#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 42 of 1
not every nbhd, there exists a nbhd
yea otherwise a local homeomorphism would just be a homeomorphism (onto the image) haha
yea
ig revised would be smth like
since X is locally n-Euclidian, for all x in X, there exists nbhd U_x ≈ open ball of R^n
and then rest of the proof as above?
You still need to consider that your U_x is perhaps not a neighborhood for which f is a homeomorphism
aw shid
why is U \cap V_\alpha nonempty for some alpha and how does p restricted to this V_\alpha being a homeomorphism make p(U \cap V_\alpha) open in B?
b is in p(U). U_b contains b. Thus, the pre-image of U_b must have some intersection with U. The preimage of U_b is composed of disjoint union V_alpha, so at least one of these must intersect with U
Intersection of open sets are open, homeomorphisms are open maps
so just to make sure im understanding, lets say e \in U and p(e)=b. Since b is in U_b, then the preimage of U_b must contain e, so p^{-1}(U_b) intersects U at e?
Correct
I don't think this proof is quite complete though.
4.5/5 stars. Said "NTS p(U) open," yet never concluded p(U) is open
We're on pedantic mode now though
well b contained in p(U \cap V_\alpha) contained in p(U) shows that right
since b was an arbitrary element of p(U) and p(U \cap V_\alpha) is open
so it shows every element in p(U) has an open neighborhood contained in p(U)
Yep
would i consider the product topology of two spaces of continuous functions?
something like f_1 in F_1 and f_2 in F_2, then f_1+f_2 is a mapping F_1 x F_2 -> F?
where i guess F is the space of cts functions X -> R
No. In General the set of functions X -> R does not carry a natural topology (for bad spaces X)
ah
would i consider the product f#g: A -> R x R via (f1 # f2)(x) = (f1(x), f2(x))?
and then R x R -> R via f1(x) + f2(x) or f1(x)f2(x)
Yes!
ty :)
So we have $U \cap V_\alpha$ is open in $E$\
But the homeomorphism $p|{V\alpha}$ sends open sets in $V_\alpha$ to open sets in $U_b$\
but $U \cap V_\alpha $ isnt necessarily open in $V_\alpha $ so how can we say $p|{V\alpha}(U \cap V_\alpha)$ is open in $U_b$, let alone $B$?
michαel
hey, im not sure if i have the right understand because i think all of them should work unless im incorrect?
since open discs are a basis, and we can say that every point has an open disc centered around this point, we can have a square, rectangle, triangle, whatever else, that contains this centre?
which would also make them a basis
but to have them all be a basis seems a bit wrong, at least given the nature of the question
yes they all are basis
alright alright thank you
In a book on Riemann Surfaces I'm reading the author constructs a covering space from a presheaf over a space by taking the disjoint union of all stalks and then inducing the topology from subsets of the form [U,f], (where U open in X and f a section) containing all germs of f in u, for u in U.
Then, the author goes on to proof that for X a Riemann Surface and the sheaf of holomorphic functions, this is a Hausdorff covering space.
I haven't been able to find this construction elsewhere so far. Does someone here recognize this? Thanks in advance. 😊
Whats a good introduction to minimal models
My end goal is to be able to go through sullivans thing on infintesimal computations in topology
Im good with twisted (co)homology
It’s called the espace étalé
Oh, so those notions coincide? I've heard about étalé, but read somewhere it's not T2 so suspected it's a different space.
For holomorphic functions it’s Hausdorff because they are determined by their germ. But for the skyscraper sheaf it isn’t. Nor for the sheaf of smooth functions
It’s not a covering space. It’s always a local homeomorphism, but a function that doesn’t extend globally (which is all non constant holomorphic functions) shows that it isn’t a cover
Oh yeah, it shouldn't be covering space, but complex analysis has a slightly relaxed notion of covering it seems.
Thank you kindly, that clears up my confusion! 
It is. Subspace topology for first question and both V and U_b are themselves open so openness in the subspaces is equivalent to openness in the bigger space (assuming the set is a subset of the smaller space) for second
Wait Van Kampen's theorem is just that the fundamental group(oid) is the pushout
neat
The Hawaiian earrings are homeo to the wedge of two copies. But not uniquely. Is it a universal property? Are they somehow a universal space with a map from the circle and a homeo to the self wedge? Is the fundamental group a universal group with a generator and an iso to the free square?
does “prove directly from definition” just mean to construct an explicit quotient map, like (cos 2πx, sin 2πx)?
Okay this is Lee right so if I'm remembering correctly how he does it, the point is like
I think they mean construct an explicit homeomorphism?
yea
Okay, you can just write down the map I -> S^1 you wrote and show it induces a continuous bijection I/~ -> S^1
ah kk
But showing it's a quotient map is tedious without using the extra technology Lee develops later
Namely, I don't think he's mentioned compactness at this point (?)
Yeah so the easiest way to show that the map I/~ -> S^1 is a homeomorphism is that uh
Well, spoiler alert lol but any continuous map I/~ -> S^1 is a closed map, so if it's bijective it's a homeo
As you'll see later on
:)
closed map lemma?
showing bijection isn't too hard (I think)
The part part is showing that the map is open I'd say
Yes lol
ive read through a few chapters lol im just going back and making sure i understand it all
That's what I'm saying basically lol
kk ty
Noice
i just wanna get to diff top 🤬🤬🤬
its like how real analysis is the prereq for everything cool
gen top is prereq for everything cool
Good medicine tastes bad, you know
theres a similar question, which is like “X is hausdorff iff the diagonal, {(x, x)}, is closed”
does it suffice to just take q: X -> X to be the identity map?
under the equivalence relation x1 ~ x2 iff x1 = x2
then q(x1) = q(x2) iff x1 = x2
Well, that is a special case sure
When you learn some thing and start to understand it better then you rearrange things in your mind and restructure them.
Intuition grows and develops. Perhaps it is better to say that topology will force you to grow and develop your intuition
(than to say topology is unintuitive)
I do feel like the subject gets considerably more digestible as soon as you add in some algebraic or differential structure
it doesn't, it just allows you to brush your weak understanding of the fundamentals under the rug since there is more structure
haha this is so true my intro topology class was like 60% point set and 40% algebraic and once we got to the algebraic part i did exactly that
Black boxing is a time honored tradition among mathematicians
Why is there no local homeomorphism from S2 to the plane?
I guess from one of the theorems on maps S2 to the plane one can show local injectivity fails?
i don't think i have ever seen a super reaction get so many stacks
local homeomorphism is an open map, can you get some contradiction from this?
