#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 62 of 1
^^ unless you mean R --> X/~ which chooses just one origin
yes thats what i mean, i was omitting some details bc i was lazy
here's what I actually meant where 0_1 is one of the origins
should rlly say (x, i) |--> x
and i want to prove phi^{-1} is continuous
ah ok lemme type this up
Here's what I'm thinking:
To prove the inverse is continuous, note that the map $\psi: \mathbb{R} \to X \setminus {0_1}$
given by $x \mapsto (x, 0)$ is continuous because it is an inclusion.
We see $[\psi(x)]{\sim} = x$.
Since $\varphi^{-1}(x) = [\psi(x)]{\sim}$, this means $\varphi^{-1}$ is continuous.
srhoosteen
Suppose we have $\gamma$ an embedded circle in genus $g$ surface $\Sigma_g$ for $g \geq 2$. How we can we show that $[\gamma] =0\in H_1(\Sigma_g)$ iff $\gamma =\partial M$ for some compact subsurface $M$ in $\Sigma_g$ ?
ru0xffian
We draw a 4g gon P whose quotient is F=Σg. Then γ is either
- homotopic with a circle on P, this case [γ] is 0 since γ is contractable and γ is boundary of a compact surface.
Or - homotopic to an arc on P whose two end points are vertices of P, then [γ] is not zero in H1, unless this arc divide P into two parts each are product of aibiai^-1bi^-1. Then γ is a circle connecting two adjacent torus, (cut along γ , Σg will be divided into Σg’ and Σ(g-g’). Then γ contractable, [γ]=0, and it’s a boundary of compact surface
Is there a nice description of the set of symmetric matrices inside the orthogonal group? More specifically, If $S_n$ is the set of $n\times n$ symmetric matrices, then I want to check if $S_n\cap O_n$ is a disjoint union of connected compact submanifolds of $O_n$.
mushy
Looks like it is? I think Sn cap On can be expressed as union of {QΛQ^T: Q orthogonal, det(Q)=1} where union runs over all diagonal Λ whose elements are 1 or -1
I think they are compact submanifolds. To prove it’s connected, I think it’s like different Q differ by a rotation, something like that, so it’s path connected.
Disjoint union of connected components isn’t saying much
I mean, S_n is closed in O_n which is compact, so what you're trying to do is just write down something as the union of its connected components!
Most likely, you want to compute what those connected components are, right?
this might be completely trivial but is there anything to be said about metric spaces where distance splits? ie. if for two points x, y we have d(x, y) = c_1 + c_2, then there exists z such that d(x, z) = c_1, d(z, y) = c_2. This clearly holds for NVSs (just chopping up the line between x and y) and for other niceish metrics (like Hausdorff metric induced by an NVS I think). Does it imply (or is it implied by) connectedness? The spaces I can think of that this doesn't hold in are all disconnected
Is that equivalent to having geodesics?
Lots of metrics don’t have this. Take a nice metric space and define a new metric by just capping the distance at 1. Or apply a concave function like the square root
oh yeah good examples
yeah hence all the examples I could initially think of being disconnected xd didn't consider min{d, 1} for some reason
Looks like you could do something on weird manifolds and cut loci too?
maybe
trying to cook up a funky counterexample to something and it needs to not have this property & be fairly nontrivial so I will just play around a bit
would this work? Let $x, y \in A \cup B$ be any two distinct points. If $x, y \in A$ or $x, y \in B$, we are done. Hence, suppose $x \in A$ and $y \in B$. Let $f: [0, 1] \to A$ be a path from $x$ to $c$ where $c \in A \cap B$, and let $g: [0, 1] \to B$ be a path from $c$ to $y$. Then their composition $g \circ f: [0, 1] \to A \cup B$ is continuous with $(g \circ f)(0) = x$, (g \circ f)(1) = y$.
okeyokay
Compile Error! Click the
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wait what's the difference
you should be able to answer that
It doesn't even make sense to compose them, based on domain/codomain.
oh shit ur right
why is it that R under the cofinite topology is not Hausdorff? does it have to do with all neighborhoods being infinite
any two non-empty open sets intersect
what's the simplest way to see this? assume for cont O and U nonempty open sets with empty intersection, in particular U \subseteq R/O, O \subseteq R/U, so O and U are finite, contradicting O and U being open under cofinite topology
would that work?
(handwavy intuitive explanation) So to separate points in a topogical space, you have to have enough small open sets around each point that for any two different points, you can draw an open set around each which don't touch. But with the cofinite topology all open sets are really big (you actually have the same issue with the Zariski topology if you've seen that), specifically all non-empty open sets are dense, so you just don't have small enough open sets around each point.
Consider the quotient of the square
$$
X = [-1,1] \times [-1,1]
$$
by identifying only the opposite vertices, can we represent this quotient by an algebraic surface inside $\mathbb{R}^{3}$?
MisterSystem
What about the only singularity? Does it look like an algebraic singularity?
It has two singularities, right?
Doesn't it have only one? Like the four corners are glued together?
Oh by opposite you mean diago ally opposite?
yup
I mean diagonally opposite
Ah yes, so just singularities alone will not be enough I suspect
Btw, idk much about algebraic geometry, so what would be the problem if we considered the space obtained by gluing all the four vertices together?
Yeah ofc it has to be a global obstruction, the space where all four corners are identified doesn't seem to be problematic x)
Do you know of obstructions regarding the fundamental group? (I know I'm stating the obvious here, but I'm the same boat and I don't know much about this specific stuff!)
The pi1 is free on two generators, right? Or do I need some sleep?
I'm not sure 😦
It looks like to me it deformation retracts to a wedge of two circles
iirc, it's also used in ML
don't ask me why or how. ML ppl find ways to use anything in math
interesting
ya for normalization i think
oh shoot i didn't know that they were dense
i had some notion of them being large, in that if it's open then R/O is finite so that means O is infinite(?)
yeah but infinite isn't really a strong/topological condition, every open interval in R is infinite but the topology generated by open intervals is very hausdorffy!
yeah that's true lol
really it's that open sets in the cofinite topology are dense, which is like "so large that the only closed set containing it is everything"
so if you wanted to show that $G$ is a topological group and that the operation $(x, y) \mapsto x * y$ is continuous, could you just show that each component is continuous? and somebody told me that that means you fix some $a$ in the domain, let $y$ in the second component range over all elements in the domain, and show that that function is continuous, and similarly you let $x$ range over a fixed $a$
okeyokay
hm i see
and taking the closure of a set should (intuitively at least) just be adding the boundary
like not adding much
multiplication being continuous is part of the definition of a topological group!
ahhh gotcha
I wonder if there's a nice way to make precise "not adding much" using measure theory for Rn
there's gotta be an interaction between the measure of a topological boundary when the measure is the borel measure
lol I'd like to think it's zero but I've never checked
so in essence, if we wanted to show that multiplication is continuous in ($\mathbb{R}_+, \cdot$), our goal would be $(x, y) \mapsto xy$ is continuous. but if we could show that $y \mapsto ay$ for some $a \in \mathbb{R}$ and $x \mapsto xb$ for some $b \in \mathbb{R}$ are continuous then we'll be done?
the fat cantor set
okeyokay
and if those are equal to showing the components are continuous then that's a lot easier than say
considering metrics
imo
oh like does continuous in each component imply continuous?
