#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 38 of 1
Munkres all the way
any other honorable mentions?
maybe its good to have more literature
Euhm, I guess yes? There are many other proofs for that fact, it's a standard exercise
(also do you mean Elements Of Algebraic Topology by munkres?)
oh damn
I tried many, but no other really stuck
what about hatcher?
also, do you have the book as a pdf or smth? haha
I'm reading hatcher rn... it's really confusing
oh, i see
okay hahah
Yes, I always have pdfs
you mind sharing? 👁️
For munkres you don't even need to pirate
oh rlly
It's there on Google
lemme search
Wait how is that not pirating
It's an equivalent statement.
if you're new to alg top Rotman is good imo (freely available online), Hatcher has good treatments of certain topics and some good examples/exercises. I think his treatment of covering stuff is a good supplement to other ressources
@urban zinc I strongly recommend the book by Spanier, especially the first 3 chapters.
I'm in a Hatcher reading group and I dunno if I can handle more than one textbook but I'll give it a look, thanks!
thank you guys, ill look into those
After that it basically turns into a comprehensive reference and becomes like, unreadable because of the scope and generality of the results.
But you can still use it for clear understandable proofs if you want a good proof of the result
Yeah hatcher refers to spanier several times i think
😭
I guess it's a matter of taste. Munkres went the chronological way, built everything from simplicial complex before deriving Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms. It goes slowly, and very gently. Singular homology becomes almost immediate because of that, as opposed to Hatcher.
Actually i have some caveats
That's why I said not Hatcher
i see i see
Chapters 1-3 (on introductory alg top, fundamental group, fibrations, simplicial complexes) are pretty readable
Chapter 7 (introduction to homotopy theory) is readable
Chapters 4-6 (homology and cohomology) are an encyclopedia and should only be read if you have somebody telling you exactly what results you actually need to read and understand. Also the important results are listed at the beginning of each section so you could just read those and save a lot of time
Also Munkres focused only on Homology for the majority of the book.
Hatched wrote about almost everything. You have to endure quite a lot before you see some homology.
spanier has too much content imo
anyone have any good exposition suggestions on CW complexes?
trying to wrap my head around them
if you want to get the idea, it's probably not a good first read. Maybe comeback to it later when you know which results you really want to see
which one would you suggest, ryu
Munkres 
They are in Spanier, in Ch 7.6 i think?
They're also in Strom's Modern classical homotopy theory
munkres for everything 
hatcher's chapter zero is so painful
Chapter 4 of Munkres is on Singular and Cellular homology
lmao, even chapter 0 is painful?
hatcher is painful
I told y'all so, many times
depends on your taste, if you like hatcher's treatment then hatcher. If you want rigour then Rotman. If details then Spanier. If diff topo and geo viewpoint then Bredon and if you're insane then May
May isn't too bad. At least it's concise
if you have no idea what those things are then yes. I went back to ch0 few months back and I liked it
(I used to hate hatcher btw)
I hate hatcher with passion
It's not worse than may
If you are not so bad, you might wanna try SGA.
Just to see how others live
will do, thank you:)
It's the best piece of Alg Topo, wdym 
It's commutative, it's computable, it's nice, it's cute
As opposed to that horrible piece of homotopy. It can go fuck itself.
Hatcher is a good book for people who’ll end up doing geometric topology
yes
Found chap 0 a bit disorganised lol
It has the right cultural context. The standard of proof and discussion in Hatcher is essentially that of modern geometric topology.
Well, it has a nice little ring on it
Turns out it's quite cool
it's the worst chapter because it's meant as a handwavy introduction. i mean the book is handwavy as a whole but the introduction is extra handwavy. if you try to read it rigorously it's painful
I like Chapter 0 a bunch, it has all the necessary theorems to make everything precise
I like Chapter 0 as a hand-wavey intro, but some of the exercises at the end feel completely unjustified lol
imma just watch some videos on cw complexes
Like he wants you to practice handwaving also
Do you remember a specific example
Italian school?

It's all fine and good to develop intuition. I study mostly with my intuition these days. But topology is a dangerous land.
