#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 73 of 1
yeah i get it now, like the x-axis segments are mapped to A and each of the circles that are tangent to the integer points are mapped to B
i saw another covering map and it clicked
thanks!
you have a name and profile pic that are homotopy-equivalent to someone that I know - must mean that the underlying humans are the same
:3
for 2-6 in this image while trying to show that g is continuous, i got that g^{-1} (U) has to be open for all open subsets U of Y but the only open sets in Y are Y and empty set, any tips on showing that g^{-1}(Y) is open in Z
also how are constant maps defined because im also struggling with showing that part too
g^{-1}(Y) = Z
fix z in Z then a constant map g Y -> Z is defined by g(y) = z for all y in Y
wouldnt that require g to be surjective?
g^{-1}(Y) is defined as y in Y such that g(y) is in Z
I'm spitballing here, but maybe fix epsilon and consider the set of A_n of x in [0,1] such that for every m \geq n you've got |f(mx)| \leq epsilon
These should be closed, and their union is all of [0,1], so you can pick finitely many and that should help
But there might be a simpler argument because this feels more complicated than 7, and 7 has a star 😄
ahhh i see thanks
yeah i already tried something like that but i'm gonna do it again
a star doesn't mean it's complicated it's just mean it's non examinable ah ah
I think that should work, once you've got your finitely many sets assume that f doesn't converge to zero and reach a contradiction.
? I might be missing something but how?
yeah i don't think this is correct, it would be if the sets were open
@alpine nest I dit it in this way, i didn't find an easier way 
By definition E δ > 0 tel que
oups, i'm french 
tel que = such that
@tiny obsidian do u think this is correct ?
it looks right but I'm also not going to look at the algebra near the end too closely
okay thanks ah ah 
Is my answer correct?
$f(x) = 1/x $ when $x >0$ and $1/(1+x)$ when $x=0$. This function when restricted to the closed sets is continuous but the function f is not continuous. The sequence of closed sets are $A_0, A_1, A_2 .....$
NotAntiMatter
Lgtm
The map $(x_1,x_2,x_3....x_n) -> ((x_1,x_2...x_{n-1})/(1-x_{n}),|x_n|)$ is the required stereographic projection that maps the closed ball (except the north pole) to $H^n$ ( Upper half plane ) The map is bijective and continous. Is this correct?
NotAntiMatter
No?
Oh sorry there should be a modulus on x_n
Unit closed ball to upper half plane
But this is stretching along the x1x2…x(n-1)-plane
This is the surjective map that the book defines
I think you need to fix your last coordinate (at least)
Cuz the boundary doesn't map to a plane
$((x_1,x2...x_{n-1})/(1-x_{n}),|x_n|)$ Is this not right?
NotAntiMatter
That looks like a weird bump to me
If you plug in last coordinate = 0 in your formula you should recover x1²+…+xn² = 1 right
yes
oh i see
This should work?
$((x_1,x_2...x_{n-1})/(1-x_{n}),1-|x|^2)$ The boundary of the sphere now maps to the boundary of the half plane.
NotAntiMatter
I think a thing you can do is ||translate up by 1, invert about the origin, and translate down by 1/2||
I don't get it.
Oh got it you mean for the last coord
Right?
Yea
Ok cool now it is bijective
By the way one more terrible mistake was that if the last coord is a large number in the upper half plane then it doesn't have a preimage so it is wrong anyways
But what if the last coordinate in H^n is let's say 100 then |x| is negative, no? so no pre-image
?
if x_n = 100 then is there a preimage for that in the closed ball? (1/(|x|+1) - 1/2) ? was the formula for last coordinate right?
I think the coordinates are
(x1, …, x(n-1), xn+1)/(x1²+…+xn²+2xn) - (0, …, 0, 1/2)
How do we know said neighborhood doesn’t intersect E’
To establish that the complement of cl(E) is open, we have to show every point is an interior point, but afaik the proof only finds a neighborhood of each point that doesn’t intersect E, but it may intersect E’ hence cl(E)
If p is not in E, but every neighborhood intersects E, then by definition p would be a limit point of E. Since we're assuming that is not the case, there must be neighborhoods that don't, so pick one of those.
But what if this neighborhood intersects E’
“If N_r(p) n E = {}, then N_r(p) n Ebar = {}. By contradiction: if there was a limit point q of E in N_r(p), then with r' = r - d(p,q) triangle inequality says N_r'(q) subset N_r(p), and since q is a limit point there would have to be a point of E in N_r'(q), so in N_r(p), contradicting N_r(p) n E = {}.”
Copied from reddit
This makes sense
The neighborhood we choose must contains some open ball around p, say one of radius d.
Then the ball of radius d/2 is (by definition) also a neightborhood, and it cannot contain any limit point of E, because the ball of radius d/2 around such a limit point would be disjoint from E, a contradiction.
This works too.
Not fun how rudin decides to omit these things
Hmm not seeing why the justification of “it cannot contain any limit point of E” works
Suppose q is in B(p, d/2). Then by the triangle inequality, B(q, d/2) is a subset of B(p,d) which was assumed disjoint from E. Since q has a neghborhood that is disjoint from E, q is not in E'.
Ahhh I see
The you found on Reddit does essentially the same, just with more footwork so it doesn't need to divide the original d by 2.
Hey so given a tychonoff space of weight k you can embed it in [0,1]^k. So far so good, but how does that alone tell me that [0,1]^k has weight k?
like, transfinite induction on some kind of minimality of k?
I am just wondering how the former statement would be helpful at all in showing the second. I could "brute force" the second statement through the def of the product topology but that isnt exactly intended
what weight does [0,1]^k have?
