#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 71 of 1
I'm assuming 1.17 is "{gm} a sequence in Γ"
If for each C you draw the disk E in the region bounded by the sphere
The region of H bounded by the E's and the complement in S² of the D's seems to be a fundamental region for H
So the limit points should correspond to the sequences of shrinking circles similar to ones in figure 4
Which is a Cantor set
One way to think of this is that two copies of the fundamental region are adjacent iff they are related by an inversion, so the dual graph (with copies of fundamental region of H being vertices and adjacent regions beings edges) should be an r-regular tree
(idk this is based on intuition, maybe someone can verify)
Hi, in my teacher's solution for computing the homology groups of the 2-torus using the decomposition with two cylinders I don't understand how he concludes that H1(T)=Z+Z given the fact that neither the map j1_* + j2_* nor the boundary map ∂ are isomorphisms (∂ is not even injective). Did I miss something in his arguments ?
wait sorry could you clarify what you mean by this
okay well we can just take S^2 to be the boundary of H^3
how does a circle C in the boundary of H^3
bound a disk in H^3?
Well H looks like a 3-ball
right
So you draw the disks E like you normally would in R³
Actually ye
So a corresponding inversion should flip across this disk
im having a little bit of trouble visualizing
Imma draw
i guess im not fully grasping how a circle inversion (a mobius transform of C) acts on elements in H^3 treated as the 3-ball
^
oh also
here's the general definition of schottky groups
here we can restrict jordan curves to just circles
so you take pairs of circles with disjoint interiors C_1, C_1',..., C_g, C_g'
then take the maps T_1,...,T_g
which are mobius transforms mapping the outside of C_i to the inside of C_i'
this resource gives this very vague explanation as to why the limit points is totally disconnected
Something like this, for H² and generated by 3 disks
okay so the three big curves you've drawn are the disks bounded by three circles on the boudnary
so how do points in the ball
get corralled
into those smaller and smaller circles?
And then reflecting them across each other generates more curves
If you take the fundamental region and keep reflecting across one of the curves on its boundary then you can get to any copy of the fundamental region
And since the orbit of a point intersects each copy of the fundamental region exactly once, this determines the limit set
i'm not sure im following those steps
what do you mean by reflecting the disks across each other?
Inverting the curve across another curve
Say, inversion by large black curve takes the large blue curve to the small blue curve on top
so is the fundamental region the interior region cobounded by all three of those curves?
Ye
okay that makes sense, since inversion is an involution
why are we taking the images of each of the curves
with respect to the inversions
They divide H² into copies of the fundamental region
wait, so actually each bounded region is a fundamental region? hmm hold on
right because the orbit of a point would be
a point inside curve 1, curve 2, curve 3, and in the inside part
ahh okay, so then i see how reflecting all the points inside the black curve
wrt to the blue curve
results in them all being placed inside
the smaller black curve that you've drawn inside the blue curve
okay im beginning to understand your picture at the very least
what exactly do you mean by this though?
the first part is obvious
The limit points can be obtained by picking any point and reflecting it closer and closer towards the boundary
The limit point you end up with only depends on which sequence of reflections you use, but not the starting point
Since the curves shrink to 0 anyway
wait i think limit sets of kleinian groups in general
only depend on the sequence of transformations
and not on what you start with
i think because they always act transitively?
unless im very mistaken here

wait but why does the fact that the curves shrink to 0 mean that the starting point doesnt matter?
Cuz the sequence of fundamental domains shrinks to the same point
Maybe this follows from some hyperbolic space metric argument
Is actually precomposition by large blue curve
arrows here indicating reflection wrt the blue curve
ahhh okay i see how you got it
take middle point, reflect across blue curve, reflect across black curve, reflect across blue curve again
Ye
i understand the visual intuition but
how do you actually prove that the limit set is totally disconnected
like the curves remain disjoint
and go to zero
Well each limit point corresponds to a shrinking sequence of curves
So it's a Cantor set
Or at least very close to the Cantor set construction
Ye ig
i mean yeah i see the cantor set construction
you take the interior of a curve
then you remove the two other curves inside it
then you keep going
that's convincing enough i suppose
Imma go hunt dinner soon
Thx for the fun read 
yw! i am super new to kleinian groups but am trying to get my knowledge up to speed for related work. ty for the help
I cannot get through this thing, for like 2 weeks...
Why is $L(S) = L(\overline{S})$? where S is a subspace of $C([0,1]^n)$, and L some functional.
Elin
maybe it's measure theory... for $\mu [(0,1)] \neq \mu ([0,1])$, but I guess measure theory says they are the same, so there must be somewhere there.
Elin
I guess the idea is that the measure of a single point is mu null, and I guess the collection of these points are also mu null.
?
and how does that change it? the distance to the limit point is guaranteed to be less than epislon, but not zero.
what is your question exactly?
you asked something about L and commented something about μ
Yeah, something has to say that L(S) = L(clsr(S)), but just continuty doesn't really say that
why not?
at least I've never seen anything about it
but this is only the case if L(R) = 0? does not seem to hold otherwise, I'm thinking you need to use a clopen set in "Y"?
what?
L is defined to be zero on R ,which is a superset of S
so it's zero on both without the need to invoke topology
but also it's true that a continuous function that's zero on a set is also zero on its closure
ok ,topology is needed to know that the closure contains the original set
this is probably a trivial question lol, but if all the vertices of a simplex sigma lie in a simplex A_k, do we have sigma in A_k since we can consider those vertices a subset of the vertices of A_k?
In a simplicial complex, yes. Every simplex is uniquely defined by its vertices and every subset of vertices of a simplex defines a face
cool, thanks
ok, this is probably another trivial question, but can we consider the union of two simplices to be another simplex? or is this something we just choose to distinguish as a complex
wait do we just take the two vertices of the simplices and then let their union be the simplex spanned by their vertices
or rather, it ends up that they're equivalent
gah
Hello, I'm stuck with these two affirmations of Hatcher's book, can someone explain?
wait... is the converse of this (intersection of all topologies on X that contain A contained in the topology generated by A) literally just that that the topology generated by A contains A, so it's a subset of it
💀
i deadass spent over an hour thinking about the converse when it's literally just ohhh intersection small so intersection in everything
The topology T_A generated by A (the explicit description) is contained in every topology containing A, and contains A, which I think is what you mean
yeah, i think?
