#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 60 of 1
oh wait no
{a} is closed in the standard topology
{a} is open in the subspace topology right or smt
So if a is not a limit point of A, that means that {a} is open in the subspace topology (this if if and only if, btw. And purely topological, this is not special to R)
In particular, if every point of A is not a limit point, then every singleton in A is open
o right
This is in the subspace topology yeah. So {a} is definitely not open in R
Still no because this is subspace topology
ugh
We gotta use compactness somewhere here
We know A is closed and bounded
oh so the unionn of all the singleton sets
is an open cover for A
it must have a finite subcover
but that contradicts A being infinite
?
YES!
No limit points means A would be closed in R (and bounded hence compact) and would have the discrete topology. But the only compact sets with the with the discrete topology are finite
So that contradicts A infinite, like you said
ohhh ok sweet
cool thanks!
wait doesn't this question just follow immediately from a bijective map from a compact space to a Hausdorff space being a homeomorphism
oh wait
i have to show it's continuous
I think by map they mean continuous
oh
Otherwise being injective from compact to Hausdorff is not sufficient to be continuous in general
wait, question; if the complement of A is open does that imply that A is closed?
what’s the definition of closed
remember that definitions are iff statements, even if they only use “if” or “provided”
because english is a great language
any tips on showing that the topologists sine curve is not path connected (and also in showing that it is connected)
proof by picture
Where did you find this definition… because all I can find is simply sum of signs of crossing, no 1/2 appears…
I guess you define linking number by looking at each knot separately, then take sum, divided by 2
That case each crossing is counted two times exactly, by each knot.
I assume you know where the bad spot is for pconnected
Just assume there is a path, parameterize it, arrive at contradiction
Where to learn the basics of nets quickly, including stuff related to subnets and compactness? In the subject of generalised convergence, is it better to learn nets or filters?
suffer in nlab 

The book topology and geometry by boredom has some stuff
Is it boring because it has nets instead of filters?
by boredom lmao
There are a few pdfs
Where would one find them?
i tend to use nets a bit more (how to make a topologist angry 101, essentially), but both are important.
google "introduction to nets and filters pdf"
look for lecture notes from a university if possible
that's what I do when I need a reference for something, look for university lecture notes like "introduction to X pdf"
I thought he might have something specific in mind.
How to see this last relation? (from Hatcher, p 70)
five weeks into my top course and i’m still stumbling over the def of bases

not to say i’m not making progress… i’ve certainly cleared up some confusion
Lifting path to X1 and sending to x2 is same as lifting to X2
Hello, I was told this was a good place to discuss n-dimensional mathematics. What am I supposed to think when 3bluebrown talks about hypercube. Like obviously it’s mathematically feasible to have 4 mutually “perpendicular” axis you just can’t draw it. The problem I have is that the motivation came from a 3 dimensional Euclidean geometry analysis, so this means when you start talking about the edges in 4 dimensions, your still talking about an actual shape, but just describing parts of it. Is this understanding correct? Thank you :).
just describing parts of it
What
If you draw a 3d cross-section, then you indeed only have a part of the shape
But there are also ways to describe 4d shapes without cross-sections
you can formalize 4D space as the set of all 4-tuples whose coordinates are real numbers
so a point in 4D space can be represented by/is a coordinate (x, y, z, w)
then you can try to figure out how to define cubes in 3 dimensions and see if you can scale that up to 4
A common representation is using time or color to represent w coordinate
After that try 4d version of triangle/triangular pyramid and circle/sphere
Part of the shape? What shape? Is it a shape immersed in a space with 4 perpendicular axis? Or is it a shape that must be immersed with the 4th dimension as time, temperature etc.. it is then that we are now dealing with a completely different shape, not analogous to a cube in 3 dimensions
anything that acts like a 4D shape is a 4D shape in a mathematician's eyes
But my theory is that we have 4 mutually perpendicular axis, and that is valid in mathematics take 4 basis vectors of 4 demensions. Obviously it’s far more practical if they are modelling things like time, temperature etc. but theoretically we can just say this is a space with 4 perpendicular axis and we can hence have shapes in this space. We just can’t draw it all at once. I think 3blue1brown is talking about a hypercube in this context
It’s a different context to be talking about a sphere in terms of euclidean geometry, and then all of a sudden say we are talking about a hypercube with time as 4th dimension. Why didn’t we start with time in the third? Because it’s not a freaking shape and the notion of distance collapses
you could
that’s a useful visualization
take different slices of a 3D shape and lay them next to each other
you can now visualize a 3D shape as a 2D shape changing in time
I don’t think you understand what I’m trying to say :/. Yes you can do what you just described, but you will now have to proceed to re-define your notion of distance. But 3blue1brown uses the same notion of Euclidean distance in all dimensions when it’s not appropriate unless you believe my theory with the 4 perpendicular axis
You can think of my theory visually two, you can visualise all the axis being perpendicular if you take 2 at a time, you just can’t visualise the entire thing
no but it definitely makes sense that you could formalize this
Yeah I've thought of that before
Should work generally for nets; just freely adjoin a max element
Why did people even define nets. I get you need them for general statements about continuous maps
sequences are not enough when your space is not first countable 
Why use directed sets instead of ordinals for nets?
More general and you can translate to/from filters
Why are y and f(y) in the same orbit necessarily?
By definition… f deck iff pf=p…
Sorry, aren't the orbits determined by G here? How does f deck connect with orbits?
Oh
My bad
Sorry
My brain stopped working for a min
Literally is by definition
It happens to everyone
eek this took me way too long to realize
isn’t condition (2) here just equivalent to saying “B1 n B2 is open”
for all B1,B2 in the basis
ye ok it definitely is
open wrt the topology generated by B?
yes
yah think so
it is useful proposition: U is open in T(B) iff for every x in U there is some open A containing x and contained in U
and in particular open A is just the general case of basis element B, then by the def of open sets in T(B) the first is a consequence of the latter
i am looking over my notes from some days ago and it is painfully clear how confused i was… i probably still am but at least now i am aware of it— progress!

yeah my lecturer just uses this definition which imo makes the "basis" thing more obvious
apologies for the use of two different fonts for the set T and the topology \mathcal{T}. my lecturer has a strange sense of humour
non-serif characters for variables is unacceptable
lol i had to work my way to this def myself, though that is not a def for a basis, but a basis for a specific topology
that's true tbf
i’ve found that for $\mathscr B$ to be a basis for the topology $\mathscr T(\mathscr B)$ which is the set of all unions in $\mathscr B$, we need only two conditions on $\mathscr B$: namely (1) $\bigcup_{B\in \mathscr B} B = X$ and (2) for any finite $\mathscr A\subset \mathscr B$ there is some $\mathscr C\subset\mathscr B$ with $\bigcap_{A\in\mathscr A} A = \bigcup_{C\in\mathscr C} C$
Jens
where the second condition is understandably given as the much more handy but equivalent: for any two B1,B2; B1 n B2 is open in T(B) (which in turn is equiv to that it is a union of basis elements, which in turn may be written as that every point in the intersection is contained in a basis element contained in the intersection)
that's just the same as the definition you have but inducting on the finite A isn't it?
yes
but it makes it obvious, especially if you explicitly write out the def of T(B), why it (very forcefully) satisfies the conditions if a topology
and i don’t mention it but you have to keep in mind that any union over an empty family of sets is the empty set, so also ø will be in T(B)
ok but now i am finally through the defs of the first week, time to catch up on the 4 weeks since! byee
ok having returned to this, i’ve definitely cleared up much of my confusion and will confidently state T(B) is courser than T(B’) iff B is contained in T(B’)
that definitely seems true, if B \subset T(B') then T(B) \subset of T(T(B')) = T(B')
For 2. does the topology matter? I’ve never seen any topologies defined on Z or S^1
This is from Munkres
I'm thinking for each part I can show that the function suggested in 1. is continuous, but I don't know how I'd do that if no topology is specified
i would hope the topology matters
Z and S^1 have the subspace topologies from R and R^2, respectively. in particular, Z is discrete
So do you think those are what the problem expects me to assume the topologies are? Or is the point of the question to define topologies such that each becomes a topological group (in which case I'd think you could use the discrete topology for all of them)?
the problem expects you to know what the topologies are
in which case I'd think you could use the discrete topology for all of them
you could, and this should be a hint that it's not the right way to proceed
when have you ever cared about R with the discrete topology?