Oh right
If it had less weight, then the induced base on the subspace would have weight less than k, which cant happen with a homeomorphic embedding
idk if it gives an uppe rbound
i think if you work along these lines, the upper bound is much easier than the lower bound
so probably that is just the point
you know a countable base for each factor
Yeah, constructing a weight k base is pretty straightforward
And with the universality (and the implicit assumption at least one tychonoff space of weight k exists) I also get a lower bound of k
Thanks!
what are some nice sufficient conditions for a metric to be "continuous" in the sense that d(x,y)<a implies the existence of a z with d(x,z)<a/2, d(y,z)<a/2
or even better yet for every lambda a z with d(x,z)<lambda*a and d(y,z)<(1-lambda)*a
I do not know what you are interested in but this property feels like beeing true for normed spaces, indeed taking z=(x+y)/2 works
yeah it's definitely true there, i just wanted slightly more generality
without requiring absurd conditions on the space
if that can be done
(like is compactness + a few other conditions enough for example)
@shadow charm First thing i thought of was completeness but after a few seconds you notice that this ain't it since you can come up quite easy with couterexamples
i think normed spaces are not that absurd, but my main interest is functional analysis so my opinion might be a bit biased
Hey, I have a question: if we have a base B of top. space X and consider L some finite set of elements of B, can we say that B\L is still a base? is it true in T1,T2,T3 spaces? why? i'm sure it's extremely easy, but that's the only party in the proof i'm studying rn that i don't understand 😦
it seems true for T1(so others too), but I have problems with strict proof
thanks for answers
No. Take a finite topological space.
fair enough, maybe in regular space this holds?
Something like [0,1] union {2} with the subspace topology should cause problems i think
or discrete topology (metrizable hence regular) with basis given by each point
You're right this is even easier whilst it is the same idea
So for each point, the intersection of all basis elements containing said point is the same as the intersection of all neighborhoods of said point.
If this intersection is open, then there is a minimal open set containing your point, and removing that will get you in trouble.
If there is no minimal, you can always find a smaller basis set, so you can freely remove finitely many.
So T1 + no isolated points should be enough for example.
Seems more than logical, also it's clearly now why T1 is so important(since in T1 {x} is closed), but where in your proof there are problems with isolated points?
If {x} is open, then removing {x} will change the topology
But isn't every one-point set {x} in T1 closed?
but it can't be open if it's closed can it?
Consider the discrete topology for example
oh, right, there are not only real numbers😅
thank you, now it's all clear
Hitler gets confused about the topological definitions of open and closed sets. Then he totally freaks out.
There's a typo right in the beginning of the video. It should say "...and all zero of the points in the null set," so no "the" before zero. And if you're wondering what I meant by "close points," they are Wikipedia calls "limit points" of...
I mean something like {0, 1} as a subset of the real numbers have {0} as a clopen set. So you don't have to look to very weird spaces.
oh, true😂
saved it lol
the space itself and the empty set are always clopen
Our professor recommended to us to watch this video lol
Yes, by definiton of a topology they are open and complement of each other hence closed
well at least this i know, but i forgot there are non trivial examples
im gonna recommend this to our proffesor then lol
Just a nice theorem characterising this: a top. space is connected iff these are the only clopen sets
Right, lower or upper limit topology work too and are a bit more geometric flavored where clopen sets are everywhere
Is every subspace of the Sorgenfrey line separable?
Turns out my question is pretty related to the idea of a convex metric space which I hadn’t heard of before so I’ll look into that
interesting
Why had I never seen this before? 😮
This is pure gold!!
second countable spaces are* separable
subspaces inherit cardinality properties of the base
The Sorgenfrey line isn't separable though is it
yeah it's pretty good
I think it is fair to say that something without boundary at all is both closed and open
Like if you only think about the surface, entire Earth is closed in some sense, and open in another sense
Just my 2c
Non-closed open points are cursed tho
Do you define the sorgenfrey line as being the topology generated by sets [a,b)? If so each of those contains at least one rational
The sorgenfrey plane isn't separable tho
there was a professor at my school that sent this video to everyone in the department lol
the converse of a is false right
justify your answer
lmao
well im trying to come up with a counterexample
if it really is false, which i'm guessing it is
lol
and then think why you guessed it
well
Guessing is one of Polya's strategies
what mechanism do you think is responsible for it being false
It's not called guessing, it's called heuristics
even blind guessing is useful insofar as it makes you get started
well i'm supposing that O is open in X x Y, so that implies that it's open in X' x Y'. thus, for all (a, b) in A x B = O, we can find open sets U of X and V of Y such that (a, b) in U x V subset A x B. but then we can also find open sets U', V' in X', Y' such that (a, b) in U' x V' subset A x B
however this doesn't carry the implication that U is an open set in curly U
and similarly with V
so essentially, i'm trying to find an open set in X x Y and X' x Y' so that we can find open sets of the respective topologies for each members of A x B, but that they're not contained in each other
and this is where i'm stuck lmfao
what if you used O = U x V
How do the open sets of X' x Y' look like?
(recall that the product topology has basis given by sets of the form UxV)
hmm how would this provide a counterexample? cuz O = U x V open in X x Y => open in X' x Y' => for all (u, v) in U x V we can find open sets U' of curly U and V' of curly V such that (u, v) \subseteq U' x V' \subseteq U x V, but isn't that exactly the statement that curly U is contained in U' (and similarly for curly T)
oh wait so that's a proof for the converse
because we showed that for all basis elements of the product topology on X x Y, we can find a basis element for each member of a fixed basis element that's contained in that basis element no?
that was my thought
yeah makes sense
okay thanks
is this theorem still true if the criteria is for (x, y) subset S?
oh wait no that doesn't make sense
wait no yea
because x and y are already in S
so if X is an ordered set and Y is a convex proper subset, then Y is an interval
I'm not sure how this works for X other than the reals
Well, or a subset of the reals.
true
i guess the proof of this result does rely on AOC
never mind
i guess it's not true
really?
yea i looked it up online
like if it’s R
just your original question
Let X be an ordered set. If Y is a proper subset of X that is convex in X, does it
follow that Y is an interval or a ray in X?
about (x,y)
sure, that i have no intuition for
i dont see how it could go wrong with (x,y)
because if you have that property
and you assume x,y in S
oh you said this already
R is an interval under that def?
if I pick two points out of R then [x,y] lies in R. So by the above R is an interval
this was the original question i'm working on
at first i thought it was true because of my intuition/this theorem regarding R
but it doesn't apply to arbitrary topological spaces
Yeah I just wanna understand what the def is here
of convexity?
interval
oh well that was how they characterized intervals in my real analysis text.
here's how munkres defines it
"the usual definition" I have in mind is that in the pic above 🙈
If X is a Hausdorff space and A a subspace such that there exists a retraction r : X -> A how can I show that A is closed? I thought about considering x in X \ A and r(x) in A and using the Hausdorff condition to find distinct neighborhoods of these points, but I can't construct an open neighborhood for x that is inside X \ A to conclude that X \ A is open.
