#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 41 of 1
i disagree
i dont visualize the embedding
thats my point, i am still at the stage of trying to visualize embedding(s)
How do you visualize it ibsen
Other than just parametrizations of lines for example, which isn't really a visualization
yes
agreed ffs
first glue a disk to the boundary of the möbius strip. i claim this is rp^2. why? because throw away the center circle of the mobius strip, thats just a disk with an annulus attached to the boundary which is still a disk. the boundary of this bigger disk is glued to the center circle of the mobius strip by z -> z^2 because the boundary of the mobius strip spins around twice around the center circle
rp^2 is nothing but disk glued to the circle by z -> z^2
obs: it wasn't a exercise or something
i was just wondering myself
btw nice sketches
Is there some fact about possible deck transformations of S^2 for any space X that S^2 covers.
If not, how does that argument work?
theres not many group actions on S^2 which are free
try showing that only group that does is ||Z/2||
Right, properly discontinuous and covering imply the action being free?
iff for hausdorff spaces
throw in compact maybe
in fact every effective finite group action on S^2 is conjugate to a linear action
Messes with associativity or sth?
for the free S2 problem?
think degree
hm i dont know how to come up with Boy’s immersion of RP^2 in R^3
i know an unnatural cut and paste construction
but its magic that it works
Oh boy
wrong channel
ok i have a big idea
draw the “not seifert surface” of the trefoil knot
this is, topologically, a mobius strip
we have to cleverly attach an immersed disk to get the boys surface
probably
at least this should be the source of the Z/3 symmetry of the boys surface
Okay yeah. Haven't gotten there yet but it seems really handy. Thx
also we absolutely need a triple point for an immersion of RP^2 in R^3. proof: suppose f : RP^2 -> R^3 immersion, no triple points. let C = {x in RP^2 : exists y s.t f(x) = f(y)} be the double point locii in RP^2. this is a bunch of non intersecting circles in RP^2
for each pair of circles, consider the following modification of the immersion
this changes the surface by adding a tube S^1 x [0, 1] and the effect it has on the double point locus is that two components of it get connect summed
this doesnt change the Euler characteristic of the surface modulo 2. keep repeating until theres a single connected component, a circle of double points. a regular neighborhood of this can look like S^1 x (the letter X) in which case we can desingularize it to S^1 x )(
in which case Euler characteristic mod 2 has remained the same as that of RP^2 ie 1 but it is embeddable in R^3 so it is orientable, which forces Euler characteristic 0. bogus
theres one more case in the last desingularization process, it can look like mapping torus of S^1 x X under the map X -> X which rotates X by 180 degrees. but either way we tube by replacing the X fibers by )( ie xy = 0 becoming xy = eps
Euler chi mod 2 is invariant under this process
Still at it, this is so hard lol
I think we need six more immersed “thickened trefoil” like the grey region union the appropriate half-planes that has the blue trefoil as one boundary component
Then one exhausts all the white edges
But then one ends up with a complicated identification problem
Boy was a lunatic
Very active!!!
where does the name "deck transformation" come from?
exactly this
its an honor
honorable next
are the cards in this like the individual sheets and then you shuffle them around
ohhh
pretty much exactly that
I think I have constructed the Boy’s surface
This is an immersed annulus in R^3. It can be constructed piecewise linearly from the union of three coordinate squares by attaching strips to the edges, as indicated, or envisioned as follows. Take a trefoil knot, then consider a planar projection. Imagine a homotopy of this which modifies it to a circle with a triple point, and then makes it a circle with three double points.
This is an “illegal move” in that it is not a knot isotopy, but the movie of the homotopy gives the surface above.
This immersed annulus cobounds the trefoil knot and the unknot. Cap it off on the unknot end by an embedded disk, and on the trefoil end by the “illegitimate Seifert surface”, namely this image:
.
This should be the final immersed RP^2, if I am not mistaken.
This seems cleaner than any existing exposition I have come across if this works lol
And I don’t see a problem for now. The whole thing boils down to constructing an immersed disk bounding the trefoil knot (which always exists for any smooth knot), and then capping it off by the illegitimate Seifert surface.
I showed that X is normal, how can I use the given sequence to show that no metric induces the topology O?
do you have a candidate for the sequence mentioned in the hint?
Since (0,0) is a limit point for all $L_n$, there exists $x_n\in L_n\cap B((0,0),\frac{1}{n})$ so that $x_n \neq (0,0)$
pramana
It seems to me that, by normality, on each L_n you could choose a neighbourhood of (0,0) which does not contain x_n, no?
yes
Do I do that for all L_n? I’m not sure how that proves no metric exists
Think about the topological definition of convergence vs metric spaces.
You want an open subset of X which is disjoint from your sequence, to prove convergence fails topologically.
if a metric did exist, your space would have to be first countable, what the hint says is assume your space is metrisible then from first countability, you can find a sequence converging to (0,0) but show that does not happen
consider picking a point on L_n that eventually goes closer to (0,0)
Do you have an exact definition for topological convergence? It wasn't covered in the chapter
I want to find a fault in my reasoning:
I want to show that every T_3 (regular) space with a countable basis is T_4 (normal).
So if we have two closed disjoint subsets A, B of a space X
I would start by taking points of B and taking union of their disjoint neighbourhoods we're given by T_3 (and that's how we obtain two disjoint neighbourhoods of A and B)
But that doesn't use the countable basis argument we're given so I'm probably wrong somewhere
your conclusion is infact right but not the proof
Perhaps for this to work all neighbourhoods of A and points of B should me disjoint pairwise
look at theorem 32.1 in Munkres
Yeah I'm looking at it right now, wanted to attempt to prove it before but it seems like I've caught my error anyways, thanks
Why does it suffice to check only the case when A is a closed interval?
There is a theorem that states that g^{-1} is continuous if and only if g is a closed map (maps closed sets to closed sets)
Also, here you could have an intesection of closed intervals, not neccessarily a single closed interval
Well, yes, but we don't have g^{-1} continuous given.
Yes, that's what we want to prove
How about arbitrary closed sets?
