#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 67 of 1
Ok, topological spaces are really locales and forgetful functors dont count
i'm not really sure i'm understanding this diagram right - so for the big circle in the punctured plane, are we letting that be the open neighborhood of some point in the punctured plane which is evenly covered, and then each of the subdivisions in S^1 x R+ and R x R+ correspond to the slices?
It wasn't really a quiz I guess... I don't have an answer
also is that how we visualize S1 x R^+
just as a bunch of layered circles on top of each other
Nonsober spaces don't exist 
all my spaces are simplicial sets
my complex analysis professor was obsessed with this surface
"it's just a car park, just walk up the car park, it's just-"
LMFAOO
A hollow cylinder with open bottom, perhaps? Or, ya know, R^2 - {0} as you showed
oh that's fax
But I would say this is a bad image because it really seems to convey that it's a spiral, or that there are countably many. You took the product of S^1 with R+. There's uncountably many circles, and it should look like a line of some sorts.
looks like potato chips on a stick
wait that is not what is happening, this is a countably-infinite sheeted cover of the punctured plane. What we are doing is wrapping R around S1 in the usual way, and we get a cover from taking a helicoid-like object with the projection onto R^2. The R+ direction in this diagram is a radial line going outwards from the origin
I might have misinterpreted what okey sent, I thought that was still for his previous question.
oh ic
oh sorry yes yeah S1 x R+ is sort of like the entire punctured plane in this diagram
the "S1" coordinate specifies a sort of "angle" and the R+ direction is how far out from the origin you are, sort of like polar coordinates.
When you take R x R+, you are just saying the angles "don't have to be in [0,2pi)" like they normally would be if you were on the normal plane. then what this covering space is "saying" is that if you are traveling around the origin, and you get to a place where you are approaching 2pi, you can simply say that the angle that you have now is like, 5pi/2 and it will project back down to pi/2
this is useful because the complex logarithm depends on the angle, so its domain is actually that cover of the (punctured) complex plane, so we want to be able to take the logarithm of "complex numbers" with angles higher than 2pi.
so even though they correspond to the same point on C\(0,0), we say they are different points on the Riemann surface (covering space)
what exactly do nullhomotopic functions look like?
i tried drawing something like this
hmm
well i guess R^n has trivial fundamental group
so if i were to visualize this in R^2 then it'd be valid i think
(bc this is basically the straight line homotopy)
also how can i see that this is closed
😭
ah got it
S^1 is compact cuz it's closed and bounded and clearly I is compact so their product is compact and B^2 is a subset of a Hausdorff space so it's hausdorff
thanks
i need to remember that shit frfr i was aboutta spend hella time on it
compact hausdorff trick is like the main point set result to remember imo lol
if the geometric realization of a graph is compact, does that mean the graph is finite
graph as in graph theoretic graph
my thought is maybe not? like if i have a huge mess of a large graph and it's contained in a ball in R^3, then it won't be finite
we literally spedran point set so i did not learn it well at all
i'm planning to review that and other stuff over winter break which i did not learn well
Nah fair, I'm just highlighting it's useful since it probably doesn't seem useful when you first learn it
Didn't to me anyway
ok i managed to check/verify everything (well almost everything) except the last part where k is an extension of h. i just can't wrap my head around it lol/see it rigorously. obviously it has to do smt with the fact that H is a homotopy and you can factor through B^2 but i'm so lost man
ye
i mean i forgot about the result until now lol
think about what condition is required to factor through the quotient map
hint: we must have H (something something) on the equivalence classes of the quotient
but i'm worried that this embedding won't be the same as the geometric realization
hm ok i'll moved on but on my second/third reading i'll take a look at this
thanks

also the result generalizes to give an equivalence between nullhomotopic maps and cones
I am currently studying tology from Pugh's book Understanding Real Analysis but I was wondering if there is a solution manual. I have a midterm in a few weeks so I want to go through all of the exercises before that, but for a lot of them I have no idea what to do but maybe my intuition will improve if I see a few solved
Uh if a point x in a topological space X has a compact neighborhood then does it necessarily have a compact open neigborhood as well?
I'm asking because most of the time in topology I've seen you can freely interchange the terms nbhd and open nbhd with no consequence
But here the distinction seems important
if you consider R as a topological space, we know that any compact subset of R has to be closed and bounded. the only clopen subsets (and hence the only candidates for such an open compact neighborhood of a point x) are R itself (which is not bounded) and the empty set (which does not contain x, since it is empty)
but x does have compact neighborhoods for any x that you choose (they will be closed and not open!)
yeah and this is sort of one way to see why it’s important that a neighborhood be defined this way
i could make an open cover consisting of open balls of radius 2/3 centered at each vertex (covers 2/3 of each adjacent edge) and this wouldn't have a finite subcover if the graph was infinite
Yeah this is true for simplicial complexes in geberal
You can take open "stars" about each vertex
What if theres an infinite number of edges?
or (in a simplicial complex) infinite n-simplices
I guess you can take overlapping opens around each barycentre
because you're checking differentiability at a single point
nice
so just to check, the domain of the final display line function LHS
x~(U \cap U~ \cap f^-1(V) \cap f^-1(V~))?
what's f?
looks vaguely correct i guess lol
the precise details ain't too important. the crux of the proof is that last displayed equation
phi
weird how the book ignores the phi^-1 in the domain
just just considering 1 chart in each manifold, they talk about the function y * phi * x^-1 on x(U)
but i believe this needs to be on x(U \cap phi^-1(V))
to guarantee that whatever is going in y is in V
this is correct
idk why i deleted that. i was right lol
you can actually omit the \phi preimages if you choose U and \tilde{U} correctly
suppose V and \tilde{V} are charts at \phi(p). by continuity it's possible to find charts U and \tilde{U} at p with the property that their images under \phi are contained in V and \tilde{V}, respectively
(continuity lets you find such open sets, and then you can pick charts inside these opens)
then the domain becomes \tilde{x}(U \cap \tilde{U})
nice
"Let M be a smooth manifold and (U,x) be in the atlas. Then x:U -> R^d is smooth and the coordinate maps x_i = pi_d \circ x are smooth"
What does it mean for these maps to be smooth
like, we talk about smooth in terms of transition maps right
Can anyone give me a good intuition as to why we define reduced homology groups? Say H'n is the nth reduced homology group, then we already have H'n=Hn, and H'0=H0/Z (is it correct?), so why do we define it if it only alters the 0th homology group?