Let $\mathcal{T}\mathcal{A}$ be the topology generated by $\mathcal{A}$, and let ${\mathcal{T}\alpha}$ be the collection of all topologies on $X$ which contain $\mathcal{A}$. Let $O$ be an open set of $\mathcal{T}\mathcal{A}$. Then for each $x \in O$, we can find a basis element $A_x$ such that $x \in A_x \subset O$. Since $\bigcup{x \in O} A_x = O$ and $O = \bigcup_{x \in O} A_x \in \cap \mathcal{T}\alpha$ ($\mathcal{T}\mathcal{A}$ contains $\mathcal{A}$ and is a topology) we have $O \in \cup \mathcal{T}\alpha$. Hence $\mathcal{T}\mathcal{A} \subseteq \cap \mathcal{T}\alpha$. Conversely, if $O$ is open in the intersection of all topologies containing $\mathcal{A}$, then $O$ is open in every topology; in particular, it is open in the topology generated by $\mathcal{A}$ (since $\mathcal{T}\mathcal{A}$ contains $\mathcal{A}$). Hence $\cap \mathcal{T}\alpha \subseteq \mathcal{T}\mathcal{A}$.
okeyokay
sanity check: the closed interval [0, 2] in R would be open under the lower limit topology, but not open under the K- topology right?
and then to show that the K-topology is not contained within the lower limit topology, it suffices to just take (0, 1) - K right
where K consists of all 1/n such that n is a positive integer
[0, 2] is not open in lower limit topology
(0, 1) - K is open in the lower limit topology
Wait how
What's an open neighbourhood of 2
Oh ya true lol
That's kinda the point of the lower limit topology btw, you get the half open intervals [a,b) containing the lower limit, but not the other half open intervals (a,b]
No ya idk what I was thinking
Hey guys, Idk if any of you have worked with Armstrong's textbook before, but I'm slightly confused here: here L is a simply connected, path connected subcomplex of path-connected K and we want to compute the edge group E(K,v). He says that we can therefore ignore simplexes of L and thus says the generator g_ij = 1 if v_i v_j span a simplex of L.
However, isn't this only true if we take say v_k v_i v_j v_l and replace it with v_k E_k^{-1} E_l v_l where E_n is a path in L connecting the basepoint v_0 to v_n?
Idk if my question makes sense
Hmm, or I guess maybe it doesn't matter after all...
Is there a way to do this without using Kunneth theorem?
By cellular homology
What cellular structure would be the least painful here?
let's take the usual one on S^1 (one 0-cell e^0 and one 2-cell e^1) amd RP^2 (one 0-cell j^0, one 1-cell j^1, and one 2-cell j^2)
with the attaching map on RP^2 being the double loop around S^1
The cells for the product is the product of the cells
So you'd get something like 0 --> Z(e^1 x j^2) --> Z(e^1 x j^1) (+) Z(e^0 x j^2) --> Z(e^0 x j^1) (+) Z(e^1 x j^0)
(don't need to compute the first homology because of the fundamental group)
How would you figure out the maps here in terms of the generators?
by thinking about it idk

Yeah but attaching maps now aren't so straightforward
why
What is the attaching map of e^1 x j^2?
For e^1 its the constant map
And for j^2 its the map that goes twice around S^1
What will it be for the product tho?
You can't just take the product of the attaching maps
Because the boundary of the product is not the product of the boundary
idk i dont feel like thinking about this but you can see hatcher
the attaching maps are the products
appendix A i think
You're confusing characteristic maps for attaching maps
@red yoke Do you have any suggestions?
Ch.0 should have covered product complex constructions iirc
E.g. ∂(A×B) = A×∂B ∪ ∂A×B for cells A, B
This seems way too painful 
at least to write down
There's 6 cells 
Can someone help me write down the boundary maps?
Like I'm not sure what e^1 x j^2 maps to
I computed the homology groups and I'm getting H_2 = 0 and H_3 = Z
Using Kunneth, this is definitely not the case so I messed up but I cannot figure out why
why avoid Kuenneth 😭
But fr I'll have a think
I think a nice way to do this is to decompose $\mathbb{RP}^2$ using the affine charts, so like opens $U,V \cong \mathbb R^2$ with $U \cap V \simeq S^1$. Then Mayer-Vietoris tells you $H_n(S^1)^{\oplus 2} \to H_n(S^1 \times \mathbb{RP}^2) \to \tilde{H}{n-1}(T^2) \to \tilde{H}{n-1}(S^1)^{\oplus 2}$ is exact
Potato E-Girl
In particular, if n >= 3 then H_n(S^1 x RP^2) = \H_(n-1)(T^2)
n=1 is easy by pi_1, for example, so that reduces you to H_2
But this thing tells you H_2 is a submodule of Z^2, so in particular free, and then the rank can be read off from the sequence I've given
I think that works nicely
What is an example of a metric space whose closed and bounded subset isn't always compact?
Take open disk of radius 1 with the Euclidean metric. The ball of radius 2 is bounded, as well as closed.
but shouln't it be compact according to heine borel theorem?
Open ball is not complete
more generally, take any noncompact metric space (X,d) and equip it with the metric d'(x,y) = min{d(x,y),1}. you should check that d and d' both generate the same topology on X.
DarQ
No
The requirement is just that n-dim cells stick to the (n-1)-dim skeleton
Through any continuous map from its boundary to the skeleton
I know but I can't imagine the continuous map attaching to only part of a cell in the skeleton
Oh wait bruhhh
So if your 1-skeleton is just a 1 cell you can attach a 2-cell's boundary along any point in the 1 cell?
Ye

Then you have added a sphere
You can't do that with delta complexes, can you?
Where does S^1 \times RP^2 come from there, may I ask?
Just product the stuff I said w S^1
Oh. Sorry I was stupid 
No dw
i dont really understand the setup here, what is X?
likely just an arbitrary space
why does it need to exist
because that's how a path is defined? not quite sure what the question is
are we just like embedding delta^2 into X in some fashion for some reason?
there's a name for this kind of map but my mind is blanking gimme a sec
like im really confused as to if i can just say "the space is contractible so all closed paths are nullhomotopic" or not
this kind of map is called a "singular n simplex"
i dont understand why we use X and not just consider the maps in delta^2
seems weird and arbitrary
What do you mean the maps in Delta^2?
delta^2 is a space
also these maps seem not nullhomotopic, they seem like full loops
studying maps Delta^n -> Delta^n isnt really useful because they're homeomorphic
the ones the problem uses eps for
The purpose of this construction is to use the n simplices to study an arbitrary topological space
ah so its studying the way that this "loop" gets mapped into X?
how would i even start to show that its nullhomotopic?
oh it gives a hint
let me look at th 1.6
issue is that theorem mostly regards free homotopies
this is th 1.6 (f is any map from S^n to a space Y and its "the following are equivalent")
I’m working through Armstrong rn, and it’s quite terrible
wait sorry how is this the case
because if you have any interval [a, b) contained in (0, 1) - K, don't you have points of the form 1/n for positive integers n
is there any characterization of the open sets of the cofinite topology? i suspect that it's sets of the form R - O where O is finite, and of course R and the empty set
That’s the definition. What other definition do you have you want to compare it with?
well a set O under the cofinite topology is open iff R - O is finite
so I'm saying, that we can take the sets to be R - U themselves + R + empty set
Because R - (R - U) = U is finite
Why is arbitrary product of discrete spaces not necessarily discrete?
cantor space
I was trying to prove it by showing that singleton basis won't be a basis for it but idk if it makes sense.
