#point-set-topology
1 messages ¡ Page 65 of 1
(and even if it weren't path-connected, all of its path-connected components would be homeomorphic anyway).
Not quite exactly -- you'll need to reparameterize the square to make that true.
Correction, you don't need a homotopy between alpha and beta. You need a homotopy between alpha+beta and beta+alpha.
oh right
that's what i meant
wait lemme check if it works
nvm
doesn't work
that would be too easy and we can't have easy things in math
oh
wait i think i got it
$F(s, t) = \bigl((\alpha * \beta)(s)\bigl)^{(1 - t)} \cdot \bigl((\beta * \alpha)(s)\bigl)^t$
okeyokay
and that fulfills all the conditions of a path homotopy right?
$F(s, 0) = (\alpha * \beta)(s)$, $F(s, 1) = (\beta * \alpha)(s)$, $F(0, t) = e$ and $F(1, t) = e$
okeyokay
and it's continuous since G is a topological group
I think instead of trying to write down an explicit homotopy as a formula, it would be easier to say that "left and then top side" is homotopic in [0,1]² to "bottom and then right side", and the images of these two endpoints are exactly the concatenated loops in G you want to show are homotopic.
I can't really make out what this means -- it looks like you're trying raise group elements to fractional powers?
wait sorry, do you mean showing that like the top left L of the square is homotopic to the bottom right L, and then show that the image of the top left L is \alpha * \beta and bottom right L is \beta * \alpha and deduce that they must be homotopic or smt?
or vice versa if the top left L is \beta * \alpha instead
Yes.
(One of those -- I haven't bothered to read your problem statement closely enough to figure out which is which :-)
i don't really understand the point of showing that \alpha is path homotopic to itself lol, or am i misinterpreting?
(this is the solution for the exercise i was tryna solve đ)
Hmm, that doesn't seem to make a lot of sense to me either, sorry.
it's alright i'll just ignore it
also when they say Let $(G, m, \tau)$ be a topological group, I'm assuming they're letting $m$ denote the binary operation? but like what does $\alpha \cdot \beta \simeq m\bigl(\alpha(t), \beta(t)\bigl)$ even mean if both of them are paths
okeyokay
Well like
you're multiplying two paths (pointwise) to get another path
i.e. the path t | -> m(alpha(t),beta(t))
finite dimensional yes, infinite dimensional not necessarily
Eh we care in functional analysis
And infinite dimensional spaces do appear in topology due to intersections w func anal
all the boring ones are finite dimensional...
is the second part of b just intersection Talpha
where if the topology was any smaller it wouldn't be true that every basis element is a subset for Talpha
For this exact reason, one typically doesn't care much about finite dimensional vector spaces when talking about continuity.
lee?
monkares
ah
One manâs boring is another manâs well-behaved
typesetting is similar to lee
is this right
and then for the first part you would say that that if we take union of all Talpha and any other sets needed to create a topology any basis for this topology is unique
or no
any other topology containing union Taplha has a coarser basis
yes you can just take the topology generated by UTa
and I'm guessing I got all of b correct
the intersection works yes
because nTa is a topology by (a) and is not only the largest topology but the largest set contained in all Ta
is this logic correct
does it make any sense at all
wait is that for the first or second part of (b)
second
well we dont care about if its any smaller we want the largest one
unless the intersection happens to be the trivial topology, there will always be a smaller topology
uh
nvm
in order to prove its the largest
i see it doesn't make sense
wait does that logic work for the first part
i think I'm mixing them up
The logic works for A because any smaller topology does not contain all collections of Ta
Again forgive me if I'm not making any sense
If ur trying to prove uniqueness
Btw are u taking intersection of the unions for the first part of b?
U canât just take intersections directly cuz u want the topology u create to contain all the Ta
What are minimal fibrations of simplicial sets useful for other than proving that the homotopy theories of CGHaus and SimpS are the same?
As far as I know this is the primary reason behind their existence
Geometric realisation being a Serre fibration does not seem like it'd be useless in other areas but I don't know of anything off the top of my head
Does anyone know why Hatcher says that the projection $p$ of a covering space doesn't need to be surjective? For me it doesn't make a lot of sense that $p^{-1}(U_{\alpha})$ can be the empy set, because then how can it mapped homeomorphically onto $U_{\alpha}$ by $p$
ImHackingXD
is the geometric realization a genuine fiber bundle
covering maps are always subjective
As far as I understand, not according to Hatcher (chapter 1.3, in the definition of covering space)
p^-1(U) is not mapped homeomoephically onto U. It is mapped to U times a discrete set, which may be empty
you saying \empty set is a covering?
Yes. It is not a connected covering, but if you allow disconnected covers, you should allow empty covers
Connected covers with a choice of lift of the base point correspond to subgroups. Without a lift they are conjugacy classes or something. General covers correspond to sets with an action of the fundamental group. A transitive action is a connected cover. If you allow multiple orbits, you should allow zero orbits
ok, I guess that makes sense
thanks
You have to allow disconnected covering spaces so that the restriction of a covering space to an open subset is still a covering space. Itâs harder to justify empty covering spaces, except through the formal definition, and because they make the category of all covering spaces have good formal properties
for 2a, would a suitable homotopy be F(x, t) = (1 - t)f(x)? (trying to show that given any map f: X --> I, it's homotopic to the constant map e0)
it's contained in the unit interval and it's continuous
sounds right
(a good way to see why this should be true is to replace I by it's homotopy equivalent space, since we only care about upto homotopies. I upto homotopy is just a point.)
