#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 43 of 1
yea i think my brain is just rotting from thinking about metric spaces mb!!!
How do u guys remember the conditions for boundedness and connectedness
I keep forgetting them
Compactness too
self descriptive
I think doing enough problems / working w them should help you intuit them more and remember
ah okay, it makes sense then. it confuses me because I thought that we needed an equality
and I didn't get that
Thank you!! @abstract furnace
Imho no but alr
I know, I might have a lot of easy question, but I'm trying to make a bit of order in my head, and to understand the concept
I was doing this proof and I don't completely understand the last step. Why does the fact that every x in K has a neighbourhood imply that X\K is open?
the second to last sentence?
yep
$p \in \bigcap_{j \in J} V_j \subseteq X \setminus K$
michαel
so we have found an open neighborhood of p contained in X\K, and since p was arbitrary X\K is open
Easy question incoming. I am working with topological spaces, but is it always true that if we find open nbhd for every point, we always have open sets?
I'm kinda skeptical about it, this is why I asked
yeah a subset U of X is open if for all x \in U there is an open set V such that x \in V \subseteq U
okay, thanks for helping!
its iff btw but thats the one that matters here
Hey guys I have a maybe stupid question. Why is it that when we have some open set U of some space X, we can construct a continuous map f from X to [0,1] such that f^{-1} (0,1] is U. When the space is metric I choose the map which gives the distance from x to the complement of U. But how is this possible in the general case ?
Why do you think this should be possible?
Been trying to think of a counterexample lol
Wow I misread what I was reading
One needs to add that there is an numerable open cover of X
my example still works tho
can you rather share the statement you are reading?
Oh
I just got it
Nvm sorry
It was May's 'a concise course in algebraic topology' page 51, but I entirely misunderstood the stuff entirely my bad
i'm even more confused now, how does this relate to page 51 pf concise course
Is that the section on neighborhood deformation retracts? I can see the similarity with that
That's what I assumed
Fixed point theory?
Topology
oh alr, thank
hmm... seems my library doesn't have it? that's a first
wow yeah that seems to be the case
consider libgen
i hate reading things digitally, even on a tablet
.<
i have one of those e-ink tablets, but i just can't seem to bring myself to read on it, only write
so if i can't get my hands on a textbook physically, i simply can't use it
printers are a thing
That's what the exercise is asking you to define. Do you want the solution?
That’s part of the problem
oh
I thought this was supposed to be something obvious from the definition
uhhh ok then I'll sit on it for longer
beta(f) is the unique map that makes the diagram commute. The main point is to prove that there is a map and that it is unique. The points in the last line are what make it a functor
ok so I have a guess. If $i_Y$ is the inclusion of $Y \to \beta(Y)$ then I guess the obvious choice is $\beta(f) = i_Y \circ f$ but then what if I have an element $x$ in $\beta(X)$ that isn't in $X$? Then $\beta(f)(x)$ isn't well defined right?
spamakin
wait nvm dumb question I forgot that X -> beta(X) was an embedding and embedding meant bijection
I think that's right anyways?
so like if I have any element $x' \in \beta(X)$ I can find a unique $x \in X$ such that $i_X(x) = x'$
spamakin
write out the universal property of stone-cech compactification
since we're looking at the closure of the image of this map
there's a universal property?
there is
(I just looked it up kek)
I shall also look it up then
Too much clutter. Take the 2D example Q(x) = (x+)^2 - (x-)^2. The gradient flowlines of Q are rectangular hyperbolas |x+|^2 |x-|^2 = const, which explains why those edges are pieces of the flowlines
Ignore if you already figured it out
yay ibsen is back
sup
had to write my msc thesis and i was procrastinating way too much here lmao
LOL
done now
W
What did you write 
something something wavefronts
the title is “h principle for loose legendrian submanifolds”

speaking of wavefronts, heres something interesting. consider the differential equation dy/dt = 1/2(dy/dx)^2. introduce an auxiliary variable z and consider the solution y(z, t) = z^4/4 + t z^2/2 and x(z, t) = z^3/3 + t z. this y is a multivalued function of x, for a particular t.
the picture of the evolution looks as follows
in particular i think this equation does the following: given y(x, 0), treat it as a wavefront and evolve it according to huygens principle. y(x, t) is the new wavefront at time t
havent checked this but for many reasons i think this is true
now, @patent quarry: this is one third of the KPZ equation
the second term in 1D KPZ is d^2 y/dx^2. this makes it like the heat equation so my belief it is smoothens the shockwaves of cuspidal singularities when it occurs
the third term is gaussian noise, which means its everything above but random wiggly
a “random interface model” should be like a randomized version of wavefront evolution so that makes sense?
Welcome back! 
the reason why im a bit excited by this (given the chain of reasoning above is true) is that the wavefront evolution is just Reeb flow for the unit cotangent bundle ST*R^2 = R^2 x S^1 with the contact structure cos(theta) dx - sin(theta) dy
some more dogwhistle: KPZ scales like 1:2:3. this is reminiscent of the cusp/twisted cubic (t, t^2, t^3) which appear as Legendrian submanifolds of the contact space
is there a connection?

