#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 49 of 1
ile assume the interior is define as such since its a metric space
x in interior C subset R^3 means we can find a open ball of R^3 of radius r thats completely contained in C
open balls in R^3 must contain non-zero z-value
do you see why this implies your interior is empty?
also i think sharing chatgpt responses is against the server rules , might want to delete it
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i have no idea about open ball ,
its defined in the picture you sent
if the R^3 ball split by x-y plane , it may contain some zero z-value ?
It seems like you are missing some key definitions
You should make sure you understand the definition here
before trying the exercise
I guess its not an exercise, before reading that proof
does sombody have a clear distinction and thus intuition of homotopy, homeomorphism, retraction, deformationsretract, strong deformationsretract
I'd love to gain an intuition from it, I do not quite imagine and thus recognize the difference of the above named functions
Can you think of an example of a homotopy equivalence that is not a homeomorphism?
And why is one stronger than the other
maybe shaping the punctured disc to S1 (?)
one IS a bijection, the others are only homotpy inverse I guess
there is not an equality?
but I can't really imagine what that means
Yes, injectivity fails here
does it mean that we have the identity up to an homotopy?
Another good one is contracting a disk to a point
Because there obv is no bijection between a one point space and a disk
Yes
ohhh that makes sense, so we identify the point on the disc as if they were all the same right?
this is why injection fails, cause we have the same value but not the same starting point
can you also give me an intuition on how to imagine an homotopy
Homotopies between maps or homotopy equivalences
homotopy equivalence is what you said before right?
two spaces are considered homotopy equivalent if to every continuous function f:X->Y we can find an homotopy inverse
it means that we can shape to Y an reshape back continuosly right?
this isn't the case
There is at least one that has an inverse
Two spaces X,Y are homotopy equivalent if there are maps f: X -> Y, g : Y -> X such that fg and gf are both identity up to homotopy
So you just take the notion of homeomorphism but don't require them to be identities `on the nose' but only up to homotopy
I think the like prototypical example is that I = [0,1] is homotopy equivalent to a point ( = contractible) but not homeomorphic to a point
an homeomorphism is now stronger right? What is an example?
The closed disk is homeomorphic to a square
torus and coffee cup
I thought this was only an homotopy
(say homotopy equivalence rather than homeomorphism)
no
also homotopy equivalence* homotopy refers to a thing between continuous maps
yes you're right, sorry
np
are two completely different things
so what we "lose" between from an homeomorphism to an homotopy equivalence is the injectivity?
You lose a lot, not just injectivity
the existence of a homotopy equivalence between [0,1] and {0} shows that homotopy equivalences can be very far from injective/surjective
is [0,1] homeomorphic to (0,1)?
No
e.g. the former is compact, the latter ain't
Or if you remove any point from (0,1) it is no longer connected, whilst [0,1] is connected after removing 0 or 1
oh yes, sorry dumb mistake
Any good place to look at E_{infty} rings etc
no
There's obvs classic May texts but idk if should look again at more modern resources
Higher Algebra lol
honestly there might genuinely be no good source to learn these from
Oh I thought you were just being v sarcastic lol
Not sure how much they are worked with nowadays
Sure
Yeah I mean I was gonna learn about operads as part of it
people use H_infinity sometimes
but i don't know of any H_infinity rings that aren't also E_infinity
im sure there are some
Just yeah it was like power operations on Morava E theory
Ah ok
But yeah i mean those are E_{infty} anyway lol
oop wait
Those don't cover E_infty rings
Only E_infty groups and monoids
this looks pretty good from the TOC anyway
Ooh very nice thanks
its under brave new algebra
Okay Max beat me to stuff twice lol
what would you work in otherwise?
an arbitrary (presentably) symmetric monoidal stable infinity category
i mean spectra are probably the most important examples to be fair
Since I'm getting to understand this, what is then the different between a retract, a deformation retract and a strong deformation retract?
A retract is any situation in which you have $A\xrightarrow{i} B\xrightarrow{r} C$ and $r\circ i=id$.
themaxj
A deformation retract is this relation holding up to homotopy
and a strong deformation retract is this relation holding up to a homotopy that fixes A at all times t
(pretty sure I am remembering these right, haven't used this terminology in awhile)
I see what retracts are, but do you have an example for the other two?
The canonical example is the topologists's broom which deformation retracts to a point (which point?) but not strongly so. This is somewhere in Hatcher ch 0
I think a more useful example might be EG. For a general group G this does not strongly deformation retract to the 0-simplex given by the identity, but does so weakly.
Try G = Z/2 to see this in action
this requires a specific model for EG, no?
Yes, correct. I was going to clarify I meant the Milnor model
guys I have a question on an exercise about seifert van kampen
A deformation retract is a retract that is also a homotopy equivalence.
So the same relation should still hold
Oh wait it has to be a homotopy equivalence?
oops
i knew i should've double checked
go ahead and post
Yeah, you want ri to be the identity and ir to be homotopic to the identity
ah
I honestly don't know if I have ever seen a deformation retract come up since my first course in AT
i_B is defined the other wa arounf, I did a mistake
I hope you can read my writing
in my solution they say that i_A(a)=a'2, but I do not see why
sorry it's in german, but I think it's more clear like this
Both i_A and i_B are homomorphisms out of Z, so that it suffices to pick a single generator and see where it goes. Moreover, pi_1(B) is the trivial group, so [fill in]. All that remains is to understand i_A. It might help to draw a picture
I mean, I_B is just the constant function right?
yes
I don't see why we need a square
?