For b), could I just define $F(x, t) = f_x(t)$, where $f_x$ is a path from $f(x)$ to $g(x)$? since $Y$ is path connected we have $F(x, 0) = f(x)$ and $F(x, 1) = g(x)$
okeyokay
if I'm considering any two maps f and g from I to Y
I'm a little puzzled by what you mean here
@heady skiff
Is x a point in I?
ye
So you're letting f and g be two paths and your claim is that F is a homotopy between them?
yeah i think
Yeah this is fine, but its a little vague around what is this f_x
It might be easier to just show everything is homotopic to the constant path
then you can explicitly contract along the path f
But whichever you prefer đ
using basepoint invariance of pi_1 in a path connected space, once you have two constant paths in the same path component you know they lie in the same homotopy class
oh right.. i think that kind of makes sense
i'm learning about fundamental group stuff rn
to show that a contractible space X is path connected, could you just let any a and b in X and use the fact that iX is homotopic to e_b (constant map on b), so we have F(a, 0) = i_X(a) = a and F(a, 1) = e_b(a) = b which is then a path from a to b
where F is the given homotopy between the identity map and the constant map
wait so would it be something like transitivity
f homotopic to constant map
g homotopic to constant map
therefore f homotopic to g
yeah something like that
oh okay cool
would this work to show that if $Y$ is contractible then for any space $X$, the set $[X, Y]$ has a single element? let $f$ and $g$ be any two maps from $X$ into $Y$. Since $i_Y \simeq e_b$ for some $b \in Y$, it follows that $i_Y \circ f \simeq e_b \circ f$, so $f \simeq e_b$. a similar argument shows that $g \simeq e_b$, whence $f \simeq e_b \simeq g$
okeyokay
what does e_b \circ f mean
What's e_b
constant map from I to b?
morally this is correct, yea, but your domains are just a little wonky
oh constant map on Y
e_b(y) = b for all y in Y
Then yea youre good
Statement : Give an example in the R² plane of a family of open parts whose intersection is not open.
Can someone explain it to me please?
do you know how to do this in R
no
I guess one thing to consider is if the family can even be finite?
My teacher wrote this, but I don't understand very well, I'm having difficulty :
In R :
no hablo French >_>
lemme see if I can parse this
In R : Posons â n â N*, O_n = ] - 1/n , 1 [
so is O_n open, or closed?
The open balls of (R, I I) are the open segments
also answer this
I don't know
the only statement I have is that
Statement : Give an example in the R² plane of a family of open parts whose intersection is not open.
Ok so consider properties of open sets
Any union of open is an open
is the intersection of two open sets also open?
ok perfect
so if we want to have an intersection of open spaces that is not open
can it be a finite intersection?
or does it have to be infinite?
finite ?
to you, maybe @soft zephyr
but didn't you just say a finite intersection of open sets is open?
yes
so how can a finite intersection of open sets be not open?
we need an infinite intersection of open sets
if we want any hope of the intersection being not open
makes sense?
ok
I think open but can't tell you why
r>0 with B(a,r)âU
yea, the open sets in R are the open intervals
ok so is this an open set or a closed set?
open
Spamakinđˇ
can you compute explicitly what this intersection is?
(draw out the first few sets on the number line, maybe that'll help)
argh I have difficulty doing that
I'll give you a hint that it'll be an interval of some sort (won't say if it's open or closed at some specific end)
so what do you think the upper end of the interval will be?
Itâs an empty set though u donât want that either
hm
anyways how did you get empty set because I can immediately think of a few elements in every set of the intersection
minus sign moment
Something like (-1/n, 1/n) would work maybe
this also works
I'm lost
have you drawn anything out
like a line ?
I kid you not, draw out a number line, and draw out the interval ]-1/n, 1[ for n = 1, 2, 3, 4
and see if you can see the pattern
I thought the 1 was a 0 lol
0 != 1 in most (but not all) circumstances
Rip
what is your guess?
I want an actual interval as a guess
] - 1/4 , 1 [
] -1/4, 1[ is the intersection of this whole thing?
but what if I add another term to your drawing, ] -1/5, 1[
then -1/4 is no longer in the set, in fact nothing between -1/4 and -1/5 is
] - 1 /2 , - 1 / 4 ] ?
no? are you now claiming that all the numbers between 0 and 1 are no longer in your intersection?
same issue
draw out a few more sets if you have to, you should notice the left sides of the intervals converging to a value
converge to 0
contain
so what is the interval?
Yes.
My teacher concluded with "The open balls on R of (R, |.|) are the open segments
Spamakinđˇ
so the left is an infinite intersection of open balls in (R, |.|)
is [0, 1[ open? Why or why not?
is close because 0 is included in the interval
it's not open
try to argue why [0, 1[ is not open
and then you are done!
we have constructed a family of open intervals whose intersection is not open
but my teacher gave the interval ]-1/n, 1[ if he hadn't given it to me and I had to determine it alone, how can I choose the good interval?
this one
And last question why (R, | . |) ?
real space is nice
lots of things work
we're used to thinking about stuff (hell you even drew some stuff out)
ok thank you, well I need to think about R²
Hint for R^2: ||Try the same idea, except make them squares instead of intervals||
Makes me think if u can just literally take intersection of all open sets that contain a closed set and you would just get that closed set back for R
Feel like thereâs a separability axiom where this is true
empty set is closed
it's also open
so that line of thinking doesn't really work
Like C = intersection of {U open | C subset of U}?
yea
If so, the empty set doesn't break that.
I meant in the context of this question
like you aren't going to get something that isn't open
Oh sure for the previous question that would not work for the emptyset
Ya would have to artificially remove empty and whole space sets
Itâs a strange condition
This is true for T_1 spaces. (for A subset of X, take the intersection of { X - {x} | x in X - A }; don't even need A closed)
This is equivalent when we look at all subsets of X (note that this impliex X - {x} is open for each X). But not equivalent if this just holds for closed A (indiscrete spaces satisfy this for closed sets, but are not T_1)
Hmm i think it would give back the set u started with but it wonât necessarily be closed
If A is closed then you will get a closed set in the end, namely A.
just why on R we directly define an interval ].., ..[ while R² we define a ball B(.....) ?
Because for R, the open intervals ]a, b[ are precisely the open balls.
