#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 64 of 1
are there any subjects of math where pictures don't help
something like foundations/metamathematics maybe
Three false proofs, and what lessons they teach.
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Here's a nice short video on the false pi = 4 proof
https://www...
mmm I dunno, I think understanding things visually is so natural to people that it's never a bad idea to TRY to be able to draw a picture
lol it's hard sometimes and definitely more so for weird advanced shit, but personally I always try to draw a picture to get an intuition
yeah that makes sense
also what's the best way to see that U is open in S^n? i started involving stuff with metrics but that always seems like a pain, so i guess i should consider S^n as a subspace of R^{n + 1}
Yeah, it's the intersection of S^n with an open set
the open set being { x | x.p > 0 }
since dot product is continuous
ohhh
wait so
it's the image of an open set essentially right
is that how you can see the set { x | x.p > 0 } being open
inverse-image, yup
inverse image of (0, infinity)
coo coo
yeah that open set in particular is an open half plane, so it's like an open hemisphere of S^n I think
Could I get some help on proof of a topological space?
you can normally just ask the question directly, people are always happy to help
Yeah I tried help but I’m realizing it’s more for hs stuff
And people aren’t so eager to help
Ty tho
I think I got the first part but I’m not sure about the
Finite Intersections part
what is C_X(U)?
Complement of U
ahh
are you proud
- is X\X either X or countable?
- X \ emptyset either X or countable?
- If X \ U_i is either countable or all of X for each i, what can you say about X \ ( union of all U_i)? Use demorgans law for this
- If X \ U_i is either countable or all of X for each i (only finitely many i) what can you say about X \ (intersection of the U_i). Probably use demorgans law again for this
- Yes
- Yes
3/4. I’ll try that
I forgot there was demorgans law for those unions as well
yup
lol why ++?
because it's objectively worse than demorgans law?
But bc the first was taken
…
Idk C++ but I think I’m gonna learn C before it somehow
Maybe I’ll get the joke then
lol the best c++ programmers program basically c with a small simple subset of c++ functionality
imo of course
isn't this just saying that p is a quotient map? since surjective continuous map + open map => quotient map
wait a minute
wait
isn't this proposition just a specific case of this theorem
demorgans law flips unions and intersections
so C_X(intersection of U_i) becomes union of C_X(U_i)
sorry fixed that
Shoot yeah forgot to flip it but wouldn’t it be the same logic
For showing unions
Like that could be my arbitrary union proof
no, for that one you have C_X(intersection of U_i) = union of C_X(U_i)
so you need to show the unions of the C_X(U_i) is either all of X, or countable
you only have finitely many
so consider the case where none of those C_X(U_i) is all of X, or at least one of them is all of X
I’m gonna do the intersection before I confuse myself even more gimme a sec to fix it
lol np
Fixed?
I forgot to put they are in T_c in the last line but
Is the main logic of the inclusions close?
@limber wren sorry for the ping
np
it's correct but I would explain a bit more why if C_x(U_i) is countable or X then the union of all the C_X(U_i) is either countable or all of X
lol like your teacher will probably take a mark off and write "why?"
Is it because the largest subset is X and so taking the union of X with any smaller subset would only give X
And since they’re all countable the union of finite sets is countable as well
I would think of 2 cases:
- all of the C_x(U_i) are countable
- not all of the C_x(U_i) are countable
in each case, you need to conclude that the union is still either countable or X
that's all you're missing from your proof, actually proving it, you're kindof just stating the result without explaining why
Don’t they have to be countable tho if the complements of the subsets are in T_c?
Like if they are subsets they should already be countable
no remember U_i is in the topology if C_x(U_i) is EITHER countable or all of X
so some of them could be countable, others could be all of X
Yeah so wouldn’t the 2 cases be about those 2 things?
So if they aren’t countable im guessing I can’t just say “if it’s not countable then it’s X”
you can say that for each C_x(U_i) yeah, for each one if it's not countable, then it's X
but you need to be able to say that about the union of them too
just look at case 1
Yah
you have the union of each C_x(U_i), and they're all countable
so what can you say about the union?
Countable as well
Because the number of elements
Is less than Infinity so unioning them should be too?…
I’m not too familiar with the diff between countable and finite
Ik finite is finer
okay, countable basically means you can write the elements in a list, like {x_1, x_2, x_3, .... }
so suppose I have a finite number of lists
how can you write a list that contains all of the elements of each list?
(ie write the union as a list)
Just taking the finite union from list one to list n
sort of, like if I had lists { x1, x2, x3, .... } and {y1, y2, y3, .... } I could write {x1, y1, x2, y2, x3, y3, .... }
and if you had N lists, you could do the same thing
Wait is that not the union then?
exactly
The finite union of these lists
the finite union of countable sets is also countable
so if each C_x(U_i) is countable, their union is also countable
I thought I said that tho
you did, you just didn't explain why, that's it
but yeah, finite unions of countable sets are countable
so if each C_x(U_i) is countable then the intersection of them is countable
so in case 2, you have (at least) one of the C_x(U_i) = X
so what is their union?
X
yep, why?
Because it’s the largest subset
Of X
And so you’re just adding repeat elements to a list?…
a better explanation would be that each C_x(U_i) is in the union of all of them
so if one of them is X, then X is contained in the union
but X is the full set! so then the union has to be X as well
Yeah since X is the largest subset of X then union of them would be X
That’s what I’m trying to say yeah okay and so then that shows the intersection is in T
The intersection right?
sorry yeah, the intersection
That makes sm sense now yeah ty
I’ll rewrite the proof do you mind if I ping you later when I do finish?
sure
Ty 🙏
Silly question perhaps, but does anyone know why the cup product (and for that matter, the cap product) is so named?