Schick mal noch mehr davon
this sentence confuses me
this is the solution
I understand it besides from why the inclusion is defined like that
right thats why i am suggesting the picture
draw a picture
is my answer to that last question
this is the type of thing thats super annoying to explain in words
and is incredibly obvious with the right picture
I guess you wanna ask yourself how you know A and A\cap B are homotopy equivalent to a circle. That will give you the generators for the fundamental groups. Then just observe that the inclusion of A\cap B sends the generator to the square of the one in A.
u can use this picture if u want
I bet it's quicker just to adapt the covering space argument to make it doable by hand
Drawing the generators onto MaxJs picture should make it intuitively clear
this uses a different presentation of RP2 no?
the one thats S^2 / Z/2
this is a mobius strip right?
Yeah
kinda ashamed of it, but I don't know how to draw it, otherwise I had already done it
its this haha
The point is that B is the inner disk mod the relation (but the relation is trivial)
and A is the outer border mod the relation (which is no longer trivial)
Now, we will pick a clever representative of the identity element in pi_1 B
it will be the circle of radius slightly less than the border
this is of course contractible
But if we keep pushing this ring to the edge, we eventually get the full black circle
but because of the identification we made, the black circle actually traverses all the way around A twice
so one question, it is true that pi(A n B) is generated only by one path since it is isomorphi to Z?
yes
and the same holds for pi(A)
yeah
OH MY GOD I GOT IT
It took so long
thank you to all of you who helped me through my slowness
np
wait this is so neat
what's the book?
ghrist elementary applied topology
he doesn't prove it but I can check the references if you want
configuration spaces r the best
This theorem cracked
yeahhh it's so cool
I've never thought about a manifold in that way
but it makes sense
If you could post the reference here that would be awesome.
Thank you!
Hello, can anyone tell me if what I explained is correct? I still have doubts. that two continuous functions f and g from a topological space X to a topological space Y will only be considered homotopic if there is a continuous function H: X × [0,1] -> Y, where H(x,0) = f(x ) and H(x,1) = g(x). In this case, H is called a homotopy between f and g.
Indeed, this is correct.
why aren't the inclusions into the free product of the fundamental groups labelled?
in the definition of U_ab do you not need to use that inclusion to view the homotopy classes as words in the free product instead of as homotopy classes in the fundamental groups?
how do you know if [a] is a word or a homotopy class then
by virtue of it being in U?
would it not make sense to make it so we know [a] is always a homotopy class and i([a]) is always a word
perhaps but that would involve writing more stuff down
they chose to leave it up to context
i see, thanks
no tadder 
students whose ability to conceptualize geometric dimensions greater than three is not limited:
I'm actually curious how ppl conceptualise higher dim 😄
I can, sort of, but I def can't explain how I do it
expand the product of spaces as defined
S1xS2 is like a copy of S2 at every point of S1.
ig i think about long line in the same way
this may be a dumb question but I've genuinely never run into these before (except topology texts assuming I already know what they are)
how do I prove some function f: U -> R^n is C^\infty?
For some functions sure it's easy, like e^x or sin(x) with easy patterns for repeated derivatives
but are there some other conditions?
induction works i think
is that the general way?
or are there some nice conditions that I should keep in mind?
i believe that is the general way
if you know that it’s analytic, then it’s C infinity (but not vice versa)
ah true
i want to verify that the following forms a topology on R:
the set, T, containing the empty set and R, as well as all half-bounded intervals of the form (a,inf) for some a in R
- empty set and R are clearly in T
my question is this: for the arbitrary union axiom, can we say that the union of any collection of open sets, {U_i}, in T is either R (if one of the open sets is R), or (min{a_i},inf) for a_i in U_i
those are called rays and they do form the regular topology on R iirc
i just don't know if the min{a_i} breaks down because there are an arbitrary number of a_i's
im pretty sure the same argument works for the intersection property because there are only finitely many open sets to intersect
since you defined a_i to be in R I don't see a way this can become pathological
I think it's good tbh
maybe i am just confusing myself but iirc, the min function only works on a finite set of values
no?
I mean if you wanna be pedantic you can call if like the infinum of the set
oh so i am mistaken
Yeah it works in the infinite case
I think for the continuous case you'd usually write inf of a set but for like {1,2,3,...} you can def write like min of this set is 1
okay infimum is probably the more precise way to put it, accounting for the cont. case
thank you @novel acorn i appreciate it
min means it’s included in the set
inf can also be included in the set
spamakin
not the inverse outside of the parentheses?
@thorny agate yes
this may be a dumb question but for the projective space P^1(R), why must all of it's elements be lines in R^2 that pass through the origin
is it because the line must contain 0
straight lines through the origin are vector subspaces
otherwise you don't have an equivalence relation
namely x ~ x' iff (x = x' or x = -x') ?
because one wishes to have points as equivalent iff they are antipodal on S1?
x ~ x' iff (there exists nonzero λ in R such that x = λx')
okay thanks!
i'm assuming the alternative is like, arbitrary lines
if you're asking why don't we have lines that pass through (1, 1) instead of (0, 0), then ya it's because we want subspaces
that's right
okay, i am still unclear as to why the line passing through (0,0) forms a subspace and a line not passing through (0,0) doesn't
think about what it means to scale a vector in R^2
okay
a subspace should contain all scaled copies of its members
so if x is in your subspace, the subspace should also contain the line that passes through x and 0
Hey guys, is the real projective line homeomorphic to D1/~ where u~v : <=> u0v or u = -v for u,v in S0?
but how can this then be homeomorphic to S1/~ where u~v : <=> u=v or u = -v for u,v in S1?
I don't see it
I see the homeomorphism to S1
but not to S1/~
does it hold thanks to the universal property?
S^1/~ happens to be homeomorphic to S^1
this fails for n>1
a homeomorphism is induced by the square map z->z^2 on S^1
okay I get it, thank you!
np
take a closed loop, and join two opposite points, you get a figure-8
lay one half of the figure-8 on the other
that's the equivalence. kinda clear that it's S^1
oh, nvm, I thought the question was between S1 and S1/~
For what positive integer values of n can S^n be expressed as the disjoint sum of unit circles?