smoothness is defined in terms of charts. transition maps come in when you want to show that smoothness is independent of the choice of chart
i.e. when you wanna show that, if a mapping is smooth in one chart at a point, then it's smooth in every chart at that point
right, thats a smooth map between smooth manifolds
but in what context are these smooths
submanifold?
sure
U can be thought of as a manifold. x is a chart around every point
and the chart on R^d is just the identity map
but for U to be a C^k manifold we would need a maximal C^k atlas. Would taking the subset of the original atlas on M of all open sets subset of U work?
when you have an atlas, you have a unique maximal atlas containing it
so specifying one global chart is enough to call it a manifold
here, the global chart on U is x
idk this feels kinda weird set theoreticaly. just keep adding charts which are C^k compatible with everything else
ill just digest this
questions about smooth manifolds should probably go in #diff-geo-diff-top in the future
anyways, for once you've convinced yourself of the maximal atlas thing: you can prove that x is smooth quite easily if you take it to be the chart with which you check smoothness at every point of U
what is this trying to say
how is Z contained in E
can't we have the sierpinski space
what counterexample do you have in mind with the sierpinski space?
anyway you can directly check that a connected set A containing x will be a subset of any open and closed set B containing x.
that would have meant all connected components are singletons in a T1 space haha
Is p taken over all n-simplices of K for all n?
Okay i think I got it. Can someone verify?
Delta^n_{blah} is just Delta^n. The subscript is just there to keep track of stuff
So take all n simplices of K (i.e. maps Delta^n --> K)
We denote the n-simplex corresponding to x_n by Delta^n_x_n ---> K
It's hard to explain it in words
But basically
Say x_m is an m-simplex of K
Let f and f' be maps in the simplex category [n] --> [m] and [n'] --> [m], respectively
Then the first map is given by taking $\Delta^m_{x_m, f, f'} \longrightarrow \Delta^n_{x_m f}$ via $f$ and the second by $\Delta^m_{x_m, f, f'} \longrightarrow \Delta^{n'}_{x_m f'}$ via $f'$
Including both into the disjoint union
Will the coequalizer then be equal to K?
Finitely Many Bananas
Nevermind this is nonsense
Can someone help me out?
guys a wacky question
can I replace Z with R as the coefficient group?
for example $h_k(S^n)=\begin{cases} G & , k=n \ 0 & k\neq 0 \end{cases}$
Banana Split Exact Sequence
where G is the coefficient group
can I say $G=\mathbb{R}$ instead of $G=\mathbb{Z}$?
Banana Split Exact Sequence
I mean R is an abelian group under +
You can take all abelian groups as coefficient groups, there’s a general construction
What
What is S^1 * S^1 here
Maybe the join?
Absta
My keyboard lacks multiplication sign, sadly
x
Rip
×
kind of confused, how do we view \delta as a chain complex
not sure what your question is
you view it as a chain complex by setting every chain group except those two to zero and then the given differential is the only non zero differential
oh true
my life continues to be made difficult by proving functions are continuous. I am given two continuous maps f, g: X -> R^n where X is any space. I've constructed the following homotopy:
This is so obviously continuous, but how would i show it rigorously?
here, would the lifting be given by the inclusion map?
i'm not really sure how this implies that it generates the group
oh
the lifting ends at 1 and by the lifting correspondence this just gets mapped to 1 in Z
which is obviously a generator
Convince yourself that all of the operations that make up your map are continous
then this is concatenation of continous functions
Literally the only way I can show things are continuous
Composition of some string of continuous functions
it helps to always have the picture in mind
you have R lying over S^1 as a "spiral"
ah okay got it
thanks
can help me understand how H is a path homotopy between h and the constant map? I understand that $H \circ (p_0 \times id) = F$
okeyokay
what's h
can somebody explain to me what this shows? why are they trying to show that F(x, t) \neq 0?
also, is there a rigorous definition to "pointing inward" and same w/ outward?
anyone?
they've shown that w is nullhomotopic, and also homotopic to a loop around the missing point
which is impossible
checking that F(x,t) is not 0 is making sure it is in fact a valid homotopy from w to j as maps into R^2 - 0
I think the dot product ${x \over ||x||}\cdot{v(x)\over||v(x)||}$ being -1 and 1 will do?
Edward II
hmmm ok thanks for the help, will look back on second reading if stuck
rereading the proof again, they essentially use the same idea as I did, but phrased it as v(x) being a negative scalar multiple of x
Oh hey Edward lol
Let $X$ be compact hausdorff, $Y$ locally compact hausdorff, $f: X \to Y$ continuous and $\Gamma$ the graph of $f$. Is it true that the obvious map $X \to \Gamma$ is open?
potato
I would assume not unless f is open, but it is implied by some notes I'm reading
Oh lol, I guess if we call this map $F$ then for any open $U$, $F(U) = (U \times Y) \cap \Gamma$ lol so hence image is open
potato
Rip that was easy
Yeah you shouldn't need any assumptions other than continuity
Yeah lol the assumptions are definitely extraneous
Didn't realise this was true but probably just a general property with pullbacks actually lol
Pullback of (X -f-> Y <-1- Y), no? Hence pullback of iso is iso
I don’t know what you mean about the pull back
There’s a continuous map caked the problem XxY -> X. Composing with the inclusion G -> XxY gives a map G->X. Since there are continuous maps both ways, it is a homeomorphism
True, i suppose that just shows the projection G --> X is a homeomorphism.
(but ofc the inverse is the map F)
τ = {∅,X,{a},{a,b},{a,c,d},{a,b,c,d},{a,b,e}} on X = {a,b,c,d,e}.
Question asks for limit points on B = {b}, would this just have none since theres no other points of B different from b???
Cost of not knowing that $H_2(S^1 \times S^1) = \bZ$ was huge
Absta
Mehh
just derive it
That costs valuable time
Idk if that's a general fact or not, but: I've never really had any course exhibiting many possible ways to compute homology groups easily and quickly. I feel it's something that's been lacking in the courses I've had, and it would be great to see many explicit computations
Also, playing with coefficient groups is something that I rarely spent time on
(Although there are only three groups of interest: Z, Z/2 and R)
Poincaré
compact oriented manifold have top homology Z
Closed
With boundary, it's the relative group that's Z
E.g.: the disc
So basically, four cases:
- orientable without bdry, top homology is Z
- non-orientable without bdry, top is zero
- orientable with bdry: top relative homology is Z
- etc
And in general, you have (regardless of orientability): - without bdry => top Z/2 homology is Z/2
- with bdry: top relative homology with Z/2 coefficients is Z/2
Well I mean I did not learn these
Thus me saying this 
The Kunneth formula is also extremely useful in many cases, and yet I had to find it by myself after a bit of googling
(Computes the homology of a product of spaces)
Kunneth is very useful, especially in this case, but its proof requires at least the derived tensor product Tor, or spectral sequences at worst. However, the homology of the torus isn't too hard using just good ol' cellular homology.