I had a feeling it could be something to do with how the relative cup product involves unions and perhaps it's mimicking that somehow, but i'm aware the cup product originally had a more geometric meaning in terms of linking numbers anyway
What is the precise definition of the fiber in the context of simplicial sets? Let X be a simplicial set and x be a 0-simplex of X. Given f: Y --> X, what is f^-1(x)?
What are the n-simplices of f^-1(x)?
The main problem here is defining x as a simplicial set
Of course, we could just say x is just the smallest simplicial set in X generated by x
But that not very explicit
It can't just be {x} in the 0th slot and empty everywhere else
because there are not maps to the empty set from the singleton
The mth slot must contain the image of {x} under (the image) of any map [m] --> [0]
I think this is the correct definition
But idk if it's the standard
Yeah I'd define it as the pullback of {x} <- Y -> X but then you need to define what we mean by {x} yes
Flipped arrows?
which i would define as you said, the smallest simplicial set containing x in weight 0
okay cool
Oh yeah sorry lol am used to maps going X -> Y lol
And that would agree with the explicit definition i gave as well right?
I think so yes, though of course there's only one map [m] -> [0] :)
But yeah basically x and its image under degeneracies
(which also makes it clear that when e.g. you realise it you just get a point)
Ah so it would just be a singelton at each level
idk why I didn't realize this lol
I don’t know, but I’d guess that the cap product came first and the cup product was an auxiliary operation with a similar symbol. The goal was intersection of cycles, represented by the cap symbol, but that didn’t work out, so they retreated to the cap product and then the cup product
Sure that makes sense
What might be a good example of a topological game which uses the notion of compact spaces from point-set topology?
is this the right place to post this question?
There are notions of games used for definability & distinguishability in logic
Look up Banach Mazur game
But I'm not familiar enough with topological games to answer the question above that one, but I think this is a fine place to ask
Hi how do I prove this
I tried to prove $(\bar{A})^{o}=A^{o}$ first but apparently it’s wrong
www
Maybe you can prove for closed set E,
bar{circ{E}} = E.
Ohhhhh makes sense thx!
Look up telgarsky's article on 50th anniversary of Banach Mazur game
So I know there's a relative version of Mayer--Vietoris, if $(X,Y)=(A\cup B,C\cup D)$ with $C\subset A$ and $D\subset B$: $$\cdots\to H_n(A\cap B,C\cap D)\to H_n(A,C)\oplus H_n(B,D)\to H_n(X,Y)\to\cdots$$
Is there a cohomological version of this?
Matplotlib
So the answer must be yes: I should be able to dualize the chain complex by taking Hom(-,Z) and then looking at cohomology.
So is the LES the same as the cohomological absolute MV sequence?
(basically, reversing all arrows in this and taking cohomology groups instead)
You can show that for an open set U
\bar{U}^o contains U, so the LHS contains the RHS
And for a closed set E, you have that \bar{E^o} is contained in E. Therefore also \bar{E^o}^o is contained in E^o, so the RHS contains the LHS.
And it's not true that \bar{E^o} = E, so you shouldn't try to prove that.
Idk what I was thinking here, I forgot ^\circ on each side
I was not intending to drop that ^{o}
Anyway they might have figured out >.>
Thank you!
is there a comprehensive list of homology groups of topological spaces?
like how theres a comprehensive list of solutions to the EFE's
You can see the answer of this question.
hey could sb help verify my understanding for these before proceeding to justification thank you
I got that
a) open and closed bc its natural number set in R
b) open but not closed we get (-inf, 0) U (0,+inf) are union of open set -> open
c) empty set so open and closed
Hi @mighty loom
hi
a) why would this set be open?
b) open but not closed yes
c) this is not empty.
Ah lol
Yeah so since nonempty that'll change whether it's open and/or closed too ofc
i guess its closed but not open for c
if it said to justify it will my explaination of set notation be good enough
Not open I agree with. But is it closed? If it were closed, you would be able to take some neighborhood of - (1 - ε, 1 + ε) - that's disjoint from it (since complement would be open and 1 is in complement)
sorry i meant open but not closed, but since you imply that its not open i dont understand because for every x in C you can find its neighborhood that is a subset of C
i think i get why its not open is it because its a bunch of isolated point
How would you find a neighborhood of 1/2 for example?
"isolated" has a technical meaning which doesn't fit here, but you might have the right idea(?) So if you take a rational number a/b between 0 and 1, is a neighborhood of a/b going to only have rational points in it?
(paying attention to what sets things are in here is important)
yes this was my understanding my attempt to explain that there is some real number, so from these i could conclude that neighborhood would not be subset of C therefore is not open
thank you
in the bottom lines, why do we have $H_1(X) \to 0$? in the Mayer-Vietoris Sequence, we should have
[ H_1(X) \to H_0(S^1) \to H_0(S^1) \oplus H_0(S^1) \to H_0(X) \to 0 ]
which simplifies to
[ H_1(X) \to \bZ \oplus \bZ \to \bZ \to H_0(X) \to 0 ]
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
I think in the last part you wrote Z and Z+Z should swap place.
And X is connected, so H_0(X)=Z. Since H_0 is just the connected components, the last part is already exact, H_1(X)--> Z should just be the zero map.
good point, makes sense, thanks
Or you could use the reduced homology version of MV sequence,which ends H1 maps to 0.
For unreduced version you need to argue like the inclusion has 0 as kernel so the image from H1 is also 0.
I'm still not very good at subspace topologies, what is this subspace topology?
Is it like {(0,1) U (6,7) U (100,105)}?
What's the definition of the subspace topology?
Say S is a subset of a topological space T
What does it mean for a set A to be open in S?