Wait, what about it?
Cantor space is 2^omega, ie an infinite product of discrete spaces
but it's not discrete
What kind of discrete spaces can you please elaborate a bit?
What charts are you using?
2 is the discrete space of two points
(not necessarily discrete)
More general discrete spaces will result in the cantor space as well but I forget the details
The standard one requires 3 copies of R^2 doesn't it?
Edited 👍
well you still only need two of those charts to cover ig right
but i didn't think about what the intersection looks like
It's gonna be R^2 - a line I think?
Also if you're interested in a more like abstract reason why you shouldn't expect arbitrary products of discrete spaces to be discrete: given a set $X$, the discrete topology on $X$ is the largest topology you can put on $X$. But on a product of spaces, you put the smallest topology such that projections are continuous. So these two notions compete in some sense
Ahh
Potato E-Girl
the line where one coordinate is 0
In particular, note that the product topology is strictly contained in the box topology generally - let alone the discrete topology
Since it's [x_0,x_1,x_2] where two of them are non-zero
And this is homotopic to the two point discrete space
This could work now
well removing a line from R^2 leaves us with two copies of R^2 basically
Okay true lol
and these are disjoint
But sometimes it can be discrete right
The product
I'm pretty sure it is never discrete if you have an infinite product unless like lots of the spaces are singletons or empty sets lol
Because uh if $X$ is a space and $\emptyset \subsetneq U \subsetneq X$ any proper open subset, then like e.g. $\prod_i U \subseteq \prod_i X$ isn't open
Potato E-Girl
And then this generalises to, say, if every space in your product is discrete and has cardinality > 1
For finite products, yes it'll still be discrete
And also silly cases, like an infinite product of singletons lol
but you can always pull out the singletons into a single point and then be left with a product of bigger sets, and if that product is still infinite then argument above still works
Any product of compact spaces is compact, but the only compact discrete spaces are the finite ones
[i should say proper, non-empty in words, but the notation is clear]
Lol was gonna say your solution requires choice / more tools, but in fact so does any proof aha
since ofc otherwise the product could be empty and hence somewhat vacuously discrete
nice
actually i don't think this is true
i agree
you miss a point
i was thinking too mucha bout RP^1 today lmao
i think also like
lol okay this is nice
well yeah so mod 2 cohomology of RP^n is F_2[x]/x^(n+1) so in particular RP^n can't be covered by < n contractible opens
¯_(ツ)_/¯
Wait
S^1 is RP^1
We could try doing the same thing with that
Something seems wrong here
Is the converse of Product of T1 spaces is T1 true?
Okay so let U_0 and U_1 be the usual covers of S^1
If you have a product of spaces that is T1, then is it necessary for the components to be T1 too?
Then U_0 x RP^2 and U_1 x RP^2 cover S^1 x RP^2
U_i is homotopic to a point
U_0 cap U_1 is homotopic to the two-point discrete space
This gives an exact sequence H_n(RP^2 U RP^2) --> H_n(RP^2) (+) H_n(RP^2) --> H_n(S^1 x RP^1) --> H_{n-1}(RP^2 U RP^2)
is this correct?
But using the disjoint union of homology thing, this would imply that the homology of RP^1 x RP^2 is trivial
@unreal stratus Do you see anything wrong here?
here, could you just take an irrational number p, so that [p, p + e) is open under the lower limit topology but not open under the topology generated by C
nvm i figured it out
what does this rigorously mean? does this just mean, say let L = [0, 1], so there's a simplical approximation s: |L^m| -> |K| of the path f: |L^m| -> |K|, and we let this "edge" path be s?
other than that, i can't really make sense of this garble since a path is a function and an edge path isn't...
also can somebody help me make the last two sentences precise
i can't believe this is in a formal proof
so we would consider |T'| to be |T| union the simplex spanned by v_i and v_i + 1 right?
I think so? A space is T1 if every map from the Sierpinski space S is constant. Suppose for contraposition that one of the factors is not T1, then there exists a nonconstant map from S to it. You might be able to construct a nonconstant map to the product from this and hence conclude that the product is not T1. I think this will use choice again
Could we do something more general using the lifting property formulation of the seperation axioms and show that this works for all of them?
How often does it happen that a property which is preserved by limits is also "reflected" by them?
I never ever think about this, odd
Would just LEM be enough? If a component is empty, then the product is empty which is trivially T1
Well
Okay
You need all the spaces nonempty
Otherwise take a non-T_1 space and product it with the empty set
oh right
Every edge path can be made into a path by linear interpolation and every path can be made into an edge path by simplicial approximation. Furthermore, turning an edge path into a path and then back into an edge path like this yields the original edge path and turning a path into an edge path and then back into a path yields a homotopic path to the original path.
So we can safely conflate them if we only care about paths up to homotopy
I'm not sure whether there's a general reason for when this happens
Ya
This is not a formal proof and almost all proofs that mathematicians write are not formal either
i thought proofs are formal by nature
anyways you know a lot more than me, so yeah you're probably right
Nope
Formalizing things is a bitch
So usually it's not done like purely formally
hmm interesting
In addition, most formal proofs are unintelligible
yea i'm sure producing explicit homotopies or whatever is a pain
so then like
if that's the case, how can we verify something is true
wait that sounds dumb
no its a good question
because don't you need some level of rigor to verify things
is it just an experience thing
If a piece of text convinces most mathematicians (that understand that piece of text) that some fact is true, then you could say that it's a proof
Or maybe something is a proof if the act of understanding it also means being convinced of its truth?
Anyways, we're not really doing philosophy here, just mathematical practice
There's a reason that a lot of details are stated informally in some stuff: we know they're true because someone checked them, but it's a pain to reproduce again and again, and provide no insight. So you end up with more "handwavy" proofs like this.