I remember hating this exercise when I first read through
wtf the torus is a 2-cell attached to the figure 8
Hatcher has a high starting bar, I didnt really understand anything before reading Munkres part 2
Hah, yeah, that’s a funny one
Lmaoooo
What is wedge product again? I completely forgot
disjoint union, except identify a point
Ahhh
He just doesnt construct any explicit homotopies in the chapter, so it's really more like playing with imaginary playdoh
I always think of wedge in tensor algebra.
different wedge
Proposition 0.15 basically makes all the arguments he makes precise,
how does one visualize adding a 2-cell to a figure 8 to make a torus
is this something y'all can visualize
Yeah
Think very hard about the square picture for a torus
It took me some getting used to, the first time I learnt CW complexes
I agree, but it's hard to see that when you are the naive self-studyer
okay lemme think more
Oh absolutely, it clicked way later for me, essentially in Chapter 2
Or think of the torus and take two interlocking circles like the big and small one
that is the 1-skeleton of the torus
Was about to say that
But yeah it's still a bit weird visualising
But the final attaching the 2-cell isn't that easy to grasp
That’s cheating, because you are not visualizing how the disk is physically being attached
That’s the most interesting part IMO
Oh sure I mean I was more thinking about giving a decomposition
I gotchu
which i kinda feel is the ssame if you think about the square picture
I mean, I can visualise it in my head how the 2-cell got stretched to cover the tours, but I don't have a blackboard with me
😄
It’s a local embedding, but not necessarily an embedding.
Prove that there’s an immersion from the punctured torus to R^2
Or rather, construct such a thing.
Oh I watched a video and now I get the definition of a CW complex at least
That was really straightforward
It looked a lot scarier in Hatcher 
Now construct the CW structure on the torus, or more generally on the surface of genus g, in complete gory details.
Might as well go with handles at that point
Quite, handlebody decompositions are exactly like CW structures
If I am not mistaken, an immersion from torus to R^2 is trivial. The punctured point makes things complicated a bit
But I really never remember immersion, imbedding, embedding, and all of those things
Immersion = local embedding, thats all
Believe it or not, i don't know embedding either 😄
I just know intuitively what it is
You know point-set topology?
I do, but up to basic differentiable manifolds
An embedding is just homeomorphism onto image.
I remember reading about these things in Sternberg, but I keep forgetting them
Don’t need differentiable manifolds for this
Just ol’e Munkres knowledge is sufficient
i never read Munkres' Topology either, if that's what you mean 😄
But ok, gimme a sec, I think my intuition can give something
Oh, where did you learn point set topology then?
We had a course last semester, up to IVT and some small applications, e.g. Larange's multipliers
That’s calculus, not point-set topology, though.
After that I'm taking a course on Diff Geo, and studying Diff Geo, Alg Topo, and Knot theory by myself
You should go through Hatcher’s 50 page notes
Not Hatcher again
Quick and dirty intro to point-set top
Well, Munkres is too long. I wouldnt recommend it if you want to pick up point-set backgrounds for AT
||deform and project||
roughly speaking
Most books on point set topology are unnecessarily long IMO
is that what you're referring to
lukewarm take the only bad thing about hatcher is the typesetting
i cannot read this book. my eyes just glaze over the paragraphs
Seems unclear that your construction gives a local embedding.
Unless I’m misunderstanding
DM me more details?
What is much of the content of point set actually good for? Outside of to learn point set
Maybe that was a stupid question
Not much. Just that we topologists need to write in that language, otherwise the rest of the mathematicians will crucify us. We already get too much flak for being imprecise
no i just haven't given it detailed thoughts, maybe it's even wrong
Ohhh, those embedding theorems
Else, I’d start sentences with like “Let X be a playdough, we squish the subdough Y…”
But that only explains why torus has no immersion onto R^2
The typesetting might be my favorite part of the book ngl
||basically doing the deformation to S^1 v S^1 but leaving it "thickened" s.t. it's still a diffeo and not just a homotopy and "flatten" it that way s.t. we can project it into the plane||
This is exactly correct
I also glaze over but I think that's just cause Hatcher loves to talk and talk and keep talking
Wait, this makes little sense. I keep thinking about torus as a differentiable manifold, and the atlast gives an immersion, or am I tripping?
you might be
Each individual chart in the atlas gives a local embedding, but these do not patch up to an immersion
You need a map T^2 -> R^2
@hidden crag ||Reinterpretation: the Pochhammer contour is nullhomologous in the twice punctured plane||
btw is there any stronger result of embed-ability of smooth manifolds inside Rⁿ. I know one constraint can be given using SW class. Is there more restrictive one?
immersability*
One I saw in Lee saying closes manifold of dim n can be immersed in 2n-k where k is the number of 1's in the binary expansion of n
like wtf?