I mean
The first Tor/Ext groups have a simple definition and you need them pretty early anyway
I if course didn't mean that you should use Kunneth for the homology of the torus! Just stating that it's a generally good rule to compute homology of products. In some cases, a direct computation will ofc be easier!
You need them for universal coefficients theorems in homology and cohomology too
i like how people are giving fancy methods when it quickly follows from mayer-vietoris
what's the fun in that
i have no idea how to actually compute the pushout
i let two sets U1,U2 be the top and bottom hemisphere of S^n i know π1(U1/U2 , p) is trivial
but how do i compute π1(U2 , p) * π1(U1, p)
intuitively it is also trivial
but how do I argue this using rigorous arguements?
How do you do this? I can see two cylinders with intersection the disjoint union of two circles
sorry that's what i mean lol
Huh what did you delete
You can argue that the hemispheres are homeomorphic to n-disks and thus contractible.
i get that part
just the actual pushout is alien to me
For abelian groups, the free product has a concrete construction.
And you only need to use the trivial group.
Why specify abelian here
f1:H -> G1
f2:H -> G2
injective homomorphisms
we have: G1 * G2 = <A | R>, A = G1 disjoint U G2, R = {abc | a,b,c in Gi and abc = e} U {f_1^-1(a) f_2^-1(a) I a in H}
idk what this construction means or does
or how knwing the two groups to construct it myself
So what’s the disjoint union of trivial groups
trivial
And what are the monomorphisms
The injective homs
identity maps
Wait one sec I might be tripping
Ah no nvm
Yeah
I was thinking about something else in the van Kampen argumen
correction
or
i think this is wrong
i just cant wrap myhead around the actual pushout everything else i can imagine and comprehend as constructions
and i do not see how pushout on groups is equivallent to pushout on top spaces as a notion
the generating set is {0}
what
no pi_1(S^2) is not Z
why arent you directly using the definition you put above
this
π1(U1 Intersection U2) = π1( S1 )
= Z
as U1 and U2 are spheres missing their poles
yes that is true
my issue is here mostly just the way we were given all this was very confusing
the def of <R>ncl was {ω1^γ1....ωr^γr}
idk what this means
thats what im saying
anyway you do not need to think about the relations
because the free group (before amalgamation) is already trivial
{0} * {0} = {0}
{0}/anything = {0}
yeah i guess I just dont get the relations which annoys me
well
the maps here are not injective, right
which is maybe the source of some confusion
i mean the maps pi_1(U1 \cap U2) -> \pi_1(U_i) are not injective
yea
idk how they could be
ohh
we dont care about those maps as they are not between fundemental groups
what
i am just saying that it should not actually be the amalgamated free product
to be precise you need to compute the pushout
this is easy though
because pi_1(U_i) = 0
it amounts to asking "for what group G does it hold that for every group H, there exists a unique homomorphism G -> H." this is G=0.
initial group hehe
hey guys, does somebody know were I could read about the history of the Hurewicz theorem?
I do not find really much on the internet about it's developments
Why would there be anything to say about it?
There’s something to be said about the history of homotopy groups, which were independently invented maybe three times. Hurewicz invented them last, the time that they stuck, in part because he connected them to homology and proved his theorem
Isn't there like some important development or statement about it? Or is it independent?
which hurewicz theorem
Cech defined the homotopy groups before Hurewicz, but Alexandrov convinced him that since they're abelian (which Cech proved) all the information about them must be contained in homology groups
Later Hurewicz showed that it's actually super important by essentially developing obstruction theory
And he also proved the Hurewicz theorem
Anyway, the Hurewicz theorem for n = 1 was known to Poincare
n=1 is the best one anyway
that's kinda cool tho
Poincare knew everything
heh
So i can also use $\mathbb{Z}_p$ ($p$ prime) as my coefficients? Is this kind of stuff discussed in Hatcher's book?
Banana Split Exact Sequence
also is the "general construction" youre talking about the Universal Coefficient Theorem?
yes hatcher (and any textbook) covers other coefficients
no, literally just you can define homology etc with other coefficients
UCT lets you then compare coefficients
Ah
Ahhh now i get it. I thought the notion of homologies having different coefficients fell under UCT
UCT says how to get homologies in other coeff given you know Z
ah so it's a procedure of constructing homologies from a homology group with coefficient group Z
more or less
No, not constructing; recovering
UCT allows you to compute the homology over any coefficient group, once you know the Z-homology. But there's an actual definition of homology over other coefficients
Mainly: look at chains as linear combinations with coefficients in that group, and take homology of that
I know that $\RR^\omega$ is disconnected in the uniform topology, but I seem to be proving it is connected. The function $f_1\colon\RR\to \RR\times\left{0\right}\times\cdots\colon x\mapsto (x,0,\dots)$ is continuous in the uniform metric and surjective. Since $\RR$ is connected, so is the image. Then taking the union over all the images $f_i(\RR)$ (similarly defined, but instead going to the $i$th entry) should give all of $\RR^\omega$, and since the intersection is nonempty, it is connected.
pramana
Is there anything wrong with the proof?
The general question I was trying to answer was this:
Each element in your big union is in the image of f_i for some finite i. Hence it is eventually 0. Clearly not all elements of R^omega are
I might be mistaken, but I think you don't even make it in terms of cardinality alone
Well the lemma I used allowed uncountable unions
Im thinking maybe f_i aren’t continuous
What is the domain of, say, f_2 ?
R?
Then, what would be the domain of f_omega? Is it connected? Well, that's what you're trying to prove
Define f_2?
Is it (0,x,0,0...)?
Yes
Then you don't even get the element (1,1,0,0..) in your union right?
Yeah, they get really big
where am i messing up in checking that $F \circ G$ is a path homotopy between $f_0 * c$ and $c * f_1$? $(F \circ G)(s, 1) = F((\gamma_0 * \beta_1)(s)) = F(\gamma_0(s)) = F(0, s) = (0, 0) \neq (c * f_1)(s)$ (assuming $s \in [0, \frac{1}{2}]$)?
okeyokay
anyone?
already something's not quite right
by a quick sanity check on what the domain of F o G is
oh wait no nvm
lol nw
too many I x Is
fr
why have you said $(\gamma_0*\beta_1)(s)$ = $\gamma_0(s)$ and not $\gamma_0(2s)$? moreover, and I think this is the bigger error, why have you said $F(0,s) = (0,0)$?