There is not as nice of a description for higher dimensions, without talking about balls.
ok thank you
gosh what's a very elementary analogy of a topos?
Im trying to explain it to a friend and theyre just not getting it
(btw they dont know anything about topology or pure math)
Maybe topoi arenât a good thing to explain then
Do they know something about topology or differential manifold?
a lil
though if youre gonna talk differentiable manifolds, #diff-geo-diff-top is your go to place
Sorry
I mean maybe you can try first talk about sheaves on a topological space
I just wrote a typo
well it's a collection of maps that takes open sets from your topological space to specific sets
OH WAIT I READ IT WRONG
First the idea why we need sheaves
I THOUGHT YOU WERE REFERRING TO ME đ
Jump to topos may be a bit too quick
Start with sheaves is a good idea
oh god how the hell do i explain that in a very simple sense
Hmm, not very experienced in talking math to non math people.
Once talked about sheaves to a friend in physics
It wonât make a lot of sense
it didnt đ
He just like the idea that understand the space is to understand the maps to it
I had a very rough analogy with being able to mold something in a topos in clay

Maybe you should try another way
Told them about the history of topos
Not go into the details
howwww
Like some math article on quanta magazine
Talk about the invention of topos
Maybe try asking in #math-pedagogy . How to give a general idea of a modern math concept for non math people
will do
quanta magazine... ooof I dunno if he will even understand that article
now im not saying he's dumb or stupid
it's just his education level / interest isnt as high
Non math person doesnât understand a very specific topic in mathematics
Shocking

I mean think about teaching graduate students topoi or even sheaves
It is not a very universal topic.
Naturally it is hard to convey it to non math people.
Wait a min.
I recall some philosopher is interested in topos
Maybe they have some better ideas on how to talk about it?
maybe
i dont have a formal education on pure math but i get it đ
What is this barycenter subdivision thing?
Professor vaguely mentioned some def of it but not in detail on how it works
I did not know intuition-based class was this hard to follow..
You get what?
the concept of a topos ig
though not an in depth one cuz i hadnt explored it that much yet
What is the concept of a topos?
my understanding of it is that its a Category that has similar properties to the category of sheaves on a topological space
i suppose the objects ought to be sheafs of sets over a topological space
and there are sheaf morphisms between them that act as the morphisms of the category
and that, there's an identity sheaf morphism, and composition laws
that give commutative squares
apart from that, my knowledge of it is very limited haha
That is not what a topos is though, is it?
The category of set valued sheafs is one example of such and the rest of what you said is just parts of the definition of a category
i mean arent topoi categories?
ack i havent even finished studying sheaf theory
whatre those?
Including finite limits and subobject classifiers but the important question is what do those mean/why are we demanding those
i uhh 
I mean thatâs in the definition of a topos 
presh(D)? Grothendieck Sites??
utter nonsense
(I wont be calling it nonsense a couple years from now)
I only know that sheaves on a small site can be viewed as a Grothendieck topos.
IMO it is more concrete and it has some examples.
I guess you can start from here
i guess?
I am not an expert. That is all I know. Maybe for others topos has nicer generalization.
maybe
the closure of a set S is defined as the union of S and its boundary
But doesn't this imply that S is taken to be an open set
Because otherwise the closure of S is just S
no
you can define closure for sets that are open, closed, and neither
what do you get from closing up a closed set?
nothing
well you get nothing new, but you do get back the original set
I mean the closure of a closed set is the same set, no?
yes
so how is it a new thing
now think about what the closure of [0, 1) in the standard topology on R would be
it would be [0,1] right
why
the boundary of the set is {0,1} if im not mistaken
so the union of the set and the boundary is the closed interval
there you go
i see now
Do you guys define closure using boundaries?
I like the intersection-of-closed-sets definition but I think this one is also fine
I just thought of a terrible definition
A directed limit of closed sets containing the set
Nah, it is just a different definition.
but a limit point of E can be outside of E
so by this definition, the closure of E is bigger than E itself
wait the example bladewood gave just confirmed this
no problem then
thanks
Was there an example where closure has bigger measure?
Well I brainfarted; Of course there is.
bigger in terms of set containment, but in terms of measure yes that too
you can even raise the cardinality of a set this way 
Yea that is the example I thought of
Statement : Give an example in the R² plane of a family of open parts whose intersection is not open.
I understand on R but not on R² ...
I don't understand why my teacher say :
O_n = B(0, 1+1/n) the intersection is a not open ball B(0,1)
or
O_n = B(0, 1/n) the intersection is {0}
what does it mean to be in the intersection of all the B(0, 1/n)s
B(0, 1+1/n) you mean ? no ?
I think this one will be easier to think about first
Why B(0, 1/n) is a open balls?
it's just an example
I draw a circle ?
B(0, 1), B(0, 1/2), B(0, 1/3), ... are all open
but is their intersection open?
what is their intersection?
I don't see
what does intersection mean?
right
so what numbers are in B(0, 1/n) for every n?
The number 0
there you go
and 0 is not open ?
{x} is always closed in R^n
And about B(0, 1+1/n)
That one also works.
When you intersect those, you get a bit more than just the open ball of radius 1. For example, (1,0) will be in the intersection, even though it is not in B(0,1)
The length of a metallic tube is one meter.Its thisckness is 1 cm and its internal diameter is 12 cm find the weightof the the tube if the density of the metal is 7.7 cubic cm
<@&286206848099549185>
morn
?
nothing
answer ?
Can you show me step by step why it's works please
idk for this one dude sorry
Absolutely not topology. See #âhow-to-get-help and try a help channel
Not a prob, its not even my class its like 8th mensuration i found it a lil tough idk why ?
oh shet srry
Is Serre's theory of classes of abelian groups still used much nowadays?
I seem mostly to find it in older books and things
Well, what will the intersection look like. So if we take the intersection of B(0, 1+1/n) for all n, then this will be the set of everything whose absolute value is less than 1+1/n for any n.