This immediately crashed my firefox lmao
Huh bizarre
Does someone know an open reference on branched coverings?😇
someone help me. Pls give me hint
Let $\left{x_n\right}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence which converges to $x$. Show that the subspace ${x} \cup\left{x_n\right.$ : $\left.n \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}\right}$is compact.
Ji
a hint? use the definition of covering compactness and look at the open set containing the limit of the sequence
this is what i've come up so far
Since $\left{x_n\right}{n=1}^{\infty}$ converges to x then for every neighborhood $U$ of x there is an $N \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ such that $x_n \in U$ for all $n\leq N$ . Thus $\bigcup{\alpha_n \in N} U_{\alpha_n}$ covers ${x} \cup\left{x_n\right.$ : $\left.n \in \mathbb{Z}^{+}\right}$.
but i don't know how to proceed
Ji
did you mean n >= N
i botch inequalities all the time, but “all but finitely many” is easy to conceptualize
It should be n >= N at the end

If I take the set [0, 1] and quotient it via 0~1 and x~y iff x = y and x, y =/= 0, 1
Is there a natural way of taking a metric on [0, 1] into [0, 1]/~
Not really
use the metric on the circle
I mean yeah you can give it the unique metric such that the homeo with the circle is an isometry
use the complex metric 
yeah but thats not a "natural" metric on it, cuz I was hoping for a metric on [0, 1] (like any metric)
But then what's the point lol just work with the model of the circle you like
I was just fooling around lol
Fair o nuff
Ig this is part of why working w topological spaces is often nicer tho
Being able to do the quotients in the first place hrhe
I just got to the quotient topology and this construction looked cool
It is
Yeah, there’s a natural metric on a quotient. It might not be easy to write down, but it’s natural
In the case of just gluing two points on a space with a path metric, d2(x,y) = min(d(x,y), d(x,0)+d(1,y), d(x,1)+d(0,y))
Idk how generally this would work, but you could do something like this
Let d' be the metric on [0,1]
Define d([x], [y]) = 0 whenever [x] = [y]
Otherwise, define d([x], [y]) as minimum over all paths from [x] to [y]. That is, take a minimum over all choices of finite sequences
[x_1] = [y_1], [x_2] = [y_2], ..., [x_n] = [y_n]
of the quantity
d'(x, x_1) + d'(y_1, x_2) + d'(y_2, x_3) + ... + d(y_n, y)
Seems to work in this case
can I ask where this part comes from: min(d(x,y), d(x,0)+d(1,y), d(x,1)+d(0,y))
Does Moldilocks answer the question, provide more motivation?
I can try
yeah I think the shortest path thing makes sense
I am taking the length of the smallest path from x to y as d(x, y)
But this path need not just go x → x_1 → x_2 → ... → x_n → y
It can jump from each x_i to a y_i in the same equivalence class without adding any length to the path
Infimum of all such paths should work as long as these infima are always non-zero for distinct points
I am guessing that a necessary and sufficient condition for that to happen would be for each equivalence class to be closed in the metric space
Interesting
I will try to see this more
Another way to do it would be to say the function d2 with the largest values that is less than the original metric, but has d2(0,1)=0 and respects the triangle inequality
based
Why is the existence of such a function obvious?
If the maximum of two metrics is not a metric, then we’re in trouble. If it is a metric, then just take the maximum of all appropriate metrics
There is an issue about metrics vs pseudometrics. If you take [0,1] and glue all [0,1) to a point, the procedure says that 1 is distance 0 from the rest. Which is the right thing to do
Not just 2, for this you would want the supremum of any collection of metrics to be a metric
what does "supremum of a collection of metrics" mean?(sorry for the dumb questions)
A metric is a function. You can take a supremum of a collection of functions pointwise
This seems to be true but there's an even bigger issue
ah I see
How do you show the existence of even 1 metric satisfying this condition?
d(x,y) = 0 for all pairs
assuming all metrics are bounded above by some function
That's not a metric though
It needs to be non zero for distinct x, y
They’re bounded by the original metric
Yes, I was pointing out that my own earlier statement was incomplete because I just said any collection of metrics
As in the example of collapsing an open set, you can’t ask that. If you take [0,1] and collapse [0,1), you have to collapse 1 as well
You can follow up and figure out what conditions on the equivalence relation should guarantee no further collapse
Yeah sure, but my point is that your construction is useless even when you do have a condition on the equivalence relation
All it gives is a pseudometric, and to prove that it will be a metric in the nice case you would still need to make some explicit construction at some point
It is not clear a priori, at least to me, that it will ever be non-zero
so cool

sus
what do you mean by largest value?
sup over x and y of d2([x], [y])?
if thats the case I could define it to be the correct metric in some closed subspace
and then have fun elsewhere
imposter metric
my highschool nickname
so cool
sniped
Largest over all pseudometrics satisfying some hypotheses
yeah whats largest?
like when is f_1 < f_2?