{S n U : U is in T}
Cool
Z \to Z (+) Z given by 1 to (2, -2) is injective thus has kernel 0
oh wait oops that's to show H2(K) is 0
Ok so intuitively what do you think the answer is? Try to visualize what open sets are in R and how intersecting them with A in your problem changes them
Draw pictures
I think it may be easier to think about clopen sets
Intuitively just like {A,empty set,(0,1],[6,7],(100,105),(0,1]U[6,7],[6,7]U(100,105)}
But I'm not convinced that's right
Are you sure those are all the open sets? Is something like (4, 5) not open in A?
I gotta go but my gut says this is the right approach
What are the only clopen sets in a connected space?
How?
well i guess the image from H1 being injective isnt hard to see
(4,5) isn't A n Anything
passing to reduced is obvious since you just add the Z summand to go back to unreduced
(101, 104)
My first thought is that in H0 every copy of Z corresponds to a connected component. And the inclusion of the intersection induces the diagonal inside Z+Z.
I think the reduced version is easier because everything you have is connected.
yeah
Saves a lot of trouble manipulating in H0.
Well not a lot of.
But doing fewer is always better
Actually no, even easier, is A connected in R? Can you use this?
ive already proved H0 = ~H0 (+) Z and Hn = ~Hn, so yeah it does save a lot of trouble
alright thanks
There was something about "a subset of R is connected iff it's an interval"
But I'm not sure we've done the proof of it yet
I'm bad at picturing things lmao
I don't know the drawing of this
Partially related, what is the complement of (0,1] wrt the subspace topology here?
Don't worry about the topology. Draw this out as a collection of intervals in R
Like on a number line?
Yes.
Hence why I said draw not visualize
Yeah I just never know what to actually draw though
draw the set on the number line and then erase the part of the line outside the set
Is this just {[6,7] U (100,105) n S : S is in T}?
I feel like that can't be how this works
it’s so weird to me how a space can be path-connected but not locally path-connected

Idk, isn't that just like saying even though there's a wall between us I can still just walk around the wall.
Yeah I guess either make the wall part of the space like the topologist sine curve, or just have so many walls that you can't get away from them, like RxQ
Cuz path-connectedness is inherently a global feature
You can't tell whether two points are connected if you zoom in too much
yeah the sine curve is my example and it’s clear enough from the picture, but it’s still weird to me
damn RxQ is a good example
But I feel the weirdness there is being connected but not path connected. The fact that you can connect some things with paths when they're not locally path connected is less surprising I feel
true but i just have no understanding of that so i can’t even make sense of the weirdnes

Hmm, it's like the topologist sine curve and the compactified long line sort are in this same situation. Where there should be a path from one end to another, it just that it would take so long that you have to give up before you reach the end.
Except I guess the problem with the topologist sine curve is not that it's too long, it's just that you get dizzy

How do I prove this?
Your picture is cropped
It's incomplete, there's no statement to be proved
Okay yea bad wording, my bad. I wanted to ask why this makes sense. Like, how can the only open sets containing {xi} be {xi}UN and {x1, x2}UN? How do I show that explicitly?
Or is it sufficient to just write it the way it's written or should I put more details here?
that's just a definition
It feels obvious but I feel like I should write more
Okay, more like, what kind of topology does this definition give on {x1, x2}UN?
ye
Alright, thanks 👍
I'm trying to add to my list of examples of open sets in R
I've added (0,1), (0,1) U (2,6), R, phi
is there a type which I missed or less obvious?
i compile examples whenever I come accross defintions
just some examples and non examples
This is great
What’s phi?
null set
Oh
i think it's vacuously open
R minus Z
R minus {1/n} minus {0}
R minus the cantor set
R- {1/n} won't work?
pick an open set around 0
Try to think of an open set U in R which is
- made up of the union of an infinite number of disjoint open intervals
- is contained in [0, 1]
let me think
proof by looking up the answer
sorry, maybe a little hint ?
yes, the series 1/2^n
yeah
so you have an infinite sum which adds up to 1
I'm asking for an infinite number of open intervals whose union is inside of [0, 1]
and the length of [0, 1] is 1
lol thats my hint
same reasoning, intervals having length 1/2, 1/4/ 1/8.. ? as they are disjoint the length of union is sum ?
i need to be more precise
yeah, lol to both
like you're right and have the right idea, and could be more precise
but thats good, start imprecise but with the right idea, and then try to make it precise
that's literally how to figure out proofs!
Swap them around
(1/2^{n+1}, 1/2^n)
[since otherwise they would be empty since 1/2^n > 1/2^{n+1}]
seems right yeah, start with (0, 1/2), add (1/2, 1/4), then (1/4, 1/8), etc
oh actually
a little problem
you want to do (1 - (1/2)^n, 1 - (1/2)^{n+1}), starting at n = 0
so you'd have (0, 1/2)
then (1/2, 3/4)
ahh right
first should be (1/2, 1)
oooh yup, totally
which is why it looks wrong
np
so (1/2, 1/4)U (1/4, 1/8) U (1/8, 1/16)U...U works?
well writing (1/2, 1/4) is a little weird, you normally don't write intervals like (2 , 1)
lol I do know what you mean though
other way around
yeah, I got you
this is empty
It could mean a fractional ideals generated by 2 elts
Sorry, took time to get what you mean..
yeah, if a > b then (a, b) is empty
since (a, b) = { x | a < x < b }
and there clearly are no such x, since a > b
so it's a well defined interval, it's just empty
it is
but yeah, (1/2, 1) U (1/4, 1/2) U (1/8, 1/4) U .....
normally that would mean each interval is contained in the previous one
so like (0, 1), (0, 1/2), (0, 1/4), (0, 1/8), etc
i see
here all are disjoint
yep
so you can have an infinite number of disjoint balls, and when you combine them their total size adds up to 1
next question: prove that you can have an infinite number of disjoint open balls, whose total size is as small as you want
here An= (1/2^(n+1), 1/2^n) works right?