I know the answer for odd n but even n above 2 are a mystery to me
I have no idea how to even begin conceptualizing it
disjoint sum?
Only odd n. If you can partition a space into circles, it is a circle bundle over the space of circles. But the Euler characteristic is multiplicative, so the total space has Euler characteristic zero
Sorry disjoint union
Ty!!
I def would not have thought about that, I'll look those words up but I think that makes sense
rad af
You meant like Hopf fibration?
I guess it’s possible to partition a space into circles without it being locally trivial. For example, partition S3 into circles, find a torus, a circle of circles, and switch which circles you use in that torus
There’s a more interesting situation in which you follow a path of circle and suddenly when you come to the limit, it’s a double cover. If it’s smooth, this is a manifold with a non vanishing vector field, so has Euler characteristic zero. I think it’s zero in general
Yeah
just projective planes then no? (z1, .. zn) → [z1:z2:..:zn]
There are free circle actions on spheres with quotient not complex projective space. They are homotopy equivalent, but not diffeomorphic. Indeed, if you have a manifold homotopy equivalent to complex projective space, it has a circle bundle who’s total space is homotopy equivalent to a sphere
how can the möbius strip be homotopy equivalent to a circle?
by the way, I'm still confusing deformation retract and strong deformation retract, so if somebody is still in the mood of helping me, I'd really appreciate it ❤️
If you shrink the width of a Möbius strip down to 0, you get a circle. The circle is even a strong deformation retract.
A strong deformation retract is when you fix a subspace in place, and the rest of the space deforms until everything is inside the subspace.
A deformation retract is similar, but the subspace doesn't have to be fixed in place as you deform. It can wiggle around as long as it ends up back where it started after deforming
Examples that are deformation retracts, but not strong deformation retracts are usually quite complicated
oh this explanation is GOOD
so for example, D2 is a strong deformation retract of R2 right?
Yes, that's right
what is an example of a deformation retract though?
Here is one example
https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1841883/306319
(Also every strong deformation retract is in particular a deformation retract)
are there a lot of deformation retracts which are not strong?
I might just learn them by heart
I think we only discuss about the most important cases, which mostly are strong defo retract
I don't think there is any fixed list, but just knowing one example, or even just knowing that an example exists is probably sufficient.
Depends what you need it for I guess
Is there discrete version, like the version on polytopes , of Gauss-Bonnet theorem? I know for a 2-manifolds we have a discrete analog called Descartes formula. But I wonder if there is a general analog for all even dimensions.
Nvm, found an article “Descartes’s theorem in n dimensions” by Branko discussing it.
For showing that a vector bundle possesses a Euclidean metric implies that it’s isomorphic to the dual Hom bundle, is that basically Riesz
Or am I supposed to do w/o func analysis
finite dimensional bundle right?
you don't need full force of functional analysis that's just basic LA
Yeah I took functional analysis but not LA so that’s why my first thought was Riesz vs something simpler
v ↦⟨_, v⟩ ∈ V* show it's injection and use dimension argument
but Riesz is perfectly fine
it's not something anyone will point you out for
Yeah that makes sense
Finite dim riesz
wait how do you do functional without linear
you don't need to know how to solve a system of equations to apply the open mapping theorem / closed graph theorem / uniform boundedness theorem
there's not much nontrivial stuff that carries over
if we are looking for a deformation retract, do you agree with me that there might be a mistake in the definition of rho? shouldn the last line be for |x| > 2022=
the above is also a strong deformation retract right?
yeah
should be
okay, thank youu
Weak topology on what? I believe the term can refer to a variety of things
in the definition of weakly continuous
When topologists use it, they mean fine. When analysts use it, they mean coarse
what about algebraists 
Yeah that's what I had in mind lol, weak as in initial topology vs weak as in (say) CW complexes
Not 100% sure, but from skimming the definitions online, it should be the weakest (coarsest) topology for which a map (or collection of maps with a common domain) is continuous. I think in certain contexts, there are additional requirements put on the topology (i.e. TVS topology)
I'm pretty sure everyone means coarse
if I use van Kampen on the Torus, I get that the fundamentalgroup os given by Z*Z /<<aba^-1b^-1>>, why is this isomorphic to ZxZ?
yeah but I'm asking about an explicit description
The W in CW complex stands for weak topology. It's the finest topology for which the characteristic maps (disk inclusions) are continuous
So sometimes it can go either way
Ah, that I'm not sure of, sorry 😅
that literally means ab = ba, everything is commutative
oh okay, I thought it wass something else
thank you
Check the Wikipedia article
They give a subbasis for it
Ah nvm that’s only for func Ana contexts
topologists are fighting a losing battle
What do you need the explicit description for anyway
its the smallest topology containing all of the preimages of open sets of the maps you're taking the weak topology with respect to
sometimes this is easy to describe and other times maybe more annoying
its just the smallest topology such that the linear functionals are continous
…
joke of you to think it's a battle 😄

so true
do more computations
Also, going back and doing some basic exercises for the fun of it: cone over Q works for this right?
Or even, cone over any not locally path connected space?
also wait, are equivalence and isomorphism synonymous?
Okay yknow what I'm just gonna try to do all the exercises in rotman, there aren't that many per chapter
I think so, it seems like it should work
I've never seen this used as a categorical definition of "equivalence", that's just isomorphism
Interessting, I guess Rotman's terminology is weird here
There is a general notion of equivalence in 2-categories (i.e adjoint equivalence of categories, homotopy equivalence, etc)
But not this lol
how does he even define hTop without defining homotopy equivalences
Homotopy classes of maps as morphisms, then defining a h.e. to be an iso in hTop maybe?
