#point-set-topology
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note that f(f^-1(A)) ins't necessarily A
but is contained in A
if that is what is causing some confusion
ohhh i see what you mean
ff^{-1}B = B iff B is a subset of fX
just expand everything to their set theoretical defns
f^{-1}fA = A iff f injective (at least in general)
and things follo
when in doubt, do this
yea my set theory is so shit
yeah you'll need it for topology so uhhhhh
all good!
i can name 3 sets
the rational numbers
integers
natural numbers
so i'm chillin

i was aboutta say positive integers
anywho
rnt these fake
is this sort of argument common?
where you embed your space into one whose fundamental group is easier to calculate
yeah (because negative numbers are fake)
and then use some algebra to get the fundamental group you wanted?
wait
bruh
f : A -> B, Y sub B
f^-1(Y) := {x in A : f(x) in Y}
OHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHHH

LMFAOOOOOOOOOOOO
my guy
lmao
just write it out
do some blumming set theory when
it aint hard
nah writing it out takes too long
does anyone know? 
You dont really gain a lot of info from embedding interms of pi1
like, things with really bad pi1 can embedd into e.g. euclidean space
how would I check that f is a homeomorphism? It's pretty clear to me that f and g are bijections, and i'm trying to check the open set property. If V is an open set in R, then this amounts to showing that f^-1(V) is an open set in R, or that g(V) is an open set in R. but I don't know how to do that if we're talking about the topology definitions, I'm pretty sure I have an idea how to do it if we're talking about open set has a ball about each of its points definition
or is it because the open sets of R are the open intervals and g(V) forms an open interval
or am i trippin
I mean both definitions are equivalent, you should convince yourself of the equivalence first
yeah i probably should
okay so im stuck on this problem: Let $G$ be a topological group and let $\Gamma$ be a subgroup of $G$. For some $g \in G,$ let $L_g$ represent the left action of $g$ on $G$. Let $f : G \rightarrow G/\Gamma$ be the map that sends each point to its left coset in $G/\Gamma$. Show that there exists a homeomorphism $\theta_g : G/\Gamma \rightarrow G/\Gamma$ such that $\theta_g \circ f = f \circ L_g$
my idea was to just have $\theta_g(h\Gamma) = gh\Gamma,$ which is well defined, but I cant seem to show its a homeomorphism. Having a hard time wrapping my head around topological groups.
most likely to honorable
obviously if i can show its continuous it has the obvious inverse theta_{g^-1} which would have to be continuous as well
so i just need to show that its continuous
If you have a quotient map f: X --> X/~, then any continuous map g: X --> Z that's constant on fibers of f induces a continuous map f':X/~ --> Z
ah, okay you've seen it then
its just an application of the characteristic property of the quotient topo
yurr
okay but how do i apply that here
anything you do with quotients, think of it lol
You know f o L_g is continuous
and we know that theta_g o f is equal to f o L_g
should just be an application of the quotient property?
I think?
ahh i see
to show that the half space of R3 with positive third coordinate is open, you have to use the archimedian property right
uhh not really no
oh really
idk why you would?
i let (x1, x2, x3) x3 > 0 be arbitrary
and then i choose a ball with radius 1/n < x3
idk
maybe i'm tripping
oh
draw a picture š§
oh yea you're so right
you're right that you need radius 0 < r < x_3 but yeah, you don't need it to be 1/n or anything
yea, and in order to show that the ball is contained in the half open space I need to show that for $(y_1, y_2, y_3) \in B((x_1, x_2, x_3), \epsilon))$, $\sqrt{(x_1 - y_1)^2 + (x_2 - y_2)^2 + (x_3 - y_3)^2} < \frac{x_3}{2} \implies y_3 > 0$ right
okeyokay
how are you defining the topology actually, via a metric?
yes though that is (hopefully) straightforward and i wouldn't bother to write some tedious proof dw
im not sure, i was just trying to verify this
bro hates the idea of sticking to one textbook
on to the next
i just thought that the next chapter on homeomorphisms was kinda hand-wavy
i looked up some reviews and some ppl agree so i supplemented with munkres
ok i don't know how to do this i forgot my algebra
minimum y3 can be here without violating the inequality is x3/2 (then y1 = y2 = 0)
so you can say āassume y3 < x3/2ā and get a contradiction
how did u get that
i mean hopefully clear geometrically right lol
the way i'd do it is like
if $y_3 \le x_3/2$ then $\sqrt{\sum_i(x_i - y_i)^2} \ge |x_3 - y_3| \ge x_3/2$
potet
Well kinda think about the geometric intuition like
the distance is smollest when the only thing that's changed is the x_3 ig
yeah ig that makes sense
also like
is my complaint that this part of the textbook is kinda hand-wavy valid
like ok visually speaking yes h is clearly one-to-one and onto
but like if you haven't defined the function (i mean ig it would be a good exercise to do so) then you haven't proved it rigorously or at least in the way that you would normally see how functions are one-to-one or onto if that makes sense
also wtf is the construction of U in E^{n + 1}, like idk what half lines are, it would be helpful if he at least defined a set or something
or gave a precise description/definition
or at least came witih a picture
ok rant over idk
oh okay so let me see if I get this right; so say we have a topological space with a collection of open sets {O_i}. then if a set N is open in the topology (open in the sense that its a neighborhood of each of its points) then we can take the union of the which are given by this topology about each of the points in N to get N. conversely, N is an open set by definition? like i'm confused; there's the open sets that define the topology right? and then if some set happens to be open in the ball sense or whatever then its the union of some balls which make up that defining topology
like is the only time that the two notions of open sets (the one that defines the topology and the one that's the ball definition) coincide is when the topological space happens to be a metric space? what if there's no notion of distance?
Oh wait I think I see now
The notion of a "ball" only makes sense when you have a metric
iirc, my original comment was just to explain that a set is open iff it's a neighborhood of each of it's points. So the first bit you mentioned shows that, if a set is a neighborhood of each of its points, then it is open. And the converse is pretty much just by definition of what it means for a set to be a neighborhood of a point
"A set U is a neighborhood of x in U if there is an open set O with x in O subseteq U" well okay if U is open, then clearly we can take O = U in this definition, since for any point x in U, we have x in U subseteq U
And the converse is pretty much just by definition of what it means for a set to be a neighborhood of a point
that it's an open set?
i see
Half lines here are rays originating from p
since you also exclude p from U, it follows that U is open (try with E^2 or E^3 if its not clear why U is open)