Oh, image of S2 is compact as cont. image of a compact space, so bounded and closed by Heine-Borel, so not open in the plane per connectedness, but S2 open in itself?
yeah
Eh I was gonna say like calling it Heine Borel feels odd when compact subspaces of Hausdorff spaces are always closed
But like nothing wrong w just saying Heine Borel especially if we are mostly concerned w subspaces of R^n here or metric spaces
Lol
Hence the deletion
yeah it's not the most straight forward way to argue but whatever works works
I agree, the argument with closed in Hausdorff is more precise, as it's exactly the property that matters here. Thanks for the comment. 😇
i prefer to call it abstraction
when we say "identify X with q(X)", does that just mean X ~ q(X)?
context?
i hate this new discord thing where i have to open each image to see what's in them lol
i miss when they were just stacked
and q : X \amalg Y \to X U_f Y is associated quotient map
agreed
on one hand it's nicer because it doesn't take as much space for a message w/ 4 images
but it's annoying
"identify X with q(X)" means you don't make a distinction between X and q(X), you pretend they're the same
like if you write x you're thinking of x in X and q(x) in q(X) at the same time
ah gotcha
is this proof sufficient?
i took some ideas from here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/183319/showing-the-adjunction-space-d2-cup-f-d2-is-homeomorphic-to-s2
I don't think q is open
Ah yes, you claim the iota are open. They aren't - in particular their images aren't open
@trail charm
Try showing q is closed - generally this is easier (why?)
tbh im stuck on this
There is a general lemma for showing maps are closed
closed map lemma: since B^2_a \amalg B^2_b is compact and S^2 is hausdorff, q is continuous implies q is closed?
this feels a bit overkill (if it's even correct), considering this is in a later chapter
Yes and in practice this is certainly how I'd do it
But hm is there a more nice / elementary way uh
So in this case it's actually possible to just create an inverse lol
and show it's continuous
Another (slightly fancier) way would be to show that S^2 actually satisfies the same universal property as that adjunction space but that's basically the same proof
ah yeah i was thinking about finding an inverse but tbh this isnt an exercise, more of an example in lee's itm in the adjunction spaces chapter
and it's more of the form "you can verify this is a homemorphism using techniques from the previous section" i.e., the quotient space section
oh well i suppose this will suffice for now, i will think about it another day maybe
ty
Sure
But yes in terms of satisfying the universal property, hopefully it is clear why like
the datum of a map S^2 -> X is the same as the data of maps S^2_+ and S^2_- compatible on their intersection
wdym compatible?
Well tbh just mean agreeing here lol
ah
yeah that makes sense to me
kinda gross how lee calls them characteristic properties instead of universal but oh well
dont sully me >:( universal sounds cooler
I think the way he presents them is slightly different to universal properties but it's been a while hm
Idk been too long
Actually I may be wrong lol dw
Carried over from help channels
Here is an example of a T6 space which is not metrizable: https://topology.pi-base.org/spaces/S000043/properties
In fact, all of these are also examples of such: https://topology.pi-base.org/theorems/T000268
Thank you very much for the links
Holy shit this is the lower limit Topology
This is what my project instructor gave as an example of an non-metrizable Topology but I never knew it was T_6
Looking for some help: Let $f: M \to N$ be so that if $U \subset M$ is open then $f(U)$ is open. Is $f$ continuous?
you mean "f(U) is open"?
Yeah my bad
No
Ultimate Chad
I figured... what does the counterexample look like?
there are many
one is the angle function on the whole circle
as a map from S^1 to [0, 2π)
more boring examples can be constructed by taking maps into discrete spaces
e.g. the floor or ceiling functions from R to Z
Just to check my understanding, are the open sets in S^1 just arcs (and unions of arcs)
Yea
Take any bijective continuous map which isn't a homeo and consider its inverse
So some boring examples will be like, take a set X and equip with topologies τ and τ' with τ' strictly containing τ
Then consider the "identity" (X,τ) -> (X,τ')
almost all open mappings are not continuous (probably)
this problem asks to prove that any pairwise disjoint set of open intervals on R is countable
we can do this by showing that each interval contains at least one rational number and the rationals are countable
does this require the axiom of choice?
Just countable choice
@spice basalt which is also necessary to prove, eg, that the countable Union of countable sets is countable
No, the rationals can be well ordered without choice. Thus every open set contains a canonical rational, the simplest rational in it
ah ok that makes sense. thank you!
are there phantom maps between eilenberg-maclane spectra
(I don't know anything about phantom maps so maybe this is a naive question)
but I guess can I treat maps between eilenberg maclane spectra as just some families of cohomology operations?
if the answer is yes what if I restict to only field
and if that is also yes, what about the case for F_2
The reason I asked is because I read something that says the steenrod algebra can be viewed as the homotopy endomorphisms of $H\mathbb{F}_2$. But does that mean there are no phantom maps between $H\mathbb{F}_2$ and itself?
bigradedSphere
Is there any way to describe which neighborhood of x it's talking about in that second paragraph?
Because obviously not every neighborhood works (like take just the whole space X for example)
@thorny agate if φ: [0, 1] -> [0, 1] is the map described in the second paragraph, then φ o f is zero on f^{-1}([0, 1/2))
my professor defined the projective resolution of a chain complex C as a quasi-isomorphism P -> C where P is a projective chain complex, and he then went on to define Tor between two chain complexes C and D as H_*(P \otimes D) where P -> C is a projective resolution (or equivalently H_*(C \otimes Q) where Q -> D is a projective resolution)
does anyone know any reference that defines things this way? i've only seen projective resolutions/Tor of modules being defined, but these definitions completely generalize that
like one interesting consequence is that the universal coefficient theorem is stated as H_*(C; R) = Tor(H_*(C), R) for a projective chain complex C. The proof of this is to view H_*(C) as a chain complex (whose differential is 0) and show that C -> H_*(C) is a quasi-isomorphism, hence a projective resolution. Then H_*(C; R) = H_*(C \otimes R) = Tor(H_*(C), R) is true by definition
and this agrees with the usual universal coefficient theorem (I think at least) if you break down what Tor(H_*(C), R) means in terms of Tor's between modules
but i think you lose naturality since Tor(H_*(C), R) involves a direct sum which comes from splitting the usual universal coefficient theorem
anyway would love if someone knew a reference that did things this way since it seems quite clean
Probably look at Gelfand-Manin, it has a chapter on derived categories so should cover this
A more modern approach is using homotopy theory. You could look at the first couple chapters of Riehl's categorical homotopy theory for that, though she gives more topological motivation
There should be some more homological resources but I haven't read any
Actually Gelfand-Manin does later talk about the homotopy theory and triangulated categories, so should be fine. I just found it difficult to read
@winged viper


seeing you after a lot of time
btw what would be an example of a module which is locally finitely generated but globally not?
So excited to see me that you posted in the wrong channel 
Is that even possible though
Like if M is locally finitely generated, then for each p, there is a surjection (R_p)^n → M_p for some n, which lift to a map R^n → M. The direct sum over p of all of these lifts should be a surjection because it is locally a surjection
Does this not work?
I might be misinterpreting "locally finitely generated"
oh lol it's topology
idk actually, some prof asked this question
but the n is Rⁿ_p may not be uniformly bounded right?