(we hope someone has...)
i see
The "not providing insight" is important: if your proof is completely bloated with boring details then not many people will understand it and hence we might even say that it's not a proper mathematical proof
cough cough page long logic symbol proof cough cough
isn't that just a conjecture lol
The line gets blurry with things that seem obvious (at first sight)

No I mean they claim that they have a proof but it never sees the light of day. Such things end up as like "folklore" results: they're well known, but nobody has an actual reference for them
oh yeah i've heard of those
An example I came across: the fact that the category of delta-generated spaces is locally presentable was a folklore result for a few years: Smith claimed it when he first suggested them (in a paper which literally doesn't exist), but no proof existed for a few years
From Barwick "The future of Homotopy Theory"
that is very interesting yeah
i always thought the reason that like
proofs of some results were hundreds or even thousands of pages long is because they involved breaking the problem into small steps
coupled with tedious verifications
Yeah I've read that note... Note sure I've done quite enough homotopy theory yet to fully understand this "culture" referenced, but I thought there were some valid complaints
ryx this is kinda of a vague question but what subject do you think interests you the most
you seem to be a big fan of topology and category theory lol
Well, my work so far has mostly been in topology and category theory (in particular, homotopy theory), so that's why lol
But I generally find most things interesting
oh cool
I'm not "oh I only do algebra I hate analysis" no I quite like my analysis courses too 
based
real analysis is interesting but i'm sure there's a lot of other cool stuff involved in analysis too
Analysis is fun
what are delta-generated spaces again lol
hm
oh fair enough
how did they get that the fundamental group of X is a free group on n generators?
X is delta generated if it has the finest topology with respect to continuous maps from all simplices to X
(In fact, I believe it turns out to be sufficient to look at maps from \bbR to X)
anyone?
ye nice
characterising them as small colimits of simplices is cool
Whoa. Small?
Hm.
Yes
yeah according to nlab
This is due to Vogt
Oh really
I believe
Okay cool I wasn't sure if it'd be some trivial consequence
Wait, I knew this.
Vogt has a paper "Convenient Categories of Topological Spaces for Homotopy Theory "
Did I ? I proved something similar to this independently like a year go
What are delta-generated spaces used for? Me new to this
before i knew about vogt's paper
I imagine yeah a convenient category
Or do they have any particular applications in homotopy theory
In which this is shown in generality, for a notion of (insert subcategory here)-generated spaces
The smallness here comes from Delta being small
vogt and boardman feel too underated
(blah blah small dense subcategory or whatever)
I more meant that you get all small colimits rather than just simpler ones
Ok nvm. The thing I figured out was that the unit interval suffices.
You don't need higher simplices
Oh sure
Oh yeah, that just comes from being coreflective and full
Like, knowing something is (co)reflective in a bicomplete category is very strong for this reason
This is a standard exercise, van Kampen/ convince yourself by looking at concrete loops
Yeah, I forget exactly who this is due to. Some combination of Haraguchi, Kihara, or Christensen-Sinnamon-Wu, I think.
Anyways, these ones being locally presentable is very nice. Other convenient categories such as k-spaces or CGWH are nice in their own regard, but they are not locally presentable
Why do we have both homology and cohomology
When one can be defined as a dual of the other.
Cohomology has cup product so why not just go with that?
Why discard the other
Idk, too many things to learn?
Can you prove this as follows:
Let X be Delta-generated.
You have a comonad G which spends each X to \coprod_n\coprod_{f : \Delta^n -> X} \Delta^n
You have a canonical map from G(X) -> X
Then take the kernel pair of this, call that Y. You have a canonical map G(Y) -> Y
Now you want to prove that X is the coequalizer of the two maps G(Y) -> G(X)
Which i guess is equivalent to saying it has the quotient topology
i.e. iff the map G(X) -> X is a quotient map.
Ok nvm i'm convinced this works.
Am I?
Yes
Really?
I hate endless learning before ever getting to research level
Absta there's something interesting called the cap product which describes a relationship between homology and cohomology. It shows up in the theory of Poincare duality.
If you are studying continuous maps from a simplicial complex X into a more pathological space Y, it is easier to use simplicial homology than cohomology.
Ah I see, thanks
Vogt shows that there's a canonical way to identify that coequalizer so that it has the underlying set of X, so then it really just becomes a question about topologies on X
iirc, at least
Perhaps I would never get to the research level 
Yeah that makes sense.
It is definitely clear by construction that the underlying set agrees with X.
I had to think about it for a minute to be sure that the quotient topology is correct, but after thinking about it for a minute i think that it just follows immediately from the definition of delta generated.
yup
Homology groups are the homotopy groups of chain complexes (i.e. simplicial R-modules, which are Kan complexes)
Anyways, yeah they're a pretty cute category of spaces. I know there are some more specific reasons to prefer categories such as CGWH (something about quotients of spaces in CGWH being in CGWH again? As opposed to modified topologies on them), unsure if this also holds in DTop
Huh, homotopy groups?
But I know a bit too much about specific types of spaces lol, I gotta start learning other things
Oh. So simplicial complex is just one of Kan complex
Simplicial sets are a nice kind of topological spaces, if they have the Kan property, there is an easy definition of homotopy groups for them which corresponds to the standard one. If all the sets are actually abelian groups (or R-modules) and the boundary/degeneracy maps all homomorphisms, then it is always Kan. In addition, these simplicial R-modules correspond precisely with chain complexes. The homotopy of the simplicial R-module is the homology of the corresponding chain complex.
A simplicial complex is usually something different entirely.
it's okay, I still don't know what (co)homology is
Ah so simplicial complex is just too simple in this area
Yeah, it's more a bit of motivation than anything precise
Not simple per se, just not that common in homotopy theory
Hmm
It's not that important to distinguish between a simplicial complex and a simplicial set until you start working with concrete theorems about them. At the level of intuition they're basically the same, it's just slightly different formalizations.
There's a fully faithful embedding of simplicial complexes into symmetric simplicial sets, so I think of simplicial complexes as nice symmetric simplicial sets.
A symmetric simplicial set is not a simplicial set but it's very similar.
A simplicial set you can think of as being like. Just a response to the fact that there's not a sensible Cartesian product of simplicial complexes.
And we get function spaces for free!
Yeah, that's also a nice property
cartesian closure my beloved
Hmm
is the point of the "symmetric" part basically to forget the ordering you have with simplicial sets?
Yes.
It's not the greatest language.
You can do without, but you get a way bigger space (which is still weak htpy eqv)
this reminds me that i meant to learn smth about simplicial modules stuff today lol
Well, just there's the general fact that the π_* functor sset -> graded abelian groups commutes with filtered colimits
i guess this is basically compactness in some form
Oh nice in Goerss-Jardine (and now sorry for talking to myself lol)
Homotopy equivalent because they're both simplicial complexes right
Ok. Yeah.
but i forget the details...