i don't really understand how this is a counterexample. isn't by definition Y = (0, infty)?
moreover the definition of convexity of a proper subset Y of an ordered set X talks about points of Y
Given an ordered set X, let us say that a subset Y of X is convex if for each pair of points a < b of Y, the entire interval (a, b) of points of X lies in Y
what
what pic
above*
i think he was talking about this one
“interval or ray in X”
Yeah and what I meant is that by the theorem that was posted R would be an interval which seems incompatible to me
i'm confused, isn't Y = (0, \infty) an interval of X = (-infty, 0) U (0, infty)?
no as 0 is not in X
okay now i'm confused about the definitions of intervals 💀
going by this definition
oh, so the analysis book conflates intervals and rays into one concept ig?
so you need to use the precise definitions that the stackexchange poster likely has in mind
i think so yes
a bit awkward ngl
oh makes sense
i didn't read the hypotheses of the interval definitoin
or rather i did read them before but didn't bother to look at them this time
intervals are either open, half open, or closed and they are sandwiched between two points that actually lie in your set. Rays just specify "all points left/right of this one"
(either strictly or not)
let's see if i got my quantifiers correct - a space X is not Hausdorff if there exists a distinct pair of points x1, x2, such that every neighborhood U1 of x1 and U2 of x2 have nonempty intersection
how the freak do i compute homology
what is the context lol
hatcher exercises getting me down, so not much more context than literally being asked to compute homology
One hint is in your nickname ig 
so true
No I mean it depends how hard the computation is
if it is hatcher probably mayer vietoris lol
oh lol for sure not with a spectral sequence 
I am just complaining
because I'm lazy and need to actually read the chapter
waw relateable
hatcher chapter 5 
Nice pfp btw Semer, recently replayed both games lol
Ye classic turrets with their funny lil moustaches
Cellular, MV, relative sequence, excision, quotient, homotopy equivalence, π1, etc
Chapter 2 TLDR
could i get a sanity check on this
abcd
good catch. is that all 12?
Ye that's all
Read your nickname my sister in christ
Nvm potato already said that
To be fair somebody said cellular homology which is from a spectral sequence :)

huh? Do you mean the Serre sequence from the CW skeleton filtration? Do you really need all that?
For reference this be Hatcher
Hm idk if it's due to Serre but if you just filter homology with the skeleton you get a spectral sequence which immediately degenerates and gives you cellular homology
Like the E1 page is the cellular complex and converges on E_2 to the homology
i think
does this look okay?
Heyo! So the space of real plane curves of degree d is a real projective space of dimension d(d+3)/2.
It should have a natural stratification, where the codimension zero stratum is the (open dense) subset of non-singular curves, and the codimension one stratum is the subset of curves with a single singularity which is a double transverse singularity. What are strata of greater codimension? How does one define this neatly?
In the codimension two stratum, there should be curves with two transverse singularities, or one unique singularity which is a parabola/line tangency point?
are the open sets of R under the cofinite topology of the form R - F where F is a finite set + the empty set + R itself? is that a complete characterization of them?
i'm trying to think of open sets in R under the cofinite topology which are not the empty set or R
and that are not equal to my claimed characterization
i can't think of any lol
so i'm guessin git's true?
the intersection of finite sets is finite
and the finite union of finite sets is finite
sorry what do you mean by that
i actually don't completely understand what you mean lol
like if O is an open set of R under the cofinite topology
the cofinite topology is defined as taking open sets to have finite complement + empty set
and O is not R
or the empty set
then must O = R - F for a finite subset F of R
certainly O is open in the cofinite topology
Cuz R - (R - F) = F is finite
i'm wondering if the converse holds
Check if the cofinite sets plus the empty set form a topology
If they do, then surely the cofinite topology is the one where every non empty open set is cofinite
what do you mean by cofinite sets?
Finite complement
oh okay never mind
i was overthinking it hella
i was trying to show that R under the cofinite topology is not Hausdorff
It definitely isn't but why
but I can just use this: let x and y in R, consider any neighborhood U of x and V of y, we know that R - U and R - V are finite; if R - (V u U) is empty, then V u U is all of R which is a contradiction since U and V are arbitrary; hence it must be nonempty. But R - (V u U) = (R - U) n (R - V) which is nonempty and must be finite; since U and V are infinite, we conclude that U n V must be nonempty
idk if that works
because this would show that it's true for every points x, y of R
but the hausdorff condition only needs a counterexample
so i'm pretty sure there's some faulty logic
Uhh why does U and V being arbitrary mean you get a contradiction
Isn't that sort of assuming what you want
This seems a bit convoluted to me
Also you can have two infinite subsets of R with nonempty intersection
Try to involve U n V more explicitly
Try to make it constructive, that should help clear things up
What is R \ (U cap V) equal to
You mean cup there?
No
Right, U and V were the complements not the finite sets themselves
Yeah U and V are opens
ugh work with the complements period
Or at least neighbourhoods, may as well assume open
translate everything implicitly
Yeah, let U = R - A and V = R - B. Can you phrase U n V in terms of A and B?
even though R cofinite isn't hausdorff, you can do this related exercise: show that the intersection of all hausdorff topologies on R gives the cofinite topology
where we take a topology to be a subset of the powerset of R
oh interesting
i know that the cofinite top is the smallest t1 topology but didn't realise also intersection of hausdorff ones
just the normal definition
I guess
yeah that was i originally tried, their intersection is equal to R - (A U B) which is nonempty since A and B are finite
but i was unsure if that worked
It does depend on the cardinality of your space
If it is finite then you just have the discrete top
i love using filter-induced topologies in constructions
instead of patching together R^n in different pathological ways
Yes this is the right thing
In short: U, V have finite complements. So the union of their complements is also finite, and hence not all of R, so U and V must intersect somewhere
This works for any non-finite space
In fact there is a fun game where basically if $\kappa$ is an infinite cardinal (read: "set size") and $X$ a set, then you can put a topology on $X$ where all sets of size $< \kappa$ or $\le \kappa$ are closed e.g. for $\kappa = # \mathbb N$ and taking $<$ you get the cofinite topology
potato
Then you can see that basically the behaviour depends on how |X| relates to kappa
e.g. you can do cocountable topology on a set, and you'll get smth discrete or smth non-hausdorff
Oh filters... I am still recovering from the whiplash of ultrafilter schenanigans on ßN
i actually wanted to read up on βN and how it relates to stone-cech and dynamics
since they seem to use semigroups a lot
We only used it to show certain properties of ultrafilters over N, like them having no countable filter base and stuff like that
Might need to get back to it since I heard some cool stuff, but learning and doing the assignment in one day with an approaching deadline wasn't exactly motivating
un four chew net
What
the free ones?