ye, or rather i'm wondering if that's the definition of continuous in each component
like
fix a variable b
show that f(x, b) is continuous
then it's continuous in the first component
That doesn't work unfortunately
yeah, there are weird counterexamples
or how does continuity in the components work
It isn't too relevant tbh hm lemme think of a counterexample
certainly continuous implies continuous in each component, just by composing with projections
that makes sense
I think one example would be like
Eh idk lol
Lkl
There will be counterexamples online lol
P sure munkres gives one
wait so I'm a bit confused, if we wanted to show that $(\mathbb{R}_+, \cdot)$ was a topological group, we would have to show that $(x, y) \mapsto x \cdot y$ and $x \mapsto \frac{1}{x}$ are continuous (on top of the other conditions ofc). But how would you show that? if you're talking about balls and stuff are we only allowed to use a metric which only involves multiplication?
okeyokay
with this one I'd suggest doing it the old fashioned way with epsilons and deltas!
like how would y'all show that multiplication in this group is continuosu
okay
this is really stupid
a really stupid question
but can we not use addition in that case?
since we're only considering R under multiplication
Well if you use sequences then this is like in Rudin chap 1 or smth
so I would just appeal to the well known facts about sequences
Or reprove them
hm ok
Like if x_n -> x and y_n -> y then x_n y_n -> xy
And similarly for the other ting
erm chapter 3 actually 🤓
ah i see yeah
actually that seems way better lol
Okay fair sorry
What even is in Rudin chap 1 then
Construction of reals and archimedean fields?
Cool
Only thing is this only works for like 1st countable spaces like metric spaces
But I think that was the context you were interested in? I hope aha
yeah, real and complex numbers, then basic topology, then sequences and series
idk what a 1st countable space is
OK well for your purposes perhaps it is enough to say metric space
It means there is a countable neighbourhood basis at each point
- compact subset of hausdorff space is closed
- closed subset of compact space is compact
- closed subset of complete metric space is complete
anyone know of other results of this type lol
closed subset of closed space is closed
mmm, a closed subgroup of a lie group is also a lie group?
I don't know if that's what yer looking for
Nice that's another one
I was just wondering if there's any other really big true statements of the form:
"type X subset of type Y space is type Z"
rip @gritty widget
Compact subset of a closed manifold is closed
Compact subset of a Hausdorff space is closed
dang I’m just getting clowned on
subset of a set is a set
closed subsets of a space is open (in the discrete topology)
this was already on the list. I didn't see the initial message lol sorry
Complete subspace of a metric space is closed.
Many properties are hereditary like this
Is the intersection of a vector subspace of $\mathbb R^n$ and a smooth manifold in $\mathbb R^n$ a smooth manifold? I think it must be true, because a diffeomorphism restricted to a vector subspace is till a diffeomorphism into the image
mushy
I edited "subspace of R^n" to "vector subspace"
it's very false. you need the transversality assumption
consider the intersection of z = 0 (vector subspace) with z = xy (smooth submanifold) in R^3
Well, dang.
To show that $\mathbb{Q}$ is Hausdorff, could we use the fact that for every pair of distinct rationals $a, b$ we have $a < m < b$ for some irrational number $m$? Then just simply define the neighborhoods in terms of the distance from m or something (make it half to be safe)
okeyokay
||subspace of a hausdorff space||
lol true idk why i didn't think of that
you could just define the radius of a ball around each rational to be like |b - a|/2
Metric spaces are very separated 
uh i'm not sure if this is the right channel for this but can i get a hint 😭
my topology's wayyyy too weak to know how the fuck to approach this
Directly show that f|Q=g|Q, then f=g
For f:R --> X, X a Hausdorff space. And somewhere there, you'll need to use Hausorffness X, since this is not true in the category of all topological spaces.
ok I showed that f and g agree on Q, and now I'm supposing that f and g don't agree on I (irrational numbers). that is f(i) = a \neq b = g(i). then I'm using the hausdorfness of X to produce disjoint neighborhoods, and am going to look at their preimage
Yeah it works
you're coping in the wrong channel
the real numbers
Hello!
I am having trouble with some reasoning:
Let's say that I want to use the following statement in a proof in the context of a metric space X.
Given any nonempty subset A of X such that A is also bounded guarantees that the boundary of A is not empty.
is this something like provable or is it a mere consequence of how a topology is defined? specially when it is also a metric space.
That's not proveable, but not for the reason you said. That should be false in the discrete metric.
Derek Müller
something something I think this should hold in any connected metric space (i think?)? If A subset X is not all of X or empty, then its boundary should be nonempty? So in particular, Euclidean space is connected, so this is true
yeah, my current knowledge suggest it is related to connectedness too, but I haven´t covered that part comprehensively.
I think the argument would go as follows, working in something like R: the closure of A is a closed subset of R, and is also bounded (since A is contained in some interval [a, b]). Since R is connected, the closure of A and the interior of A can't be be equal, otherwise they would both be clopen sets, of which there are no non-trivial ones in R. Hence the closure minus the interior has to be non empty
That's around what I had in mind yeah
Note that, you don't really need boundedness here, just not all of R.
Is there some tricky way to compute Hn(M, M-x) for a top manifold M without using excision thm? only using long exact sequences
Embed M in R^3n. Take a neighborhood that is homotopy equivalent. This is now a smooth manifold and thus a CW complex
Srry not following, how does that help? I want to get the homology computation to just computation around some nbhd of the point but I don't see how to do that without excision
I don’t understand the rules of your game. Excision follows from the axioms of cellular homology, so I got you closer to that setting
How about MV to build M from M-p and a chart around p?
Yeah I thought about that too but the rules is just long exact sequences and homology of pairs, no excision, cellular homology nor MV
have been trying to find a tricky way to do it but it seems impossible wihtout MV or excision
What is the difference between MV and LES of pairs? Aren’t they equivalent?
I feel like the equivalence depends on excision to begin with. You need to have Hn(X,A)=Hn(X cup CA) right?
H(M-x, M-U) → H(M, M-U) → H(M, M-x) for some chart U to a ball ⊂ R^n and H(M, M-U) = H(M/(M-U))?
does anybody know how to solve this please ?
It would have to be both closed and open
Have you tried multiplying both sides by n^2?
If you do you get the equation sqrt((nx - 1)^2 + (ny-1)^2) \leq \lambda, which is a disk of radius lambda centered around (1,1) dilated by 1/n.
You can also just do the algebra explicitly to see what the condition is
isn't "perfect" a relative notion? So that it doesn't make much sense to say "perfect" without context, no? Like, any metric space X is perfect as a subset of itself right?
What is a "perfect metric space" ?
a metric space with no isolated points , take R for example (with its usual topology)
they’re equivalent
so consider A=[0,1] cup {2} as a metric space, then why is {2} not an accumulation point of A?
so accumulation poin means that for every ball centered at 2, not including 2, there should be points of A?
ah ok ye
mb
so being perfect is not relative then right
I got confused a little lol
I was wondering about extensions of this theorem. Is the following true?