Read the backscroll
pointwise supremum
cool beans
so what I wrote then?
No clue what you wrote lmao
based

yeah I understand now @umbral panther
Instead of taking the sup over pseudometrics, we could take the inf over metrics. Take the inf over metrics d_n which doesn’t collapse things to zero, but just to 1/n. And we could define dn by either an inf or a sup
(I think this works badly without compactness)
yeah the inf is the usual description
like generally when quotienting
first time seeing the sup
Hi, guys, is it true that if A,B\subset C, and B\subset C open, A' is the closure of A in C, then closure of A\cap B in A'\cap B is A'\cap B?
No. What if B=C? Then A’ cap B is A’
You mean subset instead of in?
Yes. This follows from the the fact that closed subsets in the subspace topology are the closed subsets of the larger space intersected with the subspace
Wait
I assume you meant to ask for the closure of A cap B in B
Rather than in A' cap B
The answer is the same in any case I suppose
And I don't think you need B to be open
wont A'\cap B introduce new limit points then?
I mean closure of A\cap B
oh wait
nvm,
A\cap B\subset A
nah, i want to see closure of A cap B in A' cap B
Why does B need to be open?
A = (0,1) and B =[1,2]
My reasoning was incomplete, still trying to see where we need it to be open
But we need it because there are counterexamples otherwise and it seems to my intuition that that is resolved when B is open lol
when i want to prove this, X\subset C closed, such that X containing A cap B, then X may be strictly smaller than A', and X cap A' cap B containing A cap B. is there any way to see this is not true
Is the lower limit topology locally connected?
what are the compact sets in lower limit topology?
ig you don't need that if A ⊂ B
I’ve not read compactness yet
oh sorry, your question was locally connected, not compact. mb mb
so first, is [a, b) connected in lower limit topology
no, it can be written as union of [a,c) & [c,b)
so can you see why it's not locally connected?
try to recall the definition of locally connectedness and basic open sets in lower limit topology
Locally connectedness is, for any nbd U of x , a connected set V can be found for x belongs to V subset of U
Oh I get it
We can’t find any connected V
Thank you
Brother @ me if you figure it out
Got busy lmao will maybe get back to it later
Coolcool
is it the problem of the closure?
It's about why B needs to be open
ah ok
flipping through munkres… it seems very pedagogical but also lame in a way that i can’t quite place
It's dry
Yes. Take a point x of A' cap B. You want to show that x is in the closure of A cap B. If x is in A, you are done. Otherwise, you can show that it is a limit point of A cap B and hence in the closure of A cap B. Take any open neighbourhood (N cap A' cap B) of x in A' cap B where N is open in C, then N cap B is an open nbhd of x in C so there is a point y of A in it, so this nbhd of x has a point of A in it.
@swift mountain
You have to use the fact that N cap B is open in C
Oh based
Thank you guys!
Yeah I think intuitively it makes sense and we just had to write it down to make sense of it
Thanks @empty grove very cool

Why is A required to be nonempty here?
there are no maps to the empty set
C_n(empty) is uh
the zero vector space?
i mean the zero abelian group
Oh I see, ty!
You can allow A to be empty if you define the reduced homology of the empty set correctly. H_0 = 0 and H_-1 = Z
Wrong first try: H_0 = Z and H_-1 = Z
deranged
is this because H_n(X/A, A/A) is isomorphic to Htilde_n(X/A, A/A) which is isomorphic to Htilde_n(X/A) since Htilde_n(A/A) = 0 and we can draw out the long exact sequence of reduced homology groups
also, does the group H1(R, R \ {0}) count how many (oriented) times a 1-chain crosses zero?
ty!! :)
@urban zinc let M be an n dim manifold. consider, for any open set U of M, the group O(U) := H_n(M, M \ U). For an open subset V of U, there is a natural "restriction" map O(U) -> O(V). Prove that there is an exact sequence 0 -> O(U \cup V) -> O(U) (+) O(V) -> O(U \cap V) -> 0.
Oh no
(Such a thing, ie an O that satisfies the properties above, is known as a "sheaf")
Terrifying
sheaves are easy it's just the same thing as continuous functions
so an element of O(U \cup V) is an n-chain in M whose boundary is contained in M \ (U \cup V), mod out by relative boundaries of n+1-chains
so for the first map we want to take the n-chain and split into subcomponents where the boundary is contained in M \ U and M \ V, respectively
maybe
M-U is bigger than M-(U \cup V), notice
Yep
And then send ([c], [d]) to.... [c] - [d]?
I don't know if that one works
Hm
It's the only thing I can think of though
That's all.
So I want to take an n-chain whose boundary is in M \ (U \cap V) and break it into an n-chain whose boundary is in M \ U and an n-chain whose boundary is in M \ V
Right.