malapropism
Yeah
oh cool
how hard would y'all say this exercise is
i meant attempt it later but i don't want it to take up too much time
You should manage a) in finite time
good to know
god this exercise was so fun to do
I'd just recommend starting to play around with it
disagree lol
Think of ways how the formal operations might simplify and when you only get one-way inclusions (so you might assume they are proper). Then try some examples out for b and try to figure out why they fail
why
idk it just didn't feel that interesting to me
and it took longer than it should have
are you the type of person who gets frustrated when the solution takes so long to come up with, but it's actually just two or three lines
okay fuck it i'll try i tout
is this proof invalid because it doesn't imply that every neighborhood U of x intersects some A_alpha?
or idk how to put it into words
but yeah, like this neighborhood happens to intersect one A_alpha_i
but the next neighborhood might not intersect A_alpha_i
we just know it intersects at least one of the A_alpha
I mean, I can give you a counterexample to that statement so no, I don't think it's valid
yes exactly
Let A_n = {1/n} and consider 0, does any A_n manage to hold 0 long enough?
My blind ass thought that was your proof 🙈
LOL all lgood
and the way you put this makes it (hopefully) clear that under certain finiteness conditions, the statement holds
this is true tho with intersections right
i think it's clear
yes
when are things not true with intersections
Wdym
nah i was kinda half joking
but to me, it always seem that if A and B have a given property, then A n B automatically has this property
but i'm sure that's not true in general
i.e. if H and K are subgroups then H n K is a subgroup, blah blah blah
anyways how exactly is this true? (-1, 0] is open in (-1, 1) under the subspace top but is not open under the order topology on (-1, 1), right? (since we can't find a basis element of (-1, 1) that contains 0 which is contained in (-1, 0])
No, (-1,0] isn't open in subspace top
In fact if U is an open subset of a space X then a subset of U is open iff it is open in X
(The nontrivial direction: if V is open in U which is open in X, then V = W n U for some W open in X, so V is an intersection of two open subsets of X)
One easy way to see it is true is to use the fact open intervals form a basis for the topology on R (and hence on (-1,1))
Nvm I don’t know what i was thinking 😂😂😂
Ur learning every subject
Thats dope
lol wdym
Like i see you in every channel
Whats your favorite subject? Algebra? Analysis? Or top?
oh yeah rn i'm just reviewing point-set, doing/reviewing some galois theory and learning measure theory
negl at this moment i'm leaning towards analysis
Crazy
probably because thsi sem i was traumatized by my algebra class
...?
na not rlly lol i'm learning it hella slow
like
i'm kinda tired of algebra atm negl
it used to be my favorite
i just started on axler, and just got to the section on outer measures
so i can't really say that much lol since the first two sections were reviews on integration
seems like an interesting subject tho
if you like nonsense, then the intersection is the limit of the diagram
and the forgetful functor Grp -> Set is right adjoint, so it preserves limits
(this is the wrong explanation though)
This can be formalized somehow with logic iirc?
Someone told me about this a long time ago I think
This is not the channel but its a pretty abstract and so much formalism
If i : A -> X is a cofibration, then there exists a retraction r : X x I -> X x {0} ∪ A x I. Is there a way to picture what this retraction is doing?
the retraction is not canonical, as you can imagine from say [1, 2] -> [0, 3]
But composition with r provides a way to extend a homotopy of A and a map of X to a homotopy of X
Can I get a retraction from X -> A from this r : X x I -> X x {0} ∪ A x I somehow?
No
E.g. global stuff like induced maps on pi1 and (co)homology can obstruct existence of retractions
But cofibrations are more of being local point-set niceness at A
E.g. disk does not retract onto its boundary, but it is a cofibration
But if i : A -> X is a cofibration and X is say Hausdorff the space A should be closed right?
Yes iirc
That is indeed nonsense to me
The innocence of a child 
One day you too will be blessed by the light of universal properties
yes
often one restricts to convenient categories in which this is always true
got blasted on the AT exam
what were the exercises
Wait were you cramming few days ago 
literally basic stuff, computing homology of not-too-complicated spaces, proof of exactness of Mayer-Vietoris, another diagram chase that I somehow messed up
I just sort of understood almost nothing this semester ngl, I should not have taken this class, I'll take a bad grade on my transcript and move on because what else is there to do?
On the 1 dimensional sphere one can traverse the entire thing using a “pencil”
Can you do the same thing for a 2 dimensional sphere? I.e. draw a line and cover the entire thing?
Space filling curves is a thing.
Might stretch your definition a bit since usually the space filling curves are the limit of a sequences of curves that become increasingly dense
Hey, A curve is a curve. They don't all need to be smooth
If I let X = [0,1] x [0,1] and consider A the subspace to be the union of line segments from the origin to the points (0,1) and (1/n,1) for positive integers n I want to show that there is no retraction from X onto A. My idea was to first note that both spaces are contractible and connected so if such a retraction would exist then the incuded map r_* : H_0(X) -> H_0(A) should be surjective so we have a surjective homomorphism Z -> Z. Would this imply that r would need to be the identity map or something which would not be possible?
Unfortunately r* is the identity
It just tells you the (only) component is sent to the (only) component
Hint: ||apply continuity at (0, 1) and get contradiction||
I suppose this space is ||the comb space||
Continuity of r?
Yup
Will r have some sort of an jump at (0,1) or why it cannot be continuous?
