ambiguity imo. Strictly speaking the first meaning is somewhat bad but whatever
Hm often they mean the same thing though lol
Like to me the first notation just means "disjoitn union of sets" and typically that is modelled as Jens describes for \coprod
Yeah no commonly agreed to do it
I just like \coprod more and the square union symbol ive seen most of the time when its actually a regular union that just happens to be of disjoint sets
well in the second def U x 0 and V x 1 are always disjoint even if U and V are not
Okay basically I disagree with the first usage you mentioned lol
aha
But yeah often like it doesn't matter as you will get homeomorphic things either way
Really the particular construction of the disjoint union doesn't really matter
my prof introduced them in the context of connectedness
defining a space to be disconnected if it can be written as a nontrivial disjoint union of open sets
but it is not clear to me what is a nontrivial disjoint union with the second def given above
Yeah okay that is potentially disleading lol, like in the first one it should be a disjoint union in the sense of sets
as in a union of open sets which are disjoint lol

In the second it'd mean that the space is homeomorphic to a disjoint union of two things
But yeah
Really it should be "it is a non-trivial union of disjoint open sets"
Well, unambiguously
Note there is a real difference here because like
Connected components of Q are just singletons
But Q is not homeomorphic to a disjoint union of tons of singletons
Lol
What if you just X ≈ A amalg B
amalg lol what is that
$\amalg$
Arki
Cuz my keyboard sucks
Oh I always write \coprod lol
$A \coprod B \amalg C$
Arki
phew ok thanks, i was worried there was some sort of equivalence i was missing here
In this case, not really, because of the openness assumption.
If X is a topological disjoint union of topological spaces, then their subspace topologies when viewed as subsets of X are the original topologies and it is the disjoint union of those subsets, which are also open.
Conversely, if X is a disjoint union of subsets which are open, then it can be shown that it is the topological disjoint union of those subsets with the subspace topology as well.
Yeah agreed
$$A\sqcup B$$
Matplotlib
for showing R \ Q with the subspace top is disconnected, it's literarily as easy as just saying ((-infty, 0) n R\Q) u ((0, infty) n R\Q) is a sep of nontrivial, disjoint, open sets with union R \ Q ?
yuh
lovely
i have decided i find munkres' exercises lame and will rather just do my own selection of problems from viro in preparing for my exam
munkres on top of his piles of book sale money hearing this: 
i mostly enjoy his exposition though
but what the heck does viro mean by this exercise "characterize the disconnected subsets without mentioning the relative topology"
how can one talk about subsets being disconnected or not without considering them as a subspace
Why is this the only choice? If the ring is the direct sum of the cohomology groups why isn't it just Z + Z from H^0 and H^n?
That is a description as a group
Let's say X is a topological space and A is a subset of X. Give a necessary and sufficient condition for A to be disconnected (in the subspace topology) in terms of only open and closed subsets of X.
If I have a closed interval I = [-1,1] and J = [-1,1], then how is I × J a compact cylinder (visually), with I × {1} and I × {-1} being upper and lower bases respectively?
What I know of is that the Cartesian product of two closed intervals yields a rectangle on the xy-plane, in this case a square with corners (1,1), (1,-1), (-1,1), (-1,-1)
is there more context? in topology, a cylinder of a space is the product of the space with the interval
I was reading up a proof on Picardo Lindelof Theorem, where (t_0,y_0) is the initial condition
And f is a function of t and y (y is dependent on t)
[Differential equation is y' = f(t,y(t))]
So like in this case too we get a rectangle with the corner points (t_0 - a, y_0-b), (t_0 - a, y_0+b), (t_0 + a, y_0-b), (t_0 + a, y_0+b)?
wdym? Isn't Z + Z a ring too?