Okay so
To start with open sets in R, every open set can be written as the union of open intervals (a, b) (since they form a basis for standard topology on R)
That means that a complement of a closed subset of [0,1] can be written as a union of open intervals of (a, b)
Which means that a closed subset of [0,1] can be written as an intersection of complements of open intervals
Is S^k homeomorphic to C^k for k odd natural?
what's C
Agreed, but doesn't seem to show that it suffices to consider the closed interval case
Complex numbers
No
lol
I'll try to think if there's some like particularly elementary way to argue this lol
As in, w/o appealing to more alg top lol
proof: trust me
lol
try k = 1
Lol it holds for k=1 therefore must hold for all
experimyent, as we say here in russia
💀
That’s what made me ask
If you want to appeal to stuff you've probably seen though feather
S^k is a k-dimensional real manifold
C^k is 2k-dimensional
Oh so it’s just because (k+1) = 2k is satisfied by k = 1
But yeah I mean this obscures the more important fact that S^a is never homeomorphic to R^b for any a or b
Okay, so complements of open intervals can have the form: (-infty, a] U [b, +infty)
One is contratible, the other isn't
The easiest way to see that is using alg top but idk how much you've done lol
Indeed
Negative
Ignoring the dimensionality problem as well
do you know compactness
Yes?
prove that image of a compact space under a continuous map is compact
wat
X compact, f : X -> Y continuous, prove f(X) is compact
with the subspace topology
then prove that S^n is never homeomorphic to R^m
also i do not see the relevance of this numerical observation
point set is pointless
my point was S^1 is not homeomorphic to C (can you see that?)
But I said it is k dimensional
Idk, the fact that C^k has dimension 2k seems like a decent argument against S^k and C^k being homoeomorphic too
Yes...?
Just a second writing more
Then again, depends on how careful you wanna be with dimensional arguments before getting the homological machinery to proof things like R^n and R^m not being homeomorphic for m unequal n
Ah, ok, sry
Oh lol this is funny Ibsen
So I was gonna write out a meme argument for this and it turns out that it is just a more complicated way to appeal to compactness lel
If S^k were homeomorphic to R^b then their one point compactifications would be homeomorphic too
But the one point compactification of the former is like disconnected right lol whilst the other is S^b
💀
You can compactify R^n by adding a point to make it into S^n tho
So in that sense they do have homeomorphic one-point compactifications
Isn't that what I said lol
no one point c
compactification of S^n is S^n disjoint union a point (as potato pointed out)
And by taking intersection of all those intervals in that form ((-infty, a] U [b, +infty) ), you can obtain two cases either (-infty, sup(a)] U [inf(b), +infty) or just and interval [sup(b), inf(a)] here (a, b) is an open interval we're considering from the union
@eager vigil
But the catch is, that intersection has to contain [0, 1], so it has to be the other case
Which is a closed interval
I also feel obligated to say like
I was saying it was, I thought it was
Usually one would prove this using compactness and things so ye
Because S^1 is just the unit circle right?
Oh I guess that’s not all of C
LMAO
But you can normalize all of C to be on the unit circle
So why not?
except 0. but i claim even S^1 and C \ 0 are not homeomorphic
prove all of this by using the compactness exercise i gave you
and figure out why the normalization map is NOT a homeomorphism
I see. Thank you
gimme example of a manifold whose boundary is non orientable 
take the Klein bottle, this is an S^1 bundle over S^1. Fill in the fibers by disks
This is a “solid Klein bottle”, a D^2-bundle over S^1 which bounds the Klein bottle
hmm okay
more precisely its the mapping torus of (x, y) -> (x, -y), D^2 -> D^2
wasn't there a result saying a mani is a boundary of a compact space iff all the streenrod powers are 0
i think you mean pontryagin numbers
wtf did I just read
are they same?
stiefel whitney, yeah, youre right
pontryagin is for orientable cobordisms
stiefel whitney is when you allow nonorientable cobordisms also
yeah
its a nice exercise to prove in an elementary way that RP^2 is not nullcobordant
so while people say that the Klein bottle has no “interior”, thats actually wrong, it is nullcob — but RP^2 isnt
nullcorb meaning cobordant to empty set?
yeah and more simply that theres a manifold one dimension up with this as boundary
I know the fancy way of SW numbers
theres a sw number which is not so fancy
Lol
w_1 you mean
euler class mod2? idk what you mean
yes
prove that euler class mod 2 is a cobordism invariant
euler characteristic, really
this stuff is in milnor stasheff
kinda remember doing something similar, M is nullcobordant then EC is even
is this correct?
oh i mean i recognise this stuff lol
ye
Ya
I think it depends what direction you want to go in
lol 'ye' for my question?
ye
cool
which one?
complex cobordism
the green book is complex cobordism and stable homotopy groups of spheres by ravenel
?
Yeah
I'll have a look in the summer 
this was not the most sincere suggestion 
i think this stuff is neat though i am certainly not very well read on it
its not something i am interested in getting actually good at for the time being but its fun to read about
I like how math has so many names for books
chromatic moment
Baby Rudin, Papa Rudin, Blue Book, Green Book
mappa jk
every oriented 3-manifold is oriented nullcobordant is the only theorem worth knowing
which has an elementary proof also
every 3-manifold is a surgery on a link in S^3
surgery is a cobordism operation
S^3 is nullcob
i guess milnor uses the corresponding 7 dim result for exotic lulz
theres a really stupid proof of hirzebruch signature theorem via thom cobordism theorem by showing both sides are cobordism invariant then calculating it out in dimensions 2^k
i think this proof is the original one by hirzebruch
ag brain
yeah
we talked about it in class last semester once it was so delightful
i get bored by the quantiative things because i don’t understand them
We have 1/3rd conjecture, and also 11/8th?