Now, I recognize that we can't have anything with absolute value greater than 1 by the Archimedean property (if x has |x| > 1, then there is some N with |x| > 1 + 1/N > 1, so x is not in B(0, 1+1/N)). However, I also notice that everything with absolute value at most 1 will be in the intersection. That's because, if |x| ⤠1, then for any n we have |x| ⤠1 < 1+1/n.
Now, the set of everything with absolute value at most 1, {x in R^2 : |x| ⤠1}, has a nice description, from which it will be clear that this it a closet set and not an open set. What is this set called?
Still don't understand why is B(0, 1) :/
R Y X has pointed out above that the intersection above is not just B(0,1) but some more points (which is precisely why the intersection is not open)
Read their reasoning above carefully
I didn't just read, I even took a sheet of paper and rewrote everything
in my native language
B(0, 1) usually means an open ball
unless youâre weird like evans and use it to mean a closed ball
here my teacher write "B(0,1) is a not open ball"
"The intersection is a not open ball B(0,1)"
or maybe yes the traduction it's closed ball
I don't know
It's the closed ball, yes.
"boule fermĂŠe"
And it looks like there's some symbol above the B there to designate that it's closed.
you trying to explain to me with your text how he deduced B(0,1)?
Yes, that was explaining how he got the closed ball
Well, what will the intersection look like. So if we take the intersection of B(0, 1+1/n) for all n, then this will be the set of everything whose absolute value is less than 1+1/n for any n.
I understand that
but here no
Now, I recognize that we can't have anything with absolute value greater than 1 by the Archimedean property (if x has |x| > 1, then there is some N with |x| > 1 + 1/N > 1, so x is not in B(0, 1+1/N)). However, I also notice that everything with absolute value at most 1 will be in the intersection. That's because, if |x| ⤠1, then for any n we have |x| ⤠1 < 1+1/n.
Why do you want absolute value greater than 1 ?
when
absolute value is less than 1+1/n for any n.
Eh bien, Ă quoi ressemblera l'intersection. Donc si nous prenons lâintersection de B(0, 1+1/n) pour tout n, alors ce sera lâensemble de tout ce dont la valeur absolue est infĂŠrieure Ă 1+1/n pour tout n. | x | < 1 + 1 / n
Maintenant, je reconnais que nous ne pouvons rien avoir avec une valeur absolue supÊrieure à 1 par la propriÊtÊ archimÊdienne (si x a |x| > 1, alors il y a du N avec |x| > 1 + 1/N > 1, donc x n'est pas dans B(0, 1+1/N)). Cependant, je remarque Êgalement que tout ce qui a une valeur absolue d'au plus 1 sera dans l'intersection. C'est parce que, si |x| ⤠1, alors pour tout n on a |x| ⤠1 < 1+1/n.
Maintenant, l'ensemble de tout ce qui a une valeur absolue au plus 1, {x dans R^2 : |x| ⤠1}, a une belle description, d'oÚ il ressort clairement qu'il s'agit d'un ensemble de placard et non d'un ensemble ouvert. Comment s'appelle cet ensemble ?
If |x| ⤠1 then |x| ⤠1 < 1+1/n.
__
We take the intersection of B(0, 1 + 1 /n) for all n
We say that it will be the set of everything whose absolute value is less than 1 + 1 / n
| x | < 1 + 1 / n
until here it's ok
If | x | > 1 we have 1 < | x | < 1 + 1/n
So x will be in B(0, 1 + 1/n)
because x â [1, 1 + 1/n]
So we can split it into two cases. If |x| > 1, then we can find some ball B(0, 1 + 1/N) which does not contain x. It might be in some of the balls, but not all of them.
Otherwise, we have that |x| ⤠1, in which case this reasoning shows that x is in all of the balls.
I do not understand sorry... đŚ
Thanks for taking the time to try to explain,
doesn't matter I'm going to do another exercise
Serre invented his theory to prove that, eg, a simply connected space all of whose homology groups are finite has homotopy groups that are finite. It is the right tool for this theorem. But people today arenât very formal about it and donât bother to generalize to abstract Serre classes
He showed that the quotient of an abelian category by a Serre class is an abelian category. This does not seem useful. There is a special case that is popular, in which the Serre class is closed under infinite sums. I think this is called a localizing subcategory. Then the quotient category embeds in the original category. Not finite abelian groups, but torsion abelian groups
Yeah sure
I've only really seen it for those original applications
Like showing homotopy groups of spheres are finitely and generated, and finite (except in the couple of special cases)
And then mod C Hurewicz, Whitehead
Not sure beyond that lol
Thereâs some competitor to rigid analytic geometry that phrases it as built from ring objects in a weird abelian category thatâs a quotient
Interesting
People use the mod C Hurewicz and Whitehead theorems all the time, for localizing subcategories C, such as 2-torsion. But this is equivalent to applying the usual theorems after localizing the spaces, which is how people these days phrase it
Can anybody tell me what this notation means:
So first we have:
But then we have to show the following
I thought it meant isomorph but im not sure
- Show that the union of a finite number of closed parts is a closed
- Show that a point x belongs to the adhesion of E if and only if any open ball centered at x meets E
For the 1. we do that, but I don't understand the notation
and they say that we have to go through the complementary scheme?
So we have two rings, the first one consists of functions X -> F2 that are 1 on some subset A and 0 elsewhere. This is a ring under usual addition and multiplication.
Then we have another ring P(X) where addition is symmetric difference and multiplication is intersection. The statement is that these rings are isomorphic
I had an exercise where I have to compute the homology group $H_{k}(S^2\sqcup S^2,{p_1,p_2})$ where $S^2\sqcup S^2$ denotes the disjoint union of two 2-sphere, and where $p_1$ and $p_2$ denote the north pole of the first and the second 2-sphere. What I have is $H_0=H_2=\mathbb{Z}^2$ and $H_k=0$ for all $k\neq0,2$
This is relative homology?
yeah
Gibzen
Try using the long exact sequence of relative homology
Since homology of spheres and points are easy
For H0
Because for a connected space, homology relative to a point is the reduced homology.