.
Edward II
wait doesn't F(0, t) = the starting point of the paths that F is a homotopy between
or wait
that's only for a path homotopy huh
we have explicit $F(s,t)=(f(s),t)$
Edward II
oh right
so $F(0,s) = (f(0),s) = (x_0,s)$
Edward II
Just a silly question. Can one connect Zariski topology's dimension with the usual manifold dimension?
Hm I assume you mean like Krull dimension of a topological space when you say that
i.e. length of largest chain of irreducible closed subsets
Unfortunately, you can check any (non-empty) Hausdorff space has dimension 0
Well, yeah I'm not sure what you want lol
I very much doubt there is a notion of dimension fitting what you'd like though
I see, thank you!!
Hi.
Could you help me to solve the question 3-b.
Only this question, I solved the others.
\textbf{Exercise 1 (Lax-Milgram Theorem, Céa's Lemma, and Galerkin's Method)}
Let $H$ be a real Hilbert space. Let $a: H \times H \to \mathbb{R}$ be a continuous symmetric bilinear form, meaning there exists $M > 0$ such that for all $u, v \in H$, $|a(u, v)| \leq M|u||v|$, and coercive, meaning there exists $\alpha > 0$ such that for all $u \in H$, $a(u, u) \geq \alpha|u|^2$. Finally, let $\ell \in H' = L(H, \mathbb{R})$.
\textbf{1.} Show that there exists a unique $u \in H$ such that for all $v \in a(u, v) = \ell(v)$. (This is the Lax-Milgram theorem.)
\textbf{2.} Let $V_h$ be a closed subspace vector included in $H$, and let $u \in H$ be the solution of $a(u, v) = \ell(v)$ for all $v \in H.$
\textbf{(a)} Verify that there exists a unique $u_h \in V_h$ such that $a(u_h, v) = \ell(v)$ for all $v \in $ and that $|u_h| \leq \frac{|\ell|}{\alpha}$. (This is a stability condition.)
\textbf{(b)} (Céa's Lemma) Demonstrate that $|u_h - u| \leq \frac{M}{\alpha}d(u, V_h)$.
\textbf{3.} Suppose there exists a sequence of subspaces $(V_n){n\geq 1}$ of $H$ such that:
[
\begin{cases}
(i) \ \ dim V_n < + \infty \
(ii) \ V_n \subset V{n+1}; \
(iii) \ \bigcup_{n} V_n \text{is dense in} H.
\end{cases}
]
We denote by $u_n$ the solution of $a(u_h, v) = \ell(v)$ for all $v \in V_h$, and $\sigma_h = \inf_{w \in V_h}|u - w|$.
\textbf{(a)} Show that $\sigma_h$ is achieved.
\textbf{(b)} Demonstrate that $\sigma_h \to 0$.
\textbf{(c)} Prove that $u_n$ converges to $u$ in $H$.
Martin
I think this belongs in #advanced-analysis
I see.
My apologies.
No worries, asking a question is better than doubting where to ask it!
Can i make a homeomorphism like a composition of two homeomorphisms but one takes points R^2 -> R^2 and the other vectors R^2 -> R^2
How do you distinguish between "points" and "vectors" here?
So i want to go from that triangle to the circle and my solution is to first to homeorphism 1 then do a translation to the center and use change of norm. But i wrote this explicitly by first taking (x,y) and then a vector x...
now idk if i can combine these two (or three if you count the translation to the centre) homeomorphisms
Why wouldn't you?
How did you define the first transformation?
Homeomorphisms can always be composed (try to prove it)
yeah we did prove it in the class I remmember now, but i guess i was wondering to write it as one single homeomrphism.
the trasnlation is included in the first one
For the second transformation, what happens when a = (0,0)?
I guess that's supposed to be just (0,0) right? Nvm
Two write $h_1$ and $h_2$ as one single homeomorphism, just write $h_2 \circ h_1$. If you want to write it out in coordinates, you replace every occurrence of $a$ in the formula for $h_2$ with the formula for $h_1$. (I dont recommend this...)
Semer
Also, for the second transformation when a_y < 0, I think you have your fraction the wrong way around
ohh yes it is thank you
what are the applicaitons of the hurewicz theorem besides then knowing homotopy groups
It's the converse though; Hurewicz has a condition on homotopy groups to derive something on the low homology groups!
For me the power of Hurewicz is knowing the n-th homotopy group since computing homology and showing that something is n-connected is usually easy.
is there an underlying geometric interpretation for having a more continuous coefficient group? Z was discrete but now comes R
besides if my coefficient group is R/Z, how is that interpreted?
are the equivalence classes of those cycles identified up to an integer difference?
Hurewicz is so fundamental to homotopy groups that there’s nothing you can say about them without using it
Hurewicz says that the transformations from homology to homotopy and back are upper triangular. You can use this to compute homotopy groups, though this is difficult, but you can also use it to compute the homology of spaces with finitely many homotopy groups
I guess besides getting a homotopy group "for free", you also get an explicit isomorphism. And I believe the Adams spectral sequence is a vast generalization of Hurewicz, but I don't know too much about that
Using R allows you to recover De Rham cohomology for instance
Fair enough 
Hi, given an increasing sequence ${P_k}_{k=1}^{\infty}$ of finite subsets of $\bQ^m\cap[0,1]^m,$ always including the corners of $[0,1]^m,$ whose union is $\bQ^m\cap[0,1]^m,$ what's a way to construct a sequence of pure simplicial $m$-complexes ${S_k}$ so that the vertices of $S_k$ are the points in $P_k$ and the largest diameter of a simplex in $S_k$ goes to 0 as $k\to\infty?$ My first thought was to go from the corners in, always picking the closest points that make a simplex and won't intersect already-made simplices
BlaKaligula
I need this for a problem I posted in #real-complex-analysis message and was redirected here since simplicial complexes might fit better here
here, j is the inclusion map of S^1 into R^2 - 0; can somebody explain to me why (x, j(x)) is off of the unit circle if the inclusion is just the identity on the circle considered as a subset of R^2 - 0?
Ngl i am confused what this diagram is meant to mean lol
More context.
it's a bird 
It's a plane.