where should i index from?
that would be (0, (1/2)^n)
not that one
always starting at 0, but the endpoint goes 1/2, 1/4, 1/8, etc
wrong pin
this one
ahh yeah, that would be ((1/2)^{n + 1}, (1/2)^n), starting at n = 0
[0,infy) is the index set?
no, {0, 1, 2, 3, .... } is the index set
yeah, indexing set are countably infinite or finite
[0, infinity) are all numbers greater than 0
I mean not necessarily, you can have an uncountable index set
i'm actually just getting started to all of real analysis, sorry in advance
that's actually leads to a harder question
lol not at all, it's all good
so in the example I gave, you had a countable index set right?
yes
an infinite number of disjoint open balls, indexed by {0, 1, 2, 3, ... }
is that possible if you index by an uncountable set?
like can you have uncountably many disjoint open intervals?
(this is not easy lol, but it's good to think about)
i dont know if i can trust my intuitions on this.
lol whats your intuition?
i'd say disjoint open intervals are countably infinite
yes,
cool, use that to prove (by contradiction) that it's impossible to have uncountably many disjoint open intervals
lol I know I'm throwing questions at you, don't worry if they're difficult
hey all, so im currently trying to wrap my head around regular finite covers of trivial surface bundles, but im not sure what the fiber is supposed to look like
so if we have two surfaces, B and F
then B x F -> B is the trivial fiber bundle with F the fiber
but if we were to take some regular finite cover E -> B x F
then composing this covering map with the projection B x F -> B
gives us a fiber bundle E -> B
but what does the fiber of this look like?
inverse image of {b} times F I suppose.
How do you get E as a base space?
ok im stuck
how do i continue computing the homology for this? in fact, is there a general procedure for computing the homology group of an orientef graph?
but what does this look like?
Idk, I just thought about definition . p: E-> B times F, q: B times F->B, (qp)^-1({b})=p^-1q^-1({b})=p^-1({b} times F)
but beyond that is there anything else about it that we can say?
Seems like a universal covering of (B times F,(b0,0)) is just B’ times F where (B’,b0’) is a universal covering of (B,b0). So E=B’ times F, fiber of E looks like multiple layers {b’} times F: image of b’ is b, so F^|inverse image of {b}|=F^|π(B,b0)|
(any path (f,g) : I -> B times F, from (b0,0) to (b,x) is homotopic to (f, line segment from 0 to x), which can be viewed as (f,x) from B’ times F)
guys does anyone know the homology groups of a complex containing n-2simplexes?
so far all I can do is break em up into some triangles and compute the individual homologies
U= (1/(n+1), 1/n) also works right?
i think he is away, can someone check if free?
Is every second countable topological group homeomorphic to a dense subgroup of a Polish group?
Can't you do something like choose a system of neighborhoods of the identity that are closed under taking inverse. Then use that to define a metric and take completion?
Maybe? The issue is that the metric might not be well behaved.
Like Q is homeomorphic to Q ∩ (0, 1)
The completion of Q is R, which is a topological group.
I don't understand the objection
We can define a group operation on Q ∩ (0, 1) by just stealing it from Q (via homeomorphism), but the completion of Q ∩ (0, 1) is [0, 1], which is not a topological group.
The limit of a bunch of homeomorphisms is not necessarily a homeomorphism, so there's no guarantee that the completion actually has a well-defined group operation.
The completion of a topological group only depends on it's topology
Yeah.
And gives you a topological group
So I'm asking if its always possible to metrize a second countable group in a way such that its completion is also a topological group.
It will have a Polish completion (clearly), but it might not be a group.
The completion of a topological group is always a topological group
yeah I would think you would extend the group operations to the completion using continuity of the operations
You have to assume the group is Hausdorff if you want it to be metrizable though
at least for locally compact ones
Supposedly first countability and metrizability are equivalent for topological groups, so this isn't a problem (Birkhoff–Kakutani theorem).
Then they must include Hausdorff in their definition, because you can make any group into a topological group by giving it the trivial topology
L
alj top
I usually go with g, but mostly because there's no dz in my language 🙂
do you say "al gay braic topology?" no, you say "al jeh braic topology"
dʒ
al juh bray ick taw paw luh gee
topologay
who pronounces it with "g"
ive never heard anyone say it that way in my life
this is wrong tho
I’ve never heard anyone say it at all in my life
Why do you say that?
(0, 1) is a topological group (if you steal its operation from R), but its completion is not.
[0, 1] can't be a topological group because every homeomorphism from [0, 1] to itself fixes a point.
What I'm asking about is the existence of a "nice" metric that allows you to extend group operations to the completition.
I see, you're worried that completing with respect to the metric will be different than completing the group
yeah
So yes, you have to choose the metric based on the system of neighborhoods
So you choose a system of neighbors U1 > U2 > ... then say that the distance between x and the identity is 1/n if x is not contained in Un
(but is contained in Un-1)
Then it should be clear that being a Cauchy sequence in the group is equivalent to being a Cauchy sequence with respect to the metric
Ah, I see.