What does the K stand for in K(G,1)?
hmm these are also classifying space
so i imagine the K is from this in some appropiate language
Klassifizierend
The original reference is a paper by Eilenberg-MacLane (1945). They introduce the notation but do not explain it.

lol
They were studying homology groups, so maybe K was just the next letter in the alphabet that wasn't I or J
I was taken, btw
I the additive group of integers....
Lol
Wait seriously 
and no one changed the notation to something better!!!
Presumably lol
Eilenberg-MacLane "RELATIONS BETWEEN HOMOLOGY AND HOMOTOPY GROUPS OF SPACES" (1945)
Earliest reference I could find.
And they were both American 🤔
brb just gonna start calling them EM spaces
The universal cover of a connected graph is a tree
Is this just because every cover of a graph is a graph, and a simply connected graph has to be a tree?
yes
yes
Yeah
Actually I guess this makes sense because it can't have a hole in any dimension
Yeah you can think about it heuristically by like the homology/homotopy groups being pushed up into higher and higher dimensions
as n -> infty
Ofc that doesn't show contractibility at least without more
But yeah there's the cute proof with shifting lol
I hate infinity, glorified 8 symbol fr
Wow Hatcher sure does like to... use words he's never mentioned before
But it's okay because he tells us that later he'll define it in Example 2.43 🥲
It is not hard to construct an example using this notion DEFINED IN THE NEXT CHAPTER

Yeah but you have to work a little bit for it unless you use Whitehead's theorem.
This is the proof Hatcher gives
RP^inf 
Note that as opposed to finite dimensional euclidean space, linear maps need not be continuous in infinite dimensions. Hatcher is skipping some steps here.
ayOO @urban zinc did you become hatcherpilled
this reminds me of this ex: Can you show there is no spade X s.t. ℝ → X is a 2-fold covering
It needs to be bounded too right?
Lol idk what that means but I'm reading it
What 💀 is this about quasicoherent sheaves?
Thanks!
Ouch that is true
Rookie mistake
Can you just use the fact that such a space is a manifold and then the classification of 1-manifolds
too fancy
idk she randomly asked in class
Hmm somehow use the fact that the fundamental group must be Z/2?
already answered in #algebraic-geometry
ye
fancy way || X must be K(Z/2, 1) which is contradiction ||
Oh lol
this argument works for R^n -> X as well
“Too fancy”
yeah I admit it's a fancy way but there's an elementary way to do this
What’s that
Any action of C_2 on ℝ has a fixed point
what can you say about the ||deck transformation group||
Yeah, essentially. A linear operator between normed spaces is continuous if and only if it is bounded.
Ohhh okay that’s smart
this proof does not make sense to me
1: how is it clear that f is one-to-one?
2: why does showing that f is a closed map suffice for showing that f is a homeomorphism
- if x and y are distinct points, take C = {y} as in the statement of the lemma and you'll see that f(x) does not equal f(y)
- saying f is closed is the same as saying f^{-1} is continuous
Could someone help me understand "sequentially closed"? The definition I'm seeing is a bit confusing to me because I thought convergent sequence meant it had exactly one limit.
I'm trying to prove this but I'm struggling to understand the definitions of closure.
I'm taking a prelim exam in topology at the end of the summer but need to learn it from the ground up to get the necessary vocabulary.
so iirc limits are unique in a topological space iff that space is Hausdorff
metric spaces are Hausdorff, so limits in them are unique
So, I'm kinda a total topology noob
I'm pretty good with algebra and fairly familiar with analysis
but I've got next to no experience in topology.
I'm trying to build up a vocabulary with it so that I can work with the hypotheses directly.
since you have a metric space you don't have to worry about this but this generalization of sequences to nets is how you talk about topologies outside of metric spaces
So is sequentially closed just the same as the regular limit point definition of closure from real analysis?
I'm just not used to looking at things from a topological lens. This is a crash course intended for people who've taken the prelim sequence but I'm taking the exam at the end of the summer because my algebraic reasoning is really strong, but my topological vocabulary is laughable.
I took the algebra exam halfway through the course and passed it.
yea
Sounds good.
just in general topologies
And regular closed just means open complement?
you need Hausdorffness for unique limits
yes
(you should know what Hausdorff means, comes up alot)
and other types of spaces
as that's part of the topological vocabulary
Right. I would like to learn those things as thoroughly as possible given time constraints.
Varying definitions aside, a normed vector space is locally compact iff the closed unit ball (and hence all closed balls) is compact, right? IIRC this isn't true for general metric spaces, no?
Yes and no. There are two ways to define "closed" in good old real analysis, and they happen to be equivalent as long as we're talking about metric spaces. However, once you consider general topological spaces, they are not equivalent anymore, and then "sequentially closed" is explicit about which one you're using.
I mean the one that says the set contains all its limit points. Is that not the same as sequentially closed?
The other definition of closure meaning it has an open complement. Right? Or not right?
Oh right, that's a third definition. :-D
"Limit point" is itself a bit ambiguous in the same way (but the "sequential" version of that is used seldom enough that it's rare to see "sequential limit point").
You can either say:
"p is a limit point of A" means "there's a sequence of points in A that converges towards p"
or:
"p is a limit point of A" means "every open set that contains p also contains at least one point of A"
Isn't the second one more common (in general topology)
Yes, the second one is the commonly used one, but I'm suspecting the first might be what Amizar has internalized.
There are weird topological spaces where these concepts are not the same.
Anyone?
That's not true, for example, for an infinite discrete metric space where all nonzero distances are 1.
For general metric spaces I assumed they meant iff all closed balls are compact right since otherwise no good notion of the unit ball
Hm
(Discrete spaces are still locally compact, though).
Hmm. @median sand, could you clarify? I understood you as focusing on how you in a vector space can choose a single radius for all the balls you consider.
Clarify what? My question is about normed vector spaces specifically. The way I understand it there are multiple potentially non-compatible definitions of local compactness, but for normed vector spaces these all agree and come down to the closed unit ball being compact.
Wanted to check if that's true.
My 2nd, offhand, question was whether this (locally compact iff all closed balls compact) holds for general metric spaces (which it probably ought to, since a compact neighbourhood must contain a compact closed ball and a closed ball is a compact neighbourhood).
I'm not sure what this is a counterexample of.
It's a metric space which is locally compact, but where closed unit balls are not compact.
(It is locally compact because every point p has a compact neighborhood, namely {p}).
Oh right, since the entire space is a ball, my bad.
But this was correct, right? Your counterexample is not a normed vector space (a NVS can't be discrete, since 1=|2x|\neq2|x|=2).
I think it's true for normed vector spaces, but I'm not strong enough in functional analysis to rattle off a proof.
Does this need actual functional analysis though?
Whatever the definition of local compactness, it presupposes the existence of a compact neighbourhood, no?