Technically don't need to define h.e. to verify that is a category
yeah ^
fair enuf
does dense + compact imply closed?
here I'm talking abt some subset of a topological space
{1} as a subset of {1,2} with indiscrete topology
hm okay
then it isn't clear what Neukirch is doing exactly
he shows that a map has compact and dense image and then concludes it's surjective
Is the codomain Hausdorff?
That would imply the image is closed since it would be compact
Yeah exactly
Ngl
I don't even being to have any idea
idek what topology the codomain has
send the problem
Here U^(1) is the set of principal units
first image is the general setup
Second image is the map itself
is this discrete for some reason
Yeah not sure where topology comes in? Unless there's more context
Ig we gotta look at Iwasawa lol
non hausdorff spaces aren't real anyway
LMAO
I think it's safe to conclude whatever topology U^{(1)} has is Hausdorff though, that's pretty much the only way we could conclude that
I think it has the cofinite topology
I THINK
with a big I THINK
since we're working with local fields here
Unless it's finite itself lol
unless it's finite
But would compact sets be closed?
true true
no though
didn't think so, but technically compact sets being closed is slightly weaker than Hausdorff
uhhhh
in the cofinite topology everything is compact
but only finite stuff is closed roughly
bruv
WOOOO YEAH
good then now it make sense le tank u
so U^(1) mod U^(n+1) is finite right
Profinite
otherwise the profinite thing doesn't really make sense or am i smoking
ye
it's of cardinality q^n where q is the cardinality of the residue class field
Let $F:(\mathbb{C}\setminus{0})\times\mathbb{C}\to(\mathbb{C}\setminus{0})\times\mathbb{C}$ be the map $F(z_1,z_2)=(1/z_1,z_2)$. Is it true that if I glue a copy of $\mathbb{C}^2$ to another copy of $\mathbb{C}^2$ along the map $F$, then I obtain $\mathbb{C}P^2\setminus{[0:0:1]}$?
gustavn64
valid
This message gives me life
The fact that the intersection is path-connected isn't necessary, is it...?
yeah it's completely unnecessary
if you have points a in A and b in B, and even just one single point x common to A and B, then you can get a path from a to b by going first from a to x, and then x to b
Okay cool
also is this not just trivial from the fact that path-connected implies connected?
I don't see why the hint is necessary
Yeah
is it just a neighborhood at each point that's pc
Oh I just realized V doesn't need to be path-connected
I guess that complicates things slightly
That's a weird definition
i assume the definition of locally connected is similar, in which case i don't see why you need the hint either
Okay I mean the exercise is easy, but why does Rotman define it this way..?
Isn't it equivalent to having V be path connected
Oh he proves that it's equivalent
I guess he wanted to start with something weaker and build up
Still, so weird
yeah i think that's what it is
Also am I crazy or do these have the same exact solution lol
Like literally the same formula
basically the same thing yeah, but you ofc have the rest of R^n+1 to worry about in 1.29
So the exercise with more to worry about is first 
This exercise design confuses me but I'll roll with it lol
if you have the homeomorphisms between punctured spheres and R^n then that's probably why 1.29 is first
i can't believe they stabbed S^n. poor sphere...
Every continuous map is an injection and then a homotopy equivalence
Mapping cylinders my beloved
Also can we drop "is homotopic to" here? Aren't they literally equal?
i being an injection into the mapping cylinder of f and then r just collapsing the mapping cylinder into Y
how would something like a constant map be equal to the composition of an injective map and a homotopy equivalence, granted the spaces are not simply connected
Inject as the top face of the mapping cylinder of the map, then homotope the image to the bottom face of the cylinder
This is the general recipe for this factorization, not just for constant maps
If f : X -> Y is a constant map at y then let M_f be Y but attach a cone with the pointy end going down to y
i is injecting X at the top of the cone
r is sliding everything in the cone down to y
ah that makes sense yeah
Yeah
Path connected doesn't imply connected hurb
Could someone help me in a topology exercice ?
Let X_1, X_2, X_3 be 3 connected spaces such that X_1 \cap X_2 is not empty and X_2 \cap X_3 is not empty.
Show that X_1 \cup X_2 \cup X_3 is connected
That's the exercise
Write your space as the disjoint union of two open sets. Can you show that a connected subspace must be fully contained in one of them? Then Why can't X1, X2 and X3 be in different components?
One of the 2 open space could be X_1 and the other X_2 \cup X3. That's what you mean ?
Not quite. Say the union of the three equals U\cup V for two disjoint open sets
First thing you should show is that X2 is either entirely contained in U or entirely contained in V
alternatively you can use connected iff no proper clopen sets
Will we show that U or V is empty ?
Oh wait it's the opposite lmfao
Mb

That will be the eventual goal, yes.
topologist sine curve my beloved
Thanks the fact that we know that X_1 \cap X_2 is not empty and X_2 \cap X_3 is not empty, X1, X2 and X3 can't be in different components
But I don't know how to show this
Alright, how is your definition of connected framed?
A set is connected if it is not disconnected.
And a set X is disconnected if there exists 2 open sets U, V such that X = U \cup V and U \cap V = empty set
So what do you get if you intersect X2 with U and V?
If you intersect U and V with X2, you get a decomposition like the one in the definition of disconnected
Yes ok, so 2 open sets
And you know X2 is connected
But a connected set can contain 2 open sets 🤔
If you haven't worked it out already, this follows from a slightly simpler statement by induction
Check that if X and Y are connected subspaces such that X \cap Y is not empty, the X \cup Y is connected
f : X → f (X) contained in Y, is a homeomorphism
g : Y→g (Y) contained in X, is a homeomorphism
But X & Y is not homeomorphic
X=R & Y=[0,1] works i think ?
Yeah, that works.