I am unsure whether this is the right place to ask this,but i'll give it a shot
for groups, we know that $Ext(G,A)$ is isomorphic to $H^2(G,A)$, where $$H^2(G,A):={\omega: G \times G \to A| \omega ; ; \text{is a cocycle}}/ \sim.$$
ProphetX
I have been looking for a similar statement for Lie groups. My naive guess was to consider only the smooth cocycles i.e. $$H^2_{s,gr}(G,A):={\omega: G \times G \to A| \omega ; ; \text{is a cocycle and it is smooth}}/ \sim.$$. But it turns out, that in a paper it is stated that these classify only those Lie group extensions, which admit a global smooth section.
ProphetX
In the same paper, it is claimed that the cocycles, which are smooth around the identity $$ H^2_{es,gr}(G,A):={\omega: G \times G \to A| \omega ; ; \text{is a cocycle, smooth around} ; ; e \in G}/ \sim$$ do classify all Lie group extensions of $G$ by $A$. A sketch of a proof is given
ProphetX
the sketch is:
now my question is: I don't understand this proof at all. how could I write down quite concretely the map Ext(G,A) to H^2_{es,gr}(G,A) and show it is a group isomorphism, i.e. a group homomorphism, injective,and surjective?
I'm trying to prove that the infinite product of closed sets is still closed. So I'm considering a point x in the complement, then along some projection pi_i, x(i) is not in the closed set F_i.
Then i took pi_i^-1 of (X_i \ F_i) (and call this set U), which should be open because the projection is continuous
I want to show that U is a neighborhood of x, which it clearly is for the projection, but idk
A hint in a slightly different direction: ||consider that the inverse image of closed sets are closed, and that the intersection of closed sets are closed. Now consider what the inverse image of F_i looks like in the product, and what the intersection of these looks like||
does this look alright?
That's essentially what i had in mind yeah. worth noting though that I needs not be countable, so there might not be an X_1, X_2, ...
Instead, it might be worth just explicitly showing that intersection equals the product. Shouldn't be terribly difficult.
Is $CB([0,1], \mathbb{R})$ separable? From the Stone-Weierstrass theorem I know that polynomial functions are dense in this space, so I guess I can consider the polynomials with rational coefficients?
Seagull
Yeah Q[X] is dense in a dense and therefore dense
Let's modify the sequence P_k so that only one point gets added each time and lets try it for m=2 first. We start with the four corners, so we have two triangles connected along the diagonal (doesnt matter which one). At k=2, the added point could be either in the interior of one of the triangles, in which case we subdivide the triangle into 3 "smaller" triangles (which doesnt change the largest diameter) or it could be on a line, in which case we subdivide the line into 2 smaller lines and split the adjacent triangle(s) in two (which may reduce the largest diameter).
To show that the diameter goes to zero, use that the longest existing line in S_k has a midpoint which is also in Q, therefore there is a K>k so that max_diameter(S_k) / 2 >= max_diameter(S_K).
Makes sense. I think I see how to do replicate that for m=3 and hopefully general m. Thanks!
What's your intuition for Hausdorff condition on quotients?
whats that again
I can think of this perhaps? not sure if thats whats referred to
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2210472/243059
the quotient?
Anyone have any suggestions on how to tackle these?
let's say you want to show (a) => (b)
what do you know about continuous functions and interiors in metric spaces
oh that makes more sense lmao
well the drawing is just showing that the vector poitns in the same direction as the point
yea ig that makes sense
i'm just confused as to why they labeled (x, j(x)) off the circle but ig it's minor
true
i'm confused, how are these two not equal as sets?
never mind
wait no
wait yea
wait bruh moment
is $\mathbb{R}^3 - B = {(x, y, 0) \mid x, y \in \mathbb{R}}$
okeyokay
No
So all R3 except the z-axis
ya
Maybe the right picture should have a little circle at 0, same as the left picture
oh right makes sense
intuitively, how exactly is this a deformation retraction? in the last step (blue arrow) the "figure eight" space is not remaining fixed - it's being scaled up
You first think of the deformation retraction of a punctured closed disk, it is the circle.
Then you glue two such disks together at one point on the boundary
i see, i think that makes sense
i'm struggligng to see the difference between being homotopy equivalent and homeomorphic
because don't they both intuitively revolve around the idea that you can continuously deform one into the other?
homotopy does, homeomorphism not
For example, a disk is homotopy equivalent to a point, but not homeomorphic
Homeomorphism means you can deform into the other and does not lose information, i.e. you can deform back to get the original space.
You can deform a point into a disk, no?
exactly
Though, it doesnt really rely on it: a homeomorphism is an isomorphism in the category of topological spaces
A homotopy equivalence is also a bit like an isomorphism, except that it lives in a higher dimensional category (whatever that means)
oh right, i guess one doesn't define isomorphisms in categories in terms of bijections
(in general)
Yes
Continuous bijections are not always homeomorphisms 
what makes the naive homotopy category higher dimensional
I guess the infinity category it is a shadow of
I wouldn't describe a homotopy equivalence as being in a higher dimensional category
<@&286206848099549185> @heady skiff This guy needs help
LMFAOOO
yo if nobody responds to my questions tho feel free to send that would be much appreciated 🙏
here, what exactly is "the one-point union of two circles"?
the wedge sum
what's that
oh okay
aka the first van kampen example
how would you describe that in set theoretic notation
just like
$S^1 \times {(0, 1)} \cup {(1, 0)} \times S^1$ or something
okeyokay
disjoint union modulo equivalence relation that identifies both basepoints
there's a whole wikipedia page on it if it's still unclear
can somebody just give it to me as a set please lol
that doesn't matter
i read it wrong, this works as set notation for the wedge sum that lies inside the torus
Since you want to give an explicit retract that makes more sense here, mb
all good, thanks
there's a nice drawing for this let me see if i can find it
wow there's even videos
very cool
yeah i remember seeing some hand drawn explanation on it when i first did this
found that very nice
i don't really understand - why can't we just let our retraction X --> Y be the identity map?
because i mean
S^1 union (1, 0) is just S^1 minus (-1, 0) right
i mean
$\bigl((x_1, x_2), (y_1, y_2)\bigl) \mapsto \bigl((x_1, x_2), (y_1, y_2)\bigl)$ is certainly in $Y$
so this works
okeyokay
No??