Any two totally disconnected, perfect locally compact metric spaces of the same cardinality are homeomorphic
That would mean that the disjoint union of countably many Cantor sets is homeomorphic a single Cantor set. But the latter is compact, the former not.
uhm yeah that was dumb lol. I forgot for a second how cardinalities worked, thats why I said that 
like the motivation for that question is that Q_p is a countable disjoint union of Cantor sets (I think), so all the Q_p are homeomorphic to each other. So I was wondering about substituting "compact" by "locally compact" + some invariant, but clearly fixing the cardinality is not enough
Essentially, I was wondering about the following: Is every totally disconnected, perfect locally compact metric space homeomorphic to a disjoint union of Cantor sets?
I don't know a lot about topology, so there might be a trivial counter example
Hi, I wanted to ask, is there a non complete metric space that satisfies the Heine-Borel property?
(https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Heine–Borel_theorem#Heine–Borel_property)
I was thinking not, because, since in a metric space a cauchy sequence is contained in a closed ball (which is closed and bounded), if the Heine-Borel property holds, it has a convergent subsequence, and hence the sequence itself (as it's cauchy) converges to the same point
Ew, French
But if you're curious, the necessary and sufficient condition is lambda >= 1.
... I think
Thank you and @ebon galleon
It's a very classic exercise I used to give, and iirc the answer involves sqrt(2). The way: make a drawing!
is there a theorem somewhere that extends this one to more general topological spaces? i.e. if we have a continuous bijective function f: R --> R then f is a homeomorphism? (this theorem shows that f takes closed sets in the doamin to closed sets in the codomain right)?
uhh no it doesnt
wait it does but
only for I
if your domain is R then consider that R is homeo to (-1, 1) but R is closed and that isnt (in R)
idk maybe im misunderstanding what youre asking
well i guess what are the topological implications of this theorem
why is it called invariance of domain
this is a fun theorem, just follows from main theorems on compactness and connectedness
and connectedness
oh the interval part yea
Yes, for R in particular. However, it's not true for arbitrary topological spaces that a continuous bijection is a homeomorphism.
its a special case of these
like i said
Wait the image you replied to isn't invariance of domain lmao
I just brought that up
Um. I was only replying to what I was replying to.
Ok I only saw the image and not okey's message (which I just read), sorry
It is also true between compact Hausdorff spaces.
domain compact and codomain hausdorff
Hm I just realize Invariance of Domain is NOT a special case of this
do you know why it's called "Invariance of Domain"
Nope.
I guess that a continuous map sends compact connected spaces to compact connected spaces
that seems like the immediate generalization of that result
any idea how to do this? I feel like you can brute force your way by looking at all possible combinations of such loops but I think there must be better way of approaching this.
How are RP^(2n) and CP^(n) related?
Hm I had some facts about that in my bach thesis 1 sec
They aren't, other than both being 2n-dimensional manifolds.
Eh well one thing is that the obvious map RP^{2n} -> CP^n is a homeo RP^{2n}/RP^{2n-1} -> CP^{n}/CP^{n-1} which is sort of clear but can be useful in computations lol
But beyond that not sure there are many useful relations
any ideas here?
In 2. how is the "U is open iff for every u there is a r" condition not just the definition of an open set in a metric space?
Or is it saying the same r can be used for all points in the set
That’s probably true, if you add the hypothesis non compact. Can’t you reduce to the previous theorem by taking the one point compactification?
Assuming it’s a metric space is doing a lot of work. Here are three (compact) examples.
1 An uncountable product of finite sets 2^c
2 the disjoint union of a countable and uncountable product 2^Z + 2^c
3 the points at infinity of the Stone-Cech compactification of the integers bZ-Z
all points of U? or all points of that unnamed set
its saying it for all points of that unnamed aet
set
Is it an open problem to construct all of the homotopy groups of an n-sphere?
Yes
Yes, the homotopy groups of spheres are very difficult to compute
Creating new tools to compute them has been much of the research in stable homotopy theory in the last 50+ years
In R^2 with the Euclidean metric, you can choose
3 points and determine the location of any point in R^2 by its distance to those 3 points. Not every choice of 3 points works obviously (they can't all lie within a line).
Does this hold for every metric on R^2 that induces the same topology as the Euclidean metric?
Define a new metric which is the maximum of the old metric and 1. Points far away all have the maximum distance, so don’t provide information
So again draw a 4g-gon P. a and b are either a loop or an arc joining two vertices of P.
- a, b are loops then a=b=0, clearly they bound an annulus or Σg with two disks removed.
- a is a loop and b is an arc, then a=0, b=0 iff b divides P into two parts (I say divided into two parts I mean for any one of these two parts , for each edge x, either both x and x^-1 are in it or neither is in it). then a,b bound a Σg’ surface with two disks removed for some g’<g
- a and b are arcs. Then a+b=0 iff the end of is the beginning of b and a * b divides P into two parts (or the other way round). Then a,b bound a Σg’ with one disk removed for g’<g
Part(3) doesn’t make sense, we are assuming that a,b are non intersecting how is a*b defined ?
The end of one is the beginning of the another one
Which is a vertix of P
If you have a+b=0 of course
If a and b are disjoint , you won’t have a+b=0
Think of when a,b are on the same handle
I am viewing a and b as arcs on P, whose ending and beginning points are vertices of P
But how can we describe non intersecting loops this way ?
Which case are you talking about
a, b are on the same torus but opposite orientation for example like when they bound a cylinder
a,b are loops on Σ1 you mean? Then a=b=0 in H1, and they bound an annulus
How is a zero here, isnt this loop a generator of H1. Am i missing something obvious
I mean if they are loops on P
Maybe this makes it clearer? :
Loops on P are 0 in H1
Arcs on P is like what in the picture
Oh wait you are right, case 3) is not rigorous
Two arcs case
Yes, but also on more problem of looking at P is that there is at least on case where they actually non intersecting but you can't draw it on P
like they are the same arc but different directions
Same arcs with different orientation is the trivial loop
Contractable
a * b I mean
This is the case I am talking about
their a*b is not defined, a is not zero in H1 and they bound a cylinder
I already used homotopy to make any loop start and end with same point in the beginning
Image of all vertices of P under quotient
But doesn't that make you miss some cases like this one above ?
I don’t think so. Any loop has to be a loop on P or an arc under homopoty
I just need to think more about case 3) where two arcs intersect
Two arcs disjoint is still fine
Torus
Unless n = 0 or 1 :)
Nvm you said they have empty intersection
So no two arcs intersecting case, so solved
Oh wait I'm a dumb ass lmao
I read that question and assumed a u b meant cup product
Until I read it again properly
I am still quite confused about part 3 and considering a*b if we're assuming that those loops don't meet.
If they don’t meet I want to show that a+b can’t be zero
But the case I draw above is two loops that don't meet and a+b is zero.
Looking at P with loops based on vertices identified seems like simplifying the problem but missing cases.
The case above a and b are the same arc on P
Under homotopy
With opposite orientation
But how to see on P that this case they still bound a subsurface
A trivial loop, (a point) can be viewed as it bounds a small disk
But in this case it doesn't bound a disk, a and b they bound a cylinder.