Ok ty
So like "CBS for topological spaces fails?"
what's cbs
Cantor Shröder Bernstein?
cauchy bunyakovsky schwarz?
columbia broadcasting system?
thanks besties
Is f continuous because q and g are continuous and q isn't necessarily constant or am I just tripping?
from the wikipedia page of quotient topology spaces
uniqueness I get, but continuity I'm guessing is just inherited
If U \subseteq Z is open, then g^{-1} U is open in X. By commutativity, this should be saturated w.r.t q I believe, which means qg^{-1} U = f^{-1}U is open in X/~
Or something like that I think?
yeah that tracks. Thanks!
Lol I was about to be like wtf
This was from a midterm who’s due date is now passed. I did the first one by pulling back to the cantor set and using real analysis techniques (that is, assuming p was a limit of things in the set, norms, and so on). Is there a nice way of doing it without this?
That would be my first thought, show p_\infty is the only limit point of {p_n}
Agreed. What I did was that for any point x outside the set, there exist indices m < k such that x_m = 0 and x_k = 1, and a neighborhood U = U_1 X ... where U_m = {0} and U_k = {1}, which it does not intersect, hence x is not a limit point.
How do you prove it using the Cantor set?
Personally I would do it like this: for any point p not in that set (let's call it S), find an open neighborhood around p that doesn't intersect S
Finding that open neighborhood is not very difficult
wait that should be much easier lol
You just need a way of describing the complement of S
||Has a 0 before a 1||
my bad lmao
but yeah, should be easier than sequences (though that shouldn't be too terrible either)
Am I the only one who can see my message?
let $x \in \mathbb{R}$, what property guarantees that there is some open interval $ (a, b) $ that contains $x$?
Mattuwu
that the open intervals are a topological basis?
of course you can just construct something like (-|x|-1, |x| + 1)
I'm curious what's the bare minimum
property of what
idk, just an open question, I'm not familiar with topology 😂
the answer I want to hear is something like: in a xxx space, all points have an open neighborhood
this is true in any topological space
the whole space is an open neighbourhood of every point
and is it true that, in R, an open neighborhood V of some x must contain an open interval that also contains x?
yes
.
interesting, thanks!
np
any open set in R can be written as an at most countable union of open intervals with rational end points
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Base_(topology)
was reading this, is "base" a prefered terminology? it feels like it distinguishes itself from basis as in vector spaces
In mathematics, a base (or basis) for the topology τ of a topological space (X, τ) is a family
B
{\mathcal {B}}
of open subsets of X such that every open set of the topology is equal to the union of some sub-family of
B
{\mathcal {B}}
. For example, the set of ...
my book calls it topological basis but ig you can use just base, the idea between vector spaces and topo space is the same, want to express a larger space using a smaller collection either by a unique linear combination (in v.s.) or a union (in topo space). there are differences tho in terms of results, for e.g. in a v.s. all bases are equicardinal. in R, the euclidean topology is a (topo) basis for itself and is uncountable (same cardinality as R) while the set of all open intervals with rational end points is a countable (topo) basis
Tbh I kinda wouldn't compare it to bases in algebra since the uniqueness of expression is usually a key part of bases in algebra
Idk I've never found it to be profitable
I mean they're analogous in the sense of "generating" the structure
But in lin alg it's in terms of representation, for a topology in essentially a set that's "almost" a topology. In this sense it aligns more with something like filter bases
Sorry for the late reply but here’s how I did it:
This is a super nice argument
Hi guys. I need your help.
Recently I came across this space-filling surface. I have been trying to find a name for it or a rigorous way of describing it. I asked 2 professors at my university about this space-filling surface. One professor (a theoretical physicist) told me that he wasn't an expert in topology, and the other (a mathematician) told me that she wasn't an expert in fractals.
These images show a 3D representation of the surface, but the surface can be generalized for higher dimensions. You can interpret these 3D structures as slices of a 4D object. The surfaces may look 2D but, as you zoom in, you notice that every surface is made of several parallel "sub-surfaces" (similar to zooming into the Cantor set).
Do you guys know if there is a name for such structures?
shouldn’t e0 be reversed here
no
well, the labeling seems odd in general
I would take this to be the labelling: [\begin{tikzcd}
& 1 \
0 && 2
\arrow["{e_2}", from=2-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["{e_0}", from=1-2, to=2-3]
\arrow["{e_1}"', from=2-1, to=2-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
Ryxiann
from which it's clear the labelling is just order of integers
what
that makes no sense to me
why would you not just label them in increasing order so it’s cyclic
maybe this isn't exactly the same thing
Actually I think you're right, since it should make a cycle as indicated in the picture you sent, my bad. I don't know much (co)homology, I was thinking of the simplex we use for stuff like simplicial sets, in which the order is induced by a total order on the vertices
Can you send the context
(the text above and below)
But yes the induced orientation by integer ordering on the vertices would indeed reverse e_1 in Ryx picture
the same works for simplicial complexes
Is there a nice proof that \overline{D} is continuous? Or is it really just something that you have to verify with the definition
Like I've been looking for a diagramatic proof that these conditions imply i:A -->X is a Hurewicz cofibration (so this proof can be abstracted), but I don't think \overline{D} can be induced diagramatically
And idk what else to use instead of \overline{D} otherwise lmao
Should just be pasting lemma right
But yeah doesn't seem to have a nice categorical way of putting it but hm
with what closed sets tho?