Lmao, what's next?
theres a conjecture in freed-uhlenbeck which says that any simply connected closed smooth 4-manifold is a connect sum of complex algebraic surfaces (possibly with reversed orientation). do you know the status of this moth?
i dont know anything about 4-manifolds i need to read gompf and stipsicz or kronheimer-donaldson some day
gompf and stipsicz is very nice but huge
Yeah
theres a book by akbulut which you can try if youre inclined to do a lot of kirby calculus
i powered through a good chunk of that last year
I feel like GS is probably the better book but KD might honestly be closer to my interests
KD seemed super terse
cut and pasty topology is cute but probably not my calling lol
Yeah i am scared of the analysis
but thats all it is
Just read his thesis
if i bash my head against it for a few years surely by the time i go to grad school i will be able to do one (1) computation 🙂
Lmao
french lol
but i think thats a good suggestion
thom writes incredibly well if you can read french
there might be translations available, dunno
my sincere belief is there must be a flexible way of understanding the technical garbage
im years behind on a working knowledge of the field though
I no longer allow myself to hope
youre still in undergrad, losing hope is for grad students
keep trying to understand and have irreverent dreams as long as you can
Can confirm, hopeless grad student here
By the way, ibsen. The reason I asked the real line with two origins findamebtla group question was that hatcher answered it on math overflow
He really wanted to use SvK but could not, so he took a mapping cone over it and then took SvK anyway
Really Chad move tbh
lmao
Mapping cylinder I mean
My plan is to switch it up and develop an insane ego in grad school in an attempt to counterbalance the inevitable grad student psychosis
well it looks like a circle to me and i know pi_1 of S^1 cannot be computed by svk so i didn’t even go there
lol
its a thought
im rationing the happiness
i think the universal cover picture is the cleanest tbh
its like Z many real lines with every other pair glued along the positive or negative half line
tire tracks of a car in a tight parking lot
this one killed me
is it correct? M_Z → M be a orientation cover when M is non orientable, then there's no section?
what is a non section 
yes this is correct
if there was a section thatd give you an orientation
yeah exactly right
In part a why should a nontrivial one exist unless M is R orientable
Are we assuming R orientability? No right?
guess in the nonorientable case lemma is just vacuously true
Or is it a local section?
Yeah it’s not a wrong statement but feels wrong that’s all
i dont like how hatcher spends a million years on M_R
non è importante!
his exposition of poincare duality is quite poor actually
Yeah
What does exactness mean for the zeroth homotopy groups?
Does not make sense to call it exact for pi_0
you think of them as pointed sets, an exact sequence of pointed sets is what you'd "expect it to be" (the base point of pi_0 is the component of the base point of the space)
Ie the kernel of eg p_* is the subset of pi_0(E,x) getting sent to the connected component of b \in B
Maybe, but whats a meaningful notion of a "kernel" for maps between pointed sets?
preimage of the basepoint
That's pretty convenient, I'll take it.
As an example: say $p:E \to B$ is a covering map, so it's a fibre bundle w discrete fibre, and let's suppose $E$ is path connected. Then this gives us teh standard bijection $\pi_1(B,b)/p_* \pi_1(E,x) \simeq \pi_0(F_b,x) \simeq F_b$ which is cool, and the point b corresponds to the coset of 1
potato
Based short exact sequence moment. But what type of "isomorphism" is that there?
Nvm, the left hand side is a group proper. So probably interpreting the factor group as a set of cosets
Yeah
Can you give this more structure than just being notation that behaves like one expects in specific instances or is there a natural way to make this into an exact sequence in some nicely behaved category?
I don't know, that depends on if such a "nicely behaved"/useful category exists. Or framed differently: is there more to this than making the slight abuse of notation work out smoothly?
crazy morally russian topologist
Nice
Why do we need to use the restriction of Y to Z that is surjective? Isn't it sufficient to say O,V open in Y means f-1(O), f-1(V) open in X by continuity, then f-1(O) intersected with f-1(V) is empty since if there was a shared element then there is a particular x from X that f(x) is in O and f(x) is in V, O and V is empty, so this is a problem with uniqueness of f(x) for a particular x.
Are you claiming that the codomain is always connected?
if f isnt continuous then f-1(O) and f-1(V) may not be open in X
f is by hypothesis
I'm saying like do you think Y is necessarily connected here
I mean a key point is that you need the preimages of A and B to be non-empty
oh ok so like one of f-1(O) or f-1(V) could be empty is what you are sayin
ya thanks makes sense
np
would it also be ok to argue for case 2 that if c is in A_o then supA_o=maxA_o and open sets in L intersected with an [a,b] interval cannot contain the max (and we know from case 1 that c is not b)
Hello
Any one can give me a simple defenition about "limit point"
Thanks
if X is a set, a limit point of X is a point for which every open interval around it contains a point other than it on the set
mathematically, if $U$ is an open set containing the limit point $y$ of $X$, then
$$U\cap (X\setminus{y})\neq \emptyset$$
SubGui
intuitively we want a limit point of a set to the limit of some sequence(non constant) of member of that set. In metric spaces this is easy to do, in more abstract topological spaces we have to be a little more careful when doing so. We then look back at epsilon-delta for what it means for a sequence to be convergent and come up with the fact that there is an open neighbourhood of your point that intersects your set other than at the point you chose
and this is the definition that @stark fog gave
they are equivalent in fact
a point x is a limit point of X iff it is the limit of sequence x_n of elements of X, such that x_n are not equal to x
mainly because convergence of a sequence is related to the elements being in an neighborhood of the point for large n
the way I interpret is that the sequence definition is the intuition behind the idea

So, if X is a set and have a limit point {a} then every open interval around {a} contains a point other than {a}
@stark fog
Am i right
yes
so in R with standard topology the limit points of the set (a, b) U {c} is [a, b]
construction of the universal cover is so cool :o
but also why do the first three sections of hatcher cover the same material as this 43 video playlist of half hour videos 
I think hatcher overestimated my reading comprehension abilities
noooo section 1.3 is like 23 pages long
very important section
hm how do I pace this so that I finish it by friday
basic arithmetic is failing me
time to make a grocery list instead
Like 6 pages a day? which might be a bit steep with hatcher. Idk how much time you are investing
my current state of mind is "however much time it takes"
because I have a reading group that meets every friday lol
I think I have the intuition for this section now after watching a bunch of youtube videos, but I need to actually read the details
Well, good luck with finite Galois th- I mean covering space theory then
Thank you!!!
probably a dumb question, but how do we know p^-1(x) is locally constant? I see that x has to have a neighborhood (namely the evenly covered neighborhood) where p^-1(y) ≥ p^-1(x) for any y in the neighborhood, but not sure how to prove the reverse inequality
Part of the definition of a covering space is usually that it has locally the structure U x F, so correspondingly you define the sheet counting function on that U to be the cardinality of F
it's constant for some nbd U of x, which is obvious if you take U to be evenly covered
Usually also have the discrete topology on F, but I am not entirely sure about that one.
both p^-1y and p^-x has cardinality of the number of connected components of p^-1U
because you’re picking out one point from each of the slices over U
in either case
Hey, I know it ain't pretty, but could anyone check whether it's even correct?