Any characteristic class that detects stable triviality should do the job. I don’t know of stronger invariants per se
lol
||reinterpretation: you can hang a picture onto two nails with a string such that it falls off when you remove one||
||Very nice!||
Can you give me a hint why?
analysis
The very nice structure of atlast should make it possible, although my intuition says no
A lot of topology is used in stuff like functional analysis
The charts do not agree on the intersections, only upto a transition function they agree.
not to mention that like analysis on compact abelian topological groups is used a lot in Tate's thesis for example
But for the chart maps to glue up you need literal agreement
Coz gluing lemma etc
Tate’s thesis to justify point set topology
bruh
bruh give me a break I'm trying 😭
peak algebraist
I literally am not even gonna joke abt that lmao
Idk if you want some better use you can always cite some stupid technical lemma in AT
I was more so referring to the endless pile of definitions they make you keep track of in a point set class
btw how did you give the immersion of T²\pt
Like all the T1234567 spaces
exercise
That was to avoid getting crucified
Tbh later on I found these kinda cool (because they're used in cool stuff like topological groups lol (I like topological groups a lot))
i will email subject board to ask you that specifically in the oral exam, @coarse night
Tho realistically I only know what T0,1,2,3,3 1/2 and 4 are
My guess is immersing it to S^2. Removing a point is removing a point from S^2, which gives R^2. I don't see another way to work around that stupid point
I need to worry about CA first
Topological groups 
completely regular spaces my beloved 
see my spoilered text for a description
or is that not what you meant?
me and timo leave it as an exercise to you to interpret our cryptic spoiler messages
||This one is just to waste your time||
I remember forgetting definitions on my point set final and not being able to do the problems and just sitting there for an hour staring out the window 
I hope I never have to read munkres again
Shit, I can't think of anything. Torus is a bit weird of an object.
TIL I need to study point-set rigorously again
youll figure it out, im confident
need to think about the definitions a little bit, and the rest is visualization tricks — up your alley
The thing is, im my head, I pick a point, then zoom in to find a neighborhood that just locally flat-ish, and immerse that to R^2. This same trick would also show T^2 is immersible to R^2, which is wrong (for a completely stupid reason in my head, one is compact and the other is not).
I'm having hard time rigorously arguing where the fault lies
the sentence after "this same trick" is wrong
you said that already
i should read the whole msg before replying
I know, I know nothing is correct in my reasoning 😄
you're trying to patch together a global map out of local diffeos
there's no reason that should work
whitney and induct
I don't see why it shouldn't either
Transition maps are just too nice to make it fail
No?
They have to agree on overlap
That’s a quite strong condition
If this worked you could build@anything you wanted to In difftop
And it would be a meaningless subject
"and it would be a meaningless subject" is one of my favorite ways to tell someone their argument is wrong lmao
becoming sheafpilled
It’s a good way
As I said
all symplectic manifolds are globally R^2n sorry ibsen
with which form tterra........
spoiler
.
Oopsy
yeah i think we mean the same thing
Pain
Yes yeah
Yeah.
Ok, I guess this will work: I will take a leap of faith and say a punctured torus is just an annulus
So like automorphic forms
Then it all makes sense
||Once you do the deformation retract like “halfway” you just get two strands vibing in space and you can boop it”||
||is this not an embedding into R^2 though I feel like I’m missing something||
But there are still so many gaps
I'm feeling like feather rn 😄
This is just false
Jumped into the mud with that one
It is an identification space of an Annulus tho which is maybe a useful way to think of it
||the flattening step may mess up this as an embedding but I can’t quite see it. Thoughts Timo?||
I guess that's what I meant? I saw a picture today about Morse theory and attaching handles
I don't believe in Morse theory lol it's just a theory
That's my last guess actually, I'm out of moves now
have you ever even seen a nondegenerate critical point in the wild? they're too good at hiding
A good idea for this problem is to think of the fundamental polygon
It’s really useful also to like
Have you seen that torus cut a point is homotopy equiv to a wedge of two circles
Is this a Sard joke?