So in your case H0 should be 0 as you have two point and two connected components
what is reduced homology ?
OK maybe forget about that, think about the last part of the long exact sequence.
ok so my calculations are wrong ? I'l do it again
0=H_1(U,X)-->H_0(U)--->H_0(X)--->H_0(U,X). Here U is two points and X is two sphere.
why 0=H_1(U,X) ?
H_0(U)=Z+Z and H_0(X)=Z+Z and the map between them is induced by the inclusion of each north pole so both the ker and cokernel is 0.
ok and that's why also H_0(U,X) = 0
which part do you not understand?
so H_2(U,X) = Z^2 and H_k(U,X)=0 for all k =/= 2 ?
Yes.
ok thank you
everything
OK.
- think about how open sets are defined
- In a set, what is the union of the complement.
Set difference
Complement of union is intersection of complements
That's all there is to this proof
the statement is Show that the union of a finite number of closed parts is a closed
Yes
This is the main (and only) ingredient to this proof
but I don't know why we look at the complements for the closed contrary to the proof "Show that the finite union of an open is an open"
and
don't know how to do that on a drawing, what should I understand about this notation?
Something is closed iff the complement is open
The open counterpart is that a finite intersection of opens is open
How much are (pointed unbased) fibrations relevant? (By that I mean that the lift of homotopy rel base point need not be rel base point.)
I'm reading about the Puppe sequence recently, and the hpty eq.of the homotopy fiber with the actual fiber for fibrations. And as far as I have understood, they are not necessarily pointed hpty eq if the lifts aren't rel basepoint.
Since homotopy groups are defined for pointed spaces, this seems to suggest that one can't make a long exact sequence of homotopy groups for unbased fibrations out of the Puppe sequence. Is this a problem?
a finite intersection of closed is closed too
Any intersection of closed is closed
union and intersection is the same word ?
Yes "Complement of union is intersection of complements"
I'm not familiar with this at all, but wouldn't the answer involve groupoids?
Because again, the complement of a union is the intersection of complement... those things all live in X, so the complement of A is X\A
Ok so X\A mean : The complement of A with respect to X
Yes
there is an embedding phi: M --> V subset of R^m with M being phi(M)
so for that to be a chart do i just say that pi{1,....,n}(X) = pi{1,....,n)(phi(m)) for some m which is just (phi^1(m),phi^2(m),.....,phi^n(m)) ?
and ik phi is an immersion , so there exists a nbd such that its a local diffeo (hence a chart )by the inverse function theorem
so thats my choice of nbd
is that correct?
Some sources seem to suggest that the problem can be resolved if the domain of the maps to be lifted is well-pointed (the inclusion of base point being a cofibration). I'll think about it after I get some sleep,
What is the closure of ${(x,y): x^2+y^2 < 1}$? Is it ${(x,y): x^2+y^2 \leq 1}$
GhostTheSavage
yea
Thanks. How should I think about the interior of this closure?
I know know the interior of this. Is it the reverse of the closure here?
I mean is this true in this case Int(Cl(A)) = A
yeah
oh I was trying to come up with a counter example...to disprove this. Then this might be generally true?
no
If A is closed this can't be true in general
yes
think of any connected top
if A is closed then that would imply A is open aswell
Iâm doing this exercise:
If A is open then yeah
oh so this is true if A is open, false if A is closed
No, take a half open interval for instance
yeah part (a) it was closed, the counter example was easy, so it was false
That's neither open nor closed
Actually no, if A is open this can fail too
A dense open subset is a counter example
So I need a different counter example, b/c it's true here for the open ball radius 1
So an open ball including the origin?
Take the union of balls of radius 1/n centered around the n-th rational number
(Balls meaning intervals here)
Thats open and dense, so closure is R, and interior is R
Radius 1/n² sorry
You need a convergent series to say that it's not R in the first place
Because 1/n² ensures you have a finite measure
If I got some sleep, probably xD
Need an explanation of this
I think there is a simpler example
You'll have to forgive me..I am a topology noob
measure*
What does this mean?
r_n - epi/2^n
r_n+epi/2^n
r_n listing of rationals
union those up
Yeah that's roughly my example
Except you're using 1/2^n instead of Basel
Yeaaaaaah that's what a good night sleep example looks like
Oh! yes R -{(0,0} works right?
any point
But less fun 
But this is just a drive by topology question in my basic analysis class..can't get too fancy
yea i think R-{a} is cool
forget the measure theory stuff if u dont know about it
unless you want to explain topology to me for the next 30 mins, and measure
yeah I am no where near measure
yeah
u are closer than u think
Hmm what's the intuition why Int(R^2) = R^2? We need the union of all open sets. That is all of R^2...because R^2 has no boundary?
Especially if that's for analysis, you'll end up doing Lebesgue integrals sooner or later
It's like you, a stranger, were sent from somewhere to tell me this lol. Thanks
The biggest open inside R² is R²
Cannot make bigger that the whole space
that the whole space
I've dropped the "notion" of "size" for interiors and closures. I just think of all intersections and unions, respectively. Is that okay?
And the closure of R²{0} being R² is because you must have all limit points, and thus must contain 0
I noticed when I thought of largest and smallest, I got confused
I meant this as the biggest for inclusion
he means that if u look at the definition u will see that the interior is the biggest open set that contains
the set
and closure the smallest closed set
isnt in the definition of a topological space
that the set itself is an element of the topology
hence open?
The "biggest" of course is the union of all open sets. Since the union of finite or infinite open sets is open, right?
Yes
The "smallest" of course is the intersection of all closed sets. Okay. Those adjectives make sense now.
ty
no need
you can just assume that M is a subset of R^m, no need to work explicitly with the embedding
yea i think i went M ~ phi(M) subset of R^m
but yeah ur righ
t
is this correct?