You would need to specify the topology in each example, like with S_1 for example, you can use the subspace topology inherited from R^2 with the standard metric topology
or equivalently, the topology on S^1 generated by "open arcs", like open intervals but along the circle
also that S^1 is the interval [0,1] with the endpoints identified, so it gets a quotient topology from that
when i thought "what's the topology of S^1" that's the first thing i thought of
oh wow haha
I'm reading this book which defines the following for a metric space (M, d):
For any subset S ⊆ M, we define
lim S := {p in M : p is a limit point of S}.
...
For any subset S ⊆ M, we say S is closed set if every sequence in S contains its limit in S.
It's very obvious that lim S is a closed set
But the proof he provides is rather weird and technical
shouldn't it be like 2 lines? I don't get it
show
is that actually how it's worded
seems a bit imprecise
a picture plz
lmao
what proof did you have in mind
oh shit I think I'm realizing now
why it's like that lol
just because every point is a limit of some sequence, doesn't mean every sequence contains its limit in the set
i don't think munkres is grad level, but it's not unusual for there to be a first year grad class on pointset
well, it does, but this must be proven as above
ok ok
yeah I thought munkres was undergraduate
wait actually
It's a good rigorous book for pointset topology, you could use it for either grad or undergrad
what does he mean by "contains all its limits"?
what is "its"?
he calls limits what most people call adherent points of a set
which is basically just the closure
closed under taking limits, meaning if you have a sequence of points in the set, and that sequence converges, the limit is also in the set
as opposed to something like (0, 1) which doesn't contain the limit of 1/n
so then doesn't that mean "lim S is closed" has a really trivial proof?
though iirc there is some extra care needed if a set has isolated points
well it's easy but technically you'd have to prove something, like to show lim S is closed, take a point in the compliment, and show that there's an open ball around that point disjoint from limS
but these things kindof just fall out of the definitions
that's true but closed here is defined as "contains all its limits"
it was proved before that open and closed sets are dual, so you could take the route you mentioned
oooh true, I was thinking closed in the topological sense
yeah yeah
so then I mean
how is the proof not trivial
okay so limS is the set of all limits of sequences in S, and a set is closed if it contains all limits of sequences, lol so yeah
maybe it's pretty trivial
like it's almost tautological
S is closed if every convergent sequence has its limit contained in S.
lim S = {p in M : p is a limit of S}
hmm
no yeah lol
ahh I got the difficulty, if you have a sequence of points in lim(S) and x_n -> x, you need to show x is a limit of points in S
but each x_n is itself a limit of points in S
so there's something to prove
x is a limit of points in S because it's a limit of {x_n}, for which each x_n is contained in S
I don't see how this isn't trivial
like you can approximate each x_n by points of S, and you can approximate x by the points x_n, but then show you can approximate x by points in S
lol it's subtle
isn't each x_n in S tho?
wait wth
since x_n is in lim(S)
so you can approximate x by x_n, and each x_n you can approximate by points in S, show you can approximate x by points in S
and you have x_n lying along the perimeter of the circle
it's not immediate
thats a good example, take the open disc, and a sequence of points on the boundary
each point on the boundary is arbitrarily close to the open disk
which means, by the definition of lim S, that their limit x is in lim S. And thus lim S is closed
?
but then you need to show the limit of points on the boundary is also arbitrarily close to the open disc
OK I think I'm starting to understand
this is kindof the idea, the black points converge to the big black point
each black point has a sequence in the open disk converging to it
but then how do you get a sequence of points on inside converging to the big point
yeah
it almost makes me question my intuition
lol this should be titled "an exercise in understanding why something isn't obvious"
like I feel like with this subtlety you could create a pathological set wherein a sequence of limit points doesn't converge to a limit point
yes lol
obviously this is not possible, because we just proved it isn't, but
yeah
Does anyone know of any place I can find supplementary exercises to Hatcher? I feel like his problems are a tad bit too difficult for me at first; I would like some really simple and easy exercises to first exemplify the theorems and general constructions before I delve into harder problems
Rotman has easy exercises
Ok, thank you
Heyo! Is there someone pretty familiar with the Whitney trick in dimension four? I'm willing to understand if there's an obstruction to finding an embedded disk in a special equivariant case
Maybe someone knows about obstructions to what I'm trying to achieve?
So say I have two surfaces F and G in a simply-connected 4-manifold (to make things simpler), and such that they intersect transversely twice in a positive and negative fashion. I have an embedded Whitney disk, but it may intersect F and G in its interior. Say I don't care about intersections with F, so I have G intersects the interior of the disk. Is there a known complete obstruction to finding another disk that doesn't intersect G?
I'm in a special case where F and G are invariant under an involution, so any pair of intersection points itself comes with another such pair. I was wondering if maybe I can use that?
Also, I don't really mind not isotoping F, and going through immersions. That is: I can change F about as much as I want, but G has to remain unchanged
(this is the reason why I don't care about the disk intersecting F in the first place)
(I know of the framing obstruction, but at the cost of adding new intersection points with F or G, I can always assure that it vanishes so that the normal bundle has a section)
In a metric space, sequences seem to "be enough", in constrast to the need for nets/filters in other spaces. Is there a precise statement of this?
Metric spaces are first countable.
Well okay I should expand on that like
In a first countable space, continuity of a function is equivalent to sequential continuity (i.e. f( lim x_n) = lim f(x_n) basically)
This isn't true more generally
i googled first countable
i like this comment https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1529419/example-of-a-topological-space-which-is-not-first-countable#comment3114772_1529419
is the product topology of discrete topological spaces, a discrete topology as well?
Not to belabor the obvious, but every obstruction to smooth 4-manifolds being like topological 4-manifolds is an obstruction to the existence of Whitney disks. There is certainly no complete obstruction or there would be a lot more positive results that things are diffeomorphic
Ah, right, makes sense 
But again, in my case, I don't really mind changing the surface, as long as its genus remains the same and the self-intersection as well
Yes.
Take an obvious basis for A and B and use that to create a basis for A x B, for example
Do you want your disk to be live in the quotient by the group action? If not, how could the group action be relevant?