I don’t think I could do this proof unless I had seen that before
it's a joke about the DN category of manifolds
DN you say?
CW complex thing-y? Yes
Ok but like do you know the visual proof
Ah, but which R^2n? There are exotic symplectic R^2n s!!!
you're an exotic symplectic R^2n
Yes. That's how I remember how to construct CW complex of torus 😄
a rare and very nice find
||it wont be an embedding, youre right: just an immersion. the point being, the nbhd of the 1 skeleton of the torus isnt an annulus with two holes in R^2, even though they look kinda same||
||is the essential problem flattening the juncture point like I said? It feels like you’d have to like. Twist both strips of paper in a way that would “shear” and tear something at the center to flatten||
fuck i was beaten to this joke
||this is very informal but that is my sense of the issue||
||exactly, but you can do this without twisting badly even though thats the natural instinct. draw the joint like a usual cross on the plane, a thickening of the letter X, and do the noninjective rigamarole elsewhere||
I wish I had this sort of intuition for higher dimensional objects
T1234567 is an extremely strong separation axiom.
Well, there's another proof with the square identifying edges. Removing a point leaves only the four edges, which up to identification is wedge of two circles
how high do you want to be
5 or <= 4
I guess that's what you meant?
This is not true though
That’s true up to homotopy
Which might be what you meant
Curious you removed 5 here
im bad with inequalities
Usually if I were going to remove a dimension it would be 3 or 4
you get what i meam
All :)
more than or equal to 5, or less
more than or equal to 5 is uhm
messy
3 = 2 + 1 but personally i find 4 easier since 4 = 2 * 2
most analytically gifted topologist
i draw all 4 dimensional handlebodies just like 2
Ok, I'm out 😄
the attaching maps are framed links and thats the only 3 d intuition you need
Kirby calculus is quite goated for this stuff
I keep mixing different parts of topology
cya megumi
Go Megumi! But stay here!
I need to learn so many more things
what's the H^*(Spec Z[x])
Unfortunately I was unable to remember their definitions 

Me neither 
I only remember 0 1 and one of them is hausdorff
too much to read / too little time / soon we all die
T3?
T4 is quite strong, def not Hausdorff
T2 is hausdorff
One of them is Kolmogorov. Never remember what is what
T1000 is inseparable. No I mean like literally, they tried cracking it open after dipping it in liquid nitrogen
wait until you hear about 1001
soon you have a movie franchise about separation axioms
Let M be a noncompact manifold with trivial tangent bundle, of dimension n
Then M immerses in R^n
proof: whitney and induct
Nearly there, but just one thing
me, not knowing what a bundle is: yeah, sure, why not
alternative to “trivial tangent bundle”: there are vector fields X1, …, Xn on M which span every tangent space at every point
n = dim M
Why are y'all surprised 😄 I told y'all I didn't know much
proof: triangulate M, then push the triangles by fingers from infinity until they all deformation retract to their faces, which gives a deformation retract of M to a codimension 1 skeleton, wiggle waggle the skeleton, then undeformation retract it back
by which I mean of course, apply the Smale-Hirsch immersion theorem
wish i could write papers like this

I was just surprised because you talked about smooth scructures etc earlier, i didn't mean for that to seem like i'm mocking you
I just spent time on this ?
ain't no way I could find that
oh but its easier for punctured torus
I mean, I know a lot of stuff, but in no way systematic. I only know well what I was interested in at some point.
i can assure you that you can 100% do it for punctured torus, with some amount of patience
There are always a lot of holes and gaps like this
bro is not contractible
Could be interesting!