yeah I guess I was just pretty confused by this. "O is one of the original open sets, then by definition a neighborhood of each of its points in X" "U an open set, so by definition its a neighborhood of each of its points of X"
ok, i'll look up what the definition of a ray is lol
its the same one from highschool geometry
yea i don't remember that shit
line segment but you let one of the ends go to infinity for a lack of better vocab coming to my mind atm
e.g. y = x for x >= 0
ohhh ic so the open sets here have the property that each one of them contains an open set
where the notion of an open set is the ones defined by the topology
i think
ah ok
what
every metric space X has a distance function
this generates an object called an open ball, and now you can define a subset U of X to be āopenā if every point p in U has a ball centered at p and contained in U
it turns out when you define open sets this way, the collection of open sets happens to satisfy the rules of a topologyānamely, the empty set and X are open, unions of open sets are open, and finite intersections of open sets are open
and as a result you can rightfully call your open sets, open sets
(this is kind of putting the cart before the wheel but the point stands)
not every collection of sets satisfying the rules of a topology comes from a metric, however
for example, if X has more than one point, then the indiscrete topology on X cannot arise from a metric, even though the indiscrete topology certainly plays by the rules of a topology
also btw be careful jumping around w/ books if youre new to pointset cause sometimes ppl mean open neighborhoods when they say neighborhoods (munkres does this iirc)
new bladewood pfp 
yea that makes a lot of sense, thanks for typing tha tout
when do the open sets given by a topology coincide with the definition of open sets being a neighborhoods of each of its points. like you distinguish some subsets of a topological space X, and call them open sets in the sense that they form your topology. but you can only define them in terms of this way right, or are we defining the open sets which form the topology to have this property that they're a neighborhood of each of their points
sorry i should probably go to office hours for this, don't want to hog this channel
nonono keep talking I donāt want to do my work
always, that's basically what this is outlining
i know at least 4 or 5 equivalent ways to define what a topology on a set is
probably not worth stressing yourself over anyways
Take the open set definition as foundational. It's the most useful
can you list them
The others, including the notion of neighborhood, altho they work, just aren't as nice
Sure
wait sorry open set definition as the collection of subsets of X that form the topology or being a neighborhood of each of its points š
former
ok ok
and i'll just assume that they have this property that they're a neighborhood of each of their points without thinking about why because this induces a lack of intelligence/response
an open set is an element of a topology
a topology is a collection of open sets
ye
- The usual definition with open sets
- Their complements in terms of closed sets
- Assigning to each point x in X, a collection of subsets N(x), the neighborhoods of x, subect to a few conditions (idk the precise formulation off the top of my head)
- A closure operation cl : P(X) --> P(X) satisfying the Kuratowski axioms (S subset clS for all S, cl(emptyset) = emptyset, cl(A U B) = clA U cl B, and clclA = clA)
- a subframe of the powerset P(X) (i think this one works? perhaps with one or two restrictions)
and there's probably a couple more
Oh, 6) an interior operation int: P(X) --> P(X) satisfying the dual of the Kuratowski operations
oh then we could also view them as special cases of pseudotopological spaces/convergence spaces
So 7) a map FX --> P(X) (or \beta X --> P(X)), where FX is the set of filters on X (\beta X the set of ultrafilters on X) subject to a variety of conditions
which I will not elaborate on because convergences suck
but again, you should mostly just stick to 1 and 2
I see convergence space, are any of these uniform or cauchy spaces?
uhh idk cauchy spaces, but uniform spaces don't generalize topological spaces
Oh
Realistically, there should be some corresponding definition for each category of "spaces" that Top (category of topological spaces) embeds into
So in the above, 4 is for cech closure spaces (6 is for "interior" spaces, which is not a real notion but idk what else to call them), 5 is just some order theory nonsense, 7 is the fact that Top embeds into PseudoTop and Convergence
I know that in the case of Uniform, the category of completely regular spaces fully faithfully embeds, but not all of Top
is every guy above an equivalent formulation or are some full on generalizations?
Because you say āembedsā here which makes me feel like some are the latter
Cech closures (equivalent to pretopological spaces), convergence spaces, pseudotopological spaces all are. The one I gave for closures is the formulation for topological spaces tho
(cech closure operators don't need clclS = clS, which is idempotency. In order words, the closure of a set needs not be closed for arbitrary ones, and the topological spaces are precisely the ones for which all closures of sets are in fact closed)
Ah
It looks online like cauchy spaces are a generalization of Hausdorffness in some sense (even as general as Hausdorff convergences, not just topologies)
anyways, realistically you will not frequently need all of these generalizations (very rarely in fact lmao)
I just happen to know because I looked into them for (part of) my summer research
It is certainly cool to know of them, but yea I donāt know much actually about them lol
Thanks for curating the list
yeah idk too much more than basic properties and some definitions but it is kinda interesting
Hm
If X is, say, a closed manifold minus finitely many poitns, do we have that $\tilde{H_i}(X^+) \cong H_i^{\text{Borel-Moore}}(X)$? Idk how nice the space has to be for this
potet
is the product of quotient maps a quotient map
i.e. if you have four spaces A, B, C, D and quotient maps p: A -> C and q: B -> D, is p x q: A x B -> C x D a quotient map?
nope
Not necessairly, no, though with some local compactness hypotheses it is true
try to come up with an example. As potet mentions you need them to not be locally compact Hausdorff
okay, that makes this problem harder then
was gonna use that to show that a quotient group of a topological group is a topological group
the inverse i got i think but multiplication is hard
continuity i mean
Spefically, iirc you need either (A and D) or (B and C) to be exponentiable (read this as locally compact Hausdorff, but more generally this holds iff they are "core compact")
In particular, any finite space is core compact I believe, so you'll need them to be infinite I think
(exponentiability here meaning some abstract, categorical nonsense, so don't worry about it)
any small hints?
ah, for checking multiplication is continuous?
oh yeah
you already said that