More generally, locally connected spaces can only retract onto locally connected subspaces
A neighborhood of (0,1) in A can't be locally connected as it contains infinitely many disjoint line segments?
ye
this question was on my exam today, but the topology was lower limit
i wasn’t sure what the open sets would be beside Q, empty, a and b, and a and b and c
i guess also c?
how did it go?
i mean other than this question i think it went okay
i think i missed c being an open set on this question. i kinda came wondering if i missed anything else haha
since R with lower limit is finer than R with standard, would it have been right to say that the open sets in R standard would’ve also been open in R with lower limit?
yes
Why is the map \tilde{H} here the identity map on the fibers?
i think i'm missing something because it looks like the only condition on \tilde{H} is that the first diagram commutes? which shouldn't imply that it's a bundle isomorphism
it does tho
why?
or wait a sec, maybe you need principal ones?
yeah idk, i thought it was something like that but there seems to be no indication of that
the beginning defines a map of fiber bundles to just be a map where there's a commutative triangle
so it doesnt need to be an iso on fibers
ah I see
tbf i didnt read anything else so idk if halfway through he switches
I think inspecting the proof of the lifting/covering homotopy theorem might do it, but like I said, with principal stuff it's a lot easier if you're working with those
yeah i was trying to do that, but the proof is pretty hairy and i didnt want to get into it :')
I can't say much else, sorry. I wish I had something better to say
hopefully someone else will give a satisfactory answer
I don't think it's that bad honestly
and I do believe it should follow from it
yeah i dont think its bad it just has a lot of notation :(
yeah it seems to just be from the proof of the covering homotopy theorem
i guess bundle map here means it induces iso's on fibers
yeah I think that's standard but idk, I'm no expert
but yeah I believe the basic idea should do it
yeah, the covering homotopy theorem requires that the maps have the same fiber, so like it would make sense if thats what bundle map meant
ye it's how Steenrod does it so, so I do too lol
ohh okay
wikipedia doesn't tho https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bundle_map
In mathematics, a bundle map (or bundle morphism) is a morphism in the category of fiber bundles. There are two distinct, but closely related, notions of bundle map, depending on whether the fiber bundles in question have a common base space. There are also several variations on the basic theme, depending on precisely which category of fiber bun...
If we’re restricting to spaces with the homotopy type of a CW complex. This is just the homotopy lifting/extension property. You would typically see X be A \times I in which case i is the homotopy equivalence.
Right, I was wondering if this general version had a name
I guess its just like an axiom
This lemma, together with the lemma that says any map can be factorized with (co)fibrations/htpy equivs makes a weak factorization system
Or two weak factorization systems ig
Which is again part of what makes a model category.
Specifically, the lemma says that (co)fibrations have the right(left) lifting property against trivial cofibrations(fibrations)
A trivial (aka acyclic) fibration is just a fibration which is also a weak homotopy equivalence.
As Flyon said, if eveythings a CW complex, then weak homotopy equivalences are just homotopy equivalences
I suppose we dont need cw complexes if we're talking about the Hurewicz model structure, but then fibrations are slightly different. Depends on how the book defined them
That's not quite the factorization system, as you'd need Hurewicz cofib followed by Hurewicz fib with one of them being a homotopy equivalence (in fact, you technically need a slightly stronger version of a Hurewicz cofibration: a "closed cofibration" as it's sometimes called).
The mapping path space/mapping cylinder factorizations give you these weaker facorizations, but getting the proper factorizations for the model structure are very nontrivial
You can use something along the lines of Cole's cofibration hypothesis (which IIRC is slightly faulty, use Riehl and Bartel's monomorphism hypothesis instead) + some categorical construction to get it, or you can use the Moore mapping path space for this; either case has quite a few technical lemmas
I think I will stay in CW land
wtf is this emote 
This server really has a bias in the emoji department...
riehl shit
they're just math department emojis 
How do people deal with manifolds with boundary?

Because if you consider for example the closed interval [a, b] it isn't a manifold because there is no open neighborhood around a and b which is homeormorphic to an open set in R
i.e a manifold with boundary...isn't a manifold?
but surely that cannot be the case as I've heard people talking about manifolds with and without boundary
like stokes theorem for example
manifolds with boundary have their own definition
oh I see, how are they defined?
look it up
so now an open neighborhood around a or b can be homeomorphic to a subset of R^+ U {0}
That is a bit too liberal -- it would make an arbitrary subset of R a "manifold with boundary", which isn't the intention.
There should be a neighborhood homeomorphic to R, or a neighborhood homeomorphic to [0,infty) -- taking arbitrary subsets of the latter will not do.
If the math department consisted of only categorical homotopy theorists... There's Lurie, Riehl, Quillen, Schreiber. The O.G. category theorist Noether. (and Grothendieck for good measure)
The mathematical red herring principle is the principle that in mathematics, a “red herring” need not, in general, be either red or a herring.
nlab humour
top tier
Top tier, Grp tier, or even [Δ^op,SSet^J] tier 
J-indexed bisimplicial set tier
Sure
I honestly don't know what kind of category this is, I just copied random shit from nlab 
Anyways; is anybody familiar with the stratification of the space of real algebraic curves?
I'm scared to ask in #algebraic-geometry because I'm only working over R or C, and I care about actual topology and actual geometry 
Simplicial objects in simplicial co-presheaves on J....
does this exercise just imply that the closure of (a, b) under the order topology is just (a, b) itself? because it was [a, b], then we would obviously have equality, and if contained some point other than [a, b], then we wouldn't have inclusion
i guess that would make sense
because if x is not in (a, b), and say x >= a, then [x, b_0) would be an open set containing x that does not intersect (a, b) where b_0 is a largest element of X
hmm i guess this only holds if X has a largest element tho
and similarly for smallest element
no it doesn't imply the closure of (a,b) is (a,b) in all cases
non-example: reals
example where that is the case: integers
oh no i meant that it would imply it if X had no largest or smallest element i think
so we would have equality if X didn't have a largest or smallest element?
ok X = [0,1] is a non-example then
wdym
oh
but like, say we're considering (1/4, 1/2) in X = [0, 1]; then (1/4, 1/2) has no limit points not contained in (1/4, 1/2) , because any such x must be greater than or equal to 1/2 or less than or equal to 1/4; say wlog x is greater than or equal to 1/2
wait
1/4 is a limit point
Lmao
can i get a hint on this please? i'm not really sure how to show that if x is not in (a, b) and is a limit point of (a, b), then x = a or x = b. I don't have access to the standard methods of considering neighborhoods like (x - e, x + e) for example since we're not working in R
do you have any information about what the closure is without using limit points?
well munkres originally defined it as the intersection of all closed sets containing A
he also gave a theorem saying that x is in the closure of A iff every basis element B containing x intersects A
this is the way
so in particular it's a subset of every closed set containing A
Why can't you use an analogous argument?