This feels like barycentric division
Yep
Hmmm but I only know that for open covers
Oh wait does (M \ U)^o \cup (M \ V)^o = M \ (U \cap V)
(M \ U) \cup (M \ V) = M \ (U \cap V) believe it or not
That is logical lol
Ol'e de'Moivre figured it all out
wtf how
hey i remember this
So in fact you can prove stronger things than this lol
there's another result you can prove that includes R and C plus the quaternions I think
using some topological wizardry that i can't imagine
Basically if R^n can be the structure of division algebra over R then S^n can be endowed with the structure of a group for example
More generally yes you can check when S^n is an H-space
magical
Which means it has an operation which is unital up to homotopy etc
then H-space structures on S^n correspond to elements of some homotopy groups of spheres
Using the so called Hopf Invariant
this is so cool
I wrote part of my bach thesis on it aha
but yes the more general problem here is Hopf Invariant One which is quite deep and was proven by Adams - it gives as a corollary that S^1, S^0, S^3 and S^7 are the only spheres with H space structure, so that R^2, R, R^4 and R^8 are the only finite dim vector spaces over R which admit a division algebra structure (without requiring even associativity)
The easiest proof uses K-theory but the original proof was very long and used detailed calculations with spectral sequences etc
Very cool result :)
Also does anyone have any favorite applications of the Euler characteristic?
More general than Euler characteristic but have you seen the Lefshetz fixed point theorem
The proof uses a sort of generalisation of Euler characteristic
Which is v cool
lefschetz theory is good
Says you
Not yet
About to
In uh
Nine more one-hour videos

Ah he's so cool
Wait do you know him lol
Nah I just watched some of his videos like a year ago
He's handsome too ngl
When I was at the stage you are at now basically
Yes
I liked the historical bits
Nicely contextualised stuff
yea he's great
Does it? It is not clear to me why S^n being an H-space implies R^n+1 admits a division algebra structure.
The division algebra result is quite classical, you do not need topology for that IIRC
RP^2 is not boundary of a compact 3-manifold with boundary.
Yes agreed, I'm just saying there are many topological results in this direction
Well I had in mind more just the restriction on the "n"
In that it means we can't get any more spheres with H-space structure beyond the ones that obviously have one
Let M(n, R) be the space of n x n real matrices. Call a subspace V of M(n, R) totally nonsingular if every nonzero element of V is an invertible matrix.
The maximal dimension of totally nonsingular subspaces is 1 + #(linearly independent vector fields on S^n-1)
rho(n) moment
Yeah I want to read the proof of like the linear result using Clifford algebras
like representations thereof
The above is a cute exercise but I forget how to do this
The maximal ones are the Clifford algebras as you say
Have you guys read any book about top alg that doesn't have this "tradition"/"appeal" to combinatorics?
Well I assume you mean linearly independent linear vector fields right
Proving that it coincides with the general case is much harder ofc xd
I don't think I mean that
Well like
The other direction is harder, but at least there's a bound
Hm I meant like
I agree that one of the direction is easier
Do you mean subspace V in the linear sense?
Yes
Okay like
Well yours fairly easily coincides with 1 + # of linear linearly independent vector fields right
Why?
Hm if I'm not mistaken the families of totally non-singular things almost exactly correspond to linearly inndependent linear vector fields
Yeah but why
But I can't remember how lol
But anyway the point is that like iirc, that was already known like before Adams' result
Consider the map (V \ 0) x S^n-1 -> S^n-1, f(A, x) = Ax/|Ax|
Yeah I think basically you can take an orthogonal basis of your subspace of M_n or smth
Something roughly like that lol but maybe I'm smoking
This gives a map V \ 0 -> Diff(S^n-1), or equivalently S(V) -> Diff(S^n-1). Take its derivative
Oh okay lol rip
You get a map R^n -> X(S^n-1)
This is injective because meh
f(I + tA, x) = (I + tA)/|I + tA| * x/|x|
What is this as t -> 0
lol
Well I want to take the derivative of the above at t = 0
nw, I didn't entirely follow what you wrote
Tell me the derivative of (I + tA)/|I + tA| x/|x|
Is it the component of Ax orthogonal to the sphere
Geometric approach
Okay sorry so what I had in mind was the original place (afaik) where hurwitz radon numbers appeared, like number of orthogonal skewsymmetric anticommuting real matrices
which corresponds to sets of linear orthogonal vector fields
So to argue injectivity of the derivative we just need to ensure Ax is never parallel to x for any A in the totally nonsingular subspace
This is because if Ax = a x, then (a I - A) x = 0. But I, A are both in my totally nonsingular subspace so is there linear comb... oh, I may not be there
If I is there this proves n - 1 <= #(lin indep vector fields on S^n-1)
Dunno how to nudge this further
This is because Cliff(n, R) is actually a maximal nonsingular subspace of M(n, R), that's all.