The Mobius strip with a full twist (thats still topologically an annulus! The usual Mobius strip has one half twist) is not isotopic through immersions to the standard annulus in R^3, but the Mobius strip with two full twists (so 4 half twists) is isotopic through immersions to the standard annulus in R^3
you might want to ask in #real-complex-analysis instead
Ok, thx
Isotopy of the Mobius strip with 2 full twists into a standard untwisted annulus through immersions
hype, I understand the proof of the lifting criterion now
Me: I don't understand what he's saying here... Maybe it would help if I looked at his drawings?
Hatcher's drawings:
pain
ITT: Eric doesn’t know what a snowflake is
:p
It’s clearly a snowflake and some sort of fucked up ladder ;)
Gotchu bb
Wow we should just teach algebraic topology instead of group theory, things are making sense
On the other hand this construction of the universal cover is hurting my head
just skip it, there's another proof using fibre bundles
LOL What made you say this
why study G when you can study K(G,1)
as an exercise, can you find a covering transformation that is not a deck transformation
By covering transformation I mean map f: X → X that with pf=p. p: X → Y being covering projection
hatcher uses different notion of covering transformation
Writing these down to return to later
just continuous i think
but yeah pf = p should be the case
Puzzle: Is there a word on two letters (a, b, a^-1, b^-1) which is equal to the identity in every finite group generated by two elements a, b (and with some relations)?
yes
Oops sorry I meant a reduced word ie one where there are no consecutive inverses.
No appearance of aa^-1 or bb^-1 strings in the word
@tiny ridge we have a lie group G and let S={g ∈ G | gⁿ=e for some n} then is S necessarily countable?
No because F({a,b})
one for every axis
oh lol
Oh sorry mistake again, let me edit the question I meant in every finite group generated by two elements
Lol interested why you picked 5
Ah
Lol
Lemme think then
I have an exam w groups stuffs tomorrow lol
just randomly :p
i like 5 order symmetries
Does something simple like this not work? ||Let your word be a^nb^m (after commuting, I'll take ab=ba as one of the relators).
G = <a,b | a^{n+1} = b^{m} = aba^{-1}b^{-1}>||
It should vanish in every finite 2-generated group, Migil.
Which is why my answer was no
Hm I'm confusd what you mean like after commuting lol like
Oh, but a word need not be of the form a^nb^m
How do you know the word isn't smth which always vanishes in abelian
Oh ok
So whatever your word is, it'll look like that to this group
But how do you know the word isn't 1 in that group I mean (like it could be n = m = 0)
Like aba^-1 b^-1
Like say there's a word which evaluates to 1 in every abelian group but not in every group
Oh hm
Hi everyone can someone help me for test
Yeah OK you have written down some word which doesnt vanish in some group
Thats not good enough
Logic is hard
I'll have a think about this lol hmm
So the only remaining case is when its in [F_2, F_2]?
Now the problem becomes about trying to show if there’s a word in x(m, n) = [a^n, b^m] which vanishes in every finite group generated by x(n,m) and some relations lol
Coz [F_2, F_2] is freely generated by those
is there such a word?
I have an idea but i am think
Yes, we are trying to show that in fact all words are trivial
F_2 is the trivial group
Ibsen what math is it you do?
I think I have mentioned something along the lines of h-principles before
Ah right
Okay yeah I have an idea which is a bit hacky
So
Oh wait are you done lol
Rip
Done?
Well basically sketchy so far but it seems to work so like
Say I've got a word $w = a^{\alpha_1} b^{\beta_1} \dots a^{\alpha_n} b^{\beta_n}$ and pick some big natural $N$ to be chosen later. If we impose the relation $ab = ba^N$ on $F({a,b})$ then in this group $G$ we have $a^k b^\ell = b^\ell a^{k N^{\ell}}$. In $G$ we can then rearrange $w$ to some word of the form (I think) of the form $b^{a_0 + a_1 N + \dots + a_k N^k}$ and I need to check but p sure not all the $a_i$ can vanish. So we can pick $N$ large enough that this means $b^M = 1$ for some $M \ne \pm 1$. Then consider a group with $ab = ba^N$ and $b$ forced to be of some other order like $M-1$
potato
Obviously what I'd need to make rigorous is that bit with not all a_i vanishing but it seems to work for examples but actually may be doubtful, and I'd need the check the a_i don't depend on N but that seems true - actually yeah it's a polynomial in the N
But the idea of using some weird relation to mess around with the stuff in the word seems like it should work
Maybe I am a crank though
eh there must be a nicer proof even if this is mendable lol
I like this idea. Hm
Actually so like the fact I'm assuming not all a_i vanish means like
I need to show that w doesn't vanish in G ig lol
But G is infinite so that may be easier
I suppose a_i = 0 will give some equations in alpha and betas
How about something simpler, like G = <a,b | a^2=a,b^2=b>. Then your generic word will be (ab)^n (ish). You just need to finitize it. Morally you just take (ab)^{n+1} a relator but you need to deal with the ish
And also fix that this group is trivial
I wonder if instead of these constructive proofs there is a topological proofs


Yknow in most books the examples are there to elucidate the definitions, but I think in Hatcher, the examples are just there to knock you down a notch in case you're getting confident about the material...
What does he mean here by "These permutations obviously determine the covering spaces uniquely, up to isomorphism"?