This then contains a closed ball, which becomes compact, and all balls in an NVS are homeomorphic.
It's just the heading I file "weird facts about the topology of infinite-dimensonal vector spaces" under.
yes
I think I'm undervaluing the visual parts of topology especially with finding examples and such.
Like some of this stuff is visual but my notes have very few pictures / diagrams
Anyone have a good source which has these diagrams for topological things
where does this T_ notation come from?
like T1 spaces, T2, etc
the numbering seems arbitrary-ish (like I guess bigger number = more powerful guarantee)
T = trennungsaxiom (separation axiom)
T_n implies T_m for n>m
You might be need to be more specific, diagrams of what?
Also it might help you understand better if you draw your own diagrams
Topology is very visual but visual aids are also often deceptive
cool
I used to think T stands for Topology 
topologyaxiom
Tbf visual aids for topology can be funny imo lol
Like with common constructions just drawing ur space as essentially a disk lol e.g. when people draw suspension
most spaces are homeomorphic to disks, so it's fine
are separation axioms (eg T_1, T_2, T_4, etc.) still often used in papers and textbooks and whatnot?
yes
oh gotcha
i mean some have names. T2 is called Hausdorff and T4 is called normal. That's more common in my experience. T3 and T1 are less common.
you should memorize T2. the others you should pick up as you go. And Urysohn's lemma has as a corollary that all compact hausdorff spaces are T4. but you should just unfold that and learn "all compact hausdorff spaces are (definition of T4)" rather than memorizing T4
there's even a T3.5 axiom that comes up when discussing the stone cech compactification lol
tbh it's not that hard to memorize T0, T1, T2, T3, T4; they're mostly the same
and the numbering system is actually pretty logical
they're all just about separating things from each other topologically
T0 – If you give me any two points, is there an open set containing one but not the other? (In other words, can I tell them apart topologically at all?)
T1 – If you give me any two points, is there an open set containing the first one but not the second one? (This is equivalent to singleton sets being closed)
T2 (Hausdorff) – If you give me any two points, can I draw non-overlapping neighborhoods around them?
T3 – If you give me a point and a closed set, can I draw non-overlapping neighborhoods around them? (Usually also required to be T1 so that single points are closed sets)
T4 – If you give me any two closed sets, can I draw non-overlapping neighborhoods around them? (Usually also required to be T1 so that single points are closed sets)
They're all things you should be aware are able to go wrong in topological spaces
Also yeah, Hausdorff is important
I thought you were joking but Wikipedia actually lists that as another name for T3½ wtf
Then there is R0 and R1, but I never saw those used for anything.

you're close
Teeth hurty???

I finally know what singular and simplicial homology are 🥺
This is neat
Question about two spaces being locally homeomorphic. Do you need a function f:X->Y that is a local homeomorphism, or can you have different functions for each point and its corresponding neighborhood that are homeomorphisms?
Okay good! I was hoping so!
But then locally homeomorphic spaces may not have a local homeomorphism between them 
Yep, I'm 100% with ya. As an example, I believe there is no local homeomorphism between R and S1, but they are certianly locally homeomorphic
Oh really? I didn't realize that
Oh yeah, you can just wrap it around infinitely many times
Just the typical map (cos(theta), sin(theta)) does the trick I think
If you really think about it alg-top is really really really weird
I haven't thought of coverings in so long, so if I said something silly, let me know
i don't know about the advanced topics, but the introductory ones focus too much on computing holes
no that's pretty much it
isn't this too much restrictive? why do i feel like holes and bordism isn't everything?
Okay rad. Thanks Timo.
It turns out once you start trying to compute (higher dim) holes you have to understand a whole lot about your space so you’re led to a lot more concepts
Also there’s like shape theory in pure topology land or <waves hands at anything at all geometric> when you’re dealing with manifolds
Omg if I finish reading this section I can finally prove invariance of domain
Very nice
can you show there's no continuous bijection from R → R² || without using invariance of domain?||
corrected
btw it's not something I need help with, just ex for the readers
hint: baire category theorem
shh
Lies
call her peano the way she curve until i fill her space
why the fuck did that super react
Lmao
no please stop

Turns out T_7 to T_23 are all equivalent via a Urysohn like argument and T_24 onwards is just discrete
T_23.5
That is totally disconnected to this discussion
do those actually exist
do you care

idk if they do I am sure someone's made some stupid definitions past T_6
you definitely did 🧙♂️
let (X, A) and (Y, B) be two topological pairs. define their product by
(X x Y, X x B \cup A x Y)
- does this monoidal product have interesting categorical properties (a universal property)
- if both inclusions are cofibrations is their product a cofibration?
- are there other model categories where something similar holds?
If X is Hausdorff, how does 2''=>3?
use this (source willard)
mood
you in the wrong nhood nword

how does one show that this map is continuous
the claim here is that X is contractible if it has a generic point
the problem here that i have is that if you consider the preimage of an open subset in X, you either get U x {0} if \eta does not contain U and otherwise, X x (0,1] \cup U x {0}
unless i made a mistake
and U x {0} doesn't necessarily have to be open (?)
or is there another way to define a homotopy
Consider preimages of closed sets instead
ugh, i was gonna do that and decided not to
okay, wait
but hmm
you will get C x (0,1]
no?
similar problem
Hm no
If it contains eta, then it is X
So preimage is X x I
And if it doesn't contain eta...
generic
yes
okay, just to make sure
Yes
sry for butting in potato
also, another question
we don't have an explicit representation for the induced maps, right
Not sure what you mean
like
Like we have the definition lol
how does pi_0(f) look like
Sk like what is the definition
tbh, we didn't rlly have a definition for the map itself
Sends path component of x to path component of f(x)
Np
Is this true? On a open and bounded subset of ℝⁿ, functions that vanish near the boundary are compactly supported.
Specifically. Claim: $Ω ⊂ ℝⁿ$, $Ω$ is open and bounded. Let $𝑓: Ω → ℝ$ be such that $∃ε > 0. ∀𝑥∈ Ω. d(𝑥, \partial Ω) < ε ⇒ 𝑓=(0)$, then $𝑓$ is compactly supported.
where
$$d(𝑥, \partial Ω) := \inf_{y∈\partial Ω} |𝑥-𝑦| $$
and
$f$ is compactly supported when $\operatorname{cl}_Ω{x∈Ω| 𝑓(𝑥) ≠ 0}$ is compact.
Where’s the bijection then
Mattuwu
I mean you get that the support is closed and being subset of Omega itself, it’s bounded so compact
the support is closed in Ω, and it's not necessarily closed in ℝⁿ
yep, "support" is defined by taking the closure in Ω as a topological space of the set-theoretic support. For example, Let Ω := (-1, 1) the restricted bump function 𝑓: Ω→ℝ, 𝑥 ↦ exp((x²-1)⁻¹) has a closed support (-1, 1), which is not closed in ℝ, and is thus not compact.