The amount of math we had in uni is abysmal :sadge:
theres an indie horror game which came out last year which, when you move your POV around and point at various objects, shows you in huge font sizes on the screen “Could be interesting!”
to get you to like interact with it
ill start irl all-caps that whenever i point to something interesting from now on
Mathematics
Today I learned of a very cool proof that R^4 admits uncountably many smooth structures
But don't test me on that yet, I haven't grasped all the details 😄
isnt that a super hard theorem lol
any positive-dimensional topological manifold which admits one smooth structure admits uncountably many
i barely know a tenth of the details
lol
:^)
ok, you got me

It is. But there's a nice series of argument from knot theory
Basically every topologically but not smoothly slice knot gives rise to such a structure.
megumi you may want to distinguish between distinct and nonisomorphic smooth structures
i think that implication involves seiberg witten theory
because why should that be true right
i agree construction of those knots is nice tho
Simpler I think
oh im not just saying some parts of that implication maybe harder than others. but again, indont know much, this is a guess
Any knot with trivial Alexander polynomial is topologically slice
Oh wow but is that obvious
I know smoothly slice implies its f(t) f(t)^-1
Showing the non-smooth slice can be done with Rasmussen's s-invariant
Oh damn ok
That's why I said don't test me on the details. This single series of argument by itself can be an honour thesis
learn the deets and explain it to me
Even that is hell deep I think 😄
Much easier than everything else you said
Hmm, let's see if I can figure out a proof
strategic rwby reference with the boop
Yes precisely
Eric Working Through AT
Trying to compute the homology groups of this space
is it $H_0(X) = Z, H_1(X) = Z^{n+m}, H_2(X) = Z$ ?
ru0xffian
n+m 1-cells and the cellular boundary map is zero
agrees with homology of Torus when u plugin n = m = 1
I believe this to be correct
There's one 0-cell n+m 1-cells and one 2-cell
Then the d_0 map is 0 since there's only one zero cell
And d_1 is 0 since the attaching map for the 2-cell is a^mb^na^-mb^-n which disappears when abelianized
yeah this agrees with my reasoning
the identification of the circles gives you a wedge of m+n circles
How?
Doesn't that just turn the circle into another circle lol
But changes behaviour around it
ah
I understood it as you identify the points that are 2pi/m away from the basepoint
Is there a particular reason why AT textbooks tend to use \overline for the inverse path instead of ^-1
Ahhhh. But then you should get Z^(m+n+2)
tho now that I read it again this makes more sense
Hmm but it is, modulo path homotopy right?
me when cos^-1
Okay lol just checking ty
Lol
i write inverse
I write 1/γ
goated
Okay this is making me realise I need to do more explicit calculations with (co)homology lol
Hey John!
Usually they are more geometrically understandable spaces than this kek
but also inverse is less than ideal here
We should make a Discord Bot, that will give us some simple structure and we can practice computing (co)homology
I usually say $[\gamma]^{-1}$, the [] implies its an equivalence class so its implicitly part of the group
JohnDS
but ofc this doesnt cover all cases 😭
Lol
Lol wonder what the homotopy groups are
Integration Bee is outdated. Now we have Homology Bee
time to use only H_1 so i can call it -\gamma 
Hmmm I see
This makes sense
Wait actually lol silly question
Uhhhh
Nvm
I am just struggling to visualise that space lol
I would unironically watch this
but i imagine you kinda can't
Its gluing a disk to a wedge of circles by a^n b^m a^-n b^-m. Bit of a mess
oh yeah the space is kinda wierd
Yeah sure
But thats the simplest I can describe it
You can even go hardcore and write simplicial complex
Who’s running the relative homotopy LES?
Me
LES?
long exact sequence
Bruh
Conjecture, this has contractible universal cover
No shit
this is kinda an octagon with side identifications right lol
Indeed lots of flaps
So we can probably construct a universal cover by pasting those together
I think more of a huge grid
No?