Oh nice lol
Um
I mean Radon-Hurwitz number is the maximal m such that Cliff(m, R) admits a faithful rep in R^n
I think
And then that's the maximal nonsingular sub
Eg: In M(4, R) sits H which is the span of the four (++++) signature Dirac matrices 1, I, J, K with I^2 = J^2 = K^2 = -1, IJ = -JI, etc
That's maximally nonsingular
(S^3 = SU(2) has 4-1 = 3 lin indep vector fields)
This is the numerological reason for the apperance of Radon-Hurwitz, but those numbers are nothing special IIRC
Yeah this is purely algebraic I believe
Yeah i think like
nlab has an article doing the entire proof lol
I'm gonna try to learn the proof of that actually for fun hm
what's the easiest way to see if M is a n-manifold with boundary, then H_n(M)=0
assuming nothing about orientability
(let's say compact)
yeah but how to see deleting boundary doesn't change homology? without going into cellular homology
yeah ik that
excise
hatcher showed it for non smooth ones well
even easier than excise
deformation retract an open collar to a closed collar
M heq to M \ dM

second thing is
solve homology exercise problems putting close to epsilon thought
throw the kitchen sink at random
itll work out
@coarse night learn k theory and tell me how the k theory proof of atiyah singer goes
homology is done you passed AT
time to move on
yeah I was doing random things and suddenly remembered I needed his result
I did start K theory (vector bundle one) from hatcher
patrick shanahan has a book
How much k theory do I need for this
where he proves AS index theorem by K theory
idfk man
i don’t understand that proof
ye
F

decided what youre specializing on?
I'll break rijul's record
this could be goodbye as you go on to become an algebraic geometer
did he take 7
~8 maybe
damn
yeah saw a notice with his thesis defense
mohit switched around a lot
he was doing ggt but then lol
you know what happens
he did htt no?
what is softcore ag
idk learn some AG move on
rep theory lmfao
fuck no
yeah, holla doing stacks
idk what mirror symmetry does, he calls himself algebraic geometer
ye sounds interesting
rep theory
something something conformal blocks
yeah rep theory
no one does symplectic here 
nah
just saw on pinned msgs 
unable to find, which one exactly
If you don't, there's no way I'll stand a chance 😄
Imma start dw
Also ppl do symplectic here
that reminds me I need to read Arnol'd to learn symplectic stuff
Consider honology with coefficients in a commutative unital ring R.
Does it's additive structure the same as taking the coefficients in the additive group R?
yes
Do you have a separate definition for homology with coefficients in a ring?
Separate from the one for coefficients in an abelian group
Just taking everything as R module
Yeah the scalar multiplication is never used for the homology computation so nothing changes
It is only used to define the scalar multiplication on the homology
Definition question: for X a space that is sequentially compact does that mean that any convergent sequence of terms in X has a limit point in X?
yes
no
a space is sequentially compact if every sequence has a converging subsequence
think of bolzano-weirestrass but without the bounded condition
Ah
what ur saying is X is closed
bolzano-weierstrass my beloved
too bad it's a myth
I keep getting closed and seq comp mixed up ffs
they are similar
so ur doing okay
can something be compact but not closed?
what about the other way around
R is closed
yup
u sure about that
yea
and btw
sequentially compact != compact alwaays
only in metric spaces
in general they are not equivalent
yeyeye
compact implies seq comp
and the reverse holds iff the space is metrisable
so here is a fun exercise for you
think of any fucked up topological space
and produce counter examples for all sorts of things
Only for sequential or first countable spaces
Not in general
a set that is closed and bounded but not compact
The stone cech compactification of ℤ is compact but not sequentially compact
for example
reposting
^ yea this is something to bear in mind wires
alot of good stuff in metric space topology just doesn't work
That's a funny quote enough I might just remember it lol
Poincaré predicting the theory of infinity groupoids
is it soon or never
Oh hold on
the fact that algebraic topology was invented first before point-set is very cool
also why is
named as :specz:
If I say X is a compact space, I need to specify what it's compact in, shouldn't I
no
compact means heine-borel compact
open covers
thats just the default
Yeah ik
sequentially compactn implying that is just a nice bonus
u cant have that
in general
it’s an extremely cursed meme
But to define a cover, do I need subsets of X
lol
an OPEN covering of a space X is just a collectino of open sets such that the union of those is the space
It will not matter because the open subsets of a subspace are those of the larger space (intersected with the subspace)
Yh so any union of open subsets of X will be itself a subset of X
So the definition's nigh-on moot
?
Can an open cover of X be a strict superset of X?
an open cover
of X
is not a set
nor a subset
its a collection of open subsets of X such that if u take their union you get X
Okay, the union of the sets in an open cover then
Yh that's what I'm thinking
Usually we require that an open cover consist of subsets of X, possible just X itself. Sometimes authors are a little sloppy and cover subspaces by open sets of the ambient space, but this can be remedied as that open cover becomes a normal open cover by intersecting all the open sets in the cover w the subspace
isnt that conventional
But if you take an open (in X) covering you're fine
I'm just wondering how the convention came to be that "X is contained in (union)" was used for this
(ig this also includes calling it a "cover")
Idk lul
i think it is
Well that’s the whole point hahaha
You want every part of X to be covered
Hence the term cover
yea so its like any element of your space is atleast in one of the sets in your open cover
any point*
waes_wires
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)

It’s very common in say real analysis where basically everything is a subset of R^n
(been a while since using latex for set notation ngl)
To allow open covers’ component open sets to not be subsets of X
It's \bigcup not \union
\bigtorus
Btw, is it that a space is complete? if every Cauchy sequence is convergent or...?