Maybe it’s not rigorous. Two arcs being the same can be viewed as they are parallel loops , then they still bound a surface right
So an annulus
Yeah I think while approaching this Using P you have to take care that everything is up to homotopy
Yeah right. I shouldn’t have viewed them as wedge of two cycles , rather parallel loops
Oh and we can have two arcs that don’t meet , it’s just this case both of them are 0 in H1, and they bound a Σg’ with two disks removed, g’<g
Other than this two arcs share a vertex
Yeah, Another different way I was considering is to Compute H_0(M_g - a u b) and see how my connected componenets remain after removing those loops
but not sure how to compute this homology
I just directly considered the rest of edges of P not bounded by arcs a and b. This is either one part, which is product of xyx^-1y^-1, this case two arcs share a vertex. Or this is two parts, then two arcs are disjoint and each is 0 in H1
And the surface they bound is homotopic to Σg’ with one disk removed, or Σg’ with two disks removed respectively
wait what is the case when they bound Σg’ with one disk removed?
a and b have a common vertex
I see
Does this work? Suppose we have $f\iota = g\iota$ where $f$ and $g$ are both continuous maps $\mathbb{R} \to T$ where $T$ is Hausdorff. Since $(f \circ \iota)(q) = f(q) = g(q) = (g \circ \iota)(q)$ we see that $f\restriction_\mathbb{Q} = g\restriction_\mathbb{Q}$. Now, consider some irrational number $p$ and suppose we have $f(p) \neq g(p)$. Since $T$ is Hausdorff, we can find disjoint open neighborhoods $U$ of $f(p)$ and $V$ of $g(p)$. Now $(f \circ \iota)^{-1}(U) = {q \in \mathbb{Q} \mid f(q) \in U}$ and $(g \circ \iota)^{-1}(V) = {q \in \mathbb{Q} \mid g(q) \in V}$. But $f\restriction_\mathbb{Q} = g\restriction_\mathbb{Q}$, so $(f \circ \iota)^{-1}(U) = (g \circ \iota)^{-1}(V)$, whence $U \cap V \neq \varnothing$. Hence we must have $f = g$ for all $r \in \mathbb{R}$.
okeyokay
No.
Hm you didn't show that the equal sets are non-empty for example
I'm not sure exactly what it shows, but it doesn't really give a contradiction. Nor does the fact that f|Q = g|Q mean that (f o i)^{-1} U = (g o i)^{-1} V
Also there is no reason they should be equal, since you have taken different subsets
You need to use the key fact something something ||density of Q in R||
Since this is what characterizes this map as an epi in Hausdorff spaces
Needs to work for all T for epi
Oh sorry I am dumb w reading
Another way is to consider the set on which the functions argee
por ejemplo
Eh idk maybe overcomplicating
You approach works if you fix it a bit
Something like ||look at f^{-1} U and g^{-1} V in R. They are open ==> contain rationals... why is this bad?||
so everything up until Now (f \circ \iota)^{-1}(U) = ..... is fine in this argument tho right
okay i'll consider this thanks
how are they currently computed? algorithms?
oh does it have to do with $\overline{\iota^{-1}\bigl(f^{-1}(U)\bigl)} = f^{-1}(U)$? and therefore $f^{-1}(U)$ is closed and that's our contradiction
idk
okeyokay
No. Not sure how you got that f^{-1}U would be closed. Instead, ||consider that, on the intersection of f^{-1}U and g^{-}V, which is a nonempty open neighborhood of p, we can find a rational point q||. Now, ||Since f(q) = g(q), how does this contradict our choice of U and V?||
wait $\overline{\iota^{-1}\bigl(f^{-1}(U)\bigl)}$ is closed right
okeyokay
and $\overline{\iota^{-1}\bigl(f^{-1}(U)\bigl)} = f^{-1}(U)$
okeyokay
This would mean f^{-1}U is a closed and open set, hence either empty or all of R since R is connected. So no.
ah yeah that's true rip
ah so f(q) is in both of the disjoint neighborhoods contrary to them being disjoint

How do I show two topologies are not the same topology?
find a topological invariant (property preserved under homeomorphism) that is different for each one
find an open set in one that's not in the other
i'm confused, could we not apply this argument to p also in the above paragraph? [2, 3] is open in X and is saturated with respect to p, and its image p([2, 3]) = [1, 2] is not open in Y so therefore it's not a quotient map
oh wait
[2, 3] is not saturated with respect to p since 1 is also in the preimage of [1, 2] right
ye
how does one get good at these problems? they seem so ambiguous
like wtf is a)is it just two cones put up side to side next to each other
yeah
how the hell would you do b?? i said a donut cone 💀
for (b), try using the fundamental polygon for torus
what's that
is (a) just a sphere?
step 1 is to use a better book
My professor just showed triple bouquet as a covering of S^1 × S^1
Later, they also mentioned S^1 \/ S^1 to be the base space.
So my question is, do we have
$S^1 \times S^1 \simeq S^1 \vee S^1$ as homotopy?
Absta
what school do yall represent?
hogwarts school of mathematical wizardry
Remove a point on torus , the remaining is still connected. But remove the base point of wedge product of two cycles , the rest is not connected
Does removing a base point should not break homotopy of the two spaces?
they have different fundamental groups: one is Abelian, the other is not
Oh yeah. Sorry mine is vague. It’s true but doesn’t help. We use fundamental groups as he said
it's worth noting that removing a point and trying to conclude this from connectedness isn't a homotopy invariant argument. For example you could remove a point from R to make it disconnected, but R^2 is still connected after removing a point, and R^2 is homotopy equivalent to R
I see, noted!
What is the most efficient way to memorize basic path homotopy concepts
Gah I dislike when I have to memorize.
do exercises
Maybe I am just too lazy
alternatively just keep reading and you’ll see that they show up in lots of examples
Hmm, yea really I just do exercises
homotopy kinda shows up everywhere so u’ll get used to it
it’s kinda nice to be able to lift something and then project it down
eg fundamental group of S1
hatcher has a whole chapter dedicated to covering spaces
i didnt read it but it might be worth looking at
Covering space can be thought of as a fiber bundle with discrete fiber and homotopy lifting property (HLP) is true for even more maps (fibrations), and they can be characterized with HLP (to some extent)
You can think of n-sheet covering space has exactly n discrete point maps to one point in the base space.
Yea I see that
If f : X -> Y is continuous and Y is hausdorff. Can we pass Hausdorff to X? There must be a counter example
Y is one point space and X is any non Hausdorff Space. f maps all X to a point.