Like can someone give a more precise statement of this fact? I'm having trouble wording it
if you take a fiber of a covering space and then loop de loop the basepoint the fiber maps to itself after going around but the points in the fiber gets scrambled up
if you know how this scrambles for every loop in the base you pretty much know the covering space yeah
oh wait so isomorphic covering spaces <=> isomorphic actions of pi_1 on the fibers
yes
so if we have
p_0 : (Y_0, y_0) → (X, x)
and
p_1 : (Y_1, y_1) → (X, x)
then the former means that there exists a homeomorphism F : Y_0 → Y_1 such that
p_0 = p_1 F and p_0 F^-1 = p_1
and the latter means that there exists f : p_0^-1(x) → p_1^-1(x) such that for any loop [gamma] in pi_1(X, x),
[gamma] · f(y_0) = f([gamma] · y_0)
yes
Can you just take two copies of Y as a cover of Y and then the covering transformation is just sending both copies to one copy
Which is clearly not invertible
Oh I require connected
Oh
It’s always that one
Yea
okay to put it in group theoretic terms we're looking for a subgroup H of G and an element g of G so that gHg^-1 is strictly contained in H? not sure if this is right
Correct
hmmm
Can you elaborate for those who might be reading the answer
If our base is Y and our covering space is p : X→Y, the lifting criterion tells us that a covering transformation : (X, x0) → (X, x0') exists iff p_*(pi_1(X, x0)) is contained in p_*(pi_1(X, x0'))
and changing a basepoint in the covering space is just conjugation in pi_1(Y, y0)
Try solving it purely group theoreicly and translate to covering space
group theoreicly
Theoweicwy 
Hey Catto, make sure to stay hydrated :) eat some food too bestie
Thanks will do 
What is the functor $\Omega^\infty: \text{Spectra} \rightarrow \text{Spaces}$
bigradedSphere
I know this is basic question but I can't find the answer
This old book im reading defines it as $\Omega^\infty E = E_O$ (but I can't tell from the typesetting if this is just a $0$
bigradedSphere
or if its something else
I think it should be some colimit
nvm I think it is just E_0
@cosmic socket Bizarre. Is the point that if X is a space, there is a spectrum {\Sigma^n X} you can cook up from there, and X -> \Omega^n \Sigma^n X is a homotopy equivalence by loopspace suspension adjunction?
So \Omega^infty of the suspension spectrum of X is like X, ie the 0th graded guy in the spectrum
I think I'm still trying to understand it
its not quite what you said
There is a role played by a functor $Q X := \text{colim } \Omega^n \Sigma^n X$
bigradedSphere
Oh yeah \Omega \Sigma X is definitely not homotopy equivalent to X
Take X = S^1
Even stranger then
but you define $\Sigma^\infty$ not naively as a the spectra with $E_i = \Sigma^i X$ but rather as $\Sigma^\infty X = {Q \Sigma^i X}$
and then you get that $\Omega^\infty \Sigma^\infty X = QX$
bigradedSphere
maybe this is the point of the definition
im totally confused by your description lmfao
bigradedSphere
What kind of space is X = {(x, y, z) in R³ | at least one of x, y or z is an integer }?
Is this the Quillens Q construction
Not really sure what kind of answer you want lol
I mean geometrically
Ig one way to describe it is "a bit weird"
I guess the point is you want $\Sigma^\infty$ and $\Omega^\infty$ to be adjoint and also there to be a weak equivalence $\Omega^\infty \Sigma^\infty X \rightarrow \text{ colim} \Omega^n \Sigma^n X$ (these are two of the `desirable' properties of spectra
bigradedSphere
do you mean cofibrant replacement? I don't know if it is
😵😵💫
I think it depends on what model of spectra you are using too
in this book it's just using that the structure maps are homeomorphisms which is a lot stronger than what I have usually seen
but I think apparently the homotopy category will be the same
it ought to be
to be honest there are too many models of spectra and I don't even know what is the correct model to have in my head
but someone told me the details are usually not too important (unless you care about them) and you can work with them formally
my knowledge of stable homotopy theory is very close to nil i should admit
me too :/
there must be a topological way to get this. Omega Sigma X <- X is not a homotopy equivalence, but maybe Omega^n Sigma^n X <- X becomes one as n -> infty?
I’ve been having an Eric Andre let me in moment as I waited for my 10 minutes to end and allow me to speak here haha
The functors Omega^n Sigma^n X can be thought of as the free n-fold loop space on the space X
And in the colimit they give the free infinite loop space on X, and this is canonically equivalent to the suspension spectrum of X after the identification of infinite loop spaces w connective spectra
So one way to think about QX is that it’s a space whose normal homotopy groups are the stable homotopy groups of X
Ok, so this is as simple as saying, pi_n+k(E_k) = pi_n(Omega^k E_k), taking colimits as k -> infty gives pi_n^s E = pi_n(Omega^infty E)
Are your spectra Omega-spectra?
Then Omega^infty E = E_0 makes sense
Yeah making the suspension spectrum Omega is exactly the point here
It is!
the prodigal son
Ok, I don’t understand this 100% yet but this is obviously morally russian topology, not homotopy theory
good math, approve
Watching grad students fight is like watching monkeys in the same enclosure brawl for food in the zoo
homotopy theory is unbothered
thats because its too stable
Wdym but free n fold loop space
Well
Isn’t it more like 2n fold loop space
No, you are only looping n times
It might help to think about the role of the suspension
If we just looped, we’d be chopping off homotopy groups that would otherwise live in negative degrees
The suspension provides the breathing room needed to loop w/o losing info
I mean you do lose info but that’s the intuition
Ok I see what you mean by this
But I don’t see how this fixes it
N-fold suspensions are n connective
So you don’t lose info
An important theorem is that n-fold loop spaces are equivalent to n-connected spaces (homotopically)
And the functor is exactly just looping n times
(pi_n+k Sigma^k X = pi_n Omega^k Sigma^k X, and the left hand side stabilizes as k -> infty)
Ok so the point is as k gets large
Homotopy groups of RHS are stable homotopy groups of X
Which explains this comment
So why can’t you do the naive definition and define \Sigma^i X = \Sigma^\infty X_i
Oh ok
So you have to do a cofibrant replacement
In which model structure
The sequential ones w the omega ones cofibrant
Anyway the defn using the Q functor is basically just a manual cofibrant replacement
Ok makes sense
Why is it desirable to have your suspension functor land in cofibrant spectra
Well you want to really only ever work w the cofibrant ones
Not sure what modern means here
Like EKMM
The actually modern approach is to eschew model categories entirely
EKMM is pretty old
I see
funny field
Modern approach is to use infinity categories?