Like of course A is closed by A=\phi^{-1}(0), so A \times [0,1] would be a reasonable choice, but what else
The set S of points where t <= phi(x) is closed right
Like preimage of a closed subset of I^2 under a continuous map
Maybe? But it's t < phi(x), not <=
The only problem is when considering neighborhoods of points in A \times {0}, since at (a,0), we are taking D(a,1), and nearby for x \nin A, t=0, we are taking D(x,0)
So somehow relativity comes in
Regardless, I think there's no nice way to check it, but I think there's an algebraic way to get the result I want without this lemma
doesn't matter
since 1 = t/φ(x) when t = φ(x)
that's what the pasting lemma is for anyway innit like show for t <= φ(x) and t >= φ(x) and then compatibility on the intersection i.e. where t = φ(x) is obvious
t=\phi(x)=0 tho?
maybe I'm just being dense for a sec, but that still seems like a problem
Phi(x) = 0 on A and D is a homotopy rel A so on A x I Dbar is definitionally the identity
the ordering is always by index of vertices
it always goes from higher to lower
so e0 goes from 2 to 0
your vertices are indexed as v0 v1 and v2
Yes
so for the 0-simplices you'd write [v0], [v1] and [v2]
for the 1-simplices you'd write [v0v1], [v1v2] and [v0v2]
wait
ur book does something weird
is that v1 or v0 at the top???
bruh
I think they messed up lol
I am so confused
why does the ordering have the extra (-1)^i?
that isn't standard from how simplices are usually defined
Is this standard for topological simplex as well?
yes
Books I've read usually define it like so
okay that's what I thought, but that pdf confused me too lmao
I’ll just look at it from a proper topology book when I can, I was just curious to learn more about homology and wanted something quick and dirty so I just Googled it and picked the first pdf
Don't worry. I actually meant to respond to my other message, since the other two guys were discussing about a solution exactly to mine and I thought I had some problem with my Internet connection. This solution is pretty interesting, didn't know it could be done with analysis.
I’m on vacation I have an excuse this time 💀
Hey guys, what are all the possible identifications of a torus?
what do you mean
I think there are multiple ways of defining it right?
yeah, are you looking for a specific construction?
I'm doing an exercise and they say: "we identify the Torus T2 by R^2/Z^2"
where does this come from? 😐
have you seen the construction that takes a square and glues the top-bottom and left-right
yes I did
is that isomorphic to the latter expression?
well they are all homeomorphic by virtue of describing the same spaces
but yes that's basically what we're doing
a similar thing is S^1 as R/Z
moreover, I would love to get a better intuition of what a covering really is
yes covering a space
I was thinking of the following interesting claim.
Let $S$ be a subset of $\mathbb{R}$, let $x \in \mathbb{R}$,
Claim: $\exists (a, b) \ni x\ldotp (a,x) \cup (x,b) \subset S $ if and only if $x \in \operatorname{int} \operatorname{cl} S$
It seems straight forward to show. It's interesting because it's a equivalent definition of the interior of the closure(at least in the R case)
Mattuwu
do you know the definition?
Does this remind anybody of any thing?
yes I do, I have it in front of me
but I'd love to get more intution by an easy example
do you know what the universal cover of S^1 is?
nope I do not................
context: I was reading the definition of the limit of a function, and realized one of the defintions actually works exactly for points in the closure of the interior of the domain.
it's R
which intution can I gain from this?
the visual being R/Z, or looping R over and over again like this
like I don't see the meaning of having a cover
well you should think of having a bunch of "sheets" of your space
oh this is beautifuk
basically X has open neighborhoods which are locally homeomorphic to some open neighborhoods in Y
a collection of them
and the projection is like flattening the covering space Y down to X
is the claim:
(there exists a set (a,b), x in (a,b), such that (a,x) u (x,b) is a subset of S) iff (x is in int cl S)
yep!
oh okay that makes sense
so for example the covering of S1 -> R flattens R to the unit circle(?)
R is being flattened to the unit circle yes
the claim seems correct (unless?? 😳 ), it's thus an equivalent description of cl int S given by the existence of punctured intervals. I wonder if there is an analogy in general
okay, going to work on this, thank you
moreover I have an algebraic question I think(?), but is still in the topology exercise
why can't two space be isomorphic, if the quotient is not?
like Z x 4Z and 2Zx2Z are not isomorphic because the above are not
is there a theorem that implies this, or does it just follow but surjectivity of the projection
Z/4Z and Z/2Z x Z/2Z are not iso because one has an element of order 4
And the other doesn’t
If that’s your question
yes, I know that, but why does this imply that the other two spaces are not ?
I do not understand where the last three sentences come from
I do not understand why the fact that those quotient spaces are not isomorphic implies that the isomorphism F can not exist
what is the isomorphism between
in general, if G and H are not isomoprhic, then there's no isomoprhism between them
by definition
do you see F in the picture I sent?
if F is an isomorphism, then F restricted to a subgroup (and the codomain restricted to the image) is still an isomorphism
what would be the converse of that
is the quotioent space a subgroup(?)
the converse is that
if F restricted to a subgroup isn't an isomorphism, then F isn't an isomorphism
I see that, but what I'm asking id if the Quotient space is a subgroup
It is a subset, but is it a subgroup(?)
it isn't a subgroup
the operation is not the same
i see. what i said above is also not important here i think
i assume (i don't know german) that what they're saying is
suppose F is an automorphism of ZxZ, with F(Z x 4Z) = 2Z x 2Z
this would give (Z x Z)/(Z x 4Z) = Z/4Z, and (Z x Z)/(2Z x 2Z) = Z/2Z x Z/2Z
but in general, if F is an isomorphism of G (to some group G') with normal subgroup H, then G/H is isomorphic to F(G)/F(H)
for us that would mean
(ZxZ)/(Zx4Z) is isomorphic to (ZxZ)/(2Zx2Z)
but that's not the case
@grim knot does that make sense?
Ah okay, I see that now, thank you @steel glen
sorry for taking so long to understand
I also wanted to ask, how does the number of covering spaces (up to isomorphy) depend on the fundamental group
or a different related question, which pieces of information do the fundamental groups give ?
Have a look at the correspondence theorem
Between subgroups of pi_1 up to conjugacy and and covering spaces
(For nice enough spaces)
It’s a homotopy invariant
If two spaces have different fundamental groups they are not homotopy equivalent
If you’ve seen universal coverings
No that’s just the lifting property
The correspondence is deeper and needs more assumptions
I do not have this theorem in my notes
You can see this by looking at the universal covering that exists iff the space is [insert all the assumptions]
And modding out decktrafos
dumb question
I do not have a definition of "universelle Überlagerung"
but they mention it in the solution of my exercise
what is this?