i can't read
lol
lemme think if i know
yeah nothings coming to me off the top of my head, don't know top groups super well
No but products of open maps are open
||And G ā G/H is open||
||Is this true for topological groups?|| Big if true
hmm why
||Yes if H closed||
Cool
This be hint
right
ill give it a shot
okay so let U be open in G, then we want to show q(U) open in G/H. q(U) = {gH : g ā U} we want to show that q^-1(q(U)) is open, which is {a : aH = gH for some g ā U}
i honestly have no clue where to go from here
i think i just need a small nudge but maybe im way off
try a familiar example and see if you can come up with any nice expression for q^{-1}(q(U))
its like all of the equivalence classes that have a nonempty intersection with U
i would suggest writing out the condition "aH = gH for some g in U" in more detail
"ah = g for some g in U and some h in H" to "ah is in U for some h in H..."
that kind of thing
wait can we consider this somehow as G acting on H
is that the answer or do i need to pursue a different line
or do i need to do orbit shenanigans
i think that you're thinking too hard
q^{-1}(q(U)) is the set of a such that a is in hU for some h in H
what is this set and why is it open
ah, could you say that this is the union of all hU, each of which is open since the left action of a group on itself is homeomorphic? so we have a union of open sets which is open
does that work?
it is exactly what i had in mind
epic
thanks for the hints
i would never have gotten that
now its time to see if i can solve the rest
oh i see you just conclude that q^2 is open, continuous and surjective and thus a quotient map, and then let m be the multiplication map G^2 -> G, and pass q o m to the quotient q^2
clever
passing to the quotient is so useful lol
In the second part of 4(b), any hints on what the construction would look like? I canāt just union over all the topologies that are contained in all the \Tau_\alpha⦠because I saw in 4(a) that the union of topologies is not necessarily a topology
well hmm? if Tau is the unique topology, then it certainly contains the union of all such topologies, and also must be equal to it (since it itself is included in the union)
since it itself is included in the union
why is that
I mean itās supposed to satisfy the condition right
I just thought of something: if \Tau_1 \subset \Tau_2 \subset \Tau_3 \subset ā¦, then the answer here is \Tau_1, which is the intersection of each \Tau_\alpha
what fails when you try to show that the union is a topology
You can have a set contained in the union that isnāt included in every topology youāre unioning over
Ok the answer is definitely the intersection of all \Tau_alpha
Iām still trying to grapple where (if any) the error in my reasoning is here
oh my brain derped and associated something in that with something else
ok so T contains the union of all the topologies in {T_a}
are you claiming that T is contained in {T_a} as well?
T here is the unique maximal topology, and T_a are the topologies satisfying the condition?
{T_a} is the family of topologies you are given and T is your maximal topology
So if {T_b} is the family of topologies satisfying the condition, my claim was that since T contains each T_b, and T is a member of {T_b}, the union over all {T_b} is equal to T
what condition are we talking about
that each T_b contains all of the T_as?
nah second part is whatās tripping me up
Iām fairly certain the answer to the second part is āthe intersection over all {T_a}ā, but OTOH, the answer should also be āunion over all such {T_b}ā by the quoted message, so Iām trying to reconcile if this second approach leads to the same answer or if there is some error
I like the idea of using the intersection
so let T be the intersection of all the T_as
what can you say about the relation between T and the T_bs?
oh
you already did that
well in that case I'd say you're done
comparing your T to the T_bs is really the "unique" part, I think
showing that it's maximal, out of all the T_bs that are contained in every T_a
Do you know why taking the union over all {T_b} would have also worked (as said before, unions of topologies are not necessarily topologies, but here, they magically are)
I guess that after one has shown that the intersection over all {T_a} is the unique maximal topology, then it is a corollary that this topology is equal to the union over all {T_b}⦠but thatās not very satisfying.
why do you know that cup{T_b} is a topology again
By my last comment
But thatās the unsatisfying reason
yeah
can you do that without using the intersection over the T_a
if you don't invoke cap{T_a} then I'm not sure if you can show that cup{T_b} is a topology
Yeah I just wanted to see if anyone knew how to
if nothing else it gives another characterization of {T_a}, which is cool
i dont know if this is incredibly simple
but im struggling to understand why h* necessarily sends the generator alpha to the generator beta
random question I thought of: take a permutation, and draw it over the circle like below, identifying each pair of connected points. What is the fundamental group, and can it be described in terms of the symmetric group?
lol I don't know the answer in general, just thought of it
Thereās only two choices (H^1 is Z/2Z). It sends alpha to 0 or to beta. If it sends to 0 this is a trivial map
This is the same as a wedge of circles. The fundamental group will be a free group, and the number of generators will depend on the number of enclosed regions. That also happens to depend on where you place the points and how you connect them. That boils down to a combinatorics problem now!
I asked myself the same question about connecting roots of unity on the circle, and it happens to be not-so-interesting, because essentially the fundamental group of 1D CW-complexes is kinda boring
ahh yeah that makes sense, lol I was hoping for some characterization in terms of the permutation, but we can't always get what we want can we
I mean, if you look at n-th roots of 1 and connect a root to its image under a fixed permutation, the fundamental group of this helps describing the permutation. But it's just a re-phrasing of something not very deep š
(Here I take this example of roots of 1 because you somehow don't choose how to connect the dots)
why is continuity of a map (say from A to B) determined by the pre-image of open(B) sets, as opposed to the image of open(A) sets?
i just feel like in most other categories, relations among subsets of the source object are preserved by a homomorphism, so it seems odd that it's "backwards" in a sense for Top
(also, is there any meaning to maps that preserve A's open sets?)
it matches the normal definition of continuity from analysis using epsilons and deltas
there are a variety of reasons why, but one very simple on is that open maps (ones where the image of open sets are again open) generally aren't as nicely behaved, at least in the way we would want (and don't correspond with the analysis notion of eps-delta continuity as kryojyn points out). In part, this is because the inverse image actually behaves much nicer than forward image does
right, that.
like that's the most important motivating exercise, convince yourself that the e-d definition is equivalent to the topological one
in what ways does the inverse image "behave nicely" (btw dont feel obliged to answer if this is dumb lol)
the inverse image preserves unions, intersections, and complements
forward image only preserves unions
no its a good question
idk whether that's really a reason why continuity is defined in terms of inverse image, but it's a nice connection nonetheless
that actually makes sense ty
But this is probably a better intuitive reason why
thank yallš
one way of looking at it is that continuity allows you to control how close points in the image of a map are by controlling how close points in the preimage are, so by saying the preimage is open when the image is open means you can find neighborhoods in the preimage to control neighborhoods in the image
lol thats hand wavy but it's kindof the intuitive idea
A paper i'm reading talks about a geneerator of $\tilde{H}_{2r}(K(\mathbb Z;2);\mathbb Z)$ which is dual to the "rth power of the fundamental class in cohomology". What does this duality actually mean here?
potet
(I do understand what the rth power of fundamental class in cohomology should be, just don't understand how they're moving to homology)
I guess you can use universal coefficients (which'll just give you an iso) and then consider the preimage under the canonical inclusion of a vector space into its dual
wtf, on R, the upper limit topology is strictly finer than the K-topology (okay fine), but the same isnāt true for the lower limit topology (they are incomparable)
weird
upper limit topology and K topology and lower limit topology are memes
I thought K topology was used in K theory
Well the K-topology isn't symmetric 
Yea if K were like 1/n for any integer n then both results being the same would check out
but itās only the positive guys so I guess it makes sense