You can, say take eps/2 and make the support sit inside a closed subset of omega
*closed subset of R^n
Let’s see if it’s possible to write a proof
look at the set Γ:={ x ∈ Rⁿ| d( ∂ Ω, x) ≥ ϵ/2 } then it's closed subset of Rⁿ and your support sits inside this closes set
so your suppf is closed subset of Rⁿ which is bounded so compact @cursive tendon
she curved so much she crashed into herself
right...it's 𝑑⁻¹([𝜀/2, 𝑀]), where 𝑀 is the maximum distance, now because 𝑑(əΩ, -) is continuous, the inverse of a closed set is closed and thus it's compact
why, isn't [𝜀/2, ∞) no longer closed?
sorry I edited, it's no longer closed
uwu
I see that the typical woke media has been characteristically silent on the hard questions i'm asking
1.) This product is a kind of pushout so I suppose it does have a universal property, but I don't know anything deeper than the obvious one.
2-3.) In a cofibrantly generated model category it suffices to check this on generating cofibrations. So on simplicial sets whether or not the product operation preserves the cofibration property can be checked for the inclusion of S^{n-1} \to D^n on, say sSet or compactly generated hausdorff spaces. There it's easy to see that the answer is yes
in Top with whatever model category structure you want to put on it (say the Strom one) I think the answer is no.
yeah ok. i'm interested in a different model structure on simplicial sets so i'm just trying to get a grasp of when this fails and why it's true in certain places.
Top satisfies that if (X,A) is a cofibration and Y is a space then (X x Y, A x Y) is a cofibration. https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/381527/the-product-of-a-cofibration-with-an-identity-map-is-a-cofibration
That's pretty interesting. I wonder how general that is
This is helpful
"This axiom is exactly what's needed to make sure that the monoidal structure on the point-set level descends to a monoidal structure on the homotopy category (more generally that the monoidal structure on a model category descends to a well-defined monoidal structure on the homotopy category)."
Huh
It's a closed monoidal product so that's one universal property
Hom((X, A), (Y, B)) = (all maps of pairs, Hom(X, B))
Seems to work
Surprisingly (at least to me st the time) it is generally not enough at all to require the monoid axiom when you want to have a right induced model structure on categories of commutative algebras, i.e with underlying weak eqv and fibrations. The problem is that symmetric powers are generally not homotopically well behaved. In spectra this is usually circumvented by replacing your model structure with a „positive“ version of it, where in degree 0 you require cofibs to be isos. Magically this turns out to make symmetric powers work well, and you get all the nice model structures you want
would i be correct in saying that if some T1 is a basis and it is homeomorphic to some T2 then T2 must also be a basis?
given that T1 and T2 are on the same set
sorry here you're treating the bases T1 and T2 as subspaces?
Great. cool. had not thought of that.
do you mean the subspace of maps carrying A into B
Nope
Wait for the big space?
I'm wondering if you meant
(All maps from X to Y, all maps X to Y carrying A into B)
i guess not but like
it's surprising that A does not come up
that's why I'm asking
The subspace is correct
The big space might need to be maps that take A into B
Subspace is maps that take all of X into B
Ye I thought about it a little and you want the mapping space to be space of maps of pairs and subspace to be that
And the subspace should be too surprising because of analogy with pointed spaces
There you want the basepoint to be the map that maps all of X to the basepoint
Rather than just the basepoint
This tensor hom adjunction is probably just a restatement of the universal property you'd get from this being a pushout as the e-girl mentioned
yeah i guess in retrospect the universal property doesn't matter. i was trying to understanding why it was important and whether there were common reoccurrences of this in other model catd
It takes boundaries to boundaries
Like (I^n, ∂I^n) × (I^m, ∂I^m) = (I^(m+n), ∂I^(m+n))
And often we work with pairs where the subspace is the boundary
It also generalizes the smash product if you take the functor (X, A) ↦ X with the class of A as the basepoint
As in this functor becomes monoidal
From the category of pairs to Top_*
yeah. that's a good observation
How important is Baire category stuff?
only asking since it came up in a proof (I was trying to find examples of products of normal spaces that aren't normal)
and I couldn't follow it and it used Baire and I've never run into it before
@thorny agate for abstract point set it is often very useful. It’s a good statement to spend a day or two seriously trying to understand it’s consequences, but maybe not too much more than that
Shows up in a lot of weird places e.g. p-adic geometry/analysis, theory of toplological vector spaces, etc.
hmmmmm
ok I'm not gonna look into it unless it comes up again
ok second question
What's a good example of a space which is the product of normal spaces but itself is not normal
OTHER than the Sorgenfrey square
why exclude that one
is there a proof that doesn't require Baire category stuff
only because I want to focus on learning more fundamental topology stuff (don't really have alot of time to do topology hence wanna focus on the essentials)
or maybe I'll just leave that as a todo in my notes
baire category is a super powerful theorem
a lot of things I've seen proven with it I think you have to use Baire
well, pretty much any other topology book should, like munkres has it I believe
willard obviously does
lee ITM
I'll add it to the ever expanding list of TODOs in my notes
you'll be forced to learn it if you ever wanna do functional analysis
something something meager
Are you having difficulty with the statement or the proof?
Or the applications
Or did you just see the word category and run
None of the above
I saw the statement used in a different proof and was wondering if it would be worth the time to learn it
And I guess it is
Let f: M -> R be a morse function on R and take a critical point x of f and a morse chart U about x in which f locally looks like f(x) + Q(x). write x = (x-, x+) where x- and x+ are the components in the negative definite and positive definite parts of Q on f
This is the appropriate response
appropriate image
Why does it have category in its name actually
Can anyone pin down why that's true?
What's the boundary and interior of a 0-simplex? Math SE suggest that the boundary is empty and the interior is just the point, but is this standard?
Well that's true topologically and I guess necessary for it to be true that every simplicial complex is (as a set) a disjoint union of insides of simplices
Wait why is it true topologically? The standard 0-simplex is a point in R right? So I feel like topologically the boundary should be the point and the interior should be empty
I get the second thing you said (it was one of the reasons I asked originally)
A simplex is a manifold with boundary. The zero simplex has empty boundary
Okay sorry yes as a subset of R sure
But aren't the interiors etc defined such that they match up with how they look lol e.g. 1-simplex has boundary/interior corresponding to it being [0,1] in R
Category appears here as the English word. Certain spaces are called "first category" or "second category" (if I recall correctly a second category set is one which is not a countable union of nowhere dense subsets) and Baire's theorem is a theorem about these (eg it says that complete metric spaces are second category)
Ye looked it up, first category sets are meager, second category the non-meager. We have better terms for these now so they see less use I suppose
Reading an intriguing blog post about cohomology at https://grossack.site/2021/03/01/cohomology-intuitively.html, but I'm left wondering what on earth is meant by contradicting the intermediate value theorem when we are on a complex plane?
True, but the name still slaps so...