It did not
Covering spaces were inspired by the uniformization theorem in complex analysis
Specifically the universal cover came first
boooo analysts booooo
following my nose: take x and x' distinct in X. f(x) and f(x') are distinct in Y, get disjoint open neighbourhoods U and V of them. pre-images of U and V are also disjoint
well yeah, that's the idea but can you guarantee that the preimages of U and V are disjoint under a continuous mapping provided that U and V are disjoint?
prove it, it's just basic set theory
||the intersection of preimages is the preimage of the intersection||
it'd be cool if i could sum it up by saying "f embeds X into Y, so X as a subspace of Y inherits hausdorffness," but as you know not every continuous injection is a homeomorphism onto its image equipped with the subspace topology. but f is "enough of an embedding" to make it work - kind of like how immersed submanifolds are good enough for many things -
f immerses X into Y, so the topology on f(X) is finer than the subspace topology, but of course hausdorffness is preserved under taking finer topologies
damn indeed
on my crank shit era
thanks, it looks so powerfull, bringing hausdorff from a space to another using continuity
Yeah this book is not great…
Or in other words: an injective map factors through it's image, which is a subspace of a Hausdorff space, hence Hausdorff itself. Thus, since the map is continuous, the domain is finer than a Hausdorff space, hence Hausdorff itself
(Identifying things in the domain with their image, we can think of this as basically being the identity map)
Oh wait that's basically what tterra said lmao
Read chat challenge (impossible)
do Lee
i think the way you said it is a bit nicer
i was trying really hard to make it look like immersed submanifolds lol
Is that for alg top
I’m currently doing munkres
The course textbook is Armstrong but it’s so ASS
Lee ITM is pointset and then algtop
*hausdorfficity
house dwarf
Hausdorffness.
is there a name for a space where-
for all distinct points x and y, there exists a neighborhood of x disjoint to y?
so like, half hausdorff
Yeah they are equivalent
and T_1 implies all singletons are closed
interesting
is there a similar closed sets definition equivalent to hausdorfficity?
*hausdorffness
*hausdorfficiousness
Sure, take the complements lol
"A space X is Haudorff if, for every pair of distinct points x and y in X, there are closed sets C and D (not disjoint necessarily) such that x in C - D and y in D - C, with C u D = X."
ah makes sense i suppose
Or something like that. But ofc it's not very useful stated like that lmao
A few others for closed set: A space X is Hausdorff iff
- The diagonal {(x,x) | x in X} is closed in XxX (with the product topology) [I believe it actually is equivalent to the diagonal map x |---> (x,x) being a closed map]
- For any point x, {x} is the intersection of all closed neighborhoods of x (here closed neighborhoods meaning a closed set containing an open neighborhood of x)
since the map is continuous, the domain is finer than a Hausdorff space
why?
are you saying that if f: X -> Y is a continuous bijection then X contains a subspace homeomorphic to Y?
the subspace being: T = {f^{-1}(U) | U open in Y}

Bijections are just relabelling. So WLOG, let's assume that f : X --> f(X) is actually just the identity map; hence, X has a finer topology than f(X). Since f(X) is Hausdorff and X has a finer topology, it follows that X is also Hausdorff
Since id : (X, T) ---> (X, S) is continuous iff T is finer than S (S is a subset of T)
(of course, treating a bijection as though it were the identity map is definitely a huge abuse of notation lol)
I guess I'm hung on "X has a finer topology than f(X)", because X and f(X) are of different "types"
how's munkres for algtop tho
But are you just saying that, X is finer than a topology that his homeomorphic to f(X)?
Yes. Because X and f(X) are in bijection, you can essentially "copy" the topology from f(X) to X
That topology is this?
This will be different than the original topology on X, which we know must be finer than the copied one
Yeah that should be it.
Ok so originally I misspoke but if I change "X contains a subspace homeomorphic to Y" to "X is finer than a space homeomorphic to Y" then we're good
Yeah that's probably a better way to put it anyways.
Originally my intuition was saying "a copy of f(X) sits inside X" but then that lead me to the incorrect statement
tldr there's two notions of "inside"
how do the last two lines show that m is continuous? or rather how does the out of m composed with the projection being a polynomial in the entries of A and B show that it's continuous
is it just because the function itself is a polynomial or something and that's continuous
also, i don't understand how the cosets of Z partition R. for we can easily find a real number that doesn't have an integer remainder
you're just looking at cosets r+Z for r\in R, where two cosets r_1+Z and r_2+Z are the same iff r_1-r_2\in Z
This is nothing to do with integer remainder.
my prof pulled up a real cool example of how GLn consists of two path-connected components in lecture today
from which it follows SLn is also path-connected
(note that this is true for GL_n(R), but GL_n(C) is path connected)
:o
this comes down to the fact that C* is connected, but R* is not
R* being the group of multiplicatively invertible reals?
yup

ah ok thx
because it’s a real valued polynomial
whose elements are from A and B
oh so basically f(A, B) = a real valued polynomial
and so that's continuous
where f is the composition
yeah
also if f and g happen to be paths, how does F give a path homotopy between f and g? since F(0, t) = (1 - t)f(0) + tg(0) and is not necessarily equal to f(0) right
it’s called a linear homotopy
yea
well how does the linear homotopy give a path homotopy
between f and g if they're paths
in homotopies you dont plug in x = 0
you only check for F(x,0) = f(x) and F(x,0) = g(x)
think of it as deforming one path onto another
wait
but like i'm talking about a path homotopy
i'm just checking the second condition here
so i'm plugging in x = 0
and seeing if it yields f(0)
if you want intuition for it, pull up desmos (or some other graphing software) make two random cont functions and make a slider for t in [0,1]. then slide t around
or just draw pictures
f and g arent necessarily paths here
ok now i'm confused but what if they are paths
paths are defined [0, 1] to X
oh
well like even if they were paths then would F(x, t) = (1 - t)f(x) + tg(x) give a path homotopy?
cuz my book says it does
but i'm struggling to see y
oh yea that sounds like a good idea
in order to define a path homotopy, they need to have the same base and end point
and so f(0) = g(0) and f(1) = g(1) by assumption
have you shown that scalar multiplication and vector addition in R^n are cont
yea i think so using sequences
ohh ok
that makes more sense
yeah so that combined with what ana said -> theres your path homotopy
ah okay that makes sense
since F(0, t) = (1 - t)f(0) + tg(0) = (1 - t)x_0 + tx_0 = x_0
and that's cont cuz addition + multiplication are cont
just out of curiosity- given a finite set of cardinality n, in terms of n, how many possible topologies are there on the set?
its less than 2^(2^n)
and more than 2^n - 2
Think it's this
i dont mean up to homeomorphism
man that goes up fast
i mean i guess that makes sense
its pulling from a possible pool of size 2^(2^n)
Idk if this would fit better in algebra, but here goes. If X is a nice space (let's say finite cw complex) and we use field coefficients then the homology ring forms a coalgebra - is there any nice way to compute the comultiplication Δ in terms of the cup product? the examples i've seen are somewhat "hands on" i.e. write Δ(x) as a linear combination of basis elements and use duality to find the coefficients
Hm no that seems the standard technique as further searches show lol
Is there some mnemonics to memorize facts about lifting properties and covering spaces?
Noooo
Really, there should be a way to memorize all these and represent them through some short mnemonics.
Like I’m memorizing universal cover as constructed by making cycles deduplicated into straight paths, thus being a space of paths.
Can someone explain why the first and the second diagrams can be identified?
This is the exponential law
Am I just being stupid or is this book terribly written?
I'm on chapter 1 and they are basically skipping all major steps of the proof
Just asking, is this topological algebra?
Btw it does seem like an application of the exponential law (with some details ye)
(1) is equivalent to (A) and (B)
(2) is equivalent to (C) and (D).
By exp low, (B) is equivalent to (C).