LOLL
where am i going wrong
cuz like
if u take the union of (1, 0) with the circle
then you're just gonna get the circle again right
similarly with (0, 1)
Draw a picture and it's obvious that doesn't work. The punctured torus X looks like a donut with a singular point removed. Y on the other hand looks like two circles attached at a single point
Not every point in X is in Y
how
you take some element in X
(x_1, x_2), (y_1, y_2)
so (x_1, x_2) is not equal to (-1, 0)
and (y_1, y_2) is not equal to (-1, 0)
No. It can still be (-1, 0)
ohhh
You just can't have them both equal to those at the same time
it's just the particular coordinate
i see
is $Y \neq S^1 \cup {(1, 0)} \times S^1 \cup {(0, 1)}$?
okeyokay
i think my misunderstanding comes from what Y is
because if it is then X is contained in Y....
That doesn't type check.
what does that mean
Any element in Y looks like a pair of an ele in S^1 with another ele in S^1.
So like ( (x, y), (x', y') ). Having the U {(0,1)} at the end should raise concern.
Yeah the union doesn't distribute like that
i feel like the best way to define a map then is component wise
cuz we want to send an element of X ((x1, x2), (y1, y2)) to some element of the form ((x, y), (0, 1)) or ((1, 0), (x, y))
so maybe taking the norm of 1 and setting zero in the other component idk
i think this is also all way clearer if you write the torus as a square with edge identifications
guys do manifolds always have to be hausdorff and second countable topological spaces? If so, why?
the notion of a space being hausdorff has always seemed to be disconnected to my understanding of a manifold
non-hausdorff manifolds are certainly a thing people care about
but why do authors begin with defining a manifold as hausdorff second countable?
for example, fomenko
why couldnt they just say "hey it's a topological space that's locally homeomorphic to a subset of Rn"?
some authors omit it
it makes a lot of things nice. you can actually take limits reasonably in hausdorff spaces. you get whitney embedding. and so on. not everything needs to be done in full generality from the get go
it would get annoying to say "hausdorff manifold" over and over
limits of convergent sequences in hausdorff spaces are unique
wddym
ahhh
Like uh
In mathematics, a fundamental polygon can be defined for every compact Riemann surface of genus greater than 0. It encodes not only the topology of the surface through its fundamental group but also determines the Riemann surface up to conformal equivalence. By the uniformization theorem, every compact Riemann surface has simply connected univer...
ah the classification space
If you draw like this you can just see the deformation retraction
and then the standard drawing a diagonal and using delta complex structure to compute the homology ❤️
Removing the middle point wlog lol
moreover, on the topic of embeddings, most of the study of manifolds was originally done on manifolds already embedded in euclidean space, where you have hausdorffness. perhaps it just seemed like a natural thing to assume when people were making the first definition of an "abstract" manifold
but this is just conjecture about history. i don't know how the actual development of the theory went
If you have to use simplicial homology sure
wait. R is hausdorff? i must have missed that one haha
Every metric space is
right.
Or was it a joke
urysohn's metrization theorem relies on hausdorff and second countable
there's more examples here https://mathoverflow.net/questions/362154/when-why-did-we-allow-manifolds-to-be-non-hausdorff-and-or-non-second-countabl
no a lapse in my lnowledge
Lol
RIGHT. damn im an idiot for forgetting this
whitney embedding 
Whitney embedding for schemes
one place where non-hausdorff manifolds show up is when you're doing stuff with lie groupoids, but this is about when i clocked out for that course so i couldn't give you details
I see
something about generalizing lie's theorem on integration of lie algebras to lie algebroids
you can ignore the technicals and just trust me that examples show up here
Manifolds are also commonly required to be second-countable. This is precisely the condition required to ensure that the manifold embeds in some finite-dimensional Euclidean space. For any manifold the properties of being second-countable, Lindelöf, and σ-compact are all equivalent.
from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topological_manifold which assumes hausdorff
requires smooth though, no?
no it doesn't
well the proof requires some fancy smooth tricks but yeah the topological version also holds
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/34658/is-there-a-whitney-embedding-theorem-for-non-smooth-manifolds it seems like you can do it in R^{2n+1} and maybe R^{2n}
the proof doesn't require smoothness. maybe you have just read it for smooth manifolds
which is the most common version
but you can find a proof of the topological Whitney embedding theorem, in, for example, Munkres
all manifolds are smooth
does it work embedding a topological n-manifold into R^{2n}? this is all i can find in munkres
Probably true but trickier
i don't think anyone in this MO post has it for 2n, just 2n+1
The usual way to go from 2n+1 to 2n is to just project and get something self-transverse. If it's self-transverse, removing singularities is not difficult. But this step requires Sard in the smooth category
I'd read Kirby-Seibenmann's topological transversality papers to try to see if that can be made to work
Yeah, there’s transversality, but I think that’s overkill. I think Whitney should have been able to construct an embedding in R^large that is nice, so that a generic projection is self transverse
That's a good point
A topological embedding which is stabilized enough is always locally flat
Can somebody explain why S has no limit points in $\mathbb{R}^k}?
what would it mean for a point x to be a limit point of S
if every neighborhood of x contains a point y in S, y\neq x
that's a bit confusing to read with the "if"
anyway one consequence of being a limit point in R^k is that there are infinitely many points in S in any neighborhood of x
yeah I'm not quite sure what it means for a point in S to be a limit point in R^k
a limit point of S doesn't have to be an element of S
for example, the sole limit point of {1, 1/2, 1/3, ...} is not contained in it
I get that a limit point of S doesn't have to be in S, but what does it mean to say the "S has no limit point in R^k"?
my bad, got it now. thanks, anyway
Also it's a generally useful fact that a convergent sequence (i.e. one that has a limit) has to be bounded.
So an unbounded sequence can't be convergent
tfw distances can't take infinite values 
Not with that attitude!
Maybe it was possible to go infinite in hyperbolic geometry
(Or I am confusing it with sth else)
Projective? 
I mean, when doing norms and metrics you're usually more interested in what happens when they get small rather than when they get huge
You can clip all values of metric at 1 and not change the topology
So having infinite metrics doesn't seem to help much
can someone explain why Fr(a,b) / <a b a-1 b-1> = Z x Z?
Singular metrics though, that's the hot stuff!
You quotient out by the commutator!
The free group is non-abelian
what is the commutator...
ohhh and ofc ZxZ is abelian
It's aba^-1b^-1
hmm
i have a recipe for seifert van kampen but i do not get why things work wow
our professor taught us everything
but somehow forgot to connect the concepts
You're trying to SVK the fundamental group of the torus then?
yes
So yeah you're done, the quotient of F_2 by the normal subgroup spanned by the commutator is indeed Z^2
and until now we were taught all thms and definitions but never shown an example or motivation on how and why we use the planar graph of a space to compute its fundemental group
By planar graph you mean something you deformation retract to?