In the case for √i, consider the small circular arc connecting 1 to i centred at the origin. If Re √i < 0, then Re √z = 0 for some z on this path by the intermediate value theorem, but then z = √z² must be real which is a contradiction.
Is category in baire category theorem related to category of category theory?
no
Baire sorted sets into two categories
the first category are today called meager sets
and the second category are non meager sets
(note this was long before the term category was a thing in math)
I see
Let's change it, someone make a ncatlab page about the very boring corresponding subcategories of the category of subsets of some top space and call it the first and second baire category associated to the top space /s
This is a bit late but for $\partial_+ U$, observe that this set is equivalent to $U(\epsilon, \eta) \cap {Q(x) = \epsilon}$.
Since $Q(x) = \epsilon$, we can write $$\epsilon = -||x_-||^2 + ||x_+||^2$$, then substituting it in place of $||x_+||^2$ in the inequality $$||x_-||^2 ||x_+||^2 \leq \eta(\epsilon + \eta)$$, which turns out to be equivalent to the inequality $||x_-||^2 \leq \eta$
ScarletScorch
Just read the picture lol
In general, you can think of the 3 components of the boundary of U(e, \eta) as each maximizing / minimizing one component of U(e, \eta)
Recall that U(e, \eta) is defined using $$U(\epsilon, \eta) = {x \in \R^n | -e < Q(x) < e, |x_-| |x_+| \leq \eta(e + \eta) }$$
ScarletScorch
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
There are 3 inequalities here, and the equality at one of them corresponds to one of the boundary components
You can think of $\partial_+ U$ and $\partial_- U$ as the bounds on the sublevel sets of Q(x), and the third piece $\partial_0 U$ makes up the "integral curves" of the gradient of Q that connects the first two.
ScarletScorch
Audin and Damian is a really terse book, good luck 😂
I understand the construction of the positive and negative boundary components, I think. What I'm confused about is why the third component in question corresponds to the trajectories of the gradient of Q
Moth
For two spaces to be homeomorphic, their dimensions must be same?
what notion of dimension do you have in mind?
The basics as R2 is 2 dimensional,R3 is 3
I haven't learnt about topolgical dimensions
well, i can tell you at least that no R^n and R^m are homeomorphic for distinct n and m
this is a consequence of the invariance of domain theorem
this also implies the statement that homeomorphic topological manifolds must have the same dimension
So homeomorphism implies same dimension, about the converse ?
what do you think about the converse?
Not true
Any (x,y) & [x,y]
Open & closed interval
that's an example
I was working on Rn & R1 if homeomorphic
you don't need heavy machinery such as invariance of domain for this one
think about something you can do to one but not to the other
Does it require compactness ?
R is easy to make not connected
R \ {0} not connected
true
can you do the same thing to R^n for n > 1 to disconnect it?
removing one point, that is
We can do it with path connected
"connected" and "path connected" are equivalent for all R^n so i'm not sure what you mean
can you?
I can remove the origin
does removing a point from R^n for n > 1 disconnect the space
you know it does for R
what about R^n for n > 1
No
why?
No it's connected
yes
the origin isn't special, any point will do
n > 1
Yes
but for n = 1 removing a point gives you a disconnected space
Yes understood
so why does this imply that R and R^n for n > 1 cannot be homeomorphic
Connectivity is topolgical invariant, we showed it for the spaces after removing point
So it's a restriction which is not homeomorphism
could you be more precise
I'll think about it, sorry need to go or I'll be late
Oh so if you solve the system of ODEs for the integral curves of Q(x) , they will be of the form ||x_-||^2 ||x_+||^2 = constant. If this helps, try to think of the example when you have a quadratic form of 2 variables.
backslash your norm brackets
so that discord doesn't think you want to spoiler whatever's inside
asterisks and underscores should also be backslashed
wait wtf I actually thought this lol
😭
https://youtu.be/58B5dEJReQ8?t=1422 @rough cedar
MIT 18.102 Introduction to Functional Analysis, Spring 2021
Instructor: Dr. Casey Rodriguez
View the complete course: https://ocw.mit.edu/courses/18-102-introduction-to-functional-analysis-spring-2021/
YouTube Playlist: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=58B5dEJReQ8&list=PLUl4u3cNGP63micsJp_--fRAjZXPrQzW_&index=3
We finish introducing the basic n...
This is so funny
lmaooo
he has a nice handwriting
wtf is his left brace compared to his right one though lol
also #category-theory message lol
no that's αC_n ζ_n
syntax error
Drawing left braces is hell
Very confused at the construction of g_1
namely what is g_1(x) for x not in F?
relevant lemma
Something in between [0, 1/3], you don't get full control from Urysohn
what about for x in F but f(x) is in (1/3, 2/3)?
The closed set is $F \cap f^{-1}((-\infty, 1/3])$ and the $U$ is $f^{-1}((-\infty, 2/3))$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
true!
this is just "Tietze Extension but apply it to each projection?"
or is there some subtlety I'm missing?
sounds right
neato
is there a reason Tietze requires that we use R?
specifically I don't see where we need completeness
like wouldn't any ordered metric space suffice?
the proof i know uses convergence of series
It seems like one of the theorems of all time
I love Urysohn
I'm struggling to prove that open subsets of locally compact sets are locally compact
Not really sure where to start tbh
nvm (this is an awful proof)

does this mean $X$ and $X'$ are just some sets in the topologies respectively, or does it mean $\tau$ is a topology of $X$ and the same with $X'$? I think the statements are wrong with the first interpretation
darylgolden
you should read it as: there's a set X and two topologies T and T' on it which we care about, and were going to write X for the topological space (X, T) and X' for the topological space (X, T')
thanks!
how does the hint given help?
Well you're meant to use i) to show that V(K,U) is open iirc
I think I solved it by just saying f(K) is compact in U so about every point in f(K) we can take a ball of radius epsilon for every y in f(K) which lies in U
And then take ball radius epsilon about f right
yep
Yeah so I remember doing this question and had like the same as you, lol
I think whoever wrote this didn't expect you to use this
And they basically reproved it in a different way
But it certainly is in the notes
oh
Given that this question is 10 marks though, I'd reprove this
can you give me a hint on how they wated me to prove this
Yeah I remember the way I did it was reproving that and then it easily follows as you said lol
But yeah dw your way is probs ideal lol
Uhh
So iirc you can define a function which does this for you
and use that
Like assuming compactness you can prove this in a couple of ways and one uses like a function and lemmas about compact spaces and the other is working directly with open covers
P sure it's again slightly quicker just to work with open covers lmao
oh did the question want us to work with open covers to solve the prolem?
iirc they did it using functions in some slightly odd way lol
There are solutions available for this year though p sure but ye
ah fair I'm not very good with convergence of functions in spaces so I'll check it out
Thanks for the help and gl with the rest of your exams
thank
What is a linear map from the n-simplex to Euclidean space? I though the n-simplex wasn't a vector space?