There is an obstruction that also exists in higher dimensions using the fact that the quotient is not simply connected (assuming the action is free). But you seem to have assumed this obstruction vanishes. If it vanishes, then you can lift to upstairs and have two copies of the same disk. It’s pretty hard for them to interfere with each other
In my case it's an involution; for a pair +/- of points there is another pair +/-, together with a copy of the disk and its intersection with G. I was wondering: maybe I can use this symmetry and this pari of disks? Also, I can consider an embedding of a disk with 4 points identified on its boundary instead of two, and consider 4 arcs connecting all the pairs of points
There is a problem which is that the two disks might intersect each other. So individually they remove intersections, but together they create intersections
The standard strategy is to recurse. You have intersecting points between the Whitney disk and G. So you try to create a new Whitney disk to move them away. Casson / Freedman says that after doing this infinitely many times you succeed (and pass to the topological category), but I think other people created obstructions to doing this after finitely many stages, but I don’t know what they actually did
how many products?
does anyone know of a reference for characteristic classes with a more modern treatment than milnor-stascheff? i cant seem to find anything
hatcher vbkt
thats what ive been looking at but the stuff on char classes uses the k-theory in ch 2 which i dont really want to read all of
Learn the obstruction theory viewpoint and you're good
Yeah the issue is I'd like to Stay in the smooth category!
Although I didn't think of possible intersections between the disc and its image 
Thanks!
does it? you can skip chapter 2
you don't necessarily need it
iirc it started in ch3 with motivation by talking about classifying maps for vector bundles (which i dont know about)
saying cohomology is easier than the homotpy business of nulhomotopic classifying maps
chapter 3 is characteristic classes
yea
yes classifying space for complex vb is Gr_k(inf) which is huge
there's also the obstruction theory viewpoint which I really like
i figured that was stuff from ch2, is it standard vb material?
Say you want to construct a nowhere vanishing section of your bundle of rank n, then it's eqv to have a section of the corresponding S^(n-1) bundle. The obstruction for that lies in
H^k(X, π_{k-1}(S^n)), for k=n which is exactly euler class. All the other classes follow same way
no it's ch 1 stuff
it's tautological if you think hard enough.
yeah ch 1 is necessary
ill think ab this some more later lol
yeah i know the stuff in 1.1 just not 1.2
except i guess ik about pullback bundles
basically the stuff thats also in milnor
it's easy if you triangulate your base space. will explain sometime when you have read enough vb
all it says that all complex vb arise as a pullback bundle of the canonical bundle Gr_k(inf)
upto homotopy
this thing
How does this frame fixing work by the way?
Do you kind of spin G around F?
This gives new intersections but seems to undo the twists of the framing curves
Anyway yeah this is hopeless in the smooth category
The example I learnt was if this was always possible, all knots would be topologically slice
Im not 100% sure what it is thats going wrong though
(de rham) why pre-assume that $d^2=0$, when notation such as $\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}$ is used in 1-var calculus all the time?
cosín™
what property is this trying to capture, besides the standard homology axioms
why is this a "natural" axiom to make about differential forms
or ig about the d operator
is it the assumption that smooth functions are locally linear?
should i really interpret it as $\frac{d^2y}{dx}$?
cosín™
d^2 = 0 is "the boundary of the boundary vanishes"
for the de rham differential it boils down to clairaut's theorem
..thats $\del$ tho
cosín™
Compile Error! Click the
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ah hush
it's obviously not the exact same statement
replace "is" with "is analogous to" if it bothers you
okok sry ty
stokes's theorem will make that analogy more precise
but how so? can you reduce the output to something of the form $\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial x\partial y}-\frac{\partial^2 z}{\partial y\partial x}$?
cosín™
there's a very clear discussion about the de rham differential in arnold's mechanics book. there's probably some nice geometric comment about d^2 = 0 in there
TTeppACAB
OH. i see, thank you🙏
given the two descriptions of the complex projective line P^1 where the first one is the one given by the Riemann sphere C \cup \infty and the other one given by the set of lines through the origin modulo the equivalence relation that two points are the same if they're on the same line how can i show that these two are equivalent?
A line in C² is uniquely determined by its slope, and a vertical one has slope oo. That gives an obvious map from lines to C u {oo}
Here, 'vertical' is supposed to be between quotes ofc, but you get the idea
∞
im sorta confused with the notion of the points in the latter space are they of the form [l] for a line in C^2 through the origin or [z_0 : z_1] with (z_0,z_1) in C^2 \ {0}? im not sure how to get the slope from [z_0 : z_1]
This is if you refer to a point [z0:z1] in homogeneous coordinates
uhmmm im not sure what are homogeneous coordinates i take that [z_0 : z_1] isn't just notation?
It's a notation for the equivalence class of the point (z0,z1) under the relation 'allow re-scaling non-zero points'
[z_0 : z_1] is the equivalence class of (z_0, z_1) ~ (k z_0, k z_1) for k \ne 0
and of course you can extend this to [z_0 : ... : z_n]
so we can map [z_0 : z_1] to z_0/z_1 but this is still an element in C^2 and not in C which we would want for C u {∞}?
If what were always possible?
If topological Whitney disks could always be smoothed, then topological side would imply smooth slice. And it doesn’t, but that just kicks the can down the road to prove some other distinction between the categories
But if you’re saying something about the failure to construct topological Whitney disks, that sounds a lot crazier. It is conjectured, or at least open, that there are enough topological Whitney disks to prove the surgery statements. I’ve never heard anything about the impossibility of topological Whitney disks
[1:0] is mapped to oo
Also, this z0/z1 is a ratio of complex numbers, that's a complex number
oh okay. do we require it to have modulus 1 to be on the sphere?
It certainly won't have modulus one!
What sphere would this be on? It happens that thus manifold is diffeomoephic to a 2-sphere, but that's different
isn't the riemann sphere actually a sphere or am i just missing something in the definition?
It is a sphere, yes!
But the ratio z0/z1 doesn't always have modulus one; that'd correspond to the equator (it's a circle)
A knot in S^3 certainly bounds an immersed disk in D^4.
Take the immersed disk. If the topological Whitney trick was possible you would obtain a topological embedded disk in D^4 bounding your knot
But there are knots which are not TOP slice, so this is a contradiction
Yeah, ok, but there are unsliced knots in higher dimensions, too, so you can express some obstructions in generic terms
I think it must be the fundamental group obstructing framing
The framing given by such a disk would be the Seifert framing. But instead we have the blackboard framing or something?
This is probably why you always see the Whitney trick being done when your surface is intersecting something else. The other surface can be leveraged to correct the framing
“By spinning around it”
finitely many so it worked out ig
but hey, say it's an arbitrary product. Would it still work out the same way?
No, I think there are counterexamples like the product of {0, 1} over N, but I don't remember all the details
oh cool, I'd check that out. Thanks.
What are some common topologies put on the fundamental groupoid of a space? Are any of these etale?

If you have a reasonable (slsc) space, then there are only two choices: discrete, or give the objects the topology of the original space. This is probably etale in some sense
What is the meaning of etale here? The topology ? or some morphism?