Eine einfach zusammenhängende Überlagerung
ah okay top, thanks
I feel completely high guys.............
Why the freak is the hawaiian earring not semilocally simply connected?
I see that if we look at 0 and take a neighborhood, we get that there exists a circle completely contained in our U. But why is this a contradiction? I don't see it
You can take a loop around the circle and that isn't nullhomotopic
it’s connected, just not semilocally simply
If we take a loop at 0 between the circle contained in U and the next circle, why can't I homotopically move it to 0?
I don't see it
Like I get that it is not, but why?
is S^1 simply connected
Take a loop staring at 0
Go around the circle once
And back to 0
This loop isn't contractible
emh nope
then visualize this
Why is there no way to define a cup product on homology? I think I have a vague idea but not completely sure. Namely the failure of chain groups to possess a natural evaluation.
The cup product is defined using the chain sequence C(X) x C(X) -> C(X x X) -> C(X), where the first map is the Künneth map and the second map is the map indices from mapping X into the diagonal of X x X
There’s a MO thread on this
This can't define a product in homology since the maps of chains would go the other way
Yeah that makes sense thank you
The cup product is the coproduct on cohomology?
Interesting
What's the categorical way to view the cap product then?
I think they just mean the terminology
Product on cohomology, why no „co-product“ on dual structure
This might help
Pretty cool when you have an H-space and get a Hopf algebra structure
I think intuitively the cup product in cohomology is taking low dimensional information and splicing it together into something higher dimensional and theres not really going to be a canonical way of going down from n-simplices to k-simplices for k < n without losing information
this is captured in what eric sent: going from X x X (or X x Y) to X is necessarily going to lose some information
Of course it does, since H stands for Hopf
Where does the antipode come from?
If the monoid of components is not a group, you don’t get an antipode. But if it is a group, in particular, if it is a connected, you do
Hmmm, so is there like an explicit description using the H-space multiplication or is it more of a "it has to exist" type thing?
The cohomology algebra carries the same information as the homology coalgebra
It's just a historical artifact that we are more used to product than coproduct
We don't write 5 = (1,4)+(2,3)+(3,2)+(4,1)
If we did we'd probably use the homology coalgebra primarily
Somewhere in between. There is a shearing map XxX -> XxX, x,y -> x,xy. If the monoid of components is a group, this is a homotopy equivalence, and its inverse can be used to define an up-to-homotopy inverse on X
But also, a graded bialgebra with degree zero just the constants has a unique antipode
Here is an interesting problem. What kind of an algebra is H_*(LM)?
LM = free loop space of a manifold M
There is a fibration Omega M -> LM -> M where the projection map is evaluation at 1
The E2 page of the spectral sequence is H*(M; H*(Omega M))
Homology of Omega M is a Hopf algebra
Homology of a manifold has a product of its own, the intersection product
What is the synthesis of these 50 different products?
Have you read the literature on string topology starting from Chas and Sullivan? I think there is a complete answer to this question of how these products interact. This structure only uses the hypothesis to M is a Poincaré duality space. There is hope to use the manifold structure to build more structure
But it’s kind of a dead field, subsumed into symplectic topology. The lagrangian conjecture says (among other things) that the cotangent bundle detects the smooth structure. A piece of the theory of J-holomorphic curves captures everything in string topology, so rather than trying to define more structure on string topology, people study the full theory of J-holomorphic curves applied to the cotangent bundle.
@umbral panther Yes, I am familiar with string topology
…but you don’t think it contains a complete answer?
Oh
It is believed (Eliashberg mentions this in a talk), by the way, that J-holomorphic curve techniques may not be enough to detect all of the symplectic topology of cotangent bundles
There has been some fantastic results, for instance by Abouzaid. But its nowhere close to a definitive answer
Yeah, it’s not clear how much they should do, it’s just that they subsumed string topology and killed it off. It’s clear that the next place to look for more structure is there
True
What do you actually work on, @umbral panther? You seem to know a decent amount of everything
I am spread too thin
Welcome to the club.
What are homotopy quotients in general oop I can't see to find much on them
Like say actions on a manifold
They are the correct kinds of quotients from the homotopy theoretic perspective when the group action is not well behaved. Concretely if you have a group G acting on X then (X/G)^h is (X \times EG)/G where G acts diagonally
Sure
Yeah I've seen that much but hm do you know of anywhere nice to learn more
Like I imagine there is a more universal way to think of them too?
As a like homotopy coequaliswe i guess actually would make sense
It depends on what you want to know, the point is to construct a space Y so that Y is homotopy equivalent to X but Y \to Y/G is a fibration
Sure
So there is a motivation from model category theory
Oh and so if G is for example a covering space action then this is automatic but more generally we need a suitably derived notion ig
You can’t expect any good motivation for any particular choice because homotopy quotients are not really spaces as they are homotopy colimits
So they have a very involved universal property
Oh I mean that's why i asked about universal stuff aha ye
By particular choice I mean particular space which represents the homotopy quotient
Yeah
For risk of sounding like a dumbass is this construction in any way related to moduli spaces 
You might be best off just reading a little bit about (infinity, 1) categories if you want to understand how they fit into a broader category theoretic framework. Or you could read quillen on model categories for a more old fashioned viewpoint. Or you could read a primer on equivariant cohomology if you want to see homotopy quotients in action
Oh I mean sure I have read about model cats and a bit of infty cats but they didn't come up in that lol
@novel acorn very loosely they are connected
But I'll search through those more to see if they have anything specific for thos
Thank
I attended a talk Abt certain constructions in moduli spaces that had to do with chow quotients and this sounded vaguely reminiscent of stuff they did there
Tbh the presenter wasn't the best at explaining exactly what was going on so I only have snippets of the talk in my head
@novel acorn homotopy quotients definitely can arise to represent certain functors on the category of spaces. But it’s a very general construction
uwu
If you don't mind me asking, what's a good resource to learn about the infinity category-theoretic stuff? I know at least basics of model categories and am curious to learn more along these lines
Some people will say HTT (I am one of those people)
Look at HTT, you can read it in an afternoon
@ebon galleon there really isn’t one
The Kerodon project is coming along but is still in its infancy
it's 900 pages lmaooo 💀
not quite an afternoon
It's comprehensive tho
Crafted by the all knowing Lurie in the ancient forges of the IAS
Higher topos theory is good but it’s a bit like reading EGA
ofc ofc, I might read HTT, I was just curious other sources
And it is by Lurie 👀 which is based
To read one part of it you have to read another, etc, etc.