it would be funny if it were true
this basically, there are open and closed maps (which are not equivalent) but there's no analogous concept for continuous maps since replacing the word 'open' with 'closed' in the definition is equivalent
If you want to think of morphisms as preserving relations, think of limits of nets
Not open subsets
I don't know how to prove this. I proved that if $Z$ is an irreducible closed subset of $X$ (that meets $U$), then $Z\cap U$ is an irreducible closed subset of $U$. But the assignment, $Z\mapsto Z\cap U$ does not seem to be a bijection.
Potitov06
For example, if $X=\mathbb{R}$ and $U=(0,1)$, then $[-2,2]$ and $[-3,3]$ are mapped to the same thing. So the map is not injective.
Potitov06
In your example, if you assume the topology on $\mathbb{R}$ is Hausdoff, then the only possible irreducible closed subsets are singletons. It is easy to see that the statement is true under the Hausdoff condition.
Dong_Valentino
For the moment I cannot come up with a complete argument why this is true in a general topological space. I will think about it.
For the other way around, let $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ be two irreducible closed subsets of X such that $Z=Z_1\cap U=Z_2\cap U$ is irreducible and closed in $U$. Now take the closure of $Z$ in X and $\overline{Z}$ is irreducible closed in X. Moreover, $\overline{Z}$ is contained in both $Z_1$ and $Z_2$, since they are irreducible, we can conclude that $\overline{Z}=Z_1=Z_2$.
Dong_Valentino
categorical or topological limits?
Nets are topological
In munkres, ch2 section 15.2, he's defining a subbasis for the product topology... But, the topology created by the subbasis is not at all comparable with the topology from the product basis..
All the elements in our subbasis are weird cross like sets. And when we take finite intersections of these we can end up with disjoint subsets and extremely weird looking topology
While with the topology from the normal basis looks like just squares
Yet he compares them...
Only a few elements of S belongs in the topology...
for those of us who don't have a copy of munkres immediately available could you post screenshots of what you're referring to
what happens when you intersect two subbasis elements
This would happen
if it helps, pi_1^{-1}(U) = U x Y and pi_2^{-1}(V) = X x V, but you should be able to see this from the picture
That's clearly open in the product topology
this is not a picture of two subbasis elements
a picture of two subbasis elements is here. this is not just one
No that's just one
This is two subbasis elements, the dotted area and the one with full lines
Cause it's union of Ļ^-1 of an open set on X and an open set in Y
the union of two subbasis elements is not necessarily a subbasis element
Yes, so the union of two of those gives us a cross
No, you're right it's not
Look at the description of the subbasis
It is written as a union
Oh
No I see now
Yes. A pillar on x axis, union, I pillar on the y axis
I think Mallot and I had the same confusion
probably
S, the subbasis, is the union of those two collections of sets
Oh
The inverse image of opens in X and in inverse image of opens in Y
Now, what you had in mind, with the crosses, is also a subbasis btw
So we get a bunch of rectangles as elements in S
Which is why I didn't question it lmao
and what is the intersection of two of these rectangles
No wait, I'm so confused
the subbasis consists of two kinds of sets, U x Y for U open in X, and X x V for V open in Y
the intersection of U x Y and of X x V is what
They can be vertical or horizonal
Hm...
But yeah
Ye unions needn't be of the same form

No nvm
The individual elements in the S elements don't mix
Just putting y and x pillars in same box
Yeah
Mm ok, then the vast majority of the finite intersections are empty? I think I get it now
I mean we can't really quantify it like that, but if it helps you to think of it that way, sure
(since both collections of empty and nonempty intersections have same cardinality)
Yeah, I mean it's "hard" for subsets to have intersections
Exercise for when you're confident that subbasis works, convince yourself that the subbasis of crosses also works (solution: ||clearly the crosses are open in the topology generated by the columns. But every column is a "cross" by taking one of the Ļ^-1 to be of the empty set||)
yeah horizontal strips and vertical strips are both open for that reason, and intersecting them gives the normal basis elements for the product topology, so by having intersections of subbasis elements you can still get the product topology
I had convinced myself that the weird type of topology I had drawn up was indeed a topology, but I hadn't started to write proof... Because I realized it couldn't be compared with ordinary
Oh a subbasis always generate a topology
But in this case the topology generated by the crosses is in fact the usual topology on R^2
Altho I agree it's hard to see at first
That something like this, is a collection in the topology, which union of singular elements in that collection indeed also is an element in the larger collection... But I haven't thought much about intersect criteria
Thank u
These are not irreducible
This statement should also be true when we restrict to irreducible components I believe? In which case it's clearer? (Since they partition the space, you can't have two distinct closed subsets of X that have the same intersection with a subspace)
Hm does anyone have a reference for this?
(screenshotted from hatcher but he omits the proof lol)
im trying to figure out why the inclusion i: CP^1 -> CP^n induces an isomorphism
i_*: H_2(CP^1) -> H_2(CP^n)
Do you know that both groups are Z and youāre trying to figure out what the map is? Or are you trying to compute it in the first place?
If youāve computed the groups, run through the computation again checking that theyāre compatible
Or you could just use PoincarƩ duality
@silver umbra The 2-skeleton of CP(n) is CP(1). More generally, the 2k-skeleton of CP(n) is CP(k).
You only add cells of dimension at least three to construct CP(n) from CP(1), that tells you the inclusion is an isomorphism
(sorry bw, no need for fancy PoincarƩ technology nor knowing the groups :P)
wait why does the fact that you can only add cells of at least three tell us that the inclusion is an isomorphism?
Actually it's because it's cells of dimension at least 4 in this case, sorry
2-cells give generators (of H_2), 3-cells relations
I'm using cellular homology here (which is the same as singular one)
im still not quite fully understanding
You can re-do the definition of cellular homology. The C_2 is free abelian whose generators are 2-cells.
Here, all odd-degree chain groups are trivial (do you know the cell decomposition of CP(n)?). So C_2 is identified with H_2. But now, the 3-skeleton of CP(n) has the same H_2 than the whole!
So yeah, you do need that the (2k+1)-skeleton of CP(n) is CP(k)
This Wiki page explains it
Matplotlib
i know theres probably a simple trick to this but i cant seem to find it:
show that if X is a compact space and {F_n | n ā N} is a nested set of countably many closed sets in X. show that the intersection across all F_n is nonempty
all i have so far is that all F_n are compact
There is something missing here. At least, you also need the assumption that each F_n is nonempty ofc
Have you seen compactness described in terms of the finite intersection property
i dont think so?
perhaps this could be a useful tool for this then
Take the complement of your intersection using de Morgan
Ryx (Home for flowers)
hope that's right now
If you're able to show this, then your specific question will follow as a special case since they are nested š
I guess you have sequential compactness? (Extracting convergent subsequences)
If so, try constructing a sequence (x_n) with x_n being in all F_1, ..., F_n
Otherwise, this is the way
hmm
(the => way is your exercise)
unless metric space or some other assumptions, compact does not imply sequential compact
Ikr