Does this help? https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3008369/259363
you just said "so that's my choice of neighbourhood," but i don't understand how you're concluding that one of these projections is a chart on it. there's no proof as far as i can tell
It seems to me you're trying to Characterize submanifolds of R^n as 'slices' by some R^m with m<n
the fact that submanifolds are locally graphs of smooth mappings will probably be useful
Aka local inversion theorem (?)
never heard the phrase before
the inverse function theorem gives a neighhourbood U such that phi:U-->phi(U) is a diffeomoprhism
so (U,phi) is a chart but pi is just images of phi ig
thats what i thought
i don't get it, sorry
i think he means constant rank theorem
maybe someone else will
then its probably wrong lmfao
please don't ping me so much
Actually it's called inverse function theorem in en-speaking countries!
okay wouldnt pi just be image of phi?
when i consider it taking elements from the manifold?
6.27
i wouldn't call the fact i wrote down the inverse function theorem, but it's certainly in that box of multivariable calculus facts which are related to it
it's more implicit function theorem-y
yeah
(re: matplotlib)
You're right 
i sadly still dont know why am i wrong hahaha
if p is in M , p is phi(m) for some m correct?
yes, phi is an embedding. as i said before, do yourself a favour and forget about the embedding. just assume that M is a submanifold of R^m
yea i just wanna understand why what im saying does not make sense
pi would be just phi^1... phi^n
if this p is nonzero then there is some nbd around this p such that these phi's are coordinates
so this nbd that comes out of the inverse function theorem works?
thats what i was trying to say ig
cuz like immersion + topological embedding is local diffeo
no 1 đŚ
well ig i got what u meant now
its just a submanifold so its basically the vanishing of the other coordaintes so there exists some i_js of coordinates which do not vanish ig
Statement : Show that a point x belongs to the membership of E if and only if any open ball centered at x meets E
Correction : Let us first show the reciprocal meaning. By contrast-
sition, it is a question of taking a point which is not in the adhesion, and of showing
that there exists an open ball centered at x which does not meet E. Suppose
that a point x is not in Adhe(E). The adhesion of E being a closed one, its
complementary is an open: there therefore exists a ball B(x, r) included in the complementary, which means that it is disjoint from Adhe(E), therefore also from E since Adhe(E) contains E.
Let's show the direct meaning. We still reason by contraposition: we suppose
that there exists an open ball B(x, r) which is disjoint from E, and we want to show
that x is not in Adhe(E). The set X \ B(x, r) is a closed one which contains
E. But Adhe(E) is included in all closed containing E,, so Adhe(E) is
included in X \ B(x, r). In particular Adhe(E) does not contain x
What I don't understand :
1.I don't understand why X \ B(x, r) mean here 2. I understand the reasoning, it's clear but the conclusion "In particular Adhe(E) does not contain x" no
Why is there no early university topology channel?
sorry would bother you less the next few days, I'm just trying to understand a few things
I dont want to discourage you from asking questions!
well which channel would be most suitable for metric spaces
"Early university" is intended for things that are quite early in a typical undergraduate curriculum, and there's not really any topology there.
Our second year undergraduate had metric spaces and point set topology up to Brouwers theorem
I found ODEs and PDEs harder then!
i think that's unusual, at least in đşđ¸
in other countries maybe it's normal
Regardless, there's quite a range in this channel
For better or worse, the categorization of channels follows US tradition. Supposedly "early university" is for topics that are generally taught in America without requiring the students to learn proofs.
I havent really looked at those channels but I guess that makes sense
Tho I dont know how you would do proofs-and-logic without proofs 
that's the course where you learn how to write proofs
That's a mystery for the ages. The explanation I got was that it's for the course that sits between "not proof based" and "proof based" mathematics, and therefore would feel equally out of place in both categories.
thank god my university didn't follow this US tradition đľâđŤ
you could talk about it in terms of "mathematical maturity," whatever that means
if someone know
Adhe is closure? And what is a truss?
Could you define it?
In mathematics, an adherent point (also closure point or point of closure or contact point) of a subset A of a topological space X is a point x in X such that every neighbourhood of x (or equivalently, every open neighborhood of x) contains at least one point of A. a point x â X is an adherent point for A if and only if x is in the closure of A
The statement is that : Show that a point x belongs to the adherent (or closure) of E if and only if any open ball centered at x meets E.
nothing more about E or something
But is the letter E used before? Is it a closed subset of a metric space? What is the context
How is Adhe defined precisely? The intersection of all closed sets that contain E?
X \ B(x, r) is just the complement of B(x, r). So it is closed.
With that in mind, you should draw a diagram involving x, B(x,r), E, Adhe(E) and X
I understand
Let us first show the reciprocal meaning. By contrast-
sition, it is a question of taking a point which is not in the closure, and of showing
that there exists an open ball centered at x which does not meet E. Suppose
that a point x is not in Closure(E). The closure of E being a closed one, its
complementary is an open: there therefore exists a ball B(x, r) included in the complementary, which means that it is disjoint from Closure(E), therefore also from E since Closure(E) contains E.
Let's show the direct meaning. We still reason by contraposition: we suppose
that there exists an open ball B(x, r) which is disjoint from E, and we want to show
that x is not in Closure(E). The set X \ B(x, r) is a closed one which contains
E. But Closure(E) is included in all closed containing E,, so Closure(E) is
included in X \ B(x, r). In particular Closure(E) does not contain x
for correction
The notation X \ B(x,r) is the set difference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complement_(set_theory)#Relative_complement
but why Closure(E) does not contain x ? that I don't understand, it's not clear for me đŚ
You said you understood the reasoning, right? Just the conclusion is the problem?