(A) is equivalent to (D)
Got it. Thanks
So together (1) is equivalent to (2)
What book is it from? Looks very very interesting
Got it! Thank you
Actually now I have no idea whether (A) and (D) are equivalent. I naively assumed they were. If you can show or disprove that please ping me…
I don't think you need equivalance. Your answer gave me the hint to break the problem up into two diagrams. Then you just use the naturallity of the bijections and the property of the cofibered coproduct
You actually don't need to use that p is a fibration for the diagram switching part of the proof
You only need it once you have deduced the second diagram
or I guess third diagram in the image
Then how do you show A<->D
Well once you find a lift of the third diagram, you can translate it to a lifting of the second using the naturality of the bijections
I didn't explicitly prove that diagrams of the second and third type are in bijection, but I think naturality would give you that. You would also have to use that the commutativity of diagrams involving (co)fibered (co)products can be checked piecewise
Just as the second diagram can be continued on the bottom right piece, the third diagram can also be continued on the top right piece
where these continuations are just the fiber prod and cofiber prod diagrams
The main challenge with this problem is keeping track of naturality because there are three things the bijections are natural over
As opposed to two for most adjoint relations
And one is contravariant
I can say words to you on here but this is a snake lemma type problem
Where someone explaining you their solution is useless
So you actually just have to do it yourself
I have no problem with that. It’s correspondence I can’t prove. Since you mentioned lifting . Do we have these two things?
One, diagram (D) always has a lifting ?
Two, is Δ times L a push out of Λ times K -> Λ times L and Λ times K -> Δ times K?
I don't think D always has a lifting. If K was L in the top right, then the naturality would give a lifting
If we require K --> L to be anodyne, then also it would have a lift
which would again be a result of naturality and lifting a composition by lifting each factor
As for two, it is not the pushout, but it has a map from the pushout
Becuase really, the pushout is the union here
Yeah, Δ times L is larger
The annoying thing about this book is not that it leaves out a lot of the details, it's that it doesn't mention what details one uses to go from one step to the next
Nvm I was dumb. I prove A+B <-> C+D, but the whole time I was trying to prove A<->D individually. I don’t know what I was thinking. I guess the fact that B<->C gave me an illusion
Which makes it more fun to me I guess since I don’t major in this stuff, and I am going to read it without motivation. So will be more like an entertainment to me…
I agree with what you said but this book is already the most detailed I could find on simplicial sets. The other books I read, like Hovey's model category, just leave a lot things as exercises since it is merely "by a formal argument of adjointness". Though for a beginner like me, all these details are quite overwhelming.
?

Can you construct manifolds similar to the 3-dimensional lens spaces by quotienting the 7-sphere by binary polyhedral group actions?
You can construct manifolds called lens spaces by taking the quotient of an odd dimensional sphere by a free action by a cyclic group
If a finite group G acts freely on a simply connected manifold M, then the quotient M/G has fundamental group G
Every finite group G embeds in Spin(n) for some n. Thus Spin(n)/G is a manifold with fundamental group G. Every finite group embeds in O(n) for some n. Thus it acts freely on O(n). It acts faithfully on S^n. But not freely. The quotient isn’t a manifold.
Most finite groups do not act freely on any sphere. In particular, Z/p x Z/p does not
The binary polyhedral groups act freely on S³.
Sure, if you have a group in U(2), you can compose that with the diagonal to get a group in U(4). If it acted freely on S^3, it will act freely on S^7. I’m not sure how that makes the quotient like a lens space
(Maybe I should say O(4) and O(8), but if it acts freely on S^3, it’s probably in SU(2))
It is
And do the octahedral and icosahedral cases come in pairs that have the same homology groups and fundamental groups but are not homeomorphic?
what are the prereqs for haynes millers notes on coboridsm theory?
Whether there are multiple ones that are not obviously isometric is a question of representation theory. How many free representations of these groups are there? There are many representations of Z/n into U(1) and combining two give many representations into U(2), even up to changing the generators. But there is probably only one free representation of these groups
how would one go about showing that the topology of a CW complex is coherent with its collection of n-skeletons?
also, how would I show that CW complexes are locally path-connected?
There are at least two of each.
They are related by the field automorphisms of Q(√2) and Q(√5), respectively.
is this standard notation? wouldn't it make more sense for it to be g * f to kinda align with the definition of composition
like we do f first then we do g
yeah maybe
but yeah this is common lol
damn rip
maybe not "standard" but still common
it's aight
can somebody explain the line "f o G is a path homotopy in X between the paths f o i = f"
i don't understand how f o G starts or begins at f
like okay i understand G is a path homotopy between i and e_0 * i but i don't understand how that implies f o G starts at f o i = f
wouldn't it start at i?
rip the definitions open
bet
is this a definition for the continuity of a binary operation of a topological group? or is it derived from somewhere
it can't be derived from the epsilon-delta definition right since we may not be able to consider a group a metric space
crack open munkers go to the continuity section and see what he's cooking
love tteppa
so here's where I'm at right now, and i'm trying to make sense of their definition in terms of these ones
not every topological space is a metric space
you can derive it straight from the definition of the product topology on G x G, since if W is a neighborhood of xy then m^{-1}(W) is open implies there are open neighborhoods U of x and V of y such that U x V is in m^{-1](W), or in other words UV \subset W (m is the multiplication map)
lol sorry I'm using U twice
fixed
ah okay got it!
thank you that makes sense, i expanded the definitions and everything followinng what u said
i'll try to do the same with the inversion map
hmm now i have to see why this definition of continuity implies product map is continuous using the standard take open set of G show that preimage is open
wait
this shouldn't be too bad
how would one go about showing that the topology of a CW complex is coherent with its collection of n-skeletons?
also, how would I show that CW complexes are locally path-connected?
sorry asked earlier but nobody saw
i think i can show the first one easily for finite-dimensional complexes
but its harder for infinite dimensional ones
First one
I think this is lemma 8.20 in Rotman
Second one
CW complex is union of cells. A cell is path connected
for the second one-
sure i agree, but how does that help us? the cells dont all share a single common point
? You said locally
sure but not every point is contained in a cell that is open in the CW complex
sure
By coherence, you may build a contractible neighborhood of a given point, a induction on dimension, then it's locally path-connected.
havent done contractibility
Assume we already have the topology is coherent with n-skeleton, try to construct such contractible neighborhood, then the problem is reduced to show the coherence
A space (or neighborhood) is contractible if it is homotopy equivalent to a point.
right but i dont know like any properties of that
so i dont think i should use that
Okay so try what Tionway suggested, replacing "contractible neighborhood" with "path-connected neighborhood"; the idea should still be the same I think?
so youre saying to try to construct an appropriate path-connected neighborhood in every n-skeleton?
alright here's a try:
take a nbhd U in X and p ∈ U.
base case: take {p} in the 0-skeleton, which is open (in the 0-skeleton), contains p, and is contained in U.
induction case: suppose we have some path-connected nbhd of p (call it U_n) in the n-skeleton. then take the collection of all (n+1)-cells whose closures intersect U_n. then...