It's a graded ring
The generator α of H^n times itself is an element of H^2n, so it is trivial
A generator of H^0 is the identity
And that gives Z[α]/α²
remember that the ring structure isn't arbitrary but comes from the cup product
Well the nornal ring structure on Z + Z is not compatible with the grading we have here
oh ok, thank you!
waw is the proof for arbitrary products of hausdorff spaces is also haussdorf super easy or did i do something wrong
looks easy since you have a pretty concrete description of a basis of the product topology
In the closed singleton caracterisation, {(xi)} = product of the {xi} is closed for the product topology as a product of closed sets
wdym?
Which part?
what do you mean by this? what is the context
do you want to prove this or do you suggest this?
Wait I'm an idiot, closed singletons is an equivalent caracterisation of T1, not T2
closed singleton does not imply Hausdorff
Yeah, it's T1 and not Hausdorff (T2)
okay
Hausdorff is equivalent to the diagonal being closed and the product of closed subsets is closed
That's one nice way ig
i’m struggling a bit with this one: $X$ is Hausdorff iff for each $x$ we have
$${x} = \bigcap_{U\ni x} \text{Cl}\ U.$$
Jens
i have the forward direction
but it’s so weird to me we take the intersection of all sets containing x
why is it weird
For the converse suppose that $y\in \bigcap CL U$ with $x\neq y$ and derive a contradiction
Max
well its one way of doing it
just not used to it
wait nvm you do need to do that maybe
this is somehow $\subset$ am i right?
Max
what does that mean
it shows that the LHS is contained in the RHS
no i think your argument is right
and LHS/RHS of what
no i dont think my argument is right lol
like the assumption does imply singletons are closed
but i dont think that does anything
since cl{x}={x} you intersect with {x} and the intersection is contained in every set that you intersect with
Well U ={x} is a choice of a set with x in U. hence clU={x} appears in the intersection, hence the intersection is contained in {x}
what statement are you describing a proof for
For $\bigcap_{x\in U}cl(U)\subset {x}$
Max
huh
the setup is
assume they are equal
why is it necessary to prove that containment
Oh my fault i read let X be hausdorff show that ...
oh lol
yeah then i agree with you
but anyway you can try to use the hypothesis to produce a separation of points
Suppose X is not Hausdorff then there are x y that cannot be separated by open sets hence for every closed C set either x and y are in C or both not
yeah
this should imply that $\bigcap_{x\in U}cl(U)\supset{x,y}$
ok so for p ≠ q, by hypothesis {q} = the intersection above, and since p is not in {q} there is some S with p not in the closure of S, and we can let U = X \ Cl S, which is open and contains p… now if only S were open
Max
what is S
isnt the intersection in the problem statement taken over open sets U containing x
over any sets
Isn't this false or am I dumb like
If you are T1 doesn't this hold
Really?
it might be that Viro is taking it as implicit that U is open
the exercise is that this is equivalent to being hausdorff
In my mind it should be closed neighbourhoods
Yeah sure the notation implies that ig
So U open
i mean
I know lol
idk i just read how he shared it
obviously the intersection over all sets
I'm saying it seems wrong as stated
is thr singleton
that U should be open?