It's strange, I don't know how to explain it. I understand what they say, I follow their reasoning, but I do not understand the link between the reasoning and the conclusion
If $\operatorname{Cl}(E) \subseteq X \setminus B(x,r)$ then that means that $\operatorname{Cl}(E)$ and $B(x,r)$ are disjoint (they share no points). But obviously $x \in B(x,r)$. Hence $x$ is not in $\operatorname{Cl}(E)$
Semer
If I'm honest, the proof that is given is rather indirect. I think a proof without contrapositives is possible
Yeah
Adhe in your source
If you draw a Venn diagram with all these sets it should become clear
I'm not confortable with Venn diagram
It's just circles representing some random X and E and x showing how they are included in eachother
It's not a proof method, but just a way to make it clear to yourself
Like this
Since B is open, its complement X \ B is closed. We knew already that B was disjoint from E, hence E is in X\B. But since Cl(E) is included in every closed set containing E, Cl(E) is included in X\B. But then Cl(E) is disjoint from B. Since x is in B, x is not in Cl(E).
here, would p^{-1}(W) be one of the V_\alpha, since it's open? so the partition would just have to be the trivial one, p^{-1}(W) itself
No. Consider an countable stack of real lines, Z x R (given the usual topologies), with p : ZxR ---> R being the projection. For any open set U, the inverse image looks like p^{-1}U = Z x U, so p evenly coveres any open subset of R [the V_alpha here being {n} x U for any n in Z]. But notice: If we have an open subset W of U, then p^{-1}W = Z x W, which is clearly not just one of the V_alpha
Since each V_alpha is homeomorphic to U, you would just restrict each V_alpha to the part that corresponds to W through the homeo.
ohh i see
got it thanks
i'm not quite following why V_\alpha intersects the preimage of b in a single point?
because if V_\alpha all have this point in common, wouldn't that contradict them being disjoint?
oh wait
wait never mind it's not the same point
the stack of pancakes picture is very important
wikipedia has some good pictures
no munkres has one
which is very helpful intuitively
but like i require RIGOR!!!
wait wtf why am i not seeing this
why every V_\alpha intersects p^{-1}({b}) in a single point
moreover how does this show that p^{-1}(b) has the discrete topology
the preimage of an evenly covered set U looks like n copies of U
if you restrict to a copy, it is just a homeomorphism
so everything appearing in U should appear identically n times in the stack of n pancakes
so each of the pancakes is a V_\alpha right
yeah
and also you can replace "n copies of U" with "product of discrete space and U"
but it is easy to visualize when there are finitely many pancakes
so it's kinda like the elements of p^{-1}(b) break up amongst the pancakes
i'm confused
so if you have your pancakes, the projection map pushes them all down onto U
right
so the preimage of a point consists of the points floating above it
ah
i kind of see...
wait but l ike what if the preimage of a point is two points in a pancake
another nice one is the helix as a covering map for S1
so then would we have two points floating over those two points
in each of the pancakes
it can't be because the projection map is a homeomorphism when restricted to a pancake
ahh right
i see
ohhh okay that makes a lot of sense now
i think that was the missing puzzle piece
thanks! appreciate it
np
Iâm pretty sure I have numerous errors in this proof. Could anyone correct or provide cleaner writing for this proof?
Would i be right in saying that R^2 with the lexicographic toplogy is not 2nd countable or hausdorff
Why would it not be hausdorff
I agree it's not second countable though, but yeah it should be Hausdorff.
Why wouldn't it be normal
Yea it is normal. Hmmmm
Maybe it isn't perfect?
I think it should be perfectly normal. I think this should look like a disjoint sum of |R| copies of R with the usual topology.
yeah, its homeo
Restriction to [-1,1] \times [-1,1] isn't perfect though
pretty neat
Yup, difference here is the behavior around the edge, since [-1,1] has min/max elements
But you don't get that weird behavior with R^2. So since it looks like a sum of perfectly normal spaces, should be easy to check it's perfectly normla.
You can just feed the function through the homeo yeah?
In any event, this is super duper hausdorff
There are two types of open sets in this topology and you can always use the easier one to separate your points
Yeah T6 is invariant under homeo. So for disjoint sum it should just be using the universal property of coproducts
(i have not checked this but it sounds right)
hm okay, we havnt worked with the topology very much so i guess iâm not super comfortable with the open sets in it
i thought it was locally euclidean too
What are the open sets in the lexicographic topology in R^2
I feel all your questions will be answered once you answer this
Huh, is it sum?, I.e. coproduct?
Maybe I am confused because I thought only finitely many should be smaller in coproducts.
I remember a while back I brought up how in R^n it is true that interior points are automatically limit points.
Today I figured out that this holds because R^n is perfect, and it turns out that perfect spaces are the only spaces for which this holds. (i.e. that a space is perfect iff for every subset, among its limit points are its interior points)
How come I never learned about perfect space?
Even tho I took multiple topology classes
FWIW I haven't real seen them in the hypotheses of big theorems
Hm
so I'm not sure how this encodes "vertical strips"
but there are two types
The lexicographic order is as follows:
(a,b) < (c,d) if (a<c) OR (a=c AND b <d)
Your open sets in the topology are the set of points (x,y) such that (a,b) < (x,y) < (b,d)
Using this, you'll have two "types" of open set:
- (x,y) s/t (a,b) < (x,y) < (a,d) for some b < d
- (x,y) s/t (a,b) < (x,y) < (c,d) for some a < c
Draw both of these to get an idea for what they look like
Once you've done that, determining if it is locally euclidean will be very easy.
@fervent root
i understand how the first one works, it is like a vertical line
but the second one changes x coordinates so iâm not sure how that works
Consider (0,0) < (x,y) < (1,0)
then, fix your x-coordinate and vary y. plot all the points that satisfy this relation
then fix y and vary x
this should give you an idea
so itâs everything in the band between them
but only including the part of the band above the first point and below the second point
right?
Yep!