I read a lot of SGA and EGA when I was younger and had worse taste
Lol
I do think there was a time in the 90’s when it really did give you a competitive advantage over other people
I am in that phase rn I feel like
Like Kisin just decided to read SGA because he didn’t have a thesis problem and it went very well
She read EGA when she was 5 surely
If you read older papers from the 70’s-80’s you will definitely end up peeping some EGA. But in general the stacks project has much of the good stuff now
Neukirch likes to cite EGA in that arithmetic geo book of his and so I was curious to read it
Yes I think people did that for a long time
Just because there wasn’t anything else
Is HTT/HA similar in modern times?
When certain people were doing math
@cosmic socket hopefully! I think it will take time for people to fully digest HTT but it’s getting there
There doesn’t seem to be any alternative source on the modern perspective on spectra
Or related stuff

Urs started doing some arithmetic topology recently I've heard
A friend I know went down that rabbit hole recently
We're probably gonna do a project Abt that soonish?
Multigraded spheres are like the collection {S^n} but the n is now in ℤ^d
I am first year UG
And S^(i,0,...,0) = S^i in the usual sense

Motivic spheres
Damn
I'm supposed to be a second year but uh I didn't finish my first year at uni
Something about depression?
So I transferred
I was at UCSD but now I'm EU based
Aw im sorry sure
EU masterrace
I'm at like a uni that does a shitton of Langlands stuff
yo
I'm in the nowhere country of the Uni of Zagreb lol
Yeah maybe not the best thing to call masterrace
lmao
i managed to avoid all algebra in my 3rd year
How
Unfortunate
The way to go
I've got a pretty good split next year lol
analysis >>>
what was the other one
We need an analysis out emote
which
Logic
Logic is for dumbasses just use ur head
3rd year analysis for us is just functional analysis
Prove the axiom of choice 
fym "for us"
That's set theory
do you not know who I am
as in at my uni
Lol
logic seems boring to me ngl
Logic is cool
Set theory is super boring to me tho
then again i havent looked that far into it
is there a concise description of this set in terms of S?
where S is a subset of the reals
it seems this set is a subset of int cl S, but int cl S is not always this set, for example, take S = Q, int cl S = R but there are no intervals in S
It's pretty close to being the closure of the interior
It should be this:
$$
{x \in \mathbb{R} \mid x \in \text{int} (S \cup {x})}
$$
Ryxiann
I believe it should be the interior of the closure of the interior
yeah for example when S is (0,42) U (42, 100), it's exactly int cl S
since the condition could be refined to \exists (a,b) with x\in (a,b) and (a,b) \subseteq (S \cup {x})
Not quite I guess, if S is something horrible like R\{±1/n, 0}, then 0 is in the interior of the closure of the interior, but doesn't satisfy your definition.
should at least be a subset of int cl int S
$$ \bigcup_{x\in\mathbb{R}} \operatorname{int} (S \cup {x})$$
Mattuwu
I think that works?
how about
$$ \operatorname{int} S \cup \operatorname{iso} S^c $$
Mattuwu
interior of S and isolated points of S complement
That should work also
that's an interesting construction. Does it have a name? It seems like a nice nontrovial example of a measure zero set
that set has infinite measure
{+-1/n, 0} is countable
I imagine he meant {±1/n, 0} lol
If S is an infinite subset of [0, 1] then does there exist a convergent sequence consisting of distinct elements of S?
this has a nice proof
and I just came up with the problem too!
though does anyone have an alternate proof that doesn’t reference directly the ||nested-interval property of the reals|| (though obviously you have to appeal to completeness somehow)
Pick an increasing sequence in S, use Bolzano-Weierstrass to obtain a desired convergent sequence from it
It's infinite --> there's a sequence of distinct points. Therefore, there's a convergent subsequence by compactness
Nice, that’s even cleaner
Yeah it's compactness you need, not (just) completeness
By the way, this is true in any infinite subset of a compact metric space, if you know much about those. The same argument generalizes. In fact, it's even equivalent to compactness!
ok i guess we implicitly want the limit point in S then
that's on me lol, that's obvious now that i say it
If you just want a limit point, then boundedness is sufficient in any locally compact metric space (I think?)
this is what i had in mind
Wait I’m being dumb why does (1) imply (2); it’s not like the set of elements in a sequence of reals is necessarily closed? :
(1) a subset of the reals is closed and bounded subset iff it is sequentially compact
(2) every bounded sequence of reals has a convergent subsequence
these are the two main (equivalent) formulations of bolzano weierstrass
the union of the elements in the sequence is not necessarily closed, but just take the closure
then you have a closed, bounded set which by (1) is sequentially compact, so the sequence must converge
Lmao
just sprinkle in the proof that clS for bounded S is bounded, then it shouldn't be as cheat-y
No I meant how we fattened up our sequence so that we could apply Bolzano-Weierstrass