Maybe that the map from morphisms to objects give by the source is etale, ie, a local homeomorphism
Exactly
Yeah that's what I'm thinking. The c star algebra of such groupoids have nice theory
And I had an idea to study the c star alg of this
Say X has universal cover Y. Applying the general procedure for producing a groupoid from a map Y->X should produce the fundamental groupoid. But the C* algebra for this should be Morita equivalent to X
Since quotient maps imply continuous fns then can I just argue based on the continuity of f and gof? Is that fine?
no wait, argh nvm I need sleep.
how do I show that this is a quotient map based on g being continuous?
okay so is it enough to show surjection?
getting mildly stuck on this problem: "a space is locally compact and hausdorff iff it is homeomorphic to an open subspace of a compact hausdorff space." I get that for one direction you can use the one point compactification, but i dont get the other directoon
Well, for the other direction you want to show that open subspaces of a compact Hausdorff space are locally compact Hausdorff (LCH).
In particular, compact ==> locally compact. So you can show that an open subspace of a LCH space is again LCH (just to highlight the key assumptions for the proof).
Should it maybe be a locally compact Hausdorff space?
I don't remember the exact details, but for a point in your subspace, it has a compact neighborhood in the larger space.
There seems to be a canonical choice for your compact neighborhood in the subspace then, no?
Guess you would have to show that open neighborhoods contain closed neighborhoods. Maybe using that the boundary is compact.
That also works, and is probably a better proof in retrospect since it's an important property of LCH spaces
This is what jagr is talking about
This is what I would take as the definition of locally compact, but I guess it's a theorem here
If you take this as the definition of locally compact, isn't the question trivial then?
No cause you have to show that compact Hausdorff spaces satisfies this
I guess showing compact Hausdorff ==> LCH (with this definition) is the exercise then yeah
What definition are you taking for locally compact? As jagr points out, there are a few
(all equivalent for Hausdorff spaces though, but that requires a proof in itself, of )
okay maybe a bit off topic but is a T3 space necessarily compact?
No. Consider the real line
ahh, okay
Any metric space is T3
T6 even
what would be a nice counterexample to 'Continuous image of a Hausdorff space is a Hausdorff space'
Uh if you want a minimal example like
Take the Sierpinski space S (so {0,1} with the open sets empty, {0},{0,1}), which is the smallest non hausdorff space
identity map from discrete topology to indiscrete topology
You can view it as a quotient of [0,1] by identifying all points > 0 with 1 I think
Okay nice tterra oops
Another is uhhh
Take a hausdorff space X and crush a non-closed subspace A to a point
Then if you pick a limit pt of A which is not in A, you can't separate it from A by opens
My other example is a special case of this lol
sorry as i said i mistyped and meant to say LCH not just LC
forgot to edit but its edited now
doesnt work if the spaces have less than 2 points
who cares
Right, I know. But still, it's an exercise in and of itself to show the definitions are equivalent. Which is why it's relevant.
ahh, gotcha. Thanks.
sure, then my book gives "a space is locally compact if for every point there is a compact set containing an open set containing the point"
Right, that's the one I would take to be the definition; it's the weaker definition.
Clearly, every compact space is locally compact with this definition; take the entire space
So you'll want to show this stronger characterization of LCH for this exercise
It really scratches my gears to call something "locally X" if it's not a local property
That's a local property still
To me a local property should be true for open neighborhoods
Otherwise you're relying on global structure
Algebraic topologists: 😄
Alg geometers: 
Jkjk, but I see what you mean. It should be inherited by open subspaces
Sticking with the "all spaces are Hausdorff" slogan, still seems like an argument to pick the strong definition.
Like if the definitions are equivalent anyway, might as well pick the definition that makes sense.
I don't write the textbooks 
i'd read ryx's textbook 
what would the open sets of the identification space be if the elements are the subsets of X? i know they would be union of the subsets but which subsets
It needs to be a partition of X. You can't take all subsets of X.
oh yea my b i meant the disjoint subsets of X whose union is X
by points do they mean open sets ig is my question
Ryx (Home for flowers)
this is just explicitly writing out what pi^{-1}( O ) is
quotients 
"bro bro" 
i hope it is
you know how the quotient Z/3Z identifies 0, 3, 6, 9, ... as just one element?
Yes. "Identification" seems to be more common for older texts.
ah i see
ayo
the intuition goes crazyyy
yea i just googled "identification spaces" for intuition
how does this show that the topology is the largest for which f is continuous? i can't think of anything at all lol... is it just because f^{-1}(U) open implies U is open and that has to do with the quotient map or smt?
i'm also trying to see how the quotient topology is the largest topology for which pi: X --> Y is continuous... for if this topology was coarser than some topology, our open sets in Y wouldn't necessarily have an open preimage..hm
oh
S not contained in the quotient topology implies that it's preimage is not open
here, what is I?
[0,1] with standard (subspace) topology
ah ok thanks
how do we add tv + (1 - t)x if (1 - t)x is in R^2 and tv is in R^3? do we just embed (1 - t)x into R^3 and then add 'em?
give x last coordinate 0
if A = {1,2,3,4} in the finite compliment topology on Z, would these be right?
Int(A) is A
Cl(A) =Z
bd(A) = {1,2,3,4},
A’ = A
Could someone please help me with finding all connected covering spaces of RP^2 wedge RP^2?
I have the following, but I'm so confused about the the quotienting to get the orbit space
I can't see how to get type three and four
It’s just direct calculation… elements of G are of three kinds: A: of the form a(ba)^n, B of the form b(ab)^k, C: of the form (ab)^m or (ba)^m
For a subgroup H of G, H trivial you get H={1} or type 1)
H contains only elements of one kind among A,B,C you get type 2) or 3)
H contains more than one kinds of elements then it will contain all three kinds of elements you will get type 4)
Yeah, but how would one go about finding the covering spaces for those subgroups?
I.e. how would one go about figuring out how the orbit spaces are like?
Any subgroup H there exists Y->X corresponding H
Any subgroup H of π1(X, x0), let Y be the quotient set of paths f: I -> X, such that f(0)=x0, over equivalence relation : f equivalent to g if f(1)=g(1) and class of fg^-1 is in H
Topology of Y see gtm 119 rotman chapter 10
Hi, I am trying to under classifying bundles. In particular I just read that the bundle Gr_{n}R^{\infty} \times R^{\infty} ---> Gr_{n}R^{\infty} is the universal bundle and classifies real n-plane bundles.
So my question this bundle is universal in the sense that every real $n$-dimensional vector bundle $ E_{1} ---> X$ that admits a bundle map to a $n$-dimensional vector bundle E_{2} ----> Y. This map will uniquely factor through a bundle map $ E_{1} ---> X$ into Gr_{n}R^{\infty} \times R^{\infty} ---> Gr_{n}R^{\infty} ?
Like is the universal bundle a colimit or limit or something in the homotopy category of rank n vector bundles?...
How do you understand this?
You can think of the construction sending X to the set of iso classes of rank n vector bundles over X as a functor C^op -> Set where C is, say, category of paracompact spaces with maps given by homotopy classes of continuous maps
Then the universal bundle E -> B has the property that B represents the above functor
With the natural isomorphism between the two functors given by pulling back as you desctibe
Let X be a sufficiently nice space (e.g. a manifold) and $E\rightarrow X$ a real vector bundle of rank n. Take an open cover $U_i$ of X, the transition functions $U_i\cap U_j\rightarrow GL_n(\mathbb{R})$ completely determines the vector bundle. By some argument of cocyle conditions on the transition map (gluing consistently), we know this gives us a class in the first Cech cohomology group $\check{\mathrm{H}}^1(X,GL_n(\mathbb{R}))$. Since the base space is nice, Cech cohomology can be identified with singular cohomology on X valued in the group $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$. By the general theory of cohomology, we know that the cohomology functor is represented by the Eilenberg-Maclane space $K(GL_n,1)=BGL_n$. This is why you can get a space to represent the functor sending X to the isomorphism classes of real vector bundles over X.