An n-simplex is naturally embedded in R^{n+1}
yes
What exactly is a chain homotopy? I understand the equation that defines it, and I understand that chain homotopic chain maps induce the same homomorphism on the homology, but is there a more intuitive/geometric picture I should have for them?
there is, let me find
An actual homotopy induces a chain homotopy
in the obvious way
ohhh okay
ty!
Can you get an actual homotopy from every chain homotopy?
Or does it only work the one way
by "actual homotopy" do you mean the one we have in topology?
Yeah
If you have two chain complexes made via chains of singular simplices and you have a chain homotopy, does it correspond to a homotopy between two continuous maps?
then no, in a sense chain homotopy is more abstract and non unique. However every homotopy induces a chain homotopy
Ah okay
Ty!
Darn I got so excited when I finished reading the proof of the excision theorem and then I realized that I still have many more pages to read before I finish this section... back at it
The excision theorem is cool though! Tbh the details were interesting
Just accept as axiom 
(spoiler: you can actually do entire homology theory just using axioms, excision is an axiom there)
No... you can't do this to me... you can't spoil section 2.3 of Hatcher while I'm on 2.1!!!!!
I just did 
Eilenberg-Steenrod pilled
Warm-up for spectral sequence diagrams
WOAHHHH
a function f is continuous at a point x if and only if f(x_α) converges to f(x) for every net x_α converging to x
is it just "a function is continuous iff limit of f(x)_a = f(limit of x_a)"
ok
that's what I thought but wanted to make sure
you would hope it would hold for just sequences but it doesn't so we make nets to make it work
spamakin
so mu is a tuple of values between [0 ,1] as far as I can tell
[0, 1]^F is the same thing as functions from F to [0, 1]
ohhh that's how they're treating it
that would have been good for them to clarify since in the prior proof they use the exact same notation to mean a tuple 🙃
ok thanks
cofibrations are a kind of good subspace embedding
are there any interesting model categories where an interesting class of cofibrations is closed under pullback along an interesting class of maps
i am aware that cofibrations are closed under pushout but that is not what i am asking
tuples and functions are the same
i.e. tuples indexed by X of elements of Y are the same as functions from X to Y
Ye that fact just slipped my mind in the moment
but the iff holds if we use just sequences and not nets for functions R -> R… is the function being between metric spaces enough for this to hold?
it works for functions between metric spaces
try to prove that sequential continuity implies regular (i.e. open set) continuity and see what property of the space you need
do it for metric spaces and then try to rewrite the proof without referencing the metric explicitly. see if it generalizes
answer: ||sequential continuity at a point x implies regular continuity at x when the space admits a countable basis at x||
||when you have a metric d, a perfectly good countable basis at x is the set of open balls around x of radii 1, 1/2, 1/3, ...||
a basis at x is a collection of open sets such that every open neighborhood of x contains one of them
In mathematics, Lazard's universal ring is a ring introduced by Michel Lazard in Lazard (1955) over which the universal commutative one-dimensional formal group law is defined.
There is a universal commutative one-dimensional formal group law over a universal commutative ring defined as follows. We let
F
(
...
Informal group laws putting on suits to be more formal
Reading munkres and trying to understand the difference between product and box topologies, am I correct to say that in $\mathbb{R}^{\omega}$, $(-1, 1) \times (-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}) \times (-\frac{1}{3}, \frac13) \ldots$ is open in the box topology but not in the product topology?
darylgolden
yes
each (-1/n, 1/n) is open in R so its open in box
but the terms arent eventually all R so its not open in product
To show that product of 2 compact sets, (X and Y) is compact, can I just let C be a collection of open sets that cover the finite product, then each element x in X, there is an element S in C, where S =OxV, where O is open in X and V is open in Y and x is in O. We do this for every x in X and get a subset M of C whose union is XxZ, where Z is some subset of Y. then apply compactness with the subsets in X to get a finite subset of M_f of M. Do the same process with Y and get P_f a collection of open sets that is finite and union to RxY, where R is some subset of X. So then take the union of these two collections M_f and P_f and get a collection which covers XxY that is at most the size of M_f+size of P_f. Does this work?
Are the isometry groups of two metric spaces over the same set with the same induced topology, the same group?
No. Consider a metric space with three points. You could call this a triangle. Or you could look at triangles as subsets of the plane. Different triangles have different isometry groups. S3, Z/2, trivial
A useful example is the Euclidean plane vs the hyperbolic plane
what’s a book that’s in style similar to bourbaki’s General Topology but actually digestible

Idk about that text but the two that work for me are intro to topology by Gamelin & Greene and Topology by James Munkres these got me through point set topology
kelley
?
just a guess
there's also Dugundji.
I don't know much about those books i'm just hoping they're similar in style to bourbaki. I would normally recommend munkres to a student
Can anyone give a fun application of mapping cylinders/mapping cones
Just wondering if anyone has one ready
Fundamental group of real line with two origins
See hatcher's solution here: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/25472/fundamental-group-of-the-line-with-the-double-origin
The mapping cone can be viewed as a kind of homotopy-theoretic cokernel.
If f : X -> Y and C_f is the mapping cone of f, with i : Y -> C_f the canonical inclusion, then i\circ f is homotopic to a point - it is homotopically killing off the image of f, similarly to how you kill off generators for the fundamental group in a graph by adjoining 2-cells as in chapter 1.3 of Hatcher.
(I leaned on the fun word here since this is practically worthless but neat)
proving the dunce cap is contractible, see Bredon I.14 Problem 6
The mapping cylinder M_f of a map f : X-> Y is important in part because M_f is homotopy equivalent to Y, and moreover, homotopy equivalent in a way that commutes with f and the inclusion i : X -> M_f.
Even if the map f is pathological, the inclusion X -> M_f will be a subspace embedding and probably a "good pair" in Hatcher's sense. Thus in some sense the map f :X -> Y is being replaced with a homotopy equivalent pair (M_f, X) where X is a subspace; now we can talk about its relative homology. H(M_f, X) = H(M_f/X) = H(C_f)
there are probably some technical caveats i'm omitting here.
Woahhh I like that!
what is a good pair in Hatchers sense
Oh wow that's cool
(X,Y) where Y is a nonempty closed set in X that has a neighborhood in X that deformation retracts to Y
ah
It's similar to a cofibration, but not exactly the same.
This was a fucking pain in the ass for me to figure out
that's what i was gonna mention
There's a good stack overflow post about this which I posted here a few months ago
Oh huh, I see
ty clerk!
but being a cofibration is sufficient
Well, ...
Ah, yes. For the homology thing.
my thoughts are not coherent
I thought you meant cofibration is sufficient for good pair.
They're not equivalent in general but they both have the homology property yes.
Oh this is so cool
i'm only posting these because i don't want others to suffer the same headache as i went through
I thought they were the same for a hot minute
Oh wait Hatcher mentions this for spaces other than good pairs
Htilde(X U CA) ≈ H(X, A)
What's a cofibration?