well, im not sure here. I'd love to just say "intersect the (n+1)-cells with U", but then there might be disconnected stuff in the interior of the (n+1)-cells. I have the idea just cant formalize
you should start with a neighborhood in the cell e where p lies in the interior of e, not a neighborhood of a CW complex X
hmmm
like obviously its easy to show that any point in the interior of a maximum dimension cell has a path-connected nbhd
the hard part is when p is not is a maximum dimension cell (or when we have an infinite dimensional complex)
like im worried about stuff like this happening
U intersecting with the 1-skeleton works fine but if you intersect it with the 2-skeleton its not path-connected
obviously you just want to take the top-left part but not sure how to do that rigorously
would love to just say "take the path-component containing p" but that might not be open
choose an open neighborhood of p in that 1-dimensional line, which is an interval in that edge (you can choose it to be path- connected), then in all 2-cells, such interval lies in the boundary (by definition of CW complex), then you can "push" it into those 2-cells to get a path-connected neighborhood in all 2-cells
how to post an image?
how do i "push" it as you say
oh you dont have the appropriate role
just dm it to me
n-cell is D^n, then for point p in its boundary, choose "short" interval from p to the center. Hence, for an open set U in S^(n-1), union of all such interval of same length would be open in D^n (just a product)
short meaning like ε?
the center is not included is enough
well how do we guarantee that its contained in U then
use the compactness of S^(n-1)
hmm i dont see how that helps
you can get all points can be "pushed" with a uniform length which the result set lies in U
ah to find a minimum "length" right
yes, since the open set E^(n - 1)(p) we find in (n-1)-cell is pre-compact, which means its closure is compact (since it lies in S^(n-1)), we may assume the closure also lies in U, so we can get such uniform length to push
You may do it in some simple examples, like D^2 and D^3, they consist of 3 cells or Torus (T^2) which consists of 4 cells.
Is there a textbook reference for the equivalence of categories between PL and PDIFF?
Without answering a reference for the theorem, a comment about what is the theorem. There is no such thing as PDIFF manifolds. The right thing is that there is a functor from smooth to PL. PDIFF is a technical tool for constructing that functor. It is a class of maps from PL manifolds to smooth manifolds
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/27656/piecewise-smooth-manifolds
Suppose X, Y are nice spaces (e.g. CW complexes) and Y is n-truncated (no higher homotopy groups than degree n). X has a convergent Postnikov tower. Is the mapping space Map(X,Y) equivalent to Map(X_i, Y) where X_i is the ith-layer of Postnikov tower for i much bigger than n?
everything is in the homotopy category
Sounds reasonable but I am not sure, hope I am not making a mistake in this.
is it true that (X x I)/(X x del I) = S^1?
I guess you meant X x S^1 first? because by dimension reasons, that can't be true.
Also, that's a mapping torus, it's not necessarily a product; it depends, when you quotient, how you quotient: you might be gluing according to a diffeomorphism of X
However, if the quotient is taken by using the identity map on X (ie identifying (x,0)=(x,1) for all x), then yes, this is true
no i do mean X x I first
and so (X x I)/(X x del I) is homeomorphic to (mapping torus)/X
No, I mean that (X x I)/(X x dI)=X x S^1, sorry!
And in general, yes, this is the mapping torus of a homeomorphism f:X->X
ahh so by quotienting by X x dI i dont mean identifying the two ends of X x dI with each other (which would give a mapping torus)
I mean collapsing X x dI to a point
The result only depends on the isotopy class of the map f, so there are non-trivial maps for which this is still the trivial product X x S^1
Ah
I still have a feeling this is not correct, again by dimensional reasons (here I mean dimensions as in the top dimension of any cell in a cellular decomposition of the things involved). Like, if X is the interval I, then the quotient should be this:
Do you agree, or do I need to take a break?
In this case, there is indeed a deformation retraction to the circle though 
hmm ok a retraction to the circle does suffice in my case
although wait is that even true?
But this is not correct, if X is the circle for instance
I guess if X is not simply-connected then this cannot be true
If X is S^1, the result should be a pinched torus
Which still happens to have fundamental group the integers (any 'meridian' loop can be freely moved to the 'pinch point')
hmm ok so
all i really need is that the first homology of the mapping torus/X is equal to Z
so the pinched torus is ok bc its homotopic to the wedge of a sphere and a circle
here my X is a closed surface
I'm sure by writing a cellular decomposition of X and writing cellular decompositions at all steps you can definitely compute at least the first homology of the quotient space
ah so thats easy for me actually
im only taking X to be a genus g closed orientable surface
If you're clever (spoilers: I'm not), you might even be able to compute the whole fundamental group
Then drawings it is; the X x I is a compression body, and you're just quotienting its whole boundary to a point
Mmmh you can actually try to compute the Betti numbers through the Euler characteristic (which is wayyy easier to work with)
would the euler characterstic rly be easier to work with here?
Idk, it's true you don't have b_1=b_2 necessarily here 
You can try to work H_1(Y/∂Y) by using the LES of the pair (Y,∂Y)? (where Y=X x I)
Here, Y has a really simple homology
You don't collapse X, you collapse X x ∂I, which are two copies of X (and they are glued together, because they're beocming the same point)
ah right nvm
One last idea (maybe I'm not helpful at all; feel free to tell me): you're actually gluing two cones CX over X, along both the base and the apex
But CX is particularly nice: it's contractible. So you can try Mayer--Vietoris
hmm
well another nice thing i have is that the quotient collapsing X x del I induces the 0 map in homology
idk if that helps
Most likely this will intervene in one of the long exact sequences (either Mayer--Vietoris or for the pair (Y,∂Y), idk)
so we have the suspension of our space with the top and bottom points identified
my claim is that the first homology of this is Z
we know that the first homology of the suspension of X is isomorphic to the zeroth homology of X
which is Z (taking X to be connected)
Okay, Mayer--Vietoris for the gluing of both cones works
what does that yield?
I call Z the quotient space (X x I)/(X x {0,1})
And C1X and C2X the two cones you glue
So H_1(CiX)=0, yielding
0 -> H_1(Z) -> H_0(C1X \cap C2X) = Z² -> ...
You at least get an injection into Z²
(here H_0(C1X \cap C2X) = H_0(X) )
Ah, no, it's a Z² actually, I forgot the apex (it's disconnected)
But looking at the next map is enough
so the next map is into Z^2
Yes
the direct sum of the 0th homologies of the cones
we want to look at the kernel of this map
and we hope that its Z (the integers)
This map is induced by the inclusions, so it sends (a,b) to (i*a,j*b)
Doesn't the kernel look like {(a,a) | a in Z}?
Or maybe {(a,-a)}, idk
wait let me offer an alternative viewpoint
Sure thing!
which will hopefully corroborate this
so we’re taking the suspension SX
and identifying the two end points
this the same thing as taking SX and a line connecting the two end points
SX is connected so we have a path between the two endpoints
so we can homotope the line along that path
yielding the wedge sum of SX and the circle
Can you?
so the first homology will be the direct sum
hmm
i took that to be obvious but
why wouldnt we be able to?
yep
The thing is: you cannot homotope the line to the path (or vice-versa), because my impression is that the gluing of both generates the H_1
Ah no I get what you meant
You collapse one end of pink to the other end by using green
Yeah that's the geometric idea behing the algebra of Mayer--Vietoris
so then the first homology splits as the direct sum
Ah yes correct, that's even better
of first homology of SX and that of circle
and then the first homology of SX
is the 0th homology of X
which is 0
Because you can directly argue that you added a free 1-cell to SX, so you just added one rank of H_1, but H_1(SX)=0
yes
sry i meant reduced 0th homology of X here
which is 0
ok so both the algebra of mayer vietoris and this geometric argument
give us the answer we wanted
Ah, right, now that I think about it: using the reduced version of MV here, the next group is zero which immediately gives H_1=Z
Anyways, yep, H_1 is the integers, but not necessarily do you deformation retract to the circle
That's a funny little exercise, thanks!
np! this was a huge help for me too
ahh so theres one more thing im stuck on
so calling the mapping torus T
what we’ve shown is that H_1(T/X) = H_1(SX v S^1) = H^1(S^1)
if we call the map that collapses X j:T-> X
i want to show that j_* = p_*
where p: T -> S^1
is the fiber projection of the mapping torus onto the circle
I think this drawing makes it pretty clear, doesn't it?