It's alright I'm not in the mood to grill you on it
Ooh yea okay, gotcha 👍
Can a non-metrizable space be totally bounded or is it a definition specifically associated with metric spaces? I think it's the latter but I am not sure.
Maybe you can generalize it to bornological spaces (ie, spaces with a notion of bounding)
good intuition!
Can someone explain why they are looking at the homotopy class of the braiding map?
Also, what do they mean by "exchanging the top left" here?
Lol barely, I mean this is more or less the definition of compact objects right lol
Hehe
what does $S^2 \vee S^1 \vee S^1$ look like
anamono
i.e. can anyone draw me a picture lol
Like a sphere and a circle and a circle all touching at one point
like this?
S1 is a unit circle though(?)
yea but u get the idea
i tried to draw it like one circle in front of the other
like a butterfly's wings
this is why i do math and not art
doesn't need to be no
Oh
CW complex with a 0-cell and a 1-cell 
1d compact Lie group 
(tho metric spaces are hidden in defn ig)
cw complexes are defined in terms of Dk so wouldn't that be circular
I mean you can just define this as gluing the two endpoints of a closed interval together, without necessarily specifying which interval this is
you can define the homotopy type of S^1 in a much more universal way than this without specifying a space
$S^1\simeq*\coprod_{\amalg}*$
nGroupoid
(as a homotopy pushout this gives you the homotopy type of S^1)
it's probably hard to construct the actual topological space S^1 without using some metrizable space like an interval or R, but it's not like the space remembers any of this metric information when it's considered as a topological space alone
waw
fr
yeah i was wondering if there were some characterizaton in terms of connectedness or something, but i guess that would only be a partial characterization
its the only compact, connected one-manifold without boundary
waw
is the one point compactification of R homeomorphic to S1 ?
yes
but not the extended real numbers
the extended reals are already compact
no, the one point compactification of R is not the same as [-infty, infty]
the extended reals are homeomorphic to [0, 1]
oh right
Adding two points is more than one!
ngl that's where i often go wrong, basic arithmetic
i felt the need to write explicitly 1+1 = 2 < 3 in my complex analysis exam the other day

cannot be too careful
It’s even true in greater generality for R^n and S^n
Makes sense when you look at the stereographic projection and what prevents it from being global
i should bring an abacus to my next exam so that i never end up doing 2 * 3 = 5 again 
i was familiar with the n=2 case and generalized from one example

been there
god i really want an excuse to look into "pointless topology," the name is too funny, and i really don't like bothering with points
.<
point-based topology vs point-cringe topology
i am looking to do more logic in the future, and i hear there is some applications there
but yes i really should take the advice of my seniors and get comfortable with the standard approaches to things first

but i really like approaching things historically and peeking into the paths people did not take
anyone know a introductory book on point set topology with historical commentary along the way?
good
honestly just try alg top :)
Well okay you needn't, but I think it's a lot more fun for most people after doing pointset stuffs
Locales ("pointless" spaces) have connections with topoi, which have connections with logic
i will

assuming i will survive life outside of studies, which is not at all given, ehehe
also aggresively Bourbaki examples are always a trip
I have trouble in proving arbitrary union of open sets is open for this topology. My proof is, excluding the empty set and R, arbitrary union would be (−∞,n) if we could find a largest n among the open sets, otherwise the union would be R. Can someone check this for me? Thanks.
yes, this works just fine.
Thank you!
Of course if you really wish you could prove it more rigorously but yes i'd be happy with this
Hello
I was curious if the map x -> -x was nullhomotopic
Here x is in S1
Intuitively it feels as tho it should be
Do you mean I can write it more formally or there is a more rigorous way to prove it?
oh i mean you could write it more formally but depends on your courses' preferences
this is basically the only way to prove it though
This map is just rotation by 180 degrees, so yes it would be nullhomotopic
It’s a homeomorphism, so it’s not null
It’s a homotopic to the identity, not to a constant map
Ah I see
But if I compose it with a nulhomotopic map
You get another nullhomotopic map
If you compose anything with a null map, you get a null map
I have a topology question that needs answer for my thesis. In the hit documentary Attack on Titan
there was a popular theory that Eren had actually stayed on Paradis Island by remote controlling the Founding titan via a power of the Warhammer Titan, which allows a shifter to control their titan outside of the nape by encasing the user in a diamind external to the titan and connected via a flesh cable. The question is, how would Eren have accomplished this without having a very visible and very detacheable (if the cable detaches he loses control of the titan) cable dragging across hundreds of miles of surface land as a weakspot?
. Image of remote controlled WH for reference

When did they change the channel description?

can someone ask an actual question so I can get this whatever thing off my screen
Take your lorentzian manifold of choice. Deform two separated flat region into half sphere shapes. Cut off the interior, take the quotient space identifying the boundaries and make sure the metric is compatible with the new structure. Pull the wire through the shortcut.
Only do this with an adult present. For the quotening use good glue, none of the cheap stuff.
Topological glue is the good stuff!
the strong stuff
okay so i had an idea... is the rough idea for the first problem here to collapse the loop in Delta^2 to e1 (ie, show that eps_0 * eps_1^-1 * eps_2 is nullhomotopic rel I dot) and then compose that with sigma?
From Loring W. Tu's Intro to Manifolds book:
I'm having trouble understanding in what sense the fibers are preserved. Is φ(Ep) a fiber of π'?
no but it's contained in a fiber
that's my understanding as well, which leads to confusion. clearly fibers arent mapped to fibers, so what's preserved?
the base point?
with only this definition i would agree with you that it seems more natural to call a map fiber-preserving if it maps whole fibers to whole fibers. but if you go on to see some examples you'll see that this is way too restrictive
the relevant diagram commutes
[\begin{tikzcd}[column sep=0.3em] E \ar[rr, "\phi"] \ar[dr, "\pi" swap] & & E' \ar[dl, "\pi' "] \ & M & \end{tikzcd}]
quasi_semi_group
in order to show that some topology T is contained with the topology generated by a subbasis S, does it suffice to show that for every x in a basis element B of T, there exists S' as an element of S with x in S' contained in B? i'm a little bit confused since i'm not entirely sure this criterion is valid since i'm not sure S is a basis
actually let me just ask a more straightforward question: is the topology generated by a subbasis S just defined to be the unions of all finite intersections of elements of S
Yes
ok cool
"Being in the fiber"ness
Maybe this is skill issue but T-invariant subspace also sounds weird to me
i'm a little confused, is this just saying that the order topology is one of the canonical choices of topologies to place on R, or is it saying that the order topology and the standard topology coincide
The order topology and the topology induced by the metric coincide.