I now realise just how easy this was and am disappointed it took me this long 😆
Happens to me all the time lol
here if K is a homotopy between k and k' and H is a homotopy between h and h', G(x, t) = K(x, t) o H(x, t) wouldn't make sense right cuz for a fixed x you can't compose em
kh homotopic kh’ homotopic k’h’ (transitivity)
no but you can compose K(x, t) and (H(x, t), t)
yea that works
is your canonical topological space a cylinder
Homotopies have a cylinder for a domain.
lol
would the constant map f_0: X --> [0, 1] given by f(x) = 0 for all x in X be continuous? since the preimage of any open set in [0, 1] (regarded as a subspace of the real line) would either be all of X or the empty set right
an open set either contains 0 or it doesn't
Constant maps are always continuous yes.
no, it's a blob
a potato
but my canonical picture of homotopies is a cylinder between 2 potatos
with a squiggly tube running down the middle
objectively incorrect
i mean thats correct but your conclusion is wrong
is "algtop" not "algetop"
like you say "lol" not "læl" even though (at least when i say it) the o in out is pronounced as æ
so i understand that the fundamental group is the set of path homotopy classes of loops. but i'm trying to see visually when two loops based at a point x_0 are not homotopic, what would be an example? because intuitively it seems like we can always deform one into the other
(ie i'm trying to see why there exist distinct classes)
what does contractible mean
take l_n to be the loop going around the circle n times clockwise for an integer n, where l_0 is the constant map at (1, 0) and n negative represents going counterclockwise
then l_n is not homotopic to l_m for all n ≠ m
homotopy equivalent to a one-point space
or equivalently, space where the identity map is nullhomotopic
just keep in mind the maps are given by f(x) = exp(2iπnx)
i think its nontrivial to prove these arent homotopic but its intuitive
if it makes you feel better, i meant to reply to their other message
it doesnt
you are still very wrong
if anyone walks up to me and says "im studying aljtop" i will punch them
Do you punch everyone who pronounced geese like goose?
oh shit my b i've been saying aljtop in my head all along
😹
But alj top is correct
What actually is a maximal connected set?
There's literally nothing else in my notes that mentions it before this point
being maximal is measured with respect to some order relation
if x is maximal with respect to the order <= it means that there is nothing bigger than x
in other words if x <= y then y = x
when you talk about sets, this order is the subset relation
why is everyone here wrong
so a connected set is maximal if it is not contained in any larger connected set (other than itself)
Ah right, thanks
take for example (0, 1) u (2, 3)
(0, 1/2) would be connected but it is not maximal because (0, 1/2) < (0, 1)
on the other hand (0, 1) is maximal
this reminds me of the situation of the main character, winston smith, from the famous novel 1984 by george orwell. winston finds himself in a world where everyone else has been fed propaganda from a government called "the party", so that they all uniformally believe something incorrect. winston finds himself at odds with their beliefs, and he questions if he truly remembers the past. while winston disagreed with everyone around him, his account of history was actually the real one; he was correct. this is directly analogous to the situation im in, since im right and everyone else is wrong, because theyve been fed lies by the party. the party in this case is the moderators of this server, who hold total power over this server's citizens
Ah, makes sense thanks :)
me when i try to explain why tau > pi
actually more accurate to that example is why x! > gamma(x)
what do they mean by y_n projects under pi to a loop based at 1? that the composition pi o y_n is a loop based at 1?
they mean pi o γ_n i believe
Im with you. I dont even think Im able to pronounce aljtop without putting a vowel between j and t
finally a sane person
new jagr pfp 
there is no difference between "aljtop" and "aljetop" when spoken, to me. they're the same
and i didn't even say anything about this either
i was going after the "hard vs. soft g" part
sketch the curve (cos t, sin t)
So you're telling me you're actually pronouncing it aljetop? Like with the same rythm as algebra but with top as the last syllable? That sounds completely bizzare to me?
algtop is harder to say
"aljtop" and "aljetop" wasn't even what i was talking about. this is completely orthogonal to what i was getting at originally
I thought you where arguing for the use of j instead of g in the pronunciation? Is that not what we're talking about?
.
j is the symbol we're using for soft g though right?
Or are we just taking past each other?
probably talking past eachother
i don't see how "hard vs. soft g," which is what i was originally talking about, has anything to do with the pronunciation of "aljtop" and "aljetop"
Okay, then let me switch up the notation. G = hard g, dz = soft g.
Then my stance is
aldztop = unpronounceable
aldzetop = bizarre
alGtop = the way to go
"Bizarre" describes this whole conversation.
nah it's funny
alGtop is unpronounceable. Try alGdop
whats your opinion then
I can easily pronounce all of those
alGtop
interesting language differences
alg top is perfectly pronouncable for me because the g is pronounced "harder" in german
🇩🇪
in the original word algebraic topology it'd be a soft g
then say the original word
if not then its alGtop
i'm all for that since the g is hard in my language anyway (in the original term as well)
but the point the others are making is obviously the one i said
i can't believe i'm arguing about this 
it's too easy to get baited by this server
maybe we call it alk top now
just call it top
B-but ... point set? 
It's Alχtop, like LaTeΧ. Cccchhhhhh!
I just say com top for combinatorial topology
Homo toe pee.
okay but the g in homology is a hard g we can all agree there
(im joking but also /'hoʊməloʊgi/ is funny to me)
homologif
can you give me examples of a limit point of a set?
I have got 3 is a limit point of [1,3] aswell as (1,3)
can you provide me examples other than such?
R is a limit point of Q right?
R and Q, if you mean the set of real numbers and the set of rational numbers, are both sets. Limit point is an element. I guess I know what you mean. For any fixed real number r, any open neighborhood (open intervals) of r contains at least a rational number, so r is indeed a limit point of Q.
guys can any collection of 2-simplices connected be reduced to a wedge sum of 1-spheres?
Yes
I’m looking for more examples
well, a simple example that comes to mind. Consider the set {1,1/2,1/3,...,1/n,...} with subspace topology from R. 0 is a limit point.
I feel like it is possible if it had some particular topology
The open set is very large
I’m in R btw
If you are in R with the usual topology
The limit point of a finite set should only be the elements from the set itself.
A={1,2,3}
It is easy to prove the open set can always "shrink" somehow
1 isn’t a limit point right?
as the neighbourhood (0.9,1.1) doesn’t intersect A other than 1
1 itself also counts.
(0.9,1.1) intersects A
It is non empty
That is what is important for a limit point
Can I show the definition i’m having?