(Shrink pink to a point to see it)
hmm
Actually, you can argue directly
In the mapping torus, what are loops? Those 'mmeridian loops' that live in X, and the new 'longitude' one. Then the pinching map j:T->X kills anything living in X, only keeping track of that longitude and forgetting meridian loops.
The map p:T->S^1 does exactly that too!
hmmm yeah that definitely makes sense
i'm trying to think of a more precise way to state that reasoning
The answer to that is the same as always: look at exact sequences to make sense of the drawings 😄
hmm ok so
now looking at it algebraically
what we're really wanting to show here
is that p*: H_1(T) -> H_1(S^1)
is the same as the composition
H_1(T) -> H_1(T/X) -> H_1(S^1)
where the last arrow there is a natural isomorphism
Yes!
The last arrow is the isomorphism we described earlier
right
so we have to make precise
how exactly these maps send loops in T to loops in S^1
it suffices to only look at how it acts on generators
hmmm
Yeah... Tbh, the drawing was enough to convince me 
i'm definitely convinced visually but half an hour ago i was also convinced visually that T/X and S^1 were homeomorphic LOL
You can also try a different approach: both maps are surjective, so you just need to check that the generator of the Z on the right is obtained as the image of the same loop living in T
Being the longitude
And then just check that any loop living in X is mapped to 0
do we have that they're surjective? (this hints toward another question that i was going to ask lol)
we need that the projection has a continuous right inverse
in order for the surjectivity to descend to homology
Yeah ofc, because we showed that the H_1 of the weird quotient space T/X is Z
Ah you mean they could have image being like 2Z?
something sus like that yeah
although actually technically speaking i'm working with homology over the rationals
so we wouldn't have to worry abt torsion
You can lift the generator to an explicit loop: a longitude (again) doing only one turn 'around'
(in my drawing, the union green + pink)
right
What's the relationship between delta complexes as presented in, say, Hatcher and semisimplicial sets?
Is it like that delta complexes correspond to realisations of the free simplical set on the ss set?
how are you already on homotopy
its been almost a month since i was doing connectedness/conpactness and im not on homotopy yet
i know, my point set is so shit
we rushed through it
so i didn't really have time to do that many practice problems
it's weird cuz point set wasn't a prereq for this class
did you already do cw complexes or is that after homotopy
i'm assuming it's after homotopy cuz i haven't heard of those
we're using armstrong
it's a terrible book
idk, i feel it's very terse, doesn't motivate the theorems at all, gives hand-wavy explanations and has almost no diagrams
idk maybe i'm stupid
but i find munkres much much better
at least for point-set. now i'm using munkres for alg top let's see how that goes
also i underestimated how hard alg top would be lol
certainly more difficult than real analysis imo
i mean algtop is grad level
who knows
doing some reading about point-slope form on mathisfun.com rn negl
the distinction between grad and undegrad is quite arbitrary lol
i've used mathisfun.com more times during the last few years than i'd like to admit
I don't want to study algebraic topology but what's a place where I can find the main definitions of fundamental groups and some worked out examples?
I guess an alg top textbook?
"I don't want to study" A textbook is too much. I want something straight to the point
Maybe some lecture notes or something
okay i think i understand how i can get a path-connected nbhd in any n-skeleton of a CW complex but my issue is now showing that the family of n-skeletons is coherent with the complex. Hints?
i guess its just hard to think of what an open subset of an infinity-complex even looks like
how is it that k_{c, d} o p = k_{a, b}? looking at the graph, say we have some point s in [a, b]. then p maps it to the respective point x in [c, d], and then k_{c, d} maps it to g(x)? but i'm struggling to see how if we take that same point s and plug it into k_{a, b}.. because then don't we get g(s)?
wikipedia's always good
i'm confused
if we're considering the set of complex numbers of unit modulus
is the topology inherited with the plane with respect to the complex plane?
what would the open sets be in the complex plane then?
well just open balls right?
the complex plane is, topologically speaking, just R^2
yea
why is $(e^{i\theta}, e^{i\phi}) \mapsto e^{i(\theta + \phi)}$ continuous? would I have to involve the usual metric space condition...
oh my god
okeyokay
I overthink everything holy shit
like idk how it's seen so easily
do you just have to show that multiplication for any arbitrary group is continuous
and then just apply that
like the author just states that it's continuous
multiplication for any arbitrary group is continuous
please be careful with the meaning of this statement
continuity is a thing of maps between topological spaces!
i don't actually
topological groups
like how is this so trivial
is what he meant
but then continuity is part of the definition
of course i KNOW topological groups have continuous group operations. i'm trying to make a point kryojyn
You want to show as a function from C times C to C, it is a continous map?
I mean CxC--->C?
i don't understand
because I was thinking something along the lines of, we want to show that multiplication in the unit circle in $\mathbb{C}$ is continuous for all points on $\mathbb{C}$. so given any $\epsilon > 0$ and $(e^{i\theta_1}, e^{i\theta_2})$ we wish to produce $\delta > 0$ such that if we have $e^{i\phi_1}, e^{i\phi_2}$ with $d\bigl((e^{i\theta_1}, e^{i\theta_2}), (e^{i\phi_1}, e^{i\phi_2})\bigl) < \delta$ then $d\bigl(e^{i(\theta_1 + \theta_2)}, e^{i(\phi_1 + \phi_2)}\bigl) < \epsilon$
okeyokay
Can you show that multiplication as a function CxC --> C is continuous? And then just recognize that the statement for the unit circle is restriction to a subspace (the circle)? Better than dealing with angles and shit.
This should just be basic properties of the norm/absolute value/modulus.
oh yeah that's definitely smarter
good books for general algtop? like introductory level homology/cohomolgy/homotopy stuff
Not hatcher.
hatcher
fuck well we have hatcher and not hatcher turns out the logical framework of mathcord is not consistent
Hatcher has a complicated history in this server
In my opinion it's a book that you have to be sorta patient with since Hatcher has a tendency to sorta just throw you amongst the wolves and let you fend for yourself
When taking an algtio class I enjoyed it
But there are others depending on what you're going for
If you're categorically minded a good one is Tomma Tom Diecks book
what about rotman?
Rotman is gentle
is it still thorough?
Yes
I think hatcher is the most in depth of the intro algtop books
enough for a first pass
it is just multiplication.... of numbers
Multiplication is still continuous when you restrict it to some smaller space 
provided its still defined of course
fellas is the restriction of a continous function defined
bruh
the domain isnt the subset
its a product space
idk i didnt read the context
but not all subspaces are subgroups
...i presume the topic was topological groups
What