hm ok
@coral pivot what's your opinion on that?
lol
lol
why is it that this set isn't open in the order topology? given $x \in {\frac{1}{2}} \times (\frac{1}{2}, 1]$, $x = {\frac{1}{2}} \times x_1$ for some $x_1 \in (\frac{1}{2}, 1]$, and wouldn't $U = (\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2} \times 1)$ be a basis element such that $x \in U \subseteq {\frac{1}{2}} \times (\frac{1}{2}, 1]$?
okeyokay
too lazy to add \bigl(
definition of open is "every point in the set is a point in a basis element contained in the set"
and here the issue is the point (1/2, 1)
by the way, the same phenomenon happens for subspaces of R
can i get some help showing R^n is not homeomorphic to R^m using connectedness
i’ve shown that R is not homeomorphic to R^n but i can’t adapt the proof
what was ur proof for this?
to lazy to add big but not lazy enough to write x/y instead
That’s a hard theorem. I don’t think you can do it with just connectedness. You can use pi_1 to distinguish R^2 from higher
i defined a homoemorphosm from R to R^n and then restricted its domain to like R - {0} and one was connected and the other wasn’t
okay. so u poked a 0-dimensional hole in R
what if you tear a “one-dimensional hole” in R^2 if you have a homeomorphism R^2 —> R^3
R^2 cut the real line perhaps
R^n is homogeneous, so no matter which point you remove, the complement is homeomorphic. But there are lots of ways of embedding a circle in R^n. There’s only way to embed it by a lipschitz map, but there are crazy fractals with crazy complements
Good puzzle: Can you find a pair of embedded RP^2's in RP^3 which (necessarily non-transversely) intersects at a single point?
so i should restrict it to R^n-1?
Never heard of them but I'd check those out
Thanks
god i’m looking back at the notes i took in the lectures we covered quotient spaces and i don’t understand any of it

three different diagrams with different types of functions and i’ve no idea what they’re saying
i probably did not understand when i wrote this down either, two months ago now, should’ve asked someone about this then, oh well
no, i’m just saying look at this specific case for some more intuition
i know the intuition of gluing together, and taking equivalence classes makes perfect sense, but these factorings of different kinds of functions did not at all to me
Like, the universal property of quotient spaces?
i’m not sure if just one or all of the diagrams were the universal property
certainly one of them
Rishi
ignore ^^
There is also another way by using lifting lemma
Look at map G’xG’->GxG and lift to G’xG’
hm
I figured out my issue here ^
how would you do it this way?
im a bit confused
remember something about lifting
X'
| p
Y → X
if π_1(Y) ⊂ p* π_1(X')
can you do something similar for this diagram?
G'
/ |
(m'?)/ | p
/ v
G'xG' → GxG → G
pxp m
If X is a separable, are there no functions f : X → X continuous only on a countable dense subset of X? Also, are there non-Hausdorff separable spaces? If there are, assume also that X is Hausdorff
I half remember that you can't have functions f : ℝ → ℝ continuous only on ℚ, so I'm trying to see how much this generalises
if p: Y -> X is a covering map, and f: X -> X is a map
is there a lifting criterion on f so that there exists some lift f: Y -> Y?
I think the criterion is if f preserves the conjugacy class of the fundamental group of Y in the fundamental group of X
In a complete metric space, if the set of continuity for some function is dense, it can't be countable.
It follows from Baire's theorem
so, it the lift exists if f(p(pi_1(X))) = g p(pi_1(y)) g^-1 for some g in pi_1(X)?
fp(π1(Y)) ⊂ p(π1(Y)) should be an equivalent condition
Can you just share these diagrams there
This condition is not invariant under charge of base point, which is why you need conjugation
does that matter if all the spaces involved are path-connected?
also, another general question
i've got a normal cover p: Y -> X
since its a normal cover, that means that p(pi_1(Y)) is a normal subgroup of pi_1(X)
which means that its the kernel of some group homomorphism pi_1(X) -> G
how can i determine what G is?
Well G is the cokernel of p_*
So basically you have to compute what p does on fundamental groups
$\Sigma_{k} c_{k}(V)t^{k} = [I + i\frac{tr(\Omega)}{2\pi}t + i\frac{tr(\Omega^{2}) - tr(\Omega)^{2}}{8\pi ^{2}}t + ...]$?
det(\frac{it\Omega}{2\pi} + I)
Is this directly expanded from the $det(\frac{it\Omega}{2\pi} + I)$ form using the identity tr(log(A)) = log(det(A))
det(\frac{it\Omega}{2\pi} + I)
yes
Also remember you can use \sum
Seeing sigma like that in a topology context confused me aha
Thanks, I suck at latex 
It pays to consider how you do it in the reverse! It might be easier to see after you do some things like that
A common type of technique/question is, given a finitely presented group G, you can realize it as the quotient of a free group on the generators. Try to realize this in terms of regular covering spaces
More easily, it's the characteristic polynomial of iOmega/2pi
Thanks
The coefficients are then computed by "diagonalizing" and using Newton's formulae
I have a silly question regarding quotient topology. I understand that it can be thought of as gluing points to together which belong to the same equivalence class so [0,1] can be mapped to S1 but I don't get why we want open sets to map to open sets only from the definition. I can't intuitively think of what will go wrong if we don't have a quotient topology and if there are other ways to "glue" the points.
We want the quotient map to be continuous, and nothing more
There are other ways to glue points, for example by gluing each to one of the endpoints of an interval
That's not homeomorphic to the usual quotient, but it is homotopy equivalent
More precisely, the quotient topology "inherits" as many open sets as possible
So we are defining a homeomorphism?
We have the function already, we just define the quotient topology so that the function is continuous
we're not asking for open -> open. [0,a) does not map to an open set, for example
what we want is for a neighborhood of a point to be open if the preimage under the canonical surjection is also open, which is like preserving open sets like arki said
Moreover, if q: M → N is a quotient, S is a space and r: N → S is a function of sets, then rq is continuous iff r is continuous
What function are we talking about here?
q(x) = [x]
if your canonical map is not continuous, then something probably went wrong. topology is the study of continuous maps, after all
i think you might be looking for a more geometric answer though
So say you have a continuous function S² → R and you realize that antipodal points have the same value. Using this property, you can turn this into a continuous function RP² → R.
That's the "universal property" of quotients
P2 is the set of antipodal points right?
Ye
So it "inherits" continuous functions from the original space
Which is what you care about RP² in geometry
Now it makes sense. Thanks.