Oh, maybe you are missing characterization of open intervals in topology
oh so this is pretty easy then right
[a, b] is a closed set containing (a, b)
because its complement is open
if X has a largest or smallest element it's open
(Ah welp that is easier)
?
sorry, like for example if X has a largest element b_0 but no smallest element, then the complement of [a, b] in X is just (-infty, a) U (b, b_0] which is open by the def of the order topology
right?
and then there are a bunch of cases
oh
yes
that definition is the ✨ nice one ✨ because it says the closure is the smallest closed set containing A
and limit points are ugly because you need to actually consider points
yeah i guess so
Limit points definition seems only to have disadvantages lol
Wdym, points are easy to analyze
but for the converse, would you have to look at the limit points?
I don't think I've really used limit points since real analysis
like for what conditions are a and b contained in the closure of (a, b), which seems like it boils down to looking at limit points
like sorry
the converse inclusion, under what conditions do we have equality
Ahh
yeah here you need to very specifically consider a and b
Checking closure of (a, b) could be a bit laborous
Like, e.g. need to check if there is a closed set containing (a, b) not including a
Or just check if a is in closure in another way - using the point
wait why isn't a automatically contained in the closure of (a, b)? we only need to check if every basis element containing a intersects (a, b); so we have three cases, either the basis element = (x, y) which contains a, or equals [a_0, y) for the smallest element a_0 of X, or equals (x, b_0] for the largest element b_0 of X. but i'm pretty sure in all cases they intersect (a, b)
again: think about integers for why your 'pretty sure' is wrong
because in integers you in fact have (a,b) closed and hence its own closure
Hmm it is a bit hard to see at a glance yea
Might be easier to find closed set E where E \cup (-inf, a] \cup [b, inf) is the entire space.
sorry i'm confused, why exactly would (0, 2) in the integers be considered closed? because any basis element in the order topology containing 2 for example would have to be of the form (x, y) right, with x < 2 < y
yes
(0, 2) = {1} is closed as the complement of open (-infty, 1) u (1, infty)
And any basis element is indeed of that form, e.g. (1, 3)
Lol so the definition of a manifold with boundary includes all manifolds without boundary as well?
ah right okay
Yeah. The boundary might be Ø.
Yes
manifold with corners 
this is cursed, this is a disgrace to manifolds 
I get that we split it into subsets calculate them then join them again, but stuck at the part where i actually have to decide what the subsets are suposed to be
in turn i struggle with the rest of the proceedings...
with anything square related it's usually X - {x} and then some open nbhd around x, where x is inside the square
maybe i said that too fast but im sure (hope) it'll work out nicely
?
Alternatively you could try inner region of square ∪ outer region of square
And the outer region deformation retracts to just the "4" edges
how would one go about defining a metric on S1?
i know the subspace metric from R2 would work
but that feels rather unnatural
does arc length work?
It does.
Or normalized arclength (divided by 2pi)
Which lets you isometrically identify S1 with [0,1] with ends glued together
lovely
This is equivalent to subspace metric I think
it's also equivalent to the quotient metric on R/Z if you like those
when posing this question i mistakenly imagined the behaviour of the arc distance around opposing poles to be necessarily noncontinuous, but yeah that was wrong
It's still nonsmooth
subspace metric from R^2? Like just using the R^2 metric by considering S^1 embedded in R^2?
yes
Does anyone have a hint for this problem?
Prove that a nontrivial torus knot is prime, by considering how a sphere S intersecting the knot K transversely at 2 points intersects the torus T.
This is what I have so far: For any decomposition of K into a sum of two knots, there is a sphere S intersecting T and K transversely, such that the two knots are the interior and exterior segments of K with arcs on the sphere. S∩T is a disjoint union of circles. Assume all these circles separate T, and therefore bound a disk in T. Suppose K∩T is contained in two different circles, then K crosses the boundaries of the bounded disks once, contradiction. Therefore K∩T is contained in the same circle, and the segment of K in the bounded disk is trivial.
I'm guessing the circles are indeed separating whenever K is nontrivial
Hello! I cannot see (intuitively) how the product of topology of (R, e) and (R, e) (where e is the standard euclidean topology) forms the standard topological space of (R^2, e).
Using the definition of a product topology, I obtain the fact that the base of the topology in R^2 isn't made of open balls, but rather "open rectangles" (cartesian products of open intervals in R).
What does the topology induced by the euclidean distance have to do with any of this ?
How can I show that a pair (X, A) (A is closed in X) has the homotopy extension property if and only if X × {0} ∪ A × I is a retract of X × I? I got a hint that for the first implication the identity map X × {0} ∪ A × I -> X × {0} ∪ A × I extends to a map X x I -> X × {0} ∪ A × I, but I don't know how to show this.
a retract r: Y -> B ⊆ Y is a continuous map such that r|_B = id
so retractions can be viewed as extensions of the identity map B -> B
If B, B' are bases, then the topology of B' is finer than B iff for any p ∈ b ∈ B there exists b' ∈ B' s.t. p ∈ b' ⊂ b
You can show each is finer than the other
Hmmm, I will think about this. Thanks!
What do you mean by equivalent?
They produce the same topologies. They produce the same geodesics. But one of them is a geodesic metric and one of them isn’t. It has distances that are shorter than paths
I hate bilipschitz equivalence because it mixes together local bilipschitz equivalence with coarse equivalence. In particular, almost everyone who uses the term seems to really mean one of them. Of course in the compact setting, it’s just the local property, so this isn’t a problem
Okie, will take note
I think this should work: For any nontrivial torus knot (p,q) we have p, q ≥ 2. By Poincaré duality, a circle intersects the knot at most twice only if it is a meridian, longitude, or null-homotopic. For the first two cases, since the sphere divides the torus into interior and exterior regions, there is another circle which by duality considerations have the same homology class, and thus we have at least 4 intersections, contradiction.