Yeah
Can you do everything you can in model categories in infinity category techniques
And is everything nicer?
This type of question can get one in controversial waters
But yes
Well, the thing about infinity categories is that like
Most of the technical complexity is in the foundations
It’s way easier to define a model category and get the theory off the ground than it is to introduce eg quasicstegories
In practice do people blackbox foundations
Yeah mostly
I’ve been told I can blackbox stuff like how smash product of spectra work. But in the infinity category approach is it nicer?
I mean most homotopy theorists have a working understanding ofc but it’s something you gain in tandem w working w them
Much nicer
I mean the theory of infinity operads shows up
But if u blackbox that then yes
So I should just keep learning actually stuff and eventually figure out how infinity category picture works
Basically yeah
Basically all modern papers use the language of HTT and HA, and eventually you’ll read stuff that uses them, and you can back-fill as needed
I tried learning some infinity category stuff but I found it a bit dry without motivation
Also I didn’t know if it was actually worthwhile
It’s absolutely worthwhile, but it’s very frustrating to learn
Why do you say so
Np, feel free to @ if you have questions
if i speak i am in big trouble
Lmao
no just that at some point it starts becoming like formal logic at least for those of us who care about topology of manifolds and is not a working homotopy theorist
It’s formal but I doubt the logicians would agree w that
I guess there is the categorical side but I think there is also the very topological side right?
But there’s tons of cool very-homotopical work that has direct consequences for manifolds
i don’t disagree, but curious what you have in mind
A great recent example is the Burklund Hahn Senger paper which is titled “on the boundaries of highly connected almost closed manifolds” or something
I think HHR is in this realm as well
HHR is a little closer to the Russian spirit
Hill Hopkins Ravenel
Something something kervaire invariant 1
ah ok
good theorem
ive always thought of that as an algebraic topology theory though i will admit
theorem*
The line is blurry but the extensive uses of stable equivariant homotopy theory I think makes it a bit more modern than say Adams paper on hopf invariant 1
i should read the Adams paper someday
I don’t know too much about this but I think there are also applications to (classical) problems in number theory via the motivic side.
Oh homotopy theory is super influential in number theory these days
Mostly via connections to arithmetic geometry
Actually could you elaborate more on this?
Just key terms I guess?
So there’s a few directions. The connections to K-Theory start with Nikolaus-Scholze and Blumberg-Gepner-Tabuada. The connections to arithmetic geo can be seen in the recent explosion of work on prismatic cohomology and related invariants
Basically Bhatt-Morrow-Scholze show in their first paper that there is some big cohomology theory Ainf that specializes to a bunch of other known ones, and then in their second paper they show that this is deeply connected to THH
But honestly most “derived” work at all these days uses infty cats
Recalling how to compute things on resolutions where helpful
Since I’m on a soap box anyway I believe the correct take on all of this is that infinity categories are what we were trying to get at all along and model categories are akin to group-presentations
Ie model categories are just one of many ways to present an infinity category
Yea I’ve heard of this analogy before
I just have one question: all of this stuff, has anyone used them to prove any result that someone outsider can understand?
How outsider
Say, a first-year grad student
With what background
thats quite broad
(I’m a second year grad student to be clear)
I guess "grad student" means different things then 😄
I have heard about this infinite category before, just not sure where to go from there
Well, it depends on how and whether they relate to things you care about
Category theory to me is still only a convenient tool to state stuff in Alg Topo
I think you don’t need to force the issue w infinity cats
If they are relevant to your interests they will come up naturally in other peoples papers and you can learn as you need
i learnt about them from Lurie’s cobordism hypothesis paper right after getting done with Hatcher. It should be an accessible introduction to a place where they crop up somewhat naturally, for first year graduate students in topology.
Luries On Higher Topoi also has good intuition
but if you know what a simplicial set is, infty cats are a small walk from there, definition wise. and simplicial sets are useful everywhere, even in more geometric subfields of topology
Yeah. The issue is more so that like the definitions and the intuitions have a big gap
Like essentially 0 of my inf cat intuition comes from thinking of them as simplicial sets satisfying horn filling conditions
makes sense
i guess im telling him to learn what a simplicial set is instead of an infinity category immediately lol
more probability of using them irregardless of specialization
simplicial set...?
I'm pretty sure I know abstract simplicial complex, but I'm pretty sure they are not the same thing
theyre simplicial complexes but, like, kinda fat
you know how [0, 1, 2] is a 2-simplex? three vertices, three edges, one face?
Yeah?
in then world of simplicial sets, you have lots of and lots of degenerate vertices, edges, faces and higher cells even in the 2-simplex.
for instance, [0, 1, 2, 2] is a 3-cell for the 2-simplex
ahhhh
its homotopy-fat
Ok, I saw this one I think
Yes, def saw this one, just didn't remember this name
Ye olde analogy
infty-cat <---> model category
manifold <---> local charts
I have a quick terminology question. Some places seem to use the term "analytic basis" but as far as I can tell this just looks like the standard definition of a basis? Is this correct or am I missing something?
What’s the term analytic basis defined as
this is one place: https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Definition:Basis_(Topology)/Analytic_Basis
this looks to me to be the definition of a basis
just more asking for a yes/no sanity check
Just looks like a basis
bizarre terminology
I think this is mostly a distinction between a basis for a given topology vs the combinatorial data needed to generate a topology from a prescribed basis
It’s entirely psychological tho
i tell you homotopy theorists can never say “equality”
Huh
That's the def of basis I know and love in topo, that's weird
never knew ppl call it analytic basis
ok I'll keep this term in the back of my head and never use it then lol
No such thing
i need to explain to geometrically-minded topologists, very briefly, what a derived category is. does anything at all get lost by saying “objects are chain complexes, morphisms are roofs”?