oh i see


anyways, I want to say this should hold for any chain of nonempty closed subsets in a compact space
not just F_0 >= F_1 >= ...
Btw, I brute-forced using sage and knot tables, and I found what I was looking for the other day! So I'm posting this as a little 'puzzle' (I'm not asking, I have the solution)
Try showing that the knots 9_34 and 9_47 are distinct, without doing any sort of computation (no polynomial invariants, no seifert matrices, nothing very involved)
Isn't this a contradiction?
R(-inf, a) U (b, inf), suggests that subset is closed, because [a, b] is open as a topological space. By the definition of open sets for a topology
What if you have a space that is compact but not sequentially compact?
not sure what you mean by [a, b] is open as a topological space, it certainly isnt open using the stanrad topology on R
For each x in X, there exists some B in basis s.t. B subset of U.
And since it's topology, there is no order
if your basis is open balls, there are no basis elements which contain a or b and are contained in [a, b]
But the topology doesn't use open balls, since there is no order
Example 1 is using the standard topology on R, which does use balls as a basis
But that's on ordered sets, it does not mention this...
Which topology do you think itās talking about
The topology in the beginning, which was very loosely defined
Where in the beginning?
In this book, ch 2, section 13
to be specific, [a,b] is a closed subset of R. It's obviously open in itself ( if you ignore the fact that it's a subset of R and just treat it as a topological space instead of a subspace of R)
In the bottom of pg 81 in Munkres, he writes that if a topology isnāt specified on R, then it is implicit he is talking about the āstandard topologyā, the topology generated by the basis of all open intervals
I should add that everyone more or less follows this convention. Itās not unique to Munkres
Hm, I see.
Later in Section 14 Munkres states that the order topology on R (using the usual ordering) is the same as the standard topology
Well he doesnāt really state it, itās one of the exercises
Is this a colorability exercise
Eg one is tricolorable but the other isn't?
||different number of three colorings!||
(fyi i ended up using this it was better than whatever the FIP nonsense was)
(fyi this is how you prove the FIP nonsense anyways)