Say X is a topological space
are u asking if compactness implies completness?
it is as you said
ah cool
That’s the only definition I know. But that’s a definition for a metric space, not a topology
yes
it only makes sense if u have a metric
me go jim now
@obtuse tundra try to prove in a metric space that compactness implies completness
oo have fun
try to argue like u would do with riezs lemma or something
constructing a sequence that can never have a subsequence converging
god luck
i'm just through some topology things without having done any topology, so i'm probably way off with this, but: is the standard topology of a metric space (X,d) the topology generated by every open ball around every element of X ?
what?
Yes
also ø and X is in the topology generated by this set of open balls, since they can be written as a union of resp. no empty balls and all empty balls around some element in X ?
this is anywhere
by definition
but that implies that they can be written as a union of open balls
( if they are in the topology generated by those )
but not since that then this
Yeah (X, d) the metric is said to "induce a topology"
I when you say “topology generated by” you are implicitly guaranteeing the axioms of a topology are satisfied
So even if the open balls didn’t give you X and the empty set
You’d have to add them in anyway
(It is true that it works out regardless, just a semantic note)
hmm
(hehe hehe hehe, "X, d")
Even for one metric there can be many topologies tho
(so childish of me but I still find it humorous)
Wait what lol
Did I say something stupid? 😄
I don’t know what you meant
as in not taking all radii of the open balls?
Me neither
Take X = R, and the discrete topology
Only one of these is at all related to the metric
Like metric spaces already have a notion of open sets
And you just let the corresponding topological space have the same open sets
I'm trying to get at what Megumi meant
It is true that there are potentially multiple topologies for which all the open balls are open
But that’s not really fair to say that they are all coming from the metric
Yeah lol
^
are you talking about how you can often impose many different metrics on one set?
er...
You can say it's convention and all, but I'm still annoyed if it's not explicitly stated
???
ok I think I see now
Okay, but given a metric, it induces a single topology
maybe
We can have two metrics induce the same topology
right
A metric can't induce multiple topologies
In R^n, for instance, the Manhattan distance, the Euclidean distance and the infinity-distance l induce the same topology
(in R^n, this we call the standard topology)
Indeed any metric induced by a norm
ah yeah, you can go from that too
do {B(x, r) | x in X and r ≥ 0} and {B(x,r) | x in X and r in N (the positive integers)} generate the same topology?
i must admit i'm not even sure if the second here generates a topology at all
Topology is sensitive to the small stuff
No, as one of them is a subset of the other
You can always generate a topology from a set lol
Just intersection of all topologies containing the set
Yeah, a topology is just a collection of subsets satisfying some criterja
whose elements we call open
Since the power set is a topology that is not an empty intersection
I always forget that that’s actually well defined bc there’s no set theoretic issues
I am learn p completed K theory
(For example, if one tries to define algebraic closure the same way you’d run into problems)
Oof any tips
i only stumbled on the intersection of the empty family of sets for the first time last week and had a slight existential crisis
Okay so I mean E theory at ht 1
but might read up on CHT for context idk I imagine useful
Well lurie notes look hot
Personally I don’t recommend starting w luries notes
They are great for a second pass
But something like the orange book is probably better for an intro
Fair is there anything you'd recommend instead?
Ravenels orange book is really good
A little slow if you already know what spectra are but you can just skip
Is that nilpotence and periodicity
Yeah
You won’t learn all about like Morava E theories
But you’ll learn like, the big picture of CHT and you’ll be much better prepared to go further
Don’t allow r=0, or you get discrete topology
If you allow positive real r or positive integer r, they do generate the same topology
But this is tricky. Normally you don’t want to allow arbitrary generation. Normally you say look at a basis. The topology generated by a basis is intuitive. If they don’t form a basis, the topology they generate may get out of hand and be surprising, as in this case
(I was assuming X was the real numbers. If it’s a small circle, the open set for r=1 is the whole set and the topology is boring)
I’d also recommend reading the original Nilpotence II paper
Nilpotence I is also good but very technical
hmm ok i don't understand this, but i really don't know what i'm talking about either, i'll come back when i've worked through some chapters of my book

There's a thing called a subbasis
If B(a;0) the ball of radius 0 around a is open, then this set is just {a}
As a result, for every point in the space, the set containing just that point is open
Where instead of taking arbitrary unions you can also take finite intersections
Since open sets are closed under union, you get that every subset is open
Usually this is what is meant by a family of sets generating a topology
ohhh right, as i was writing i thought fsr that B(x,0) = ø
Ah yeah
which is obviously not the case
Nah
but yeah we'd still have the same problem
I was thinking about two things at the time, and apparently it was not a good idea. One was a chart induces a metric on the surface, and we might have different charts for same region, but topology should be the same. The other was multiple topologies on R^2, like half-plane topology.