A <- B -> C are the morphisms A -> C, where the left one is a quasi iso
Omg what
That’s a funny name for a span
That's the classical construction of the derived category
I’ve never heard the word roof used before
oh i have always called it roofs
Anyway honestly I would just say that you take the category of chain complexes and force quasi-isos to be isos
I don’t think you need to mention the construction at all if you’re not gonna use it
i will use it :p
Yeah maybe stick to the universal property if possible
Ah
Then I’d say what I said and then briefly remark on why your thing is a model for it
You can have much bigger zig zags tho right
they compose
Can I ask a boring π1y thing lol just to sanity check smth lol
quasi isos are multiplicative
You use the Ore condition to compress them into that shape
think of a pyramid of cards
So like I was thinking uh take S^2 and identify exactly one pair of (wlog i guess up to homeo) antipodal points, what's the universal cover
the bottom is zigzags, the big edges form the big roof
I imagine what we do is we just take a long line of S^2s glued at one point between each
And then just identify all of the points which are used to connect them?
So just S^2 wedge a circle?
Yeah S^2 wedge a circle has a cover which is fairly easy to write down
i dont understand the second line
Oh I wondered if you had to do some identifications to this I mean
So uh
nope
No you don't
Nice sure
In the wild are you meant to find these sorts of thing mostly by geometric reasoning lol
Note that a nice feature of the theory is that if you have a guess for the universal cover it’s pretty straightforward to check if ur right
Yeah
Thankies
Yeah idk why I was basically concerned about it being a local homeo about the points you identify
But no, a nbhd of that is easy to visualise and matches up with the string of spheres
take spaces X, Y glued along a subspace Z. what is the universal cover in terms of Xtilde, Ytilde, Ztilde?
as a corollary compute universal cover of torus with a mobius strip glued in along the meridian
I calculated this and I must comment that I definitely did not enjoy it at the time lmao
iirc it's like R^2 x {0} U R^2 x {1} and you glue strips of height 1 along Z x {R} x {0} and Z x {R} x {1}
is that simply connected
tbh we weren't sure it's the only thing we got after like trying for 3 days straight lmao
plus we found some paper supporting us
its much worse
at least i think so, i just cooked up a random example and didnt give much thought
I think that's a problem from Hatcher
ah yeah we made a mistake lol that isn't correct it's something else much worse
Oop
Pain
I am doing some interesting thing with an application to groups
So like if G is a finitely presented group with a presentation <x1,...,x_n | r1,...,r_k> it's standard that we can form a 2-dimensional complex X with pi1(X) = G by taking a 0-cell, adding n 1-cells and then attaching 2-cells via the relations
But this is saying like "subdivide the cells" to show that we can give G a presentations with all relations of length <= 3
Inch resting
Hm any ideas on how to subdivide the cells as they say? Feels slightly odd to me hm
my first thought was to triangulate stuff
because 3 = triangle
the cell complex can be made into a polyhedral one easily and then one can triangulate each polyehdral cell
now continue
So for every relation with length 4 or more (abc...) you just add another generator z and a relation z^{-1}ab and iterate?
yes but good to see that geometrically in terms of a triangulation
i might fall asleep so ill add more hints now that cloudberry revealed one way to do it. think of a square cell attaching to wedge of four circles, then subdivide the square in half. interpret the diagonal as z and sliding part of the relator loop (given by roaming around the four circles) into the diagonal as setting z = ab
in general triangulate and consider the 1-skeleton of the triangulation as the new wedge of circles (after contracting the maximal tree inside) and the triangles as the new cells
side note, its good to think of presentations in terms of the cayley complex, it remembers a lot about the group. for example, surface groups (genus >= 2) have the property that they have a presentation in which any two 2-cells in the universal cover of the cayley complex will share at most 1/6th of the length of their respective boundaries. a group is said to have the C’(1/6) cancellation property if they satisfy this and is a strong imposition on the structure of the group, eg the universal cover of the cayley complex becomes contractible
this stuff falls under the rubric of “small cancellation theory”, used to great effect in both geometric group theory and low dim topology
Is there a clean explicit construction to this?
i assume p and q are in the interior of D^2?
- rotate them to be aligned horizontally
- expand the top and contract the bottom (like rotating a sphere and looking at it from the side, but you keep some region near the edge to expand or contract) or vice versa so they lie on a diameter
- do the same thing horizontally to bring p to q
- undo the first two steps
there's also probably something you can do with a bump function
also there's the thing where D^2 (modulo boundary) is a model of the hyperbolic plane
which might be cleaner
actually you might not be able to keep the boundary fixed there
i like the idea of using a bump function for this
yeah you can't
maybe this
$$f:D^2 \to D^2, , f(x) = x + \psi(x)(q - x)$$ where $\psi:D^2\to D^2$ is a bump function on some open ball $\beta\subset D^2$ containing $p$,$q$, and such that $\psi(p) = 1$
maximo
i may have oversimplified but this looks ok to me
i think you need psi(p) = psi(q) = 1 at least
because here f(p) = f(q) = q
but not really sure what else you need
ah yeah
i think blowing it up to a plane, translating, and shrinking it back down might be the easiest way
i think it's an easier visual, but i think your idea of a bump function will be a cleaner construction
but it is a little tricky since you have to show that doesn't mess with the boundary
ah ok maybe it's simpler than what i wrote above. $$f(x) = x + \psi(x)(q-p)$$
that should be a plus
maximo
i think you need to choose a good bump function so you don't go beyond the boundary
i don't think there's bijection issues, but i can't tell
actually it's not so bad, you scale the interior by 1/(1-|r|) to go to the plane and 1-1/|r| to go back, and then you can show that translated lines in the plane still end at the same point on the boundary of the disk
or you can do this with a sequence approaching the boundary of the disk
or whatever
so the bump function would be 0 outside that ball B?
Also thank you, this construction makes sense
Good exercise
Is X = {(x, y, z) | at least one coordinate is in Z } homotopy equivalent to the 3-torus?
yes, though i think there’s injection issues with my definition
Don’t think so
What would be pi_1 of this space?
You get something like hollow boxes stacked together
0 I believe
Is this a contractible space?
No I'm trying to calculate the fundamental groups of some non-trivial spaces. I think that each hollow box here would be at least homotopy equivalent to S²?
Yeah
Not sure if this is even a thing but would this result in the wedge sum of S²'s?
Feels like it, sure
Feels like a 2D version of a graph where you can contract your maximal tree
Cool. What if instead of Z we use Q? We'll just get more spheres in the sum?