Does alexander's trick (https://www.wikiwand.com/en/Alexander's_trick) prove that the only knot which bounds an embedded disk is the unknot?
Yeah, I'm just waiting for the semester to be over so I can switch books... found both Hatcher and Armstrong terrible... hoping that Rotman, which seems my best option, will be good
Hey, I'm slightly unsure about this finishing argument here... it seems that Armstrong is arguing that if we have an element whose abelianization is the identity, then the element must be in the commutator subgroup. Is this true?...
I'm having trouble showing that the operations on a simply connected covering space of a topological group are continuous (I've shown the covering space is a group, that the projection is a group morphism, etc.). I've tried a lot of things but they haven't worked
Out of curiosity why do you not like Hatcher? This semester, the textbook was Armstrong and it was so bad that I started studying from another book entirely, but I was planning on reviewing point set and going w Hatcher
The problem I experienced with Hatcher was that it made very little use of point-set topology. Hatcher seems to be hand-wavy on a lot of things which I didn't like, so I'm planning on going with Rotman who, I've heard, is a lot more rigorous. From what I've heard, a lot of people have the same experience with Hatcher and say that it's rather supposed to be a second-course book on algtop which is also how I'm planning on approaching Hatcher in the future - mb also as a reference sometimes for material from chapter 0 and 1 which I covered. Though this is just my experience and other people might be completely fine with Hatcher
I see, yeah I hate hand waviness so I’ll give Rotman a look then
As an alternative or just a future supplement, I've noticed that my university has notes written for Hatcher which, from a quick skim-through, seem to write a lot of the stuff out rigorously. I've attached it here.
I'll still go with Rotman, but for anyone looking at Hatcher, I think it'd be a nice supplement
Not really. It is quite easy to prove that the only knot which bounds an embedded disk is an unknot: Suppose K is a knot and D is an embedded disk bounding it. Then K = delD is a circle of radius 1 in D. Push K along D and isotope it to a circle of tiny radius around the center. This is obviously an unknot. So you have isotoped K to be an unknot.
There is some extra care required in this argument if D is not smoothly embedded and only topologically embedded (one must replace the top embedding by a smooth one). But these are mostly non-issues
What are some knot theory book recommendations for someone who is familiar with the main sections of Hatcher 1-3? Are there other prerequisites one should be comfortable with?
thanks!
Rolfsen perhaps. I like Saveliev's 3-manifolds book
Rolfsen is very vivid and easy going
Wait isn't that just the alexander's trick isotopy?
Not really, it's the isotopy which radially shrinks the unit circle to a circle of radius epsilon > 0 in the disk
Alexander trick is about isotopy of self-homeomorphims of the disk. Yes, a radial homotopy is involved, but that doesn't make this simple straightline homotopy the "Alexander trick"
i thought you said it pushes along D, like outwards
Thanks! ❤️
bump
what is your definition of the operation on Gtilde
you take the paths from a fixed base point in G tilde to the points tha you want to multiply
actually
let me just send a ss
so points in Gtilde are homotopy classes of paths with a fixed starting point in G, to you
what youre doing is sort of messed up
huh
once you have xtilde, ytilde in Gtilde, why on earth bother about paths to them starting from identity
typo, edited. my statement stands
oop
wdym like
I've defined multiplication the way the problem wants me to define it
simply-connected covering space of G
thats it? no explicit definition?
like
aka apriori you do not know that it exists?
define the points in G tilde?
im just asking what you know
yes, roughly
state it for me
if you have a path in the base space then there's a unique lift to a path in the covering space by giving a fixed point for the path in the cover
thats the path lifting lemma, which is a special case of the map lifting lemma
i was asking about the latter
ok thats fine
I was trying to understand what you have in your repository
Do you know an explicit construction of a simply connected covering space of a space
That would help
It’s going to hurt to prove the map you constructed is continuous without knowing some of these
Because you just have some abstract definitions available to you.
Nothing concrete
Yeah... the only idea i've had so far is like
the only notion of openness that we have
is that I'm given that there are continuous maps in the base space
and that p is a local homeomorphism
right
This is what the map lifting lemma enables you.
but then I don't know how to show like for products
that if I have U V in the base space (i get these by projecting down W tilde)
then i want my U tilde V tilde to be the lifts of those sets
but then I'm not sure how to show that those U tilde V tilde actually multiply into W tilde
Let me tell you something a little more concrete. You can incorporate this in your solution to make life easier.
Before I start, what is G here? A topological group such that X Y Z…?
X = Path connected, anything else?
Its a genuine question. Its not true that every topological group has a simply connected cover.
You need hypothesis
Just trying to understand what hypothesis you are given
I'm given that G is a topological group, G is path-connected, G has continuous maps (inverses and products) (I mean isn't this part of what it means to be topological group lol?), and it has the simply-connected covering G tilde
that's it
OK, that’s part of the hypothesis!
No, I meant that it has a simply connected cover is part of the hypothesis.
Very strange homework, I hate it. Its needlessly abstract.
💀
Not in general, no.
ok im also given locally path-connected
In general thats also not enough to admit a simply connected cover.
o
A space admits a simply connected cover if and only if it is path connected, locally path connected and “semilocally simply connected”
ahhh I've heard that before
when my prof writes "let i: A subset X" it means i is the the function that takes each a in A to itself in X, right?
wonderful, thank you
I also don't know what it means
Semilocally simply connected means for any point p in X, there exists a neighbourhood U of p, such that any loop in U starting and ending at p, is nullhomotopic in X
whats nullhomotopic?
Homotopic (rel p) to the constant loop at p.
Given all the hypothesis above, here’s a construction of a simply connected covering space of X. Fix a basepoint p in X. Define Xtilde to be the set of all equivalence classes of paths starting at p, f : [0, 1] -> X, f(0) = p, where you say two such paths f, g are equivalent if f(1) = g(1) and f, g are path-homotopic.
This is a set. We need to give it a topology.
We do it by specifying the basic open sets. The basic open sets around a particular point f in Xtilde looks like {g in Xtilde : g(1) is in a neighbourhood U of f(1)}
U varying over all possible open neighborhoods of f(1) in X.
There is a map ev : Xtilde -> X (ev for “evaluation”) given by ev(f) = f(1). Check that wrt the above topology ev is continuous, and in fact is a local homeomorphism, and moreover in fact a covering map.
It remains to check Xtilde is simply connected. This is not too hard, and is a good exercise.
Use this description in the exercise above. Define the multiplication on Gtilde directly, using similar idea as in your write-up. You’ll see that the problem has simplified considerably.
because I have more concreteness with what is considered open?