Definitely not a good idea
Oh, yeah, you’re right.
Right, we’re talking about open balls. The open zero ball is empty
i havent spent a lot of time with it though. its the original atiyah proof
is this direction right? i tried to follow Lee's proof for the finite case (bottom of second image)
(also lee’s proof has wrong notation, in his errata he says the k’s should be replaced with n’s)
yes
Is it valid to claim that
"A topological space X is said to be connected if for all open subsets A in X, the set X\A is not open."?
(in effect I've tried to take the opposite of the definition of disconnected-ness)
indiscrete topology
maybe proper nontrivial
shoot you're right
Well
Rather, take the discrete topology
But yh it falls apart fairly easily
no, indiscrete is correct
discrete is every subset is open
indiscrete is only the space and the empty set are open
any indiscrete topology is connected but the condition you wrote does not hold
Okay, but in the discrete sense, my proposed definition would make any top.space not connected
Which isn't correct
what is "in the discrete sense"?
yes
by the usual definition
Oh right
Because if you could disconnect it, into say U and V, then either U or V is empty, contradiction, thus the space is connected
igu
you sort of just repeated the definition of connectedness
but yeah the argument is essentially trivial
once you fix that, i think the statement should work
"fix it" how
the only sets that are both open and closed are X and {}
Not to be pedantic but you should exclude the empty set and X
Oh someone already said it
ok so if i understand it correctly, stone-cech compactification is the closure of the image of the function which maps from the ambient space to the set of continuous functions on [0,1]
but why exactly do we care about it
"set of continuous functions on [0,1]" is the wrong way to put it
but yk what im saying
more like function from the set of continuous functions to [0,1]
like sure it's got some cool properties like [0,1]^C is compact, its a functor on completely regular spaces, etc
i think it also has a universal property
i forget precisely
a bounded real value map on a completely regular map can be extended to a map from its s-c compactification to the reals
so the importance of the s-c compactification comes from the fact that any compactification can be factored via a s-c compactification map?
because of the universal property?
yeah
gotcha
it's also a bit of a headache to think about
a mapping from a space to a set of functions from a set of functions to [0,1]
😵💫
honestly this is a good example of the difference between concept and model
somehow I think the intuition from s-c doesn't come from the specific model you've been given
and it might be more helpful to think about it in terms of this universal property
i dont have a model unfortunately, just the construction and some properties
thats what i mean by model sorry
oh gotcha
like, there are plenty of ways to build a space homeomorphic to that model of stone cech i think
but the real intuition comes from sort of working with them
rather than thinking about it using this one specific lens
yeah if X is completely regular, its stone-cech is compact hausdorff and there's an embedding from X to beta(X)
so that's kinda nice i suppose
unfortunately it looks like bredon doesnt use stone cech in the book, just includes it as a sort of fun fact
yeah it doesn't come up a lot in AT
looks like it comes up much more in analysis
it's interesting but i don't think i'm gonna do the stone cech exercises here (like proving universal property and whatnot)
good to know for now i suppose
probably review the rest of chapter 1 (i.e., paracompact, quotient, homotopy, top groups, baire category theorem)
then start on chapter 2 (differentiable manifolds)
i sparsely read chapter 1 throughout the last 2 months so im just going through and reviewing it all
the real question is what's next for you maxj
hmm?
oh i got very active again
I am currently doing a deep dive into the Burklund-Hahn-Senger paper Galois Reconstruction of Real Artin Tate motives
i think thats the name anyway
oh wow yeah man i love that stuff (the only word i know in there is galois)
abstract looks interesting
i am really looking forward to delving deeper into category theory sooner or later
Speaking of Stone Cech
I am back asking the same question I asked a couple days ago (got stuck and only now coming back)
ok so I'm familiar with universal property of this compactification
however I'm not sure how to construct what beta(f) would be
I think you just use the universal property, unless you are asking for an explicit construction?
yea explicit if possible
you'd need to pick a model for it then
I was about to say I can argue existance using universal property
wdym pick a model
like, how do you construct the s-c compactification
oh
tada
from my notes (but from Bredon rly)
yea so I have this and I'm not sure how to use this to get something explicit
bredon!