No I mean the space
Not octagon, sorry
Some big n-gon
not n because n has already been used but ye
Huh? But we only have the torus. Lots of identifications, sure, but still from a torus
I don't see why it would make some n-gon
hmm you can get a nm cover that is like
take an m x n grid, take mnZ^2 many of these. paste top and bottom along a 1/m subedge
a bunch of torus connected glued together
and left and right along a 1/n subedge
and yeah it should be what ibsen describes i think
Yeah, so where does n-gon come from? Or am I missing something 😄
m x n grid = mn-gon essentially
yeah the wierd thing is that the edges of this grid will really only be of lenght one (we will identify things beyond that), but R^2 should still be a cover I think
or hmm
yeah it should be
can't wait for exams to be over and to do more topology 
more tautology
lol just realised i got sent topology resources on a zoom call so i no longer have access to them
hope i can remember / find them lol
The fact that path composition is in the opposite order as function composition is tripping me up so much lol
i find the path stuff much easier. a first then b, so ab
to this day i confuse which order functions go in
It's a good thing I don't have to think about permutations
Having two different conventions is the worst 
The world if mathematical notation were logical:
Same I have to picture it out each time and@make@sure where I’m starting at
Wow wait this problem is cool, didn't expect the results of c and d even though the proof is really simple
this is a good one
Wow the AT chapters of Munkres Topology are a lot more readable than Hatcher 😭
yeah I had this problem on some pset before; really cool result
7c+d is called the Eckmann-Hilton argument
heres a way of doing this which is visually entertaining. i will write \otimes vertically and * horizontally. then, f g is equal to
f e
e g
which is equal to
e f
g e
which is equal to g f
Neat! so this is a version of the interchange law
theres actually some geometry behind this interpretation
you can also show that the homology ring of a topological group has an algebra structure
I guess I'll learn what a homology ring is soon enough
(also that the action of G of this ring factors through pi_0(G))
The most general version of this theorem I know of is:
Let $M$ be a set, and let $\cdot$ and $\otimes$ be binary operations on $M$. Let $e\in M$ such that $e$ is a left and right unit for both $\otimes$ and $\cdot$, so $e\otimes x=x=x\otimes e$ and $e\cdot x = x = x\cdot e$.
Suppose that we have $(a\cdot b)\otimes (c\cdot d)=(a\otimes c)\cdot (b\otimes d)$.
Then $\otimes=\cdot$ and $M$ is an Abelian monoid.
diligentClerk
In particular, these operations are associative.
Unrelated but I just found this
group object in grp is abelain group.
That's really cool
A useful application of this is when $\otimes$ is known to be a group, but $\cdot$ is only known to be a monoid. After applying the theorem we know that $\cdot$ has inverses.
diligentClerk
Let Omega(X, x0) denote the space of maps S^1 -> X sending 1 to x0. Equip it with the compact-open topology (or if X is a metric space, put the sup metric). Consider the product defined by taking two such maps f, g and letting fg = f * g. This is not a topological group, because path composition isnt a group operation, but it is an “H space” ie upto homotopy it is a group. Use this to show pi_1 Omega(X, x0) is abelian anyway
this follows from eckmon hilton
you can use this to show that since pi1 preserves products, it preserves group objects
so pi1 of top group is abelian!
oh that's nice.
Incidentally, pi_1 Omega(X, x0) is known as pi_2(X, x0)
Omega is called the loopspace
Higher homotopy groups are defined by iteratively taking loopspaces
Define Omega^k(X, x0) as the k-fold loopspace Omega Omega Omega … Omega X. Reinterpret pi_1 Omega^k(X, x0) as homotopy classes of maps from S^k+1 to X
—end of exercise—
Doesn't it follow from group objects having an inversion morphism?
G x G -> G needs to be a homomorphism
that basically means G abelian
also inverse yeah
Yup
The theorem holds for monoids though.
So it can't entirely be about inverses.
A monoid object in the category of monoids is an Abelian monoid.
Yeah, but for the purposes of the abstract nonsense proof it works without it, afaict
The argument for showing that the fundamental group of topological groups is abelian using the fact that as a functor pi preserves product? So it maps group objects (which topological groups are) to group group objects, which are abelian.
hmm right the extra inverse condition in grp object of group might allow you to circumvent eckmon hilton maybe? idk the proof I know uses eckmon hilton
Since pi preserves products, it sends group objects to group objects.
That much does not require eckmann hilton.
But then to say that group objects in Grp are Abelian requires Eckmann-Hilton.
You said "Doesn't it follow from group objects having an inversion morphism?"
The argument does require the existence of inverses at all. It is a theorem about monoids, which happens to be true for groups without change.