though i agree the FIP definition is not exactly enlightening
@feral copper Gotcha
but it is something standard you'll probably see in a topology course?
Why is it that $\bar{\bar{A}} \subseteq \bar{A}$? If $x \in \bar{\bar{A}}$ and $x \in \bar{A}$ then obviously $x \in \bar{A}$. But if $x$ is a limit point of $\bar{A}$ then every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $\bar{A}$. But this doesn't imply that every neighborhood of $x$ intersects $A$, right? For instance, one neighborhood could just have intersection of a limit point of $A$ and not an actual point of $A$
okeyokay
the closure of a set is closed, right?
whatās the closure of a closed set?
ohhhh
it would just be itself
wait but to my point like
if i wanted to be like rigorous or whatever what was the problem with my argument
Also if every neighborhood of x intersections A bar, then necessarily it intersections A
oh shit maybe i'm forgetting demorgan or something
Since then it's a neighborhood of that point in A bar. And by definition then, that point is either in A, or it's a limit point of A, so then the neighborhood intersections A.
ohhh
or something like that idk I worded it poorly
What if we take away the requirement that a topological space is a topological space
jk let's not
pseudo-quasitopological spaces
i remember doing this with the limit-point definition in abbott and it was a nightmare
itās so much easier with the topological definition
intersection of all closed sets
yeah then it's obviously closed lol
yea i asked my prof why he decided to go with bartle and sherbert for this semester of analysis and he said the same thing i'm pretty sure
how he didn't like how abbott defined closed sets
i think it's intuitive, it's just harder to prove stuff with
oh yeah it's def intuitive
but i mean for a closed set all you have to show is it's complement is open iirc
depends, there are a few instances where the limit point definition is easier. But good to keep both in mind
which seems like a lot less of a pain in the ass
x in cl(cl(A)). For any open neighborhood U of x, U intersection cl(A) is not empty: so there exists y in U intersection cl(A).
You notice just a simple fact: now U contains y so U is also an open neighborhood of y.
yurr
(Simply because an open neighborhood of this x is also an open neighborhood of a point in cl(A))
okay I'm a little bit confused probably about definitoins and such. trying to show $\bar{A \cup B} \subseteq \bar{A} \cup \bar{B}$, assuming $x$ is a limit point of $A \cup B$. now every neighborhood of $x$ intersects either $A$ or $B$, but doesn't that imply that $x$ need not be a limit point of $A$ or $B$? because of the or, you could have some neighborhood which intersects $B$ but not $A$
okeyokay
perhaps this is one where (intersection of all closed subsets containing A) is a good definition of clA 
It is the morally correct definition
Or, suppose you had a point in cl(A U B) such that there were neighborhood U and V of x, with U n A = empty and V n B empty
ah
Could you use that to get a contradiction
What's are some acclaimed AT texts besides Hatcher?
I read gtm119 rotman I think itās very detailed
in general when you want to show that a function f is a homemorphism, is it okay to just show that f and it's inverse are continuous on their given domains, or should you use that if O is an open set then f(O) is an open set and same with f^{-1}
I think both are fine, as long as you have already shown itās bijective
Same thing, since f(O) is (f^-1)^-1(O)
well they're equivalent
bijective continuous map is homeomorphism iff it is open iff it is closed
Ye ik
Oh wait so to show homeomorphism assuming f is bijecgive
You only have to show O open implies f(O) open?
oh
consider the identity map on a space, with the domain having indiscrete topology (only empty set and entire space are open), and codomain has discrete topology (everything is open)
this map is open but not continuous
hmm okay i'll think about that
whats the other definition
cl A = A union {limit points of A} = X - int(X - A)
ah that sucks
last one is pretty much never useful
alternatively just use the sequence definition and pretend non first countable spaces dont exist
yo
there's a theorem for two bases generated the same topology right
what was it again
think rectangles and disks
ye i know that
like my book gave that example visually
but like what's the formal theorem
ah
nvm
If B_1 and B_2 are your two bases, they generate the same topology iff every guy in B_1 is a union of guys from B_2 and vice versa
i.e. they can āsimulateā each other
True
just a more intuitive way to think of it imo
I think itās also good to know: the topology generated by B_1 is finer than that of B_2 iff every guy in B_2 is a union of guys from B_1 (is open in the topology generated by B_1)
This implies the fact above
I don't get how this solves the issue of the cell decomposition being far from the space's topology
like, for example, consider S^2 as the one point compactification of the plane
and then, just like the example just above the highlighted text, take the vertical lines as your 1 cells
and the point at infinity as our only 0-cell
is this not a valid cell decomposition of S^2?
like, how does requiring the existence of a characteristic map remedying this exactly?
You'd need two 2-cells to finish the S² here
The char map ensures you're gluing cells by their boundary
If you'd allow gluing in the interior, you'd have weird things you don't like. Take a twisted example of gluing a 1-cell to a 0-cell at each rational number
I don't even know if that'd be continuous or not, but it's twisted enough that you can believe there's weird shenanigans that could happen
huh
why
and even if that was true
the middle part is still just meridanal lines
I can give an even simpler example
consider $I \times I / {0, 1} \times I$ and let the 1 cells be the image of $I \times {x}$ under the quotient map
DarQ
and the 0-cells are the image of {0} \times I and {1} \times I
note that this space is literally a 2 cell
Oh wait, the quotient is collapsing {0} x I and {1} x I to a single point instead of distinct ones
Eh, w\e, it still works it's just not a 2-cell
I don't understand what you meant xD so the y-axis is a 1-cell that you glue to the 0-cell being the point at infinity. That's literally a circle. You need to cap it off with two disks (the two hemispheres) to obtain a sphere!

itd be helpful if u describe it geometrically. or better draw dq
like describe the entire thing start to end
i'm having a hard time unpacking this lemma, why isn't it the case that V, not its closure, is a subset of U?
You can write it as V subset Vbar subset U
bruh
So V is a subset of U
But the important thing is that the closure of V is also contained in U
what would this visually look like though, i can't at all visualise it
makes sense
so like, it's saying that for a point x there is an open set U, which is a subset of another open set?
i don't see how this translates to regularity
Yeah, somethingās wrong with this definition. It would allow a cell decomposition in which every point is a 0 cell.
I guess you could fix it by requiring that for every n the topology of the subspace consisting of the interiors of all the n cells is the disjoint union of the interiors
yes but like
not just the y-axis
all vertical lines on the plane
I think I figured it out
I think cell decompositions aren't supposed to be well-behaved
unlike CW decompositions which requires the set of cell to be coherent with the topology of the space
No a cell complex should just be synonymous with a CW complex
Oh really lol
depends on the context
Sometimes cell complex is used for a space built by gluing cells without regard to the order of dimension
Such spaces are homeomorphic to CW complexes I believe (this should just be colimits commuting with colimits?)
But the general notion of a cell complex is useful because the cofibrant objects in the standard Quillen model structure on Top are precisely the retracts of cell complexes
And so for these purposes, it is much more convenient if we can just disregard the order of the dimensions added
(i think)
but idk if this is the distinction that darq is talking about in Lee
(in particular, it works nicer for the purposes of cofibrant generation of the model structure - I.e., for the small object argument - if we consider the more general notion)
(here comes bw to tell me i'm wrong
)
I donāt think such a cell complex is homeomorphic to a cw complex, only to a retract of one. (But thatās good enough for most purposes) For example, if you glue a 2 disk to a disk along space filling curve, I donāt think thatās a cw complex
that is what my supervisor told me
I panicked and crossed out my example, but I think it was right
I wanna say that this is what Proposition A.2 is in Hatcher? I am not super familiar with the point-set definitions of cell complexes and CW complexes since I have mostly worked with the categorical/colimit definitions. But that is also what https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2946892 seems to indicate
Thatās homotopy equivalence, not homeomorphism
Oh, I missed this question
As you said, retracts of cell complexes are cofibrant, and thus homotopy equivalent to other cofibrant objects they are weakly equivalent to
fair enough lol
what are the advantages of cell complexes
i am coming at this with homotopy-theoretic leanings which is probably the problem lol
Cell complexes arise naturally from model categories. They are cofibrant. Maybe a push out of cell complexes is along a closed inclusion is automatically cell?
I'm still not convinced they aren't all homeomorphic to CW complexes, but as you said, up to (weak) homotopy equivalence it doesn't really matter
Some variation of this should be true, since the pushout of a cofibration is a cofibration (in particular, this is also true if we restrict to relative cell complexes). So if A --> B is a relative cell complex, C is a cell complex, then B \cup_A C should be a cell complex
And in particular, A --> B is a closed (T_1) inclusion, as you mentioned
Ah, but iirc you need at most countably many cells
Also, you'd end up with only a wedge of circles, not a sphere
Because you need to glue the 1-cells together
What you described is something we call a foliation
that's what I was saying!
Yeah but you only allow cells to be glued on their boundary to cells of lower dimension
stated as is a cell decomposition would allow you to do that
No it won't
This
You can't glue a 1-cell to a 1-cell on something that's not its boundary; here you're trying to glue the interior of the 1-cell too
That's just not a cellular space. I'm not saying it doesn't give the 2-sphere, I'm saying it's not a CW-structure on it
As I said, it's a foliation
I don't understand
well yea