Yup
I forgot how to compute again
So the basic example stopped computable for me
Say, X = [0, 1] and A = {1/n : n \in N} \cup {0}
How do I compute H_1 (X / A) ?
My computation gives that it should be countably generated since X/A is practically countable wedge product of S^1's
But apparently this does not hold
Is this another of the Hawaiian ring moment?
i mean, it's not
basically yes
Gah, Hawaiian ring
you can take paths in X and jump from point to point within A sort of
if you think about paths that way then you can actually do infinitely many jumps in one path
since points in A get really close etc
Pretty sure you can basically encode infinite binary sequences this way
How do you do infinitely many jumps, and why is this impossible for simple wedge product?
Any hints for this one?
Can get Infinitely many by gluing together short paths
Think binary expansions
Then for normal wedge product you can just use compactness of I ig
Ahh, as we have many distinct open sets in normal wedge product
I still do not get how the binary expansions are linearly independent, or at least that you cannot reduce the generating set.
Wait, is countable direct sum of integers countable?
Yes
Wedge sum of circles has fundamental group being direct sum of integers
Does binary expansion refer to a sequence indicating whether a path loops around each circle?
Notice the "number of loops" around each circle is invariant under path-homotopy
i don't really see how we necessarily need Y to be convex in either for a to be a lower bound or upper bound for Y?
And addition of paths leads to addition of number of loops
So the fundamental group of earring is at least as large as direct product of integers
Which is uncountable
X = R, Y = (0, 1) ∪ (2, 3), a = 2.5
R - 0 as a subset of R
wait convex sets in R are just intervals right
i guess that's how intervals were defined in my real analysis course
Yes, since they're (path) connected, and the only connected subsets of R are intervals
(open, closed, half-open, rays)
I think so
oh so it's just that if Y is not convex, there exists a1, a2 in Y with a1 < b < a2 but b not in Y, so in general it's not true that if a is not in Y and Y is not convex then a is a lower or upper bound for Y?
i guess that's contradiction
Yea, I was curious if it was uncountably generated.
Ye it is
How do you show that?
I see that direct product of integers embeds into the homology, but I don't see how the direct product is uncountably generated.
Since a countable direct sum is countable, an uncountable free module is uncountably generated
do bases of a topological space always exist? can we just take X?
I see. But is countable direct product of Z free?
The topology is a basis of itself
Hmm, this article indicates it is not free @red yoke https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Baer–Specker_group
In mathematics, in the field of group theory, the Baer–Specker group, or Specker group, named after Reinhold Baer and Ernst Specker, is an example of an infinite Abelian group which is a building block in the structure theory of such groups.
Wait what
Am I misinterpreting the article?
But the same argument should work
Same argument?
Countably many elements only generate countably many elements, so uncountable Abelian groups is not countably generated
Ah, indeed.
Since an abelian group cannot be bigger than free group of its generating set
Well btw, so is countable direct product of Z a free abelian or no
Free abelian groups are reflexive !
I think I am going to screw up final too 
I forgot Regularity of deck transformations so I have to review that, and need to go through homology exercises as well..
Homotopy lifting theorems as well
Algtop is so tricky
is the hopf fibration the only way to express S^3 as the total space of a fiber bundle?
||S^3 x {*} -> {*} and S^3 x {*} -> S^3 ||
But fr I mean there are other examples - for example S^3 is the universal cover of RP^3
S³ → S² → RP² 
Hi, anyone can suggest me a good source to better understand compactifications? (Base level)
Exercise: use Poincaré duality to show that if a closed manifold is the total space of a fiber bundle, the base and fiber satisfy Poincaré duality, which really limits the options
You can do silly stuff like S^3 -> S^2 and then compose with S^2 -> RP^2
This gives a fiber bundle with disjoint union of two circles as fibers
lel
But essentially that's the only thing yes
Yeah
As bw said, if X -> S^3 -> Y is a fiber bundle, X and Y are Poincare duality spaces. All PD spaces of dimension 1,2 are homotopy equivalent to manifolds
For manifolds, you can now go case by case. If Y is a surface, homotopy LES tells you pi_3 Y is nontrivial forcing Y = S^2 and RP^2 and the maps being either Hopf or Hopf composed stupid
If X is a surface, S^3 must be a mapping torus which is nonsense
Ok, there are fringe cases where either X or Y are 0-dimensional, where the answers have already been discussed
For completeness one should also show that X, Y are upto homeomorphism manifolds. If not you'll get something like: R^3 has a factorisation R^3 = U x V where U, V are not manifolds
I don't think this can happen but I do not have a proof
Lol sure
Let's try a special case. If X x R is homeomorphic to R^3, I conjecture X is homeomorphic to R^2
Why do you think that?
If it weren’t true, you’d already have heard the counter example
"No funny business in low dimensions"
What about X\times R homeo R2 does this also say X homeo R?
If yes, X x 0 sits inside R^2 as a separating subspace, thus bounds a domain above
Riemann mapping theorem should tell you X is a quotient of R
Sorry, only true if X is locally connected
The topologists sine curve also disconnects R^2, but isn't a quotient of R
But if X is not locally connected, neither is X x R = R^2 so that rules those out I suppose
So X is a quotient of R by Caratheodory's Riemann mapping theorem
cool
Start listing Hausdorff quotients of R which do not have any pi_1
There's only one, R, I am sure
sounds correct but hard to justify rigorously
some kind of bing shrinking seems like
This is nonsense, take R with a stick poking out of the origin
Clearly a quotient of R, fold an interval down the middle
These cannot occur because they have cut points of order > 2, X disconnects into more than 2 pieces if you remove these. So R^2 would disconnect into more than 3 pieces if you removed an embedded line from it, which is nonsense
So what are the quotients of R st all points are cut points of order 2?
That it is a Hausdorff quotient of R implies the space is metrizable, connected, locally connected. That it is a subspace of R^2 implies it is separable.
Above applies
So the answer to this question is YES
Good luck with this 🙂
thanks guys! ill have to take some time to read over all this
A good technique for this is local cohomology H^n(X,X-pt)
This satisfies a Kuenneth formula, so if AxB = R^2 and neither is a point, they must be disconnected by removing each point. No Riemann mapping
How do you prove they're connected/loc connected
Connected is easy
Locally connected obvious because I already said so OK
Good argument
Sounds like this might be useful for R^3
Local homology makes this a lot easier. It makes it a local argument
How do I show that $S^1$ and ${(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 | x < 1/2 } \setminus (-1, 0)$ are homotopy equivalent?
Spamakin🎷
Just struggling to come up with a map
Did you make a drawing?
ya
Then you have a map looking at you on the drawing 
Take a circle around the point (-1,0), and contract the space around it to that circle