Every nbhd of the element has a non empty intersection of A
That's the def I am thinking
All good, i just had the textbook with me
So with this in hand, i feel like finite sets can’t have limit points
is that true?
Yes in that case you are right
Because every 2 point in R can be separated by open sets
2 different point
If I need to prove, what choice of epsilon should I take arbitrary
You have distance in R
yes
Take half of the smallest distance since points are finite
You do not need know which, you just need to know it exist. And you can get it by finite steps.
All possible distance between 2 points in this case is finite
Makes sense
Unless you need to write an algorithm or smth
But since it is finite, you can always claim you do it one by one
Makes sense
Just one more question
I’m studying all these part of real analysis course
this is from chapter named Basic topology of R
but i didn’t got the motivation of what is topology yet
What does it mean to have a topology ?
Well, for a set, say R, the topology is a collection of subsets. We call them open sets and force them to satisfy some condition.
You can think of open set is somehow choose what kind of points is "near" to a given point.
I am not an expert in analysis. For me, I think the comcept of topology helps with how to glue geometric structure together
You could try asking this in #real-complex-analysis. They may know more what topology helps in analysis.
Thank youu
so im trying to show that R³ and the upper half space with z ≥ 0 are not homeomorphic. can i do this with removing points? if they were then removing the origin from R³ would give me a space homotopy equivalen to S² but removing the origin from a point from the upper half space would give a space homotopy equivalent to S¹ i think and the first space is contractible while the latter is not
sounds good - the point removal idea
well
im not sure what u mean by homotopy equiv to s1 for the upper half, that doesnt sound right to me
And i also dk what u mean by S2 being contractible to a point
That doesn't work because the removal of a point is not a topological property: image a unit disk centered at 0 and a disk at 5, removal of the point 0 will give two different spaces.
it is though
depending on how you phrase it
For one space its possible to remove a point such that (some topological property preserved by homeomorphism)
For another space its impossible ...
Hence they are not homeomorphic. Is a valid argument
Youre observing something about the subspace topologies. And subspace topologies are preserved via homeomorphism.
Youre totally right!
So i guess yes, their argument could do with some work
u don't wanna just consider removing the origin in R3
the upper half space is homotopy equivalent to the upper hemisphere of S². If you remove a point from the upper hemisphere i think you end up with a space homotopy equivalent to S¹
Ok so like see what I said about the kind of argument you wanna make
You mentioned specifically about removing the origin from the upper half plane and no thats not -> S1
It depends on which point you remove.
In fact yeah i still dont get your argument completely
you're removing a point after you make the homotopy equivalence which I think will rarely make sense
you can R^3 -> open disc -> remove centre -> S1 if you like
its uh... meaningless without being specific about what this means topologically (i don't think it tells u much)
So, what is the quickest argument? Maybe: suppose there is a homeomorphism f : H3 -> R3. Then we also have a homeomorphism of H3 with the origin removed and R3 \ f(0). But the first space is contractible while the second is not (it's homotopic to S2)
Then you don't even need any algebraic topology
I have a very basic question. I have two analytic functions defined on $\mathbb R$ and suppose they agree on $[0,\infty)$. I want to verify that I can use the identity theorem, which states that $[0,\infty)$ needs to contain a limit point in $\mathbb R$. Grateful if someone could confirm and give an example of a limit point. Moreover, what would be an example of a subset of $\mathbb R$ where I could not use the identity theorem?
sunside
It seems to me like every point in $[0,\infty)$ is a limit point in $\mathbb R$. So can I use the theorem for every subset of $\mathbb R$?
sunside
If the subset doesn't have any limit points then you can't use the theorem. So any finite set for example, or the integers.
Indeed sin(2pi x) and f(x) := 0 are both analytic and agree on the integers
i wanna say
"... which states that [0, inf) needs to contain a limit point" sounds like a conclusion, when it's really a condition in the hypothesis
why is H3 with the origin removed contractible?
It's star shaped, for example
isn't it homotopic to the upper hemisphere?
And that upper hemisphere is contractible as well.
Upper hemisphere is homeomorphic with a disc, and a disc is contractible.
is this from abbott?
ooh wait does this work for Rn?
Is there an easy way to see that two simply-connected covering spaces \tilde{X} and \tilde{Y} of connected and locally path-connected spaces X and Y for which X is homotopy equivalent to Y are also homotopy equivalent?
Basic question. I'm reading Rudin's PMA. His definition of separated sets goes like this: "Two subsets $A$ and $B$ of a metric space $X$ are said to be separated if both $A \cap \bar{B}$ and $\bar{A} \cap B$ are empty." Then later on in a proof in chapter 8, he claims that two open, disjoint sets $U$ and $V$ are separated. How does this follow from the definition?
sunside
So you want to show that closure of V doesn't intersect U
This is equivalent to showing that closure(V) is contained in X \ U
Can you see why that is the case
yes, hmm, ok, show closure(V) is contained in X \ U
hmm, from our assumptions, what do we know about the closure(V)?
Well, can you name a closed set containing V which is contained in X \ U
Okay quick confusion, since every topological space is open in itself then doesn't every space have a finite cover, i.e, itself?
Like, I know it's wrong somewhere but I am not absolutely sure why. 'cause recently I got a question where a set could be a cover of itself since it was the only open set covering it, and it was a valid argument there.
But it's not generally, imho. I don't get why. Is it because we are specifically talking about 'sub covers'? That's how I made sense of it before. But I am not sure anymore.
What’s easy for one person is difficult for another... Consider the fiber product or pull back. Given two spaces Xt and Y mapping to X, consider the subspace of the product YxXt consisting of pairs of a point in Y and a point in Xt that map to the same point of X. Call it Yt. If Xt is a covering space of X, then Yt is a covering space of Y. If Y->X is a homotopy equivalence and Xt a covering space, is Yt homotopy equivalent to Xt? Is your original space covering Y homeomorphic to Yt?