Like a denser grid
Tbh idk
Seems like it. It's a lattice with faces filled in everywhere, so any loop restricted to some face would look like a path between boundary points, then you have a fixed end-point homotopy to the boundary and the process repeats
yeah
Image you inflate each sphere to a hollow cube with rounded edges, this doesn't change the homotopy but the edges wouldn't actually touch at any point, but in the hollow box lattice you do have "diagonal" hollow boxes touching.
So it's like a wedge sum with some added relations
how would i approach this?
you can use openness of both discs
to find open balls around your point entirely contained within each
use that to find the third disc within their intersection
right, but i couldnt think anything explicit in terms of this arbitrary point (a,b) that would be surely contained within both
if any <x,y> in D_<a,b> is a point such that (x-a)^2 + (y-b)^2 < r^2 for some r>0 then D_<a,b> is open 🤔
so we want some disc such that we can have this for an arbitrary point in this intersection
... but im not sure where this is going unfortunately
im being really cautious since the notion of metric spaces hasnt been introduced yet
could i instead somehow show that instead we could form... some open rectange instead within this intersection and therefore we can form some open disc within this open rectangle which would transitively also be within this interesction?
the idea is that these discs forms a basis for the topology on R^2, so by definition of a basis, if there is a point in the intersection of two basis elements, there is a third basis element containing the point, and contained in the intersection
yeah, the topologies are also the same
euclidean, product and the basis given by open discs
but yeah, your idea was close enough
you just need to manage to find this r
but the thing is not to show D_(a, b) is open, but contained in the intersection
Do symmetric monoidal categories have that for a pair of morphisms (f,g), f composed with g equals g composed with f (I’m assuming the functor equipped with the category basically acts as composition/precomposition)
This is in the context of topological field theories
The definition of symmetric monoidal category didnt distinguish between the action of the functor on objects and morphisms
morphism composition is directional. Composability of (f,g) does not imply composability of (g,f).
In the paper I’m reading, there’s a criteria that there’s an isomorphism between functor( C,D) and functor(D,C) which seems to be equivalence of compositions
But yeah i was confused about it
Look at an example. Sets form a symmetric monoidal category under disjoint union. The composition of maps of sets is not commutative
Even if the case they do, it's not true. Consider the following in Cob_2:
$\tau : 2 \rightarrow 2$ twist map
$T : 1\rightarrow 1$ the torus with two holes.
Now
$$\tau \circ (1\sqcup T) \neq (1\sqcup T)\circ \tau$$
Cloudberry
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Nice. So know I know the functor associated with a sm category does not act like composition. But what does it act like on morphisms?
would it suffice to say something like
suppose we are in the first 'half' of this intersection, where half is just modelled by a side of a line that joins up the two points of intersections
then picture a line perpendicular to one of our D's (depending on the half we chose but including the "half line") that goes through a,b
clearly, the distance between length of the line between our intersection of the line and circle is our shortest distance between the point and the circle
so we can set our 'r' to this distance and so we can have an open disc D_<a,b> radius r which must be contained in our intersection by symmetry
In the category of cob, morphisms are associated with bordisms (or are bordisms not sure which) has the functor which acts like a tensor product. So what’s a tensor product between morphisms supposed to suggest? That you just take the disjoint union of the bordism as you normally do in cob?
In Cob, the symmetric monoidal product is disjoint union, yes.
Thanks
since basis is an open covering for X isnt 2 the same thing as part a of the theorem?
oh maybe there is some issue with the intersection not containing a basis element if i use the theorem
not every cover is a basis. i don’t think either of these statements implies the other.
it’s true that exercise 2 implies part a when the open cover happens to be a basis.
Btw part a is known as Lindelöf's theorem (or lemma)
If I have an infinite compact Hausdorff space, and two different points, can I always separate them "twice"? Find two disjoint neigbourhoods of them and then again a proper smaller closed neighbourhood of each of the points?
It's also fine if the bigger ones are open neighbourhoods, they just have to be disjoint.
No. Take any infinite compact Hausdorff space and add two disjoint clopen points.
In this discrete subspace you get a counter-example.
But the second should be possible? Because it is T4 and T3?
It's sufficient to add just one point but two is easier to visualize
I can take two disjoint closed neighbourhoods because T_2.5 and then separate them by T4?
Ah yeah, I see, I actually didn't need proper inclusions when the second one is open, so that's fine.
Nice example cloudberry
Thanks for the help!
Hello can u guys suggest books or references for countable and denumerable sets
that aint topology. just read some set theory book lol
Our prof said that this is a need for our topology subject. I guess I chatted the wrong channel hahaha.
But do u guys have book suggestions for topology?
Do you mean in terms of induction proofs? Or can you be a little more specific about what you need?
like this
our activity is like this.
and i would like to study it further.
I see. I don't know of any text that treat this specific notion in great detail, but there should be lecture notes floating around the web.
If you google "Countable sets lecture notes" you should be able to find a few to choose from.
a book in intro to proofs should work, I heard the one by rosen is good
Thank you @neat stag and @solemn oar
is hyouka a worthwhile watch?

ok ill watch thx
"Suppose $X$ is locally Euclidian of dimension $n$, and $f : X \to Y$ is a surjective local homeomorphism. Show that $Y$ is locally Euclidian of dimension $n$."
Let $U_x \subseteq X$ be a neighborhood of $x$. Since $f$ is a local homeomorphism, $f(U_x) \subseteq Y$ is an open subset and $f|_{U_x} : U_x \to f(U_x)$ is a homeomorphism. Then each $f(U_x) \approx U_x \approx$ an open ball in $\bR^n$, where the last equivalence is from definition of $X$ being locally Euclidian. Since $f$ is surjective, each $y \in Y$ has a neighborhood $f(U_x)$ which is homeomorphic to an open ball in $\bR^n$, and is thus locally Euclidian with dimension $n$.
does that proof work? it feels kinda odd
\approx denotes homeomorphic
anamono for anamono 🍓
more or less the right idea but be careful bc not every neighborhood of x is homeomorphic to its image, and not every neighborhood of x is homeomorphic to an open ball in R^n
every nbhd of x is homeo to its image is defn of local homeo i thought