⭐ indeed ⭐ (I'm dying)
okay honestly i am a bit not sober tired
wish that were me
but
all g
My suggestion would be
try to figure out what the map X->beta(X) is
should be a "literally only thing you can do" type situation
and then define beta(f) to be f on the image of X and then find some clever way to extend this to the rest
bredon gives an explicit X -> beta(X) map in thm 11.10
ah yeah then i would just look at the lemmas in the chapter
yea I gave said map here
Oh duh
Hm
I think the idea should be that for every point in the closure
you define betaf(x) to be the limit of a sequence approaching x
tried looking elsewhere in chapter + in the lemmas used in the proof that the definition is well defined but no luck
like every point in the closure is the limit of points in the image of X
oh
and you want to show the choice doesn't matter i think
as in choice of sequence?
like i recall that the s-c compactification as some description as a space of formal limits
yeah exactly
this probably combines the concrete construction as well as regularity
that has the same flavor as the proof that the map X -> beta(X) is an embedding
so probably right track
I'll try it
this class is gonna kill me next sem
ping me if u solve it
im curious but need to sleep
section 2 looks promising
tho it uses filters and ultrafilters
X is completely regular, so it has a s-c compactification i_X : X -> βX
by universal property, f : X -> Y extends uniquely to f’ : βX -> Y
but Y is also completely regular so it also has a s-c compactification i_Y : Y -> βY
so the composition X -> βX -> Y -> βY gives the desired result?
uniqueness of the diagram follows from uniqueness of universal property
so ig let βf = i_Y \circ f’?
smth like this
im in bed so im too lazy to tex it out
even if it’s wrong it makes a ton of sense in my head and that’s enough to get me to go to sleep
I need help understanding the following claim from this video: The guy on the video claims that using the property of covering spaces we can map a sufficiently small neighbourhood of y_0 into an evenly covered set U
I don't understand how he claims that
look up the lebesgue number lemma
you cover X by a collection of open sets evenly covered by the covering map, and then pull it back by F
then finitely refine it by compactness of K x I
then you can choose however fine a covering you need
Oh Y
Y isn't given to be compact though
And does the Lebesgue number lemma require metric spaces
Oh ok lol
You can also take the image of y_0, find an evenly covered neighbourhood U of that, and then the preimage of U is an open neighbourhood of y_0 that maps into an evenly covered nbhd
Yeah I thought the same, but he was like "we're constructing a function" and didn't write F there so I thought what was it
More like (\pi_1(y_0), 0) xD
The function being constructed is probably F tilde
What is the last one. I've never heard of "anime" in the context of topology
Oh they misspelled anima
From condensed math
ahaha
anime is the new big math thing
you aren't upto date
I went to a homotopy theory conference and was chatting with the speakers and one of them asked what I did over the weekend there and I said I played Minecraft and they got very interested
They were all very puzzled that I play Minecraft at my age and what it is all about 
great convo
Spent 30 mins answering their questions about the game
they should get into it
would vibe well with the subject
or a better use of their time
one of the two
should have said you watched anime during the weekend
Why would I lie
Bruh one of them got worried because she said that her son plays Minecraft and she was expecting that he'll grow out of it soon but now that she's heard that I "still play Minecraft??!!" she lost all hope
No clue what you're on about
Minecraft ain't that bad tbh
Lol
hmm ok so i had a look at previous exams in my uni's topology course and it looks weirdly... easy?
can someone check this when they get a chance :)
this is original problem
only Stone can Cech this
To apply universal property of s-c compactification the codomain of your function must be compact Hausdorff
Y may not be compact, so instead you first compose f:X to Y with i_Y:Y to betaY and then apply the universal property.
Ye
i wonder if minecraft would be a good tool for visualizing topology
Good luck visualising ℝP² in Minecraft
i can barely visualize it in my head
Hey! I'm taking two (smooth, closed, connected, and hell, oriented even) surfaces S and S' in a (smooth, closed, connected and oriented) 4-manifold X, whose intersection form I denote as Q. I let n=Q(S,S'). Does the fact that there are two ambiant isotopic copies F~S and F'~S' such that F intersects F' in exactly |n| points have a name?
I guess I was hoping for something more constructive/ explicit than "apply universal property" since I had a explicit definition for way the S-C compactification is done. I might just be being overly pedantic
oh gotcha
Because I also like playing a bit, you could do it actually using command blocks. Remember that RP² is nothing but a disc with antipodal boundary points identified in pairs. Now, take two copies of a square (one is the mirror of the other), and when you reach the edge of the first, teleport to the edge of the second
Said exact definition but again I'm being overly pedantic probably lol
Nah nah you're fine
That’s not true, right? Do you mean a name for pairs that satisfy this?
(It’s not true for two reasons. One is dimension 4. The other is fundamental group)
Uhm I guess I can ask that X is simply-connected
Is it really not true? I thought I read that somewhere a while ago...
It's asking about cancelling pairs of intersections with opposite signs, and I assume if X is simply-connected that's always feasible?
Here comes the nerd jesus christ
jk lol
Idk if I would call that visualisation
Yeah well, it won't embed in 3-space so that's about as good as it gets if you don't want this weird immersion (that I never understood really xD)
Oh yeah that immersion
I guess I would consider that visualisation because you can see the entire space from a third person pov
as opposed to the earlier thing that you suggested
I have never seen that immersion drawn though
Try plotting an algebraic curve on both, and you'll see that the disk one is very good 🙂
This is not even true in 2D
hmm
You mean for curves on surfaces?
Yes
Why should that be important
Oh and also, surfaces with genus are not 1-connected!