Yes
It's not wrong
Are you basically wondering why we care about compactness?
No, I am wondering why some things are compact while others are not.
compactness is "every cover has a finite subcover," not "there is a finite cover"
Oh my god, that makes so much sense
Thank you
Like, we haven't done connectedness yet, so so far it's just a bunch of sets for me which I can use other sets to stick on and cover so far. 💀
Though I proved that a Torus is compact, idk what exactly is compact about it.
I don't see the picture.
But yea ig, it's a related question. Like, if I know why certain things are compact and others are not, I can maybe make sense of why we need it?
I do think it is sort of hard to visualise what it really means hm
I think it makes more sense just to think about why it's useful and stuff
Often you only want to work with finitely many things, so that for example you can stitch stuff together nicely from each open set
Makes sense
take for instance R, and take the open cover {(n, n+2) | n ∈ Z}
this has no finite subcover
i always just think about compactness intuitively as "closed and bounded" but obviously that only makes sense in metric spaces (and isnt always true in metric spaces)
compactness takes local properties to global properties
if every point in a compact space has a neighborhood with property P, then so does the entire space (klaus janich)
uhh, [0, 1] U [2, 3]
compact and locally connected but not connected
(that is locally connected right)
Ahh right
And we can say this for every cover? That's neat now that I think about it.
no, R does have finite covers
it just has some open covers without finite subcovers
which means it isnt compact
remember that the compact subsets of R^n are exactly the closed and bounded ones
What kind of metrics does it not work for?
ok I think I mischaracterized the statement, hold on
discrete on an infinite space
like take a countable discrete space
the whole space itself is closed and bounded
since every point is contained in the ball of radius 2 around any point
Ah okay so one way to show that something isn't compact is to find one cover such that it doesn't have a finite subcover
?
but the open cover { {a} | a ∈ A} has no finite subcover
open cover specifically but yes
another easy way to show it is to find a continuous map f: X -> Y with f(X) not compact in Y, then X cant be compact
Ohh
Ooh thanks
And hence it's not, compact?
yes exactly
for instance if A is a countably infinite discrete space, since every map from a discrete space is continuous, enumerate the elements of a as a_1, a_2 etc and let f: A -> R by f(a_n) = 1/n. then f(A) = {1/n | n ∈ N} which is not closed (it has a limit point at 0 that isnt contained in the set) and therefore isnt compact
Wait, cts maps which map to a compact set, their preimages are open in a compact space. And so is this the contrapositive of the prev. Theorem?
this is the contrapositive of "the continuous image of a compact set is compact" which is the main theorem on compactness
Ahh that Makes sense
Wow
(and as a corollary compactness is a topological property)
So it's preserved under homeomorphism
yes
So if we find a homeomorphism between a space that is not compact to a space that we want to find if it's compact
That would mean that the given space isn't compact either
right
That makes sense
Thanks, I learned a lot.
What was first, simplicial homology or singular homology?
Simplicial
Does anyone have recommendations for reading material on hyperbolic manifolds?
Oh, the simplex one is first
Probably better in #diff-geo-diff-top ? Since there is curvature involved
Yes
oh sure
if f and g are maps X -> S^n with f(x) + g(x) ≠ 0 are they always homotopic by the homotopy given by H(x,t) = (1-t)f(x) + tg(x)/| (1-t)f(x) + tg(x)|?
Yes
No
Why not lol
Take the (perturbed) constant map and the identity S1 -> S1
So f(x) + g(x) avoids 0
Try it. Im trying to come up with an easy argument
Hm why are you telling me to try it when they seem to have written a perfectly good homotopy and I have done this question before too
Maybe im mistaken
Oh I think I see now. You're right!
Cool
Do you mean the simplicial set or simplicial complex?
Sure
Doesnt really matter what kind of homology
Should be zero if im not mistaken?
Well it shouldn't matter since it should agree with the homology of the realisation
Which doesn't vanish in 0th degree
Unless you mean reduced homology
Oof
:p
Yes you are working with reduced homology it seems
Since otherwise delta_0 is just the zero map
Yah then it's 0
Usually one would write tildes for reduced homology
we also work on F2
it is a 3.5 week crash course on homology so nothing too advanced
yes
we also know how to work on Z etc. but ptofessor doesnt wanna make out lives too difiicult
I also have this
too small but
attempting to prove the statement
might be completely bogus
Not every ASC is equivalent to the wedge sum of circles right?
What about S2
What about the projective plane
i only consider the 1-skeleton as H0 depends on the boundary of the 1 skeleton and the boundary of the 0 skeleton
of our ASC K
What book is this from?
not a book
not sure if my lecturer ripped it off somewhere or formulated his own questions
the intersection of loops cannot itself be a loop
so its equivalent to a point
But cant it be 2 points?
yes
But then H0 isnt 0?