my question this morning was regarding this definition of a cell decomposition
not a CW decomposition
Yeah I'm calling them either interchangeably, but I mean the same thing
You could do the same with parallel planes to describe the 3-sphere, and that's again a foliation, not a cell structure
I'm sorry I just don't think we're on the same wavelength lel
I understand what you're saying
Ask again your question, sorry if I'm unclear 
yea so for context
here's the paragraph from lee I was asking about
and basically lee says that, yes, decomposing the plane into vertical lines doesn't tell use much about the topology of the plane
and to remedy this he requires the existence of the characteristic map in the definition of a cell decomposition
Okay, so that's not correct then, it does tell you something interesting. In this case, it's even a geodesic foliation that admists a section
It's just that the definition of cellular stuctures we like is as stated because this allows to do stuff, like homology for instance
I see so lee is straight up just wrong 
Not wrong
It's just that it's not of interest for this purpose
But I can assure you that foliations are very useful xD
I meant wrong for this
The phrase
without some restriction on how the cells fit together
is more correct. The characteristic map is one way of asking for nice behaviour. There may be others. This one is useful, so that's the one we call a cell structure.
Don't over-think it. If you're convinced that gluing cells on their boundary to lower-dimensional cells is something natural enough to do, then you're good!
Btw, did you understand the CP(1) / CP(n) thingy?
I don't remember 
I think you mean this?
yea I still don't understand this paragraph as much as I would like
The fact that if $X^{(k)}$ is the $k$-skeleton of $X$, then $H_k(X)=H_k(X^{(k+1)})$
Matplotlib
Not specifically, but the question you asked about how to prove that $H_2(CP^2)=H_2(CP^n)$ was a special case of this
Matplotlib
I don't remember asking about this 
No biggie š
Was checking up on you
Because for once that's the kind of things I can answer about, not those bundley-fibrationey-bubbly-thingies
I will ping you when I get here


Ask me about non-orientable surfaces in 4-manifolds all day, but if there's a fibration, I'm out 
i see why X takes the value 1 on points of A and -1 on the points of B, but i'm struggling to see why X takes values strictly between +-1 on points of X - (A \cup B)
can anybody explain why?
nvm
i think i got it
Because A and B are closed therefore d(x,A)=0 iff x in A. So f(x)=1 iff x in A, similar for the another one
having an issue understanding regular coordinate balls
any intuition regarding that?
what's a regular coordinate ball
can somebody help me understand how a) implies that f and g agree on C?
what happens when n gets big in (a)
well it converges to g(x), so |f(x) - g(x)| <= 2^nM/3^n, but how does that imply that they have the same value on C?
if |f(x) - g(x)| < \epsilon for every \epsilon > 0 they would agree on C right
or am i smokin
lim 2^n M / 3^n = ?
oh wait LOL
yea
u right
this is kind of a sick argument tho
i love constructive proofs
seems like there's a lot more of that in analysis, altho cauchy's theorem in group theory is so fucking cool
did you draw a picture
you are literally reading a book on one of the most visual subjects there is
you must draw
i understand the definition but finding it hard to apply
ill read the theorem a couple more times
fair enough lol
Would this generally be regarded as sufficient for a solution or how does one typically make these homotopical arguments rigorous?
I have the same trouble in (d) and (e). It seems like I can see how the solution would work, but I don't know how to make it rigorous.
Similarly for this solution
contractible is the wrong term
you must mean nullhomotopic
contractible is for spaces, nullhomotopic is for maps
Ah, yes, sorry
yea, ok, you do have the idea but that's not how you'd prove it
you can't just say unknot the circle lmao
I know. That's why I'm asking. Cause it feel like I haven't been equipped with any machinery for that sort of stuff in the book (Hatcher)
you have
you just need to think of it the right way
here's a hint
what do you need to do to view $\gamma$ as an element of $\pi_1(D^2 \times S^1)$?
DarQ
I would need a map from I into $D^2 \times S^1$ giving the circle, right?
Uncle Fyodor
remember, \gamma is a map from I to the circle A
that's what a loop means
And thus an element of $\pi_1 (D^2 \times S^1)$, right?
Uncle Fyodor
not formally
Oh
elements of $\pi_1 (D^2 \times S^1)$ are homotopy classes of loops $f\colon I \to D^2 \times S^1$
DarQ
Ahh, so we compose with the inclusion?
whereas $\gamma$ is a loop $\gamma\colon I \to A$
DarQ
I forgot to mention that these loops start at a basepoint
but it doesn't matter here coz our space is path connected
just keep that in mind in the future
Makes sense. But I'm most of all confused about how one is supposed to argue the actual retraction. Should I find a parametrization for the circle and then a map that gives the retraction?
I will. Thank u
again
wrong choice of words
retraction has a very specific meaning that doesn't apply here
ok, so now that we see \gamma as an element of the fundamental group
and we know what elements of the fundamental groups look like
you do know what $\pi_1(D^2 \times S^1)$ looks like, right?
DarQ
I believe so. All loops mapping into $D^2 \times S^1$, so $I \to D^2 \times S^1$ with equal start and end point
Uncle Fyodor
yea, but like
Just out of curiosity...
did you calculate the group?
Calculate the group? What do you mean?
like when hatcher calculated the fundamental group of the circle
Oooh, is that what one should do for each of these types of problems? I hadn't even considered that the calculations he did there are generalized
Intuitively it feels like the fundamental group should be isomorphic to that of S1 here and thus Z
yes, that's the first thing you should be looking for
yep
but how do you prove that rigorously?
it's not very hard
if you know the right definition to use
oh chrew
and then use $\pi_1 (D^2) = 0$ and $\pi_1 (S^1) = \mathbb{Z}$
Uncle Fyodor
But I guess that wouldn't teach me anything
I was thinking that the filled in torus deformation retracts to its central circle
but this works too 
Ahhh, I see. That makes sense
ok, so now we know that the fundamental group is generated by the loop that goes around the torus once, right?
Yes
and \gamma is an element of said fundamental group
Yes
so we can write gamma in terms of 1-loop
It seems like it would be $a a^{-1}$ which should be equivalent to $1$, the constant loop at the basepoint
Uncle Fyodor
But the intersection with itself seems weird to me
Ahhh, but that doesn't matter for the actual map
Makes so much more sense this way
like, if you regarded the actual space A
you wouldn't be able to do this
intersecting A with itself would give an entirely different space
not even a homootpy equivalent space since even its fundamental group changes
I see. Yes
Oh wow, so for example in problem (d) here, the approach would be to try to show that the fundamental group is Z x Z?
Oh christ
but you don't have to calculate the entire fundamental group
first notice one thing
what's the fundamental group of D^2 v D^2?
The trivial group?
0
Since it is star shapes with respect to the connecting point, or...?
So any loop would be homotopic to the constant loop by the linear map, I think
alternatively just say it deformation retracts onto the point where the two disks are glued
(the star shaped argument works as well)
yea exactly
so you need only prove that its boundary's fundamental group cannot be trivial
(sry for disappearing, my internet is fucking with me)
Totally fine. Thank you a bunch. I wrote out what I now feel like perhaps could be considered a formal proof. Mind checking if u have some time :))?
i think this is 5 am brain but i happen to be working on the same pset as fyodor
can someone please explain why the first sentence doesn't mean i_* is bijective?
@broken nacelle pretty please š„ŗ
Why should it
recall the definition of bijective
Having a left inverse doesn't imply there is a right inverse
you should go to sleep my friend
Basically if this were true then like
Every retract would be homeomorphkc to the original space
even stronger, as potato said
damn i'm getting flamed x4
ah i see because in the deformation retract they just need identity up to homotopy
ok ok ok
don't waste brainpower on thinking what would happen if left inverse implied having a right inverse
or maybe not right now