yes
Yeah
Otherwise this is equivalent to T1 if you use all sets containing the singleton not just open ones
the hypothesis trivially implies singletons are closed
If you take all sets, then there's in particular just {x}
Yes lol
singletons being closed is equiv to T1
If t1
this is how Viro states it (at the bottom of the page)
that is like also trivial
Yeah should be open U
Yeah he's lazy but U practically always means open
i am also rather confused by the similarity with 14.11 here two pages after the first
phew ok then i have it, thanks for clearing this up
this is frequently used in many areas but i dont like the concept that a specific letter always means open or e.g. kappa always means cardinal
Agreed
what do you mean
one is closure
one isnt
oh
they are different statements
UwU
*insert jens cheems flush sparkles*
anyway most spaces in real life are either polish or not even T1
Lol
hwat is a polish space
separable and completely metrizable
Like can just do a massive discrete thing lol
algebraic topology isnt real life
ok let me revise my claim: everything is metrizable or spec(R)
Certainly in algebra but in analysis also other things arise
For instance the maximal ideal space of a Banach algebra
oh is that not metrizable
i would guess no in general
Oh yeah for instance the maximal ideal space of l infinity (little l) is the Stone-Cech compactification of the natural numbers and therefore not metrizable
The space of test functions is also not metrisable
thats fairly okay (for analysts)
trivally hausdorff
t/f?: every (not necessarily open) subset of the real numbers is a countable union of intervals
seems intuitively true but I can't find a proof online
why does it sound intuitively true
I take it back. the more I think about it the more I don't believe it
hmm I think I have an example
oh like that's [0, 0]
oh right
ok cantor set then
any uncountable set with dense complement
How to do 12.4x using 12.5x
I was able to figure out 12.5x
But i cannot phrase 12.4x in terms of 12.5x',s statement
What is the required property i should be looking for?
commuting with an element of H?
Just an element?
yeah fix h
Okay then why is there a neighborhood of that element that satisfies this
what a bizarre problem
I guess I am supposed to use xgx^-1 is cts
isnt this like 1 line using the definition of continuity
without this induction thing
Yes
I don't see how
Consider f(x)=xhx^-1 ?
yes
Uhhh
Okay somehow I make use to the fact that H is normal, and H has discrete topology now?
How tho
Okay xhx^-1 is completely contained in H?
yes
maybe i led you astray. the usual thing would just be to look at the preimages of the points of H under f. theyre all open and disjoint so there has to be only one since X is connected. the hint is confusing me though
how about the property is "f is constant on the subset"
P(R) is an incredibly complicated object…
even just R is
all the topologies i’ve seen given as examples of disconnected spaces, have been subspaces… are there examples for which this is not the case?
oh a discrete topology
works
bit boring though :S
How about the space of all binary sequences with product topology (with discrete topology on each copy of {0,1})?
Although that's cheating, since that's just ||the Cantor set||
Wait u mean the set that has the cardinality of [0,1] but (Lebesgue) measure 0?
You mentioned one yourself earlier, GL(n)
oh, right
wait no this is disconnected yes but it has the subspace topology from R^(n x n)
It doesn't have to have Lebesgue measure 0 
Well I mean yes a lot of the spaces people are interested in embed into R^n
The p-adic numbers is disconnected, and isn't usually thought of as a subspace of any other space. (Of course you can always embed a disconnected space into a connected one by just adding one more point)
I mean, this seems a bit arbitrary though? As jagr explained you can always embed something into a connected space
I guess it comes down to how you usually define / think about the topology.
The topology on GLn is usually given as a subspace topology
Well there is a difference in terms of where the space comes from ig
What was the AG examples you were mentioning? Are they more interesting than spectrum of product situations?
AG was almost the opposite of what I want since a lot of stuff is assumed irreducible ig lol
So I delet
Delet 
I guess there are lots of very natural examples coming from maps. Like if you consider the space of continous maps M -> M for most spaces lol
But then GL_n is very close to that
Let R be the subring of (Z/2)^N of eventually constant sequences. Then the spectrum of R should be homeomorphic to the one point compactification of N.
Don't know if that counts as an interesting example.
I saw "spectrum of R" and got real confused for a moment, until I saw that R is a ring 
right this is a very nice example
thank you
god this is probably to some extent due to me currently being sick and not eaten properly this week (i have < 1$ in my savings rn and i have to rely on others for food ehehe), but i find proving these simple statements about connected spaces way too difficult 😭
The thing that gets me about connectedness is that it's such an intuitively obvious concept, but so tricky to deal with rigorously.