FUCK
I see, thanks
i think the intersection always was a line in it
or
rather
there exists another distinct loop/loops such that the intersection also contains lines
dk how to formulate this exactly
Could we transform the ASC so that all loops connect in only a single point
thats also true
If you have to start thinking about the combinatorics of these kinds of hellish diagrams then I think you're on the wrong path 🙂
I agree
made it a biiit too complicated
my main idea was to use mayer - vietoris
to show its always zero
I think the idea is good
Maybe you could also do without (a la https://topospaces.subwiki.org/wiki/Zeroth_homology_is_free_on_set_of_path_components) but never mind that
Mayer vietoris is usually stated for two subspaces. How were you planning on dealing with a load of loops? What if theres transfinitely many?
we define ASCs as strictly finite
what I was planning to do is work in pairs of loops
and combine what I get for each pair to get some notion for the Union of all loops
ie
Ok then you're good
l1 intersection l2 ---> l1 U l2
l3 intersection l4 ---> l3 U l4
and then combite what I get'
i think there should be a simpler way
Just do induction
So then you really want all loops to connect in only 1 point since otherwise you also have to think about the intersection of a loop with another union of loops
Not just the intersection of two loops
Is the empty ASC connected?
i think i managed the proof
i showed we can get all the loops to intersect at at most 1 point with each other loop, and then inductively showed that H0( l1 U .. U ln ) = 0
guys, does somebody know what are the most important theorems of algebraic topology?
up to what point
I have a book, algebraic topology by allen hatcher
and I was trying to find the most important things about it, since I have to write a "summarizing paper" about the most important results, eventhough I didn't do the course yet
You have to summarize things that you don't know?


You could do that for one chapter of the book
I wanted to write something about simplicial homology
but for the entire one?
I thought about simplicial homology, homology group and homotopy groups and showing the connection through the Hurewicz theorem
you could show that it satisfies ES axioms and compare it to other homologies
but I don't know how relevant this theorem is
how long is the paper supposed to be
Hurewicz, as in relating the first nonzero homotopy group to the corresponding homology group? Maybe that's too much, and something more entry-level would be cellular spaces and their homology (cellular homology)
two pages 😄
yes, that is what I was thinking about
two pages might be enough for the special case pi_1
If you really want to go into homotopy groups, why not, but that's not as basic as homology
you probably don't wanna go into higher homotopy groups for that one
Tbh, cellular homology is much more helpful to give tons of examples of computations
I thought about the special case for n=1, otherwise it's gonna be too much
however: funny triangles
I haven't really heard of it
lemme take a look
A very neat application is the homology of lens spaces: that's the perfect example of what can differ through different xoefficient rings
It depends. For CW pairs, there's this "disagreable lemma" (that's what my old German teacher called it), which states that a CW pair (X,A) is n-connected iff A contains the n-skeleton of X.
If you can prove this, then Hurewicz for CW spaces is an application of the case A={*}!
(that's for culture and if you're interested for your own sake; don't talk about this in your "summarizing paper")
(and ofc, there are easier and more direct proofs of Hurewicz!)
It's really cute how it follows easily from the π1 Hurwicz along with the serre exact sequence in homology (from the Serre spectral sequence)
Unfortunately that requires formalism one probably hasn't done when you first learn hurewicz lol
I think they can be very cute
Well like a nicely interlocking puzzle
Tickles a similar part of my brain to, say, doing character tables
:)
Ahh
Well, to each their own
e.g. a preprint i am working on
I tend to find them very useful but rarely aesthetically pleasing
Fair enough
I think a nice example I had in mind was like
Stuff like cohomology of K(Z,2) where you get nice periodicities and stuff
or like can completely work out the differentials "in reverse" hehe
Working on spectral sequences?
But, don't you have a somewhat-explicit description of K(Z,2)=CP^oo?
Definitely yes, the cohomology groups are immediate and not too hard to compute the ring structure directly ig
Just I think it's nice that you can also do all those computations without even having a nice model
More or less
Yeah makes sense. Ig it also helps in more general situations where you don't have such a nice description of the space 
what is the fundamental group of the space X where X is the subspace of R^3 in which at least one of the coordinates of (x,y,z) is an integer?
Try sketching part of it and what you think a generator might be
Note that X is spanned by the planes {x=i}, {z=i}, {y=i}
For i an integer
i've tried and seems like this space consists of parallel planes in the xy, yz and xz directions. it's not very intuitive to figure out what the generators should or if the space is contractible
For an idea of what the generators "should" be, consider the problem in R^2 first
in R^2 we end up with a "grid" right?
Right so what does a generator look like there
just to be clear if i consider the base point the origin the loops in this space should be "stuff going along" the grid lines and not actually in R^2?
Yes
And since the space is path connected your base point doesn't matter, you can forget about it
we dont have any other trivial loops except the constant one right?
Not up to homotopy, no
But that's always the case
Draw the R^2 case and an example of a non trivial loop
(An easy one)
for example the one that goes around the square with vertices (0,0), (1,0), (1,1) and (0,1)?
a cube
Yep. But a sphere is simply connected and a cube is your username to a sphere
wait is the loop then nullhomotopic
Yes
The space in your example is simply connected
Draw one of the cubes in R^3 and a curve to convince yourself
No problem!
could i have a hint on this question pls?
prove the contrapositive using the fact that you can divide by f(x) + x
is it just that if we assume that $f(x) + x \neq 0$ for all $x \in C$, $F(x, t) = \frac{(1 - t)f(x) + tx}{\norm{(1 - t)f(x) + tx}}$ is a homotopy between them?
okeyokay
yeah, something like this will worm
cuz denominator is never zero
work*
oh okay sick
what do they mean by effect on the square? shouldn't it be on G since F is a map from the square to G?
I assume they mean draw a picture of what f does to [0,1] x [0,1]
like the square being [0,1] x [0, 1]
wait i'm confused how does it affect [0, 1] x [0, 1] tho if that's the domain
It's a bit handwavy language.
haha yeah it's weirdly worded
classic armstrong
ohh
i see now
like the effect "restricted to this square"
even tho there's no restriction
The idea something like imagine the map physically lifts each point on the square out of R^2 and puts it down somewhere in G instead.
lol really it's like "just draw a picture"
lol yea makes sense
oh maybe by the square they mean the boundary?
also i'm assuming they want us to show that the fundamental group of G relative to e is ableian
like f restricted to the boundary
Just showing the effect on the boundary is probably easier than trying to depict the whole square, yes.
since G is path connected you can always look at e, since all fundamental groups on G are isomorphi
isomorphic*