yeah i'm trying to figure something out tho
All injections are surjections 
basically i have an injective i_* but this doesn't have a corresponding well defined r_*
but i'm not able to wrap my head around it
i_* in particular is the map Z->Z taking x to 2x
I GET IT OK
IM DUMB šš
Oh I wasn't making fun of you
hi, tell me
I just thought that was a funny thing timo said
you do have a retract
by assumption
Why what is a contradiction
what
i'm saying that like
fuck
wait let me collect my thoughts
basically the problem is || show mobius strip doesn't retract to boundary circle ||
Sure
so the induced map you get from the inclusion is x->2x
how does that lead me to contradiction
Well I think you've answered it yourself
wait what
Do you see why this doesn't have a left inverse
u asked why it's a contradiction ššš
yeah
So that's it right
yeah ur right but my question is like
if i have a map between two spaces that have homotopy group Z
does it have to have been induced by a homotopy between the spaces?
No
Uh you seem a lil confused
What do you mean by homotopy between spaces
Homotopy equivalence?
yeah sorry
Then certainly not
i just need an example lol
A continuous map f: X --> Y always induces a homomorphism piX --> piY. This can be an isomorphism even if f is not a homotopy equivalence
Step 1: State your question.
ok
You are talking about a map between spaces being induced by a Homotopy equivalence
That doesn't make sense
if i have a homomorphism between fundamental groups which both happen to be Z, then do the corresponding spaces have to be homotopy equivalent.
Nope
wait a sec i missed my own question i know that to be obviously not the case
ok i'm trying to get too general when specific is probably better
There is a variable in your question which is irrelevant to the rest of it. Between any two groups there is always a homomorphism.
let me try again
yeah exactly
The question that is most interesting is probably like
Let f : X -> Y be a (pointed) map of spaces which induces an isomorphism on fundamental groups. Is it a homotopy equivalence
i already understood that
OK, so reformulate
so in this particular case, i have a space which has fundamental group Z and a subspace which has fundamental group Z. there is no retract between the spaces (to me it seems) because the induced map between these two copies of Z is not an isomorphism. i'm asking basically that if there is a retract, does it have to be a deformation retract. that is, is what "seems to me" to be true actually true
A retract may exist yet there may be no deformation retract, in general, if that is your question.
The issue is not the map not being an isomorphism actually
The issue is it admitting no retraction
Which is simpler actually
Here is an example which may satisfy you. Consider S^2 v S^1. This retracts to S^1, the second wedge factor. There is no deformation retract.
Here is an example of a retraction that is not a deformation retract: include a point into any non-empty space. There is always a retraction (the constant map!) But it usually cannot be a deformation retract
yeah i know of this case, like i know deformation retract != retract in the general case, i'm asking specifically in the case where both the space and the subspace have fundamental group Z
what is the map between the fundamental groups in this scenario?
actually let me think of it for a bit
Sure
Knowing about fundamental groups is virtually never enough to conclude anything about homotopy equivalence
Potato's comment and my example are related in fact
This is an important point
Well, in the positive sense I mean aha
Like the fundamental group can provide obstructions
But knowing a map induces an isomorphism on pi1 isn't enough to conclude it is a homotopy equivalence
i mean will higher homotopy groups help with that, if my understanding is correct here?
And this is only true for nice enough spaces I should add but yeah
all spaces are nice enough
If you believe hard enough this is true
ah yes
all spaces are homeo a point

Except the empty set
lmao
always that one kid in class
Me?

ok i fail to see how the map between the fundamental group of S^1 V S^2 and the fundamental group of S^1 is not an isomorphism š
It is
wait but if it is, then S^1 V S^2 deformation retracts to S^1 and that doesn't seem to be true
But the latter doesn't deformation retract
no
that's not true
Why should it being an iso mean it deformation retracts
Remember a map inducing an iso on pi1 does not imply it is a homotopy equivalence
sorry i meant the induced homomorphism by the inclusion map
That is what I am referring to too
Lol
I LITERALLY FLIPPED THE CONDITION
The induced map by the inclusion is an isomorphism on pi_1, yet the big space doesn't deformation retract to the smaller one.

everything works out when if is the same as iff
For the sake of your original question this is overcomplicating stuff
But these are good questions
me when i'm scared to ask questions in class so i ask my beloved math discord server instead