In mathematics, in particular homotopy theory, a continuous mapping
i
:
A
→
X
{\displaystyle i:A\to X}
,where
A
{\displaystyle A}
and
X
{\displaystyle X}
are topological spaces, is a cofi...
Oh God
it's just a slight generalization of a good pair
the definition of a cofibration on wikipedia is equivalent to being an "NDR-pair"
Ahhh okay I see
is good pair common language? or is it just from hatcher (or maybe it is popular now because of hatcher)
is there a good "idea" behind the notion of a "saturated set?" i keep having to look back at the definition because i cant draw a connection between the word "saturated" and the definition itself
Is this in the context of quotient spaces?
I guess the way I think about it is that if f:X -> X/~ is the quotient map then a subset of X is saturated iff it's a union of fibres of f (i.e. of the form f^-1(A))
So like there's a sense in which these are the most "full"/ complete subsets of X (in view of f), since otherwise you're missing out some elements of the fibres
Oh neat, a map from the sphere to itself with no fixed points is homotopic to the antipodal map
Omg I get to learn the hairy ball theorem
Wait wtf this is so cool
Just to check understanding, does z \mapsto z^n have degree n? For S^1 → S^1
it would suck if it didn't
But doesn’t not
yea
ohhh this makes sense
What Frank said is highly sensitive to precise choices of definition. Please read the stack exchange posts I linked just before
Hello people. I have a question: I have a complete and seperable metric space D (with metric d), and a specific subset S. I want to show that S has a compact closure. For this specific S, we can always find a set S_k that has a compact closure, st. for any x€S we can pick a y in S_k such that d(x,y) =< 1/k. Does it follow now that the closure of S is compact? If yes, why?
Unfortunately i have never really studied topology, but intuitively it sounds good. Currently im studying the Skorohod metric
Are there any conditions on the subset S? As I understand it, the claim shouldn't even be true. Take D to be the real numbers with their usual metric, and set S=D for a silly example.
Not really. But for the real numbers we cant find such S_k right?
Oh, okay, so S is constrained by the existence of such sets S_k as you described
Ah yes sorry, i wrote it poorly
Take the circle and delete one point. This is R with a weird metric. Set Sk = everything farther than 1/k from the deleted point
Oh, that isn’t complete
Is the infinite product of [0,1] in the box topology a (noncompact) complete metric space with Sk = product of first k factors?
No, I probably have that backwards. That’s probably the metric for the product topology and L-oo for box
"Consider the directed set $D'$ consisting of ordered pairs $(\alpha, U)$ where $\alpha \in D$, $U$ is a nbhd of $x$, and $x_\alpha \in U$, ordered by the $D$ ordering and inclusion."
So is this ordering something like $(\alpha, U) \le_{D'} (\beta, V)$ iff $\alpha \le_D \beta$ and $U \subset V$?
anamono for anamono 🍓
actually it should be U \supset V
i think
yeah V \subset U makes sense because later he says (\gamma, U \cap V) \ge (\alpha, U)
oh man now im confusing myself lmao
wait no yeah (a, U) \ge (b, V) iff U \subset V
Can anyone help me out? I've got no clue how shapes can be described like "ABD^{-1}C^{-1}BACD"
Sorry I have no clue how to use the bot
These questions I've got derive the euler characteristics from the shape above and similar ones, X(M) = F - E + V and I'm completely lost
$ABD^{-1}C^{-1}BACD$
bee [it/its]
just put dollars around the part that's latex
Yes, it is compact
First use the open cover characterization of compact to replace Sk by a finite set. Now take a infinite sequence in S. We want to prove that it has a sub sequence that converges in D. For each k, find a point in ask such that infinitely many elements of the sequence are in the 1/k neighborhood of the point and throw out the rest of the sequence. The sequence that remains after doing this the all k is Cauchy, so has a limit in D. (To prevent the sub sequence from being empty, there’s some trick. Maybe when we’ve done the first Sk, keep the first k elements and only throw out later ones)
What kind of shape? A curve or a surface?
Nice thanks!
A surface I believe, I don't understand how vertices can be found from pairwise identification and then the euler characteristic
It’s not the vertices, but the edges
Take an octagon. Label the edges ABDCBACD. Glue A to A. But which orientation? Inverse means to switch from your default connection
Ok but then whats up with finding the euler characteristic? Where does the V come from in X(M) = F - E + V
You start with an octagon. You glue some edges. This causes some vertices to be glued. The end of one A gets glued to one of the ends of another A. After you trace through the connections, you wind up with 1-4 vertices left
I've got this representation in a mark scheme of a question asking for the euler characteristic of the polygon $ABD^{-1}C^{-1}BACD$, how can V = 3 be found from this?
hondo_ohnaka
( expert drawing )
I've seen that the number of vertices can be found by coutning equivalence classes but I can only see 2 classes here not 3 unless I've missed something
One class is the orange line. The other two classes are the triangles
Specially algebraic you can visualise things but writing down the rigorous proof is a whole other beast
Hi, for space that isn’t 2nd countable but Hausdorff can I use uncountably many copies of the reals
Yes
Cool thanks
Discrete space on uncountably many points lol
why are separable spaces important in constructive mathematics
Because uncountable things are scary, and countable things are nice
It's the same reason why the rationals are useful when talking about the reals
the real numbers are full of nasty numbers which you can't explicitly construct, but the rational numbers are nice and you can fully describe each rational
Therefore it's helpful that the rationals are dense in the reals
every countable subset of R has zero measure
It's a very similar situation with separable spaces in general
It's like studying something by looking at its skeleton
Or a tree by looking at its branches
You can't describe each leaf, but maybe describing its branches is enough
hey guys, I was trying to prove that, if we have a compact topological space X, then every closed set is compact. I was looking at these two proofs and I do not see, how this can be a covering of K. Do we not need to have an equality?
I guess that it is enough to have inclusin, or am I completely off topic?
closed \implies compact isn't even true in \R^n
the topological space has to be compact of course
oh right misread
ok so let $X$ be a metric space and let $K\subset X$ be compact. take some closed $F\subset K$. you want to show $F$ is compact. So take any open cover ${U_\alpha}$ of $F$. Now, since $F$ is closed, it must be $X\setminus F$ is open, so ${X\setminus F}\cup {U_\alpha}$ covers $K$. But $K$ is compact so take a finite subcover, and since $F\subset K$, you've obtained a finite subcover
xd
it shouldn't matter because F is compact in K iff it's compact in X
at least i think maybe that's just for metric spaces 
mim
the same idea works though in a topological space you just have to use relative openness instead of openness
in answer to your question though an open cover of $V\subset X$ is a collection of open subsets $U_\alpha\subset X$ so that $$V\subset\bigcup_{\alpha\in A} U_\alpha$$
mim