I don't know what you can get using inverses because "inverse" only makes sense when you have a product and unit.
the inverse condition only tells you the two inverses coincide I think?
Could someone explain this definition to me? K is a field with nontrivial nonarchimedian norm.
I feel like there's a lot of context missing
Also the moment you said nonarhimedean valuation i knew you were talking Abt number theory lol so maybe ask in #advanced-number-theory
also lol are there any good sources for like interesting kinda geometric fundamental group questions
maybe i should just spam some hatcher
Hatcher makes me cringe 😬
Oh wow Munkres's proof of lifting to the covering space using the Lebesgue number lemma is nice
how else do you prove it
Is it the thing with the degree of the covering map?
Hm I don't think the proof I've seen use Lebesgue number lemma lol
Do you mean lifting homotopies
You need to chop up the domain into little pieces so that they map into evenly covered open sets
And then lift
This requires the Lebesgue number lemma
hatcher does it without mentioning the name of the result, it feels handwavy
munkres's proof is like.. I think it's shorter? and also feels more logical
maybe I don't have enough background for hatcher
If you get the idea of what's happening, you'll be able to come up with the definition
I'll suggest you look up fibrations from Spanier since you've seen lifting
hatcher reads a bit handwavy at times
Just a bit?
Could someone verify what I have for this is correct?
Let (B) be decomposed into disjoint clopen sets (B_1,B_2).
The sets (B_1\cap A) and (B_2\cap A) are disjoint open sets
that have union (A). Assume (B_1\cap A=A) (since (A) is
connected). This implies (A \subseteq B_1). With respect to
(\ol{A})'s topology, (B_1=C\cap B) for
some closed set (C) in (\ol{A}). Since (C) is a closed
set that contains (A), it must be all of (\ol{A}).
Therefore (B_1=B), and (B) is connected.
pramana
looks good
maybe just add in the last line since C is a closed set in A-bar that contains A
this is justified by the fact that A-bar is the smallest closed set containing A
Yep
Hello how can I prove here that the disjoint union topology is the unique topology?
Hi, I hope you're doing well. Could someone verify an exercise I did? I just need to make sure if it's correct
hey, I have a question. Does anyone know what 'manifold' is in french? I've looked it up online and its probably either 'collecteur' or 'variete'. Does anyone know what the correct french translation is?
they call it a variety i think yeah
really? thanks.
The spice of life.
If S is a subset of X^w, consisting of sequences which are eventually 0, what is the closure of S?
I think it should be X^w.
what's X?
Is X^w a countable product of Rs?
ya i guess, since they are talkin about sequences
cuz it doesnt say
My thinking is, if x is not in S, then any open set O=O1x...xOnxXxX... containing x will have an element of S s_a=x_a, for a<=n and s_a=0 for a>n, which is contained in O
and this is not x since x is not in S
if x is in S then its in the closure
using the distance from a point to a set and then using extreme value theorem right?
it is a nice proof btw

complex general linear group is a 2n^2 manifold since general linear group is n^2 and complex numbers have two components right
If instead of the product topology, it had the topology induced by the metric p=sup{min{d(x_a,y_a),1}| a in J}, would the closure of S be the set of sequences which converge to 0?
what did you try?
just ask
sorta yes
is there a better interpretation
I don’t understand how to apply the concept of a neighborhood. A sequence converges is for every neighborhood U of q there is an N such that q_i in Y for all i >= N, but what neighborhood do i pick? can i pick?
you can pick any, you'll get a corresponding N depending on your nbd
so i need to just pick one and then give an N that makes it work
you have show N can be choose for all nbd U
in the trivial topological space theirs only 3 choices right
empty set doesn't count as nbd of anything
so i need to show Y converges to Y? just pick N = 1
Y converges? Y is not a sequence, it's a set
so picking a nbd is the same as picking a sequence then?
sorry?
i’m lost if you couldn’t tell already
i don’t understand how to apply the definition of a sequence converging
What topological space are you in?
In general top spaces there is no single choice, you have to "verify the existence of each N for each NBD of the point". This is usually impossible as there are infinitely many such points but in sufficiently nice spaces you can infer it.
the trivial space
For example, take a complete metric space and a Cauchy sequence. This sequence has a limit you can verify that it also converges by the abstract topological definition (Why? What characterizes open sets in a metric space?)