To understand why it is universal, best to think in the setting of $GL_n(\mathbb{R})$-principal bundle associated to the real vector bundle. The universal cover $EGL_n\rightarrow BGL_n$ admits a free action of $GL_n$ by deck transformation. Every $GL_n$-principal bundle over X can be obtained by a free action of $GL_n$ on the pullback bundle $X\times_{BGL_n} EGL_n$, which is determined by the homotopy type of the map $X\rightarrow BGL_n$.
To see why $BGL_n$ is the Grassmannian $Gr_{n,\infty}$. Use the definition that Grassmannian is obtained from the Stiefel manifold $V_n$ (it is all then-frames while Grassmannian should be n-frames modulo the $GL_n$ actions). It gives a fiber sequence $GL_n\rightarrow V_n\rightarrow Gr_n$. Compare with the fiber sequence $GL_n\rightarrow EGL_n\rightarrow BGL_n$. Note that both $V_n$ and $EGL_n$ are contractible, so it gives the same space in the homotopy category.
Dong_Valentino
After writing it down, it feels really complicated. But I really cannot think of an easier explanation. I mean the vector bundle funtor is represented by the grassmannian seems really very mysterious.
Maybe think of the vector bundle as projective modules over the C-infty(X). There may be a purely algebraic argument to classify the projective module but I guess you still need to use some cohomology or homotopy theory. Perhaps.
Here is a really slick construction. Fix your base space X. Consider the infinite dimensional vector space V of continuous sections of this vector bundle. At every point you can evaluate a section to the fiber at that point. This is surjective if X is a reasonable space. Define Gr(n,V) as the space of n-dimensional quotient of V. This gives a map from X to Gr(n,V).
Show that the original vector bundle is isomorphic to the pullback of the canonical vector bundle on this grassmannian. This shows that every vector bundle is the pullback of the canonical vector bundle on some infinite dimensional grassmannian. Then you have to prove that all infinite dimensional grassmannians are close enough to the same that all vector bundles are the pull back from a single infinite dimensional grassmannian. (You probably have to restrict the definition of reasonable space more to do that). Finally you have to prove that if two vector bundles are isomorphic their classifying maps are homotopic. By construction, their classifying maps are the same, but you have to worry that you messed this up when transferring from the boutique grassmannian to the single canonical grassmannian
Hot
cold
Goldilocks
how might i show that the gluing lemma holds if the functions are defined on elements of a locally finite closed cover?
Because continuity is local, the locally finite case should reduce immediately to the finite case
:)
Okay I am new to stuff with groups acting on spaces but was wondering - let's say X is a CW cpx and a group G acts on X. How nice an action does it have to be for X/G to have a natural CW complex structure? I would assume if G is finite and acts on a finite CW complex via cellular maps then it'd be fine; idk what happens more generally
If it acts by cellular maps, that’s practically assuming you already have a CW complex structure on the quotient.
If the action is smooth or piecewise linear, it’s ok. I don’t think there’s anything more you can say
lol im dumb thats so obvious
thanks
okay im stuck again this time on showing that in a LCH space or a complete metric space, every closed countable set has an isolated point
so far all i have is that such a set would have to be infinite and have dense complement
Dw
What's funny is I don't remember ever proving that myself cause never needed to, but it looks simpler in hindsight lol
Sure cool thanks
would this work? since compact subsets of a Hausdorff space is closed, we know that A and B contain their limit points. so for each a in A we can find a neighborhood of a that doesn't intersect B. so we can form the union of all these neighborhoods which would be a neighborhood for A which doesn't intersect B, and we can do the same for B
Those needn't be disjoint
You thickened up A in a way that doesn't hit B and thickened up B in a way that didn't hit A
But those thickenings could touch
Also, your argument doesn't use compactness - it only uses the fact the subsets are closed. But this theorem is actually false for closed instead of compact subspaces I'm p sure
Hm I can't think of a counterexample though
oh yea that's a good point
true - i thought the point of this exercise was to use the fact that compact subsets of a Hausdorff space are closed
for this?
Yeahh
hm
hmm maybe we could tweak the method used for showing that a compact subset of a Hausdorff space is closed
fix some b in B, then for each a in A find open neighborhoods of b and A that are disjoint, then keep on doing this process for each b?
idk
wait nvm i think this is equivalent to my previous argument oops
welp
contradiction it is
?
Right. This separation property for closed subsets is the T4 axiom. There are Hausdorff (T2) spaces that are not T4. There are even T3 spaces that are not T4. T3 is the axiom exactly halfway between T2 and T3, that you can separate a point from a closed set using open sets
Yeah sure
could I have a hint for this question please?
i'm currently fooling around with contradiction and assuming that every neighborhood of A and B are nonempty
this has led me to consider the intersection of all neighborhoods O_i(A) \cap O_i(B) and take their union, which form an open cover for A U B which we know is compact
and i have no clue if this is going anywhere lol
i'm confused, so we use S^n to denote the n-dimensional sphere whose points are that of R^{n + 1} - so if we were to think of S^2, it would be a 3 dimensional sphere, visually, but we would define it to be a 2d sphere?
also how do you visually verify that S^1 x S^1 is a torus?
like i'm having trouble
S^2 is the surface of a 3D ball
you can draw a line in 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 dimensions and it will still essentially be 1-dimensional
wdym by that
you can even bend it to form a circle but it will still be 1-dimensional
well okay so we have S^1 x S^1 - wouldn't that be a subset of R^2, how would we visualize a torus that way?
sorry i'm not really seeing your point
S^1 x S^1 is not in R^2
why not
oh
wait so S^1 is the 1-dimensional sphere whose points are that of R^2 which have distance 1 from the origin right
let’s say you take a sheet of paper in space
it’s basically a 2D object, yeah?
yea
now fold it to form a cube
is it 2D or 3D?
3D i guess
but the original shape was 2D
i'm just a bit confused by what they mean by "1-dimensional" sphere - do they mean that it's of the form (x, 0) for x in R but that it's embedded in R^2?
S^1 is just a circle
it’s called a sphere because circles, spheres, hyperspheres are all surfaces of balls
but it’s a 1 because locally the circle looks like a line
it’s like how you can approximate C^1 functions by lines if you zoom in enough
yes
ok this second point is kinda misleading because all we need in this context is continuity, not differentiability
okay, so the "1-dimensional" is in reference to zooming in really close and it looks like a line
but imagine just looking at the upper half of the circle
if you were to flatten it out, you’d get a line
ohh o k i see
i don't know how you visualize S^1 x S^1 at all/how it comes about if both points are from R^2
so technically wouldn't it be four dimensional?
cuz like
wait no
wait
say we're considering say
((.8, .6), (-.8, -.6)) on the unit circle
but that doesn't make sense because the components are 2-dimensional
sorry i'mm so lost
if we define the torus to be the cartesian product S^1 x S^1 i can't see how that works
a point on the torus is specified by two angles. an element of S^1 x S^1 is two angles
a
damn
alr
was i supposed to know that or some shit
because as far as I'm aware the cartesian product o f two sets A x B is the set of all (a, b) such that a is in A and b is in B
so I'm just using the definition of S^1 as a set
damn
an element of S^1 is an angle
i
okay
alr i accept that
so
just to be clear
S^1 is not the (x, y) such that x^2 + y^2 = 1
it's just angles
oh no that's definitely what S^1 literally is
don't interpret my messages too literally
bruh
(cos θ, sin θ)
S^1 x S^1 is a donut
(A hollow donut)
if f is an open map is that just saying that its inverse is continuous?
oh right
how is the inverse of the projection map well-defined? do we just always assume that the second factor is the second topological space or smt?
this is "preimage" not inverse
if you have a function f: X -> Y between sets, you can write f(U) and f^{-1}(V) for image/preimage of subsets U of X and V of Y
Explicit contraction of the dunce cap ?
please
Wouldn't a subset without isolated points look like a dense subset? Which, ofc, cannot be closed if proper
In any case, no isolated points should contradict countability
intuitively i agree but having a hard time proving
This is essentially the Baire category theorem
So assume your LCH space is countable, closed and without isolated points.