For the cylinder that'd be the circle?
this basically
but i dont understand all the shenanigans with the generator of Z, r
Ah the punctured torus deformation retracts to the square graph indeed
So if you deformation retract to something, it's a homotopy equivalence and induces an isomorphism of the pi1
this is legitimately all we have on SVK and im supposed to do that
And for the square graph (a wedge of two circles) the pi1 is easy to compute
Oof pushouts
ignore the commutes comment i was having a brain die
SVK is geometric, why would the teacher bother you with diagrams and shit xD
this is ALL we have
You should do SVK on the torus minus a point and a patch around the missing point
Because SVK is also highly categorical :3
That would be a fun way to compute this
Plus this is how hatcher does it and half the topology classes in the country use hatcher
Not for an intro to fundamental groups...
and then we get this question which if we were taught the material we would be able to solve but no one managed so
Well this is very similar to the other calculation you posted
in hindsight it seems very easy but I have no idea with this def of the pushout how to work with generators etc
ik ik now i kind of get it
but barely
Did your prof actually use pushouts for SVK
Did you not work out SVK with presented groups?
YES
You especially don't want to use pushouts for computations that's impractical
NO BUT IT WILL BE ON THE EXAM
Well to be fair working with push outs is fine as long as you explain how to present them
Limits and colimits in groups are all very “computable”
Which amounts to writing a presentation of the amalgamated product 
So if A has pi1 presented as <S1|R1> and B has pi1 as <S2|R2>, do you know what's the pi1 of AuB?
no
Assuming you know the maps induced by inclusions
Don't!
i have the recipe
It's important to understand this
i know 😭
it also will only take an hour of calculating to understand it
but very stressful considering exam is tmr afternoon
Maybe less
any good resources on this?
i sent an email to my TA yesterday but he hasnt replied yet
So the union has pi1 presented as <S1 u S2 | i*(R1) u j*(R2)>
(Meant as a reply to myself above)
maybe just think about this torus/Klein bottle example in more depth
Then when you are feeling more comfortable try to compute the fundamental group of an orientable surface of genus g
i get lost at the part where I embed the generator <r> to get a b a-1 b-1
i dont get why I can do this
its that bad
So draw the square! Take a circle around the middle of the square and deform it to the boundary. What loop do you get?
this loop
hmm
whats the formal justification of this?
Yes!
so
And do you see that it becomes trivial in the pi1 of the disc?
yes
The formal justification is the picture
But here, the punctured torus needs 2 generators for its pi1
yep
Because it deformation retracts to the union of two circles
So by SVK you get fundamental group of torus = (fundamental group of disk around middle of square)*(fundamental group of punctured torus)/(fundamental group of annulus around middle of square)
And the fundamental group of the disc is trivial
im so annoyed at this module
hmm yes well do algebraic topology but not connect the concepts
It’s up to you to do that!
Let S subset of a topological space. Then define
S is compact iff [ forall continuous real functions on S : im(S) is closed and bounded ]
Does this work as a defn?
Just tryna think up an intuitive alternative that somewhat blackboxes open sets etc
wait maybe I need S to be path-connected for that to work wait maybe not. 😵💫
Consider S to be the natural numbers with the topology such that open sets are [0, a).
This is not compact, and the only closed set containing 0 is the whole space.
So for a continuous fiction f: S -> R, f^-(f(0)) is a closed set containing 0, hence f must be a constant function
I fail to follow your point
{0} is open
huh
So you're using the fact that the preimage of a closed set is closed
But why is f(0) closed
oh its a singleton in R
===
Ok is there a fix to that statement or way off the mark
like its probably true at least for manifolds?
huh theres this on wiki... idk if thats what im after at all 
yes
Isnt c just RP1 ?
It's a punctured RP2, i.e. RP1
yes
what do i do with this?
i have all the steps but idk how to connect everything
To apply Seifert van Kampen, like youre doing
i dont see where...
The bottom diagram, thats SVK
yep
but we have RP2 not RP1
OHHHH
i see
this is the connected sum of RP2 and the Torus
so the open subsets are torus with as hole and RP1 with a hole
RP2 with a hole, but yes
typo but yes
nice
ty
and is my proof correct?
Sorry, don't really have the time to check it. But if c = aba^b^, then c is not a generator and you might as well dump it and the relation
So i think you would just get Z x Z
thanks a lot I appreciate it
ill look into this
I know how to prove this, but I was wondering if there's an easy way, since I wanna incorporate this proof (as part of cantor-bendixson) in a talk:
Let X be closed in a polish space (e.g. R), and let S be the set of condensation points, i.e. all the points x of X such that if U contains x, then U\cap X is uncountable, them every point of S is a limit point of S (Note i'm not asking here to prove every limit point of S is in S, that is easier)
I think basically it just comes from the fact that there exists a countable neighborhood basis in the space $Y$. So as you say it is easy to see that $S$ is closed in $X$ whence closed from this fact. On the other hand now we see that $(X - S)$ [which is open in X!] has no condensation points because the intersection of any sufficiently small ball around a point in there with $X - S$ is countable. But $X - S$ is an open in a separable space, and any sufficiently small ball in $X - S$ is countable, thus $X - S$ is a countable union of countable sets.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
this shows X-S is countable, but i'm not sure how that implies that every point of S is a limit point?
am I missing smth?
i.e. I wanna prove S\subset S'
Well now every neighborhood has uncountable intersection with X but only countable intersection with X - S, soooo....
(of a point in S)
so we've actually shown they're condensation points of S
Oh ok fair enough, nice
What does it mean for two abstract simplical complexes to be isomorphic? How do I show this
It ought to mean that there's a bijection between the underlying sets such that the image of a simplex in one complex is a simplex in the other, and vice versa.
It’s that last bit the “homomorphism” part in the definitions usually used in algebra
Like how something has to be a homomorphism + bijection
It has to map simplexes to simplexes and be a bijection
Yeah -- but I'm less sure exactly how "morphism" itself ought to be defined, than about what isomorphism should achieve.
Isn’t every element of an abstract simpical complex a simplex thought
Or am I missing something completely
Wait
Yea I forgot about everything being filled in
The map would be between the union of all the simplices in each complex.
Or equivalently between the 0-simplices.
If A is a simplex in an abstract complex, then P(A)\{Ø} would be a subcomplex.
I don’t think simplicial complexes really have morphisms other than isomorphisms
I guess injective maps are ok
IMHO simplicial complexes arent really good for algebraic topology cause their morphisms are kinda icky. They're good for other combinatorics stuff though
based!