See also, dimension (unless we're talking linear algebra)
i will simply skip most of the results directly about connectedness for now… and hope i’ll have time to return to it before the exam (unlikely)
i will just jot down X connected and f: X -> Y contiunous implies Y connected, as this seems immensely useful mwahaha
it is
All things preserved by continuous functions are important
also path-connected -> connected is mega useful
i haven't even glanced over path-connectedness yet haha
though i have some familiarity with it in the case of complex analysis
Yeah, "is a continuous image of a known connected space" and "is path-connected" are usually the most convenient ways of proving connectedness.
And for disconnectedness I think I'd plump for finding a continuous function from the set into {0,1}
which is a funny way of saying a partition into two open sets, but it works
yep
I think a lot of people find it easier to think in terms of functions rather than in terms of sets
even if it's actually an equivalent formulation
I'd prefer seeing {(x, y) in R² | xy != 0} as partitioned into 4 sets though, for instance
It feels more natural since I don't add a layer of having a function, and checking it's continuous, on top of that
yeah, if you can just easily apply the definition, that's the best
oh that's good to hear
not right now, I'm on the phone and it's too much writing
it's just that both of those statements imply connectedness
and tend to be most convenient to verify in practice
they're just the two most useful ways of showing something is connected, mainly because they let you not think about what it means for that space to be connected
you can show that Y is connected by constructing a continuous function from some connected set onto Y
only if f is onto.. otherwise you just have that f(X) is ocnnected in Y
oh, uh, sure
go ahead
i love it when i get to finish my proofs with exclamation marks mwahaha
5!
thats not very professional lol
i don’t care mwahaha
Where did the square go
mfw when \square is not used
i use \qed
this one is acceptable
yeah either \qed or \blacksquare
But exclamation 
both work I believe i use the latter at end of my proofs
i mean, i’m not saying i use it as a end-of-proof marker
Use
as an end-of-proof marker
Use
as an end of proof marker
i may be new to this but did yall know theres a topological proof for infinitude or primes ?
i just mark my excitement in my sentence explaining the contradiction mwahaha
One step closer to crankery
imagine not letting people have fun with their proofs
It's attributed to furstenberg i believe
couldn’t be my prof
yep it sure is I just read it now SO clever
rings a bell
:)
its sooooooo slick
i mean i thought Euclids was sick when he introduced the product of primes plus 1
I will read it one day
its a very clever technique
i believe some top exam here had a problem with a topology in which the open sets were subsets of primes or something
fun? In my mathematics?
In mathematics, particularly in number theory, Hillel Furstenberg's proof of the infinitude of primes is a topological proof that the integers contain infinitely many prime numbers. When examined closely, the proof is less a statement about topology than a statement about certain properties of arithmetic sequences. Unlike Euclid's classical pr...
i’m taking my top exam late this year, but the ones who already did were given a problem in which you had to come up with a proof closely following urysohn’s metrization theorem… i am worried
sure why not i can glance through it
ill message it to ya!
@tribal palm
sent 🙂
if any1 else wants it I can drop it here too?
wonderful, thank you!
or by messagw request only i say
youre welcome! I also have one for complex and one for measure
they have hyperlinks in them which sends u from contents to a problem and back to contents @tribal palm
You need to rigorously define what "connected to each other" means
Since you're using the term "fractal", you presumably mean some kind of self-similarity
w h a t
So you should look into rigorous definitions of self-similarity and try to apply one of those
If your aim is to make profit out of this, I recommend either writing up some persuasive bullshit and selling it, or making contacts and doing insider trading
Those are the most reliable ways to make money out of markets
brownian motion has a fractal structure
if that is what you are asking
do you smoke fentanyl while day trading
thats probably a good sign
is the 1488 in your username also part of your trading strategy?
like a public key or something
Sure
i think if that was true you would have found my question too weird to answer
fractal fentanyl transform?
Yeah aint no way ur not a troll
"vortex methematic" lol
lets come back to the 1488
how about you take this conversation to #chill or #discussion
or at least localize it to one advanced thread or something 
who are we formally inverting?
uhhh something is wrong with the statement in 12.C here right
like what