Let r1, r2, ... be an enumeration of the points and let Ui be the open set where you have removed the first i points.
Let x1 be a point in U1, and let B1 be a compact neighborhood of x1 contained in U1. Since x1 is not an isolated point B1 has infinite interior. Since U2 is cofinite B1\cap U2 has infinite interior, so pick a point x2 and a compact neighborhood B2 contained in the interior of B1\cap U2.
Now the Bi are a countable chain of closed compact sets, so has nonempty intersection, but it is contained in the intersection of the Ui, which is empty. Contradiction.
wait, how do we guarantee a compact nbhd in U1 exists? i forget
It's locally compact
Didn't you prove that an open subspace of a locally compact Hausdorff space is locally compact earlier?
in the proof of excision theorem (Hatcher 122) this is kinda confusing me. Y is a convex set, LC_n(Y) denotes subgroup of C_n(Y) generated by linear chains, λ is a generator of LC_n(Y)
b_λ is the image of the barycenter b of Δ^n under λ, and b_λ is the cone operator
I kind of just don't really understand what T does in general, even after reading the geometric motivation
i.e., I get that it defines a chain homotopy, but geometrically what does it do
the last line it says that it takes the image of this subdivision under the projection. first off, what even is the point of this whole process if we just take the projection? why not just take the barycentric subdivision on Δ^n, since collapsing Δ^n x I to Δ^n would just give you the same thing (i think)
does that mean T is the projection mapping? if so, I don't get how that is a mapping LC_n to LC_n+1
(this is me trying to show that projection Δ^1 x I to Δ^1 is the same as barycentric subdivision on Δ^1)
I think the point is you divide Delta^n x I into several copies of Delta^n+1 . Then for each of them you get a n+1-chain by first projecting down to Delta^n x {0}, then applying the map given by lamda. Then T is just the sum of these chains.
So yeah T is basically just composing with the projection Delta^n x I -> Delta^n, just modulo the fact that Delta^n x I is not Delta^n+1
OHHHHHHHHHH
im ngl i dont like hatchers proof
maybe im just bad at visualizing this stuff
Hatcher tends to be particularly bad about relying on visualisation
Is there a way to write an explicit contraction of the Dunce cap ?
The dunce cap?
Dunce hat? Triangle whose sides are identified non-cyclically
https://core.ac.uk/download/pdf/81112833.pdf This I presume. Take a simplex, give an ordering to each side as indicated and then quotient.
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
okay im stuck:
show that a connected, locally euclidian, paracompact hausdorff space is second countable
found this on wikipedia for paracompact, it might be helpful
A topological space is metrizable if and only if it is a paracompact and locally metrizable Hausdorff space.
hmm, not sure what extra conditions are needed for metrizability to imply second countability
Metrizable plus countable dense set implies second countable
But I feel like using that theorem is circular
How about this?
||Take a cover by Euclidean open sets||
||Refine to a locally finite Euclidean cover||
||Let x1 be a point in your space and U1 an open neighborhood that only intersects finitely many sets in your cover.||
||let E1, E2, ... be the sets in the open cover that intersect U1, and for each rational point in each of them pick a neighborhood that only intersects finitely many sets in the cover, and take a union of all of them. Since the rationals are dense this union contains the Eis, and since it's a countable union of things that only intersects finitely many things each it only intersects countably many Euclidean sets.||
||Call this union U2, and define U3, U4, ... inductively||
||Letting U be the union of all the Uns, note that U is open. If there is a point not in U, then it would be contained in some Euclidean from the cover. But if E intersects U, then it must intersect Un for some n, but then E would be contained in Un+1. So U is closed.||
||Since our space is connected U is everything. But U contains only countably many of the Euclidean sets, so our space is the countable union of Euclidean neighbors||
And since Euclidean space is second countable that should do the trick
I never used Hausdorff, so maybe there's a mistake somewhere...
||and since it's a countable union of things that only intersects finitely many things each it only intersects finitely many Euclidean sets.||
i don't follow, ||why does it intersect finitely many Euclidean sets?||
I meant to write ||countably many||
how the fuck was i expected to think of that
i guess one of the main ideas is getting countable things from the rational points
and then the other idea is this trick to show it's connected
Yeah, the first idea you think of should really be "how can I write my space as a countable union of Euclidean neighborhoods"
you know what i did like 27 out of 34 problems im just moving on to the next chapter
thanks for the help yall
can i have a hint for this question please?
Here’s a hint (or a sub problem)
Show that for any compact set C and any point x not in C, there are disjoint neighborhoods of C and x respectively
Use that sub problem to show the full problem
all good
oh okay so lemma then LOL
i'll try that
YEAH that’s the word
(a hint for this lemma: try to construct an open cover for C where every element of the cover is associated with some disjoint neighborhood of x)
any intuition behind the definition of a cell decomposition there? seems super random
@ me if you answer
i'm a little bit confused, how could we make sense of a "one point set" if we're working in R^2?
oh
wait i'm dumb
do they mean (x, y) for {x x y}
yes: {(x,y)}
for any point in interior of [0, 1] x [0, 1], it should be left "untouched" (that is, not identified with other points) by the identifications that are being made here
so its a one point set
man it’s so nice to have a lecturer who is both properly knowledgeable and practical
:( do u have any book recs to supplement hatcher
and or lecture notes, videos, etc
god i'm flying
?
this doesnt make any sense, why does the map have to restrict to a homeomorphism from the boundary to all lower-dimensional cells?
ryx writing the bible over here
The idea behind cell decomposition is that you have a space which can be built up by attaching cells (disks) repeatedly, in order of increasing dimension. So you start out with a bunch of points with the discrete topology (the 0-cells), and to this you attach lines (in the form of [0,1]) along their boundary ({0} and {1}), so what you end up getting looks like a bunch of vertices with edges between them; that is, a graph. Then to this, you attach 2-disks along their boundary (the circle) to the graph, and then....