Simplicial sets and objects are extremely important in homotopy theory
Remind me why we care about their morphisms instead of their realizations and the computability via combinatorics
Simplicial sets are GOAT, simplicial complexes not so much
I don't really know what you're asking
Why do the morphisms make simplicial complexes bad for algebraic topology, the point of simplicial homology is keeping track of data in a combinatorial way and computability given a triangulation
it just depends on what you're trying to achieve
Of course we need to do combinatorics! Bu we need good morphisms to do the combinatorics, those morphisms should correspond to morphisms between their realizations. If you have to do hard work to talk about relations between complexes that arent bijections, that sounds like a bad omen. For simplicial sets, all morphisms are "easy".
It certainly depends on what you're trying to do, simplicial complexes are great for things that I am ignorant about.
As an example of why we want good morphisms to do combinatorics: paths in a combinatoric representation of spaces ought to be morphisms I -> X. In a simplicial complex, you don't get the constant paths (I don't think). In a simplicial set you do, and in a Kan complex you get even more.
I do agree that simplicial complexes/homology aren't very useful in higher homotopy theory compared to simplicial sets etc, just dismissing them for alg top entirely didn't sit right with me
does anybody know any good resources for learning about triangulations
i looked at armstrong's chapter and i know it's going to be horribly hand-wavy
barycentric subdivision maybe, hatcher has a good chapter on it
cool ill check i tout, thanks
oh so this is okay since the torus is the quotient space of the square right
and then we can just remove any point of the square and that'll correspond to removing a point of the torus
Yep
this shit is so confusing
You could also make it into a covering space by "tiling" R2 with these squares
like how am i supposed to know that we can identify the sides of the square with the "one-point union of two circles"
There's no way to compare the hand-waviness of different subjects at different levels of advancedness
But anything but the most basic homotopies are really hard to draw, and most people dont have the time/artistic talent to put those in their book
And just writing down equations doesnt help either. I doesn't convince me of a homotopy most of the time at least
Tbf low dimensional stuff seems more handwavy lol yeah
oh really it definitely helps me
"identify these sides with that and your resulting space is a torus."
like
???
pacman world
but how is it S^1 x S^1
by definition
then trace that circle with a perpendicular circle
blah blah 1d circle embedded in 2d blah blah blah
Yes you can think of the torus as parametrised by those two circles
because you need two angles to pick out a point basically
Topological spaces arent inherently embedded in euclidean spaces!
but yeah this is usually the definition that it is S^1 x S^1
see my drawing here
You caused a real typing storm with that remark! 
hard disagree. that's why all spaces are hausdorff
unfortunately i dont have the drawing anymore, but you can find it at the louvre
yeah i guess that makes sense but like. S^1 x S^1 is a subset of R^4 is it not
so like sure this is a convenient way to visualize it
No
Your definition of S1 might be as a subset of R2, but I might have a different definition
Like the interval with endpoints identified, as was said before
Or maybe I spelled out all the points and opens is need explicitly somehow
Theyre all homeomorphic
yeah maybe i need to review
anyways would a deformation retraction from teh punctured square to its edges just be given by the floor or ceiling function or something on the x coordinate
cuz you want it to be 0 or 1
Just imagine popping a soap film 🙂
Do you want another spongebob gif?
sure
have you ever played with your soap in the shower and tested how far you could pull your hands apart until the soap film pops
that's what soap film is
Maybe soap is not so good cause it seems to really pop all at once, maybe a balloon surface is better
It's called rubber sheet topology for a reason ig
if you take the (hollow) square and identify the left and right sides (keeping orientation), then you have a line segment with two circles attached (the top and bottom edge). then you identify the top and bottom edge in the same way, which amounts to sticking the circles together, so the line segment in the middle becomes a circle
this is how i imagine it
oh okay thanks, i think that helps
is there any rigorous, concrete, set-theoretic way of defining the mobius strip
Look at it in R3
It’s clear it’s the 1 pt union of 2 circles in R3
Do you know how the torus looks in R3?
uh no i thought it was a subset of R4
Take a piece of paper and glue it together :)
Literally take a piece of paper and do this
Also for the deformation retraction of T^2 \ pt to the boundary (Aka Union of two circles at a pt)
You can write down a formula by
- Take a pt in the square - its center.
- Draw line from center to the pt
- See where it intersects square’s sides
- Slide along this line
Writing down explicit formulas is not the peak of understanding tho and I would try to stop thinking of math always in these terms
On the contrary if you can never write down formulas given a description then that’s bad too!
ah okay thanks
i'll try those things!
can somebody explain to me what armstrong means by "write down in terms of these generators the homomorphisms induced by the inclusion of C into S"
🙄
Have you seen the functoriality of the fundamental group yet? Any map of topological spaces induces a homomorphism on their respective fundamental groups.
The circle C has a fundamental group generated by a single loop going around. C gets mapped (by inclusion) into S, and hence this loop also gets mapped into S. But a loop in S should also be somewhere in the fundamental group of S.
So for example in (c), the fundamental group of both is Z, but it's important to explicitly pick generators: we could say that the generator of the fundamental group of C is a loop going clockwise and that the generator of the fundamental group of S is (to be annoying) a loop going counter clockwise.
Then the homomorphism between these two fundamental groups which is induced by the inclusion map C -> S is a homomorphism Z -> Z given by multiplication by -1
thanks, that helped a lot
can i get a hint for this problem please? i tried toying around with f = (r o j) o f where r is a retraction of B^2 onto A and j is the injection
but i haven't been able to get anywhere
Tried contradiction?
you will want to find some contradiction by considering a certain associated invariant of the spaces
you are probably at the part of your class/book where you have just recently introduced this gadget
is it just me or having the physical copy of A.T by hatcher is better than having the pdf?
that's what a private agent sent by hatcher to sell more physical copies would say
Hatcher psyop
this is just how i feel about math textbooks in general
Is it just me or is not having a copy of Hatcher better.
no sir! I-Im just a h-humble math person who loves physical textbooks! no psyops here!
Works better for smacking friends on the back of the head than a copy of may
I can vouch
I had not considered that
You should
Bro is out here planning murder
Physical copy of the 3 0 0 0 p a g e m o n s t e r b o o k for smacking 
which one of May?
The concise? or the more concise?
Higher algebra
Or maybe SAG is even worse
(2300 pages or so)

But you'd have to print them yourself
it's like 7800 pages last I checked
I have higher algebra printed
it's two volumes
And they are comically large
Yeah I saw lol