Though I wonder if there is a better method (assuming this is even correct) since this is only the first exercise
it's true that $\overline{A \cap B} = \overline{A} \cap \overline{B}$ right?
okeyokay
what do you think
yes
why
well i was just writing up a proof of why but i wanted to get verified first lol
no
Take (0,1) and (1,2)
ah
you might learn more by trying to fully prove it on your own and then carefully whether what you did makes sense, and finally asking if youre still confused
though that takes more effort
yeah maybe
i'm a bit confused tho, say x is a limit point of A and is contained in B (i.e. i'm viewing it as a particular element of cl(A) n cl(B)). then every neighborhood U of x intersects A and B, so why shouldn't it be in cl(A n B)?
also, if x is a limit point of A and a limit point of B, then every neighborhood U of x intersects A and B, so x in cl(A n B)
i think this is how you develop intuition
if x is in A n B then this is trivial (I'm looking at RHS to LHS) so i'm assuming otherwise
because every point in a set is a limit point of that set right?
as in the counterexample just given
(0, 1) U {2}
sure
another way to phrase it is to say cl(X) := smallest closed set containing X
cl(A) n cl(B) is closed hence contains cl(AnB)
it feels like there should be a simple characterization of when equality holds
see the answer by ni zhiyang
Interesting!
i think it suggests that the counterexample (0,1),(1,2) is the only thing that can go wrong
is this reasoning accurate to show that $\overline{\cap A_\alpha} \subset \cap \overline{A_\alpha}$? Suppose $x$ is a limit point of $\cap A_\alpha$. Then every neighborhood $U$ of $x$ intersects $\cap A_\alpha$, and hence $A_{\alpha}$ for all $\alpha$. Hence, $x \in \cap \overline{A_\alpha}$.
okeyokay
seems correct
also we don't necessarily have $\overline{A} - \overline{B} = \overline{A - B}$ right? because if we take $A = (0, 1)$ and $B = (0, 2)$ then we don't have equality. however, we always have $\overline{A} - \overline{B} \subset \overline{A - B}$ I believe
okeyokay

wha
you asked this or something related before, not that deep
thats right
Maybe as an alternative way. How else do you define the closure of a set?
Yeah I think I asked about the closure of union is not equal to the union of the closures or rather if my disproof was correct
to show that the order topology is Hausdorff, would this proof work? let any $x_1 < x_2$ in $X$ and suppose that there exists $t \in X$ with $x_1 < t < x_2$. Suppose without loss of generality that $X$ has no smallest or largest element. then $U_{x_1} \coloneqq (-\infty, t)$, $U_{x_2} \coloneqq (t, \infty)$ are open sets containing $x_1$ and $x_2$ respectively, satisfying $U_{x_1} \cap U_{x_2} = \varnothing$. If there exists no $t$ with $x_1 < t < x_2$, set $U_{x_1} \coloneqq (-\infty, x_2)$ and $U_{x_2} \coloneqq (x_1, \infty)$. then these sets satisfy the desired properties.
okeyokay
You defined rays as open?
Anyways there is a mistake or rather a missing case. There being no element between x1 and x2 (think N or Z)
ya
oh, yeah
Yeah I'd just say : "take the left ray and right ray of t" or whatever your def. of rays was
ye makes sense
the no smallest or largest element thing makes it more awkward than it needs to. And imagine you'd be doing proofs pages long, a bunch of text with little to nothing happening yknow?
yea that's a lot easier
i thought you would have to consider four cases or something
the definition of the topology doesnt care too much about it
wdym
the rays are open and defined regardless of whether there is a largest/smallest element or not, so there's no need to look at those cases either way
what edward II just said
i shouldnt mix my casual speaking habits with math talk
The topology doesnt care about min and max at all
Hi joe
why is it that every basis element can be expressed as a finite intersection of subbasis elements in a topology generated by a subbasis S? how do we know that it's not a union of finite intersections of elements of S?
you're going to have to explain which basis you're talking about
because if it's an arbitrary basis for the same topology as that generated by subbasis S, you can't
dumb example: Some X with at least two points, S = { {x} : x in X} a subbasis (and basis) for the discrete topology, and the basis consisting of all open sets is obviously not the collection of finite intersections of singletons
there is an 'obvious' basis for a topology generated by a subbasis, but that's defined as the collection of finite intersections of elements of S and hence what you want is by definition
oh i see
Quick question, every vectorial space V have the second axiom of countability? Assuming that V is a metric space with a distance function defined from a norm etc etc
Finite dimensional ofc
Pretty much, yes
Ugh well yeah there exist an isomorphism between V and R^n or C^n
I literally forgot about it
eh i mean
multiple different inner products on a vector space
pls don't feel dumb alex
please don't feel dumb i agree
we care that it's an isometry because it needs to be at least homeomorphic ig
No matter what inner product you put on it, you'll get something isometric. But there are norms that are not given by inner products.
Hm really
I thought you can get different inner products w different norms
Yeah, just pick an orthonormal basis, there's your isometry
Oh lol
Yeah sure lol
Now i feel silly
I guess I was more thinking like sure the identity map needn't be an isometry
But ofc you can just change the map lol
oh i see
Yeah they won't be exactly the same, but there's still an isometry
But for example the Lp norms give spaces that are not isometric for different ps. They will be homeomorphic though
Indeed an (ordered) orthormal basis is just a choice of isometry with R^n (with dot product) lol fair
Is just after thinking a bit makes sense that V is 2AN. I just forgot the fact and didnt try to thinking for my own
@unreal stratus @brittle rapids thank you

there are people who study mathematics and don’t feel dumb?
Yes, the bad ones
There are some moments when I think omg Im so dumb then realize omg its trivial and took me like secs or mins to understand what I did not it
Related to basic stuff
Like my question, totally forgot that a finite real or complex vector space is isomorphic to R^n or C^n
Average math experience
Fr fr
I know that we can't classify all the homotopy groups π_k(S^n) of spheres, but if we restrict to n ≥ k ≥ 1 do we know these?
Yes they’re trivial for k smaller than n and Z for k =n
Proving this is a good exercise
hi i gotta go soon but can someone tell me a little hint on how to compute homology groups? specifically H(R,Q)
not me
ye
hm isn't it either easy or super hard depending on which theorems you have
like if you have something like cellular or simplicial approximation (or similarly powerful) it is easy, and otherwise i don't know how to do the k < n case
It’s not hard yes
Im assuming they have the standard machinery you have when dealing with higher homotopy groups
Idk I would just add that as a warning like if you don't have those technology tings dw lol
ye
First do the smooth case
For continuous maps, this is necessarily harder than proving that R^n is not homeomorphic to R^m
Is there an explicit formula for a retraction from the unit square [0,1]^2 to the downwards shaped T space? That is [0,1]^2 -> [0,1] x {0} ∪ {1/2} x [0,1].