So the requirement that the characteristic map takes boundary(D^n) into the cells with dimension strictly less than n formalizes this notion of attaching in order of increasing dimension: The boundary of the n-disk gets identified with the lower dimension, and it cannot take values in dimensions greater than n (for example, you can't attach a line to a 2-disk). And the requirement that the characteristic map restricts to a homeomorphism on the interior does 2 things:
- It forces you to get a nice topology in the end (it's always T_4) because the topology ends up depending largely on the disks' topologies, and
- It basically tells you that you're attaching only the boundary of the disk to lower dimensions (for example, when you attach a 2-disk, it ensures that you can't attach the upper half of the disk in addition to the boundary, since that would give some pathological shit)
/rant but it's basically just building a nice space in layers
wait, but say you attach one line to one point and then a circle to that line, and pick a different point and attach a line to that point, why does the boundary of the disk have to be 'attached' to both lines if one of the lines sprouts off of a different point
The boundary doesn't have to be attached to all cells of lower dimension, if that's what you mean. Just into the union of them.
okay i still dont get it
i get it up to the graph part, you're just drawing lines between points
but where exactly is the circle attached?
It's really something you gotta think about pictorially to get an intuition lol. So like you might have something like in the first drawing, where you attach part of the circle to one line and another part to a second line; you end up getting something that looks like a 2-disk. Or it might be like something in the second picture where you "collapse" the circle to a single point; you end up getting something that looks like a 2-sphere. [or you can get some wacky shit too, these are just intuitive examples]
(shit drawing skills but whatever)
The first example looks kinda like that, but I wouldn't describe the sphere example that way (what would be shaded in there?)
im so confused
Uhh okay sorry I maybe didn't do the best at explaining it lol
no i think im just not getting it
probably not your fault
i totally get the first image
but like, how is there any relationship between the 2 cell in green and the purple 1 cell?
There isn't. So the characteristic map for the green 2-cell would map the boundary to the red and blue 1-cells (which are then contained in the union of all 1-cells and 0-cells)
(A 2 cell doesn't have to be attached to every 1 cell in the 1-skeleton)
oh, shit, i just misread the definition
thought that the restriction to δD had to be a homeomorphism to the union of all lower dimensional cells
sorry about that, i think i understand to some extent now
it happens 
yeah the homeomorphism part is just the open cells (interiors)
bro got honorable
ya idk who thought that one was a good idea 
if you speak semi-authoritatively on any sort of math in the advanced channels you're bound to get honourable
it also helps to have friends in the honourable/mod team 
damn I don't even have to be correct in what I'm saying 
it used to be lgbt = honourable but new mods are homophobes
isn't everyone on this server lgbt pretty much
I failed, ryx got yellow anyway...
most are
:o
i wonder what the statistics are
idk if i'd say most, probably most within people that are actually active but if you include the thousands of people here who just use the help channels then idk
lol
there seems to be a considerably higher concentration of lgbt people on discord (or at least, in the majority of the servers im active in) than in the general population or on some other platforms
{lgbt} is dense in {people | discord}
well, i think theres a certain type of confirmation bias that can sometimes factor into these things- in online spaces like this, many people are openly lgbt an put it in their profiles, whereas people rarely put "im straight and cisgender" in their profiles lol
(someone plz correct me in how this does not work out topologically)
well you'd have to find an open set containing only straight people
everyone's a little gay, so that's not possible
Propaganda
this is obvious, i agree and admit my mistake
Lol I was about to type something out but didn't want to disturb the enlightening topological conversation
jk dw i no longer need to ask (i think)
are servers the open sets?
no the space is spanned by the people and people are just connected regions of behaviour
well, youve lost me now
smh read more Butler (no i am just not making sense and will go back to typing up this topology assignement now)
the gay function is strictly positive?
whats the integral of gay dpeople
we (by that i mean I) should stop shitposting in the topo channel
I like men btw
what is your gender
M
gamma?

who’s gamma
Gamma is just propaganda. Pay no attention.
I gotta meet this gamma guy
ok back on topic this seems suspiciously easy so i will just double check in am not off course: if i want to show for any two basis elements B1, B2, that if x lies in the intersection B1 n B2, then there is some basis element B with x in B subset B1 n B2... if i can show B1 is a subset of B2, then i can simply take B = B1 and we are done, right?
how do you define basis?
basis for a topology
Yeah there’s different definitions. One of them actually requires the condition you are trying to prove
what
oops
what's another definition than my condition
the ones i've seen have all been equivalent
Yeah they’re equivalent (your problem is proving one direction of the equivalence probably)
I’m just asking which definition you’re working with
i'm not interested in proving that equivalence right now... i only want someone to verify if the last part of the above is sufficient to satisfy the condition i started with in the message (before and after the "...")
If B1 is a subset of B2 then sure but just recognize that's generally not true
Bro did not want to tell me his definition 😭
i prefer the def of a basis: fancy B subset P(X) with (1) B covers X, and (2) if B1,B2 are in fancy B, there is a family A in fancy B with the intersection B1 n B2 = union of the elements in A
then we define the top generated by fancy B to be the set of unions in fancy B
According to that definition your original claim is true by definition no?
Or… maybe you were trying to show a certain collection IS a basis
Ah that makes sense. Sorry
if X = A U B and X is open, must it be that A and B are also open?
i want to know if it's true or not before starting to prove it just in case it's false so i don't waste time ykwim
what? absolutely not, take (a, b] and [b, c) in R
hm
a lot of math is wasting time, get used to it
all of math is a waste of time
so true
wasting time is a good way to learn something
especially topology

so if X = A U B with X clopen is either A or B clopen?
not when you have a pset due the same day
but other than that
yes
are you in an actual class or just a reading group
this is unrelated to learning something
actual class

Still no, take (-infinity, 0], (0, infinity). R is clopen in R.
hmm, i'm a bit confused then. i'm assuming that the only subsets on a space X which are both open and closed are X and the empty set and trying to show that X cannot be expressed as the union of two disjoint nonempty sets
i've been following my prof's proof
suppose X = U \cup V with U and V open, intersection empty
disjoint nonempty open sets?
O
so what can you say about V
im assuming youre doing connectedness
when did your class start?
uhh like a little over a month ago?
we're going over topological groups and quotient spaces rn
but this week's hw is on connectedness lmfao
what class is it, just point-set?
because if so thats a fast class, what are you gonna cover in like december lol
algebraic topology
ah
i have no clue lol
so you're taking algtop but you havent taken pointset? (disclaimer i have never been to a university class i have no idea the structuring)
does a pointset class generally include CW complexes?
the syllabus doesn't have the course schedule on it lol
No list of topics?
what is pointset anyways, like chapters 2-4 or 2-5 from Lee ITM?
cw complexes are not covered in the average general topology class
what class are they generally covered in?
algebraic topology
huh
Thanks, I'll now be showing up to your classes
damn i'll start going to lec again then
first 5 or 6 chapters of munkres
So continuity, compactness & connectedness, quotient spaces, fundamental group, triangulation, simplicial homology, and degree/lefschetz number
That's a good amount
1 semester and all that? damn
my dumb class barely covers half of that
im slow asf
nah imma die fr
can you send your last pset?
im wondering how hard problems usually are for a university class
oh it's just problems from armstrong, the one that's due two days from now is just 2 problems 💀
pg. 60, #31 and #34 from armstrong
can you send the problems
thanks
also if ur gonna discuss the answers or smt if you could spoiler that would be great 😭
fun problems, someone check my work on the first one
||(a) the finite complement topology should be connected and (b) for the half open intervals the components should be singletons||
not confident for (b)
id have to double-check
problems seem easy tho im glad that i wont be asked to do like lee 4-31 or anything similar
Is the half open interval topology the one with basis [a, b)?
ye ||true for any infinitee set||
Yeah
In general, ||co-κ topology (sets with cardinality < κ are closed) is connected on a set with cardinality ≥ κ, and discrete on a set with cardinality < κ||
(just to be clear this is only an actual topology iff κ infinite)
ofc
cock topology
Lol
why is it that each point of a discrete topological space is a component of the space? is it because if I have {x}, then {x, y} is not connected since the closure of {x} doesn't intersect {y} and similarly the closure of {y} doesn't intersect {x}?