One of these is obviously homeo to R^n for some n. Do you see it?
the ones where the horizontal component is fixed and the y varies is my guess
i wanna send it to R^2 but i wouldnât be able to construct a map to prove it i guess
assuming thatâs even the right open set that is obviously locally euclidean
Well those aren't open sets
The open sets are this
And this
Could you draw a picture of both and send so we know we're on the same page?
Great. Now which of these is clearly R^n?
Like no thought required it's immediate
Brain empty
this is scaring me
thatâs the one that fixes the horizontal component yeah
Oh that's what you meant, I thought you were referring to this, sorry!
wait so it has dimension 1
Yeah. Locally R. Super weird right
i was wrong about the dimension so iâm glad weâre going through this
This is where you definition of locally euclidean really matters
If you define (X,\tau) to be locally euclidean if for all x\in X there exists U\in \tau such that x\in U and \exists n such that U is homeo to R^n, then we are done because all (x,y) in (R^2, lexicographic) are contained in one of those vertical lines which are homeo to R
But this is the standard definition so we should be happy :)
This might give you some insight into this comment as well
It looks like a bunch of disjoint copies of R because it is locally R1
so like if i wanted to construct a map
it would be something like f(a,b) = (a,y-b) maybe
Well that doesn't land in R
Looks like you're landing in R^2 to me
If I is your vertical line, neighborhood containing an arbitrary point (x,y), your homeomorphism will be a map f: I -> R
i think i need to think about this some
iâm trying to fill in the details for why this is inverse continuous and a bijection
"This"?
Nobody has written the map down yet
Here is a useful Lemma:
All nonempty open intervals in R are homeomorphic to R.
Proof hint: ||translate and scale to an appropriate interval. Then apply a certain trig function which has range R.||
that's a pretty long line you got there
||trig is overly complicated smh||
||listen here u lil root vegetable||
||I'm currently teaching trig so it was on my mind
||
tangent!
what about closed/clopen intervals
there are no nonempty clopen intervals (intervals like [a,b) for instance are neither closed nor open)
For bounded closed intervals the reason why it cannot be homeomorphic to R should be easy to see (||compactness breaks for R||)
hm right they are neither closed nor open 
R 
Statement: We place ourselves on X = R² provided with the Euclidean distance. Let A and B be two subsets of R². We define the whole:
A + B = {a + b â R², a â A, b âB}
Let A and B be two open ones. Is A+B open?
how to show this please ?
How far did you get? First step is: how do you show that anything is open?
I have the correction but I don't understand
An open of E is a part of E which satisfies âx âO , âÎľ > 0, B(x, Îľ) C O
Right, so given some $p \in A+B$ we need to construct an open ball around it inside of $A+B$
Semer
But for any $p \in A+B$ there exist $a \in A$ and $b \in B$ such that $p = a + b$. We know that $A$ and $B$ are open, so we get open balls around $a$ and $b$.
Semer
Lets call those open balls B(a) and B(b). Now, we wanted to construct an open ball around a+b. Our first guess ought to be something like B(a) + B(b)
What should we check now?
Well I mean that's by definition though, no?
B(a+b, Îľ) C A and C B ?
or triangular inequality
We have $B(a,\varepsilon_a) \subseteq A$ and $B(b,\varepsilon_b) \subseteq B$. My first guess was to look at $B(a,\varepsilon_a) + B(b,\varepsilon_b)$. But another good guess could be $B(a+b, \varepsilon_a + \varepsilon_b)$. Can you draw both of these? Are they equal?
Semer
We are trying to create an open ball around p in A+B, so we should check that whatever we have constructed is
- A subset of A+B and
- Contains (or in fact is equal to) and open ball around p
Or no, I thought perfect was a closed set such that every point is a limit point? So something like the cantor set is perfect even though it has empty interior in R
every point is a limit point and every limit point is a point 
Yep!
Do you know if topology and differential calculus are linked? Or are they two independent domains?
they are very much linked, look up differential topology
Yeah, I just never made the connection lol
Like I had noticed before that âinterior point => limit pointâ in R
And I was like âhmm this seems pretty important why have I never seen it written down anywhereâ
And then yesterday I learned what a perfect space is
And in particular theyâre exactly the spaces for which my property holds (and this is shown quite easily from the definition of perfect space, like you say)
A + B is equal to the union of sets of the form a + B over all a in A. Now try to show these sets are open, and then youâll be done since the union of open sets is open.
simply connectedness of S^2 implies that any map S^1 -> S^2 is nullhomotopic. Does this generalize to maps S^{n-1} -> S^n for n > 2?
Yes
do you need to consider the extension of the map S^{n-1} -> S^n to D^n -> S^n or is there another way to prove this?
Good catch, I reread my statement thrice to avoid pitfalls and still missed this 
There is an analogy to covering spaces, but itâs very fancy. The usual way is to argue that a differentiable maps are dense in all maps, so a small homotopy gets you to a smooth map, which is not dense. So it misses a point, so itâs image is in a copy of R^n, so it is homophotopic to a constant map
is the identity map i: X --> X a covering map, because for each point x in X, we can let U be an open set containing x, then the preimage is just gonna be U which is open, and we just take the trivial partition (i.e. just U) which is obviously homemorphic to U
Clearly yes
just wanted a sanity check lol
Can't you just use the suspension theorem?
How do you prove the suspension theorem?
I dont think I've ever seen it proved using differentiable maps at least
You could use piecewise linear maps, but thatâs hardly different
why does the preimage consist of an interval of the form (0, eps)? for example, if i take eps = 1/2, then wouldn't the image of that be what i've outlined in lavender
which is not a neighborhood of b0 since it doesn't even include b0
oh is it because it's contained in one of the V_ns?
(0,epsilon) is not a neighbourhood of b0, its in the inverse image of a neighbourhood of b0
It's just one of the pancakes (a half a pancake here I guess) above U
I mean I've never seen the use of some class of maps being dense for this
Look at the proof again