Do it first from the unit square to the L shape [0,1] x {0} u {0} x [0,1]. Then flip that along the y-axis and glue the two together (use continuity of a piecewise-defined function) to get a retraction [-1,1]x[0,1] to the upside down T centred at 0. Then translate and scale to size
Lol I was trying to do it without reading yours properly and then wound up with the same thing Semer
Is there an explicit map from the unit square to the L shape? I kinda see that I want to push the top right corner to 0, but I don't know how to define this.
I think you can just join each point by a line to (-1,-1)
and see where it intersects the L
(You can easily write an explicit description, and it's obvious that this is continuous)
You could do (x-y,0) in the bottom right triangle and (0,y-x) in the top left triangle
That avoids having to do "raytracing" but requires glueing again
ig thats kinda raytracing too but then orthographic...
Hmm, Raytracing?
What goes wrong with defining locally connected to just be that every point has an open neighborhood that is connected?
As opposed to every neighborhood containing an open connected set containing the point
Then you get every connected set is locally connected
Which is not actually what you want
"Local" usually means "this property holds in any neighbourhood"
In the case the property is existence of some open connected region containing the point
"Local" is useful when you don't get to control how small your neighbourhoods get
sorry for asking twice but how would you do it, im stuck at this
what do you know about homology
most i know is the basic definition, quotient of singular chain
am i correct that in the uniform topology on R^N, given x=(x1,x2,x3.....) then for eps<1, the ball of radius eps centered at x is \prod_i=1^n [xi-eps , xi+eps] ?
do you have a guess as to what the homology might be
my best guess is countable many direct sums of Z
the idea is that H_n counts n-dimensional holes by taking the quotient of cycles by boundaries
the intuition is that if you have an n-cycle that isn't a boundary, then it goes around a hole. if it was a boundary, then there would be an (n+1)-chain which the cycle is the boundary of
so saying that H_n(X,Z) is Z is intuitively saying that there's one n-dimensional hole generated by the homology class of some n-cycle, meaning that every nontrivial n-dimensional hole comes from going around this n-cycle ..., -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, ... times
with that in mind, do you have another guess
H^k(R,Q) should be trivial unless k=0 where it's just Q
is that what you're asking
Do you know that it's the same for homotopy equivalent spaces?
wait what would H_n(X,Q) represent in this case?
yes i think so
Well, then you just have to show that R is homotopy equivalent to a point
yeah but the extra Q is complicating stuff
like
Wait, is this relative homology, not homology with coefficients in Q?
I see, then it's a little more complicated yes
i mean
You'll have to whip out the long exact sequence in relative homology
homology as in standard definition with singular simplices group chain
also sorry for not replying earlier i got distracted
the complication for me is that i have to take quotient by the groups of Q
and then compute homology
Yeah, so instead of trying to do all that computation, you should use the long exact sequence in relative homology. If you're familiar with that
nope, book doesnt mention it
but what is it?
It relates the homology if R, the homology of Q and the relative homology of (R, Q)
also before you continue
can i know if the homology on pairs is related to the quotient topology?
It is for nice enough pairs, using excision, but (R, Q) is not very nice.
yeah that makes sense
Anyway I have to go, but you should look up the LES
i would ask what excision is but i dont wanna branch off
?
whats the LES
long exact sequence?
alright thanks for the help
oh i thought it was with coefficients in Q lmao
yeah the LES is what i was talking about sorry i didnt know the term
i just realized i took homology as S_n(X)/im(δ_n+1) while calculating
ill try again now
what is the idea behind this notation?
it's used as an example throughout the book (viro's elementary topology problem textbook)
(which is an interesting book leaving all proofs to the reader haha... with plenty of hints thankfully)
It is the specialization poset of the topology
u rel v if u is contained in the closure of v ?
Ye aka all opens that contain u also contains v
Did I get that the right way around?
From bottom to top: d c b a
thank you very much
I hope that wasnt one of the exercises 
not at this point
I'm self studying munkres topology, realistically how many of the problems in each section should i be able to solve
should clarify the book lol
all of them, on your first try
in fact dont read the statements
oh
just discover them on your own
idk, id do it on first try like 5 times
otherwise just become possesed for a sec and write down the proof
actually thinking about the steps is cheating
ok i think i filled my bullying quota
ok whatr about your giving helpful advice quota
what book
As many as possible ideally.
The better question is when to move on for any given exercise
there are around 10-15 per section
you can take breaks from problems and come back to them later
oh i thought like 20+
Hm I guess munkres fits into a semester?
i mean it depends on you and the timeframe you want
See if you split it up to weeks and then do like at least 5 harder looking ones that week and give the rest a look
Just waiting after reading an exercise can make a lot of difference
Thats fair
Nut in water analogy type of situation.
Also like, just look some of them up
If you insist on doing everything on your own you never really see how other people approach these problems and what strategies they use
Which is what you have to a degree in an actual course
yeah
i think generally you should allow yourself a few hours per problem
if not more
like before googling it
Would that be normal for a course? There are 50 sections
i kinda suck at self control when self studying, its like an itch to get those list of like 20 problems done in one weekend day
munkres is not supposed to be done in a semester
like 1-2 problems from each
I think the first half is, the second half is algebraic topology but the point set stuff is 50 sections
That makes sense
chapter 2/3 are the most important
thats what I meant
why did he add watered down algebraic topology at the ned
when stretching munrkes over 2 semesters?
Hm. Maybe that'll be my goal for break then, to cover that + ch4 if possible. I just am about to finish chapter 2 but skipped a number of problems in the product topology and the metric topology section is giving me difficulty
what happened to 1
1 is just sets
oh
like de morgan's law or something
Or is ch4 even that important? Given I can only do another chapter after chapter 3 what should I do
lemme check my perfectly legal munkres pdf
you should do the product and metric
chapter 4 is important
i guess
oh jesus
its important to learn urysohn's lemma
wait are you for real?
yeah
are 4-8 really necessary
to be called point set topology, yeah
6 is not
rest goes into alg top

Space filling be continuous