Hm not how I would show that space isn't connected
That seems less direct
Just note {x}, {y} are open and cover it
wait how does that show they're each components
It shows {x,y} isn't connected
But also like this whole idea isn't enough to show that {x} is a component
You need to show that any subset set of cardinality >= 2 is disconnected
Proof works the same tho
wait sorry how does covering it shot it's not connected?
potato over my gun, i move in silence cause fellas be clocking my funds
What is your definition of connected
I am going straight from the usual definition
Actually this may be a weird munkres thing lol
A space $X$ is connected if whenever it is decomposed as the union $A \cup B$ of two nonempty subsets then $\bar{A} \cap B \neq \varnothing$ or $A \cap \bar{B} \neq \varnothing$
okeyokay
Oh lol
I remember learning that def from real analysis
I am going from the one that X cannot be written as a union of two disjoint open subsets
Which is equivalent
ye
oh
i see what you mean, so {x} U {y} = {x, y} where {x} and {y} are open which means that {x, y} is not connected
crazy proposition: the open sets in the finite complement topology are infinite
the converse is not true however
finite sets:
funny story, there are no sets in which cofiniteness is equivalent to infiniteness
am I trippin, or are all subsets of the real numbers under the finite complement topology components? bc consider an arbitrary subset $X \subseteq \mathbb{R}$. if $X$ were to be expressed as $X = U \cap V$ with $U$ and $V$ open, then we must have either $U$ or $V$ equal to $\mathbb{R} - A$ where $A$ is some finite subset of $\mathbb{R}$. Say $V = \mathbb{R} - A$. but then we would have to have $U = A$ which is finite and hence closed under the finite complement topology
you mean all sets are connected right
oh yea
you cant have all sets being components
well all you care about is that the set itself is connected lol
and no, not all sets would be connected
okeyokay
take for instance {0, 1}. (R \ {0}) cap {0, 1} = {1} open and (R \ {1}) cap {0, 1} = {0} open so {0, 1} disconnected
by similar logic all finite sets are disconnected and all infinite sets are connected
(R \ {0}) cap {0, 1} = {1} open
wait how did u get this
because doesn't that imply that {0, 1} is open in the finite complement topology
oh
i see ur point
no, this is the definition of the subspace topology
so this is saying that {0, 1} is disconnected in the subspace topology right
yes
but not in the original finite complement topology
in order to determine if a set is connected in a space we use the subspace topology
otherwise [0, 1] wouldnt be connected lol
since it cant be the union of two open sets
clearly
Yes, connectedness is a property of the space as a whole; whether a not a subset is connected is determined by regarding it as a topological space in its own right with the subspace topology
same with compactness/paracompactness and a lot of similar qualities
i see
alr i'll take that as my hint for finding the components of R under the finite complement topology then
thanks
well, you can define compactness and paracompactness equivalently a different way that doesnt use the subspace topo but
nobody does
if the infinite sets are the connected sets under the finite complement topology, how do I check for maximality then? is it a cardinality argument?
If you have an infinite set, there's clearly a maximum infinite subset
wait where did maximality come from
cuz a component is a maximal connected subset
o that
uh so are the components just the infinite sets of R?
bruh
the components cant be the infinite sets because they dont form a partition
R is connected with this topology
what do you know about the component of a connected space
I like Bredon
sick 😎 i have that one i’ll use it more
What's the biggest subset you can think of? is that connected?
in case no one has made it clear to you yet (because no one made it clear to me), when we say that a set is "larger" than another, we mean it contains the other set
so a set with some property is maximal if it is not contained in any other set with that property
Dumb q, if X,Y are nice spaces with nice actions of G and we have a G-equivariant homotopy equivalence h: X -> Y (with the homotopies showing it is invertible being G equivariant) then it induces a homotopy equivalence X/G -> Y/G right? Like the homotopies showing h is an equivalence should just factor through ig
I don't see how there is a G-equivariant homotopy equivalence
Like you can't even have an equivariant map Y -> X right since no point of X is fixed by G
Oh, sorry, I missed your definition. Yeah, then the fixed points are a functor
Nice, thanks
Was just worried about some pointset technicalities in smth i was writing but it is easier than i thought after writing it out :)
Where can I find a simplicial structure of something like a torus but with three 1-dimensional holes and one 2-dimensuonal holes. I wanna compute the simplicial homology and verify I get the stuff I expect.
I know the regular torus with one 1- dimensional hole and one 2-dimensuonal hole comes from identifying pairs of sides of a square and twisting.
How can I generalized this to get the shape I want
a torus doesn't have a 2-dimensional hole, depending on what you mean by "hole"
what is the mathematicially rigorous version of what you are asking?
What's the last nonzero homology group
just \pi_1
The hollow interior part
the torus has a universal cover which is contractible, so it can't have higher homotopy groups by the homotopy lifting theorem
ah sorry you said homology
Is the rigorous version that you want a space with H_1 = Z^3, H_2 = Z?
Yeah exactly
do you care about how nice the space is? do you want it to be compact and without boundary?
The shape is still hallow but now h1=3
I don't know why such a space would have to be so nice. I don't consider the regular torus nice
what is not nice about the torus?
I thought you meant something about the quality like smoothness.
Well there are lots of smooth structures on the torus, although only one equivalence class
Okay. Well such an object that looks like a torus but with 3 coffee mug handles on it.
that's a different question
How do you get a simplicial complex structure on that. I thought the point of a simplicial complex is that I can ignore homeomorphism. That's the same question. A torus is a coffee mug
Wait no sorry. A coffee mug isn't hallow
Oh so you don't want it to be hollow? You're thinking of the torus as a 3-manifold with boundary?
Is a topology on a set X determined by the class of continuous functions X -> X it admits?
I ask this because I read somewhere that "if the same sequences converge then the topologies are the same"
Well, I mean it kinda (but not really) depends on what topologies are put where but yes
Wait really?
It holds for general topological spaces?
I see why it holds for "sequential spaces", which require this to hold
Like you need to specify what topologies go with what space (like are you considering a fixed topology T on the codomain, and varying over all topologies on the domain? Or do you mean just for that topology, (X,T) --> (X,T)?)
If it's the first, then just consider identities lol. If it's the latter then no; all functions (X,T) --> (X,T) are continuou for both the indiscrete topology and the discrete topology, but these are ofc distinct when |X| > 1
Yeah I realized that after what i first said lol
i'm loving this assignment
especially since i am actually managing to work through these with relative ease (i suppose these are all rather elementary problems)

i have never really had a look at subspaces before now though, so i've reached problem 13, but am struggling to make sense of the open sets in the subspace A
does, say, the fact that (-1/2,1/2) is open in R make the subset U = {0} u {1/n | n > 1} open in A ?
that feels very weird
in a lack for better words

oh wow i just turned blue, i dunno if i should be happy about this
asphyxiation
Hm well like
can i be pink rather