The empty set?
and the space itself yes
What?
an open set only has interior points
Okay, take any random sequence from your trivial topological space and some point y that you want to verify the sequence converges to, alr?
For every single open set that contains y you have to find some N so that x_n with n>N lie in that open set.
Luckily, there aren't that many open sets to check here
well we determined that the only set to check was Y
since the empty set isn’t a neighborhood of anything
it just has to be 1 right
Any number works, aye.
what is the sequence though that’s what i’m not getting
So your sequence converges to y. Not only that it converges to every single point in that space.
Any sequence of choice
well the only points in the space is the whole space
so that’s to be expected i hope
Points are elements of the set Y
You could also view the set of real numbers with the trivial topology for the exact same argument.
now that i’m going to have to map open sets to open sets, i think i actually like epsilon delta
Think of coarser topologies as being really blurry, sequences are unable to distinguish points since everything looks the same. If you had a super fine topology you can see whether or not any sequence actually reaches the limit or not.
For something in-between like the reals with the standard topology you have that sequences approaching infinitely close to some point look like they actually reach it.
how does a torus have two 1-dimensional holes
it cant be the center and the interior, bc the interior is 2d
here are the two "holes," in red and pink respectively
It is in fact the center and the interior tho
yeah ik those are the basis cycles for the homology group
but like i dont see how those correspond to holes
Yes also for the fundamental group
are "holes" in the homology group not the same as "holes" in the geometry?
I mean "holes" isn't really a precise thing I think until you define it with homology or something similar
doesn't that kinda defeat the point of homology, which was (initially) supposed to be a formalization of hole-counting?
but like here's another way you could see this
let's remove a single point from the torus, then the punctured torus is homotopy equivalent to a wedge sum of two circles, and this definitely feels more like it has two holes...
I guess this is a little deceptive since this kind of reasoning doesn't really work in general
so is the interior both 1- and 2-dimensional then?
also how is a punctured torus homotopy equivalent to a wedge sum of circles (you dont have to answer this its just confusing me)
(idrc if i dont understand that rn but if its easy to explain i'll listen)
I don't really know how to start showing this.
glue together the sides as instructed
you get a torus
puncturing it in the middle, you can imagine widening this hole until it's just the edges left to get a homotopy equivalent shape
in general you can do this sort of thing
that is just the wedge of two circles
S'VS'VS'VS'VS'V
I hate the holes description for homology
A better way to say it is that you need two independent cuts to make the torus into a disk
This is how Betti originally defined Betti numbers, actually
Also interesting: “How many ways can conversation of energy fail on your manifold?”
Conversation of energy is my favorite
When different forms of energy talk to each other
Just the best
:hehe:
Oh funny Freudian slip
take any topology on the disjoint union with that property and show it must be equal to the disjoint union topology
Yes, it's a strange notion. I find it more natural for homotopy theory, a hole being a non-contractible cycle.
Or head in the sand axiomatics
Do you mean for H1, or something more general?
@umbral panther It might be a stretch, but I sometimes think of integral of a k-form on a k-submanifold as some sort of a work done while something was tracing out the k-submanifold, against the “force field” provided by the k-form.
This is only literal for k = 1
But with that charitable generalization of “work”, b_k = 0 is equivalent to conservation of energy.
Um
Actually, i like the first step, but balk at the conservation of energy
I have this map that sends every point on S^n to upper half space
Interesting
What it does is set the x^(n+1)th coordinate to 0 and then omits the nth coordinate and shifts everything down
So (x^1, ..., x^(n+1)) becomes (x^1, ..., x^(n-1), 0)
Huh, interesting
So ig my question is
Is the image open in H^n?
Because technically the image is just the boundary of H^n right?
H^n?
Upper half space
I don't see why not
Unless I'm missing something
Wait, hmm
I'm just unsure because it sends every point on the sphere to the boundary of H^n
It is closed, no?
The image
Hence can't be open
But wait, it's not in R^n. Gotta check for H^n, hmm
Yeah, I think it's not open
I'm trying to just visualize it in R^2
R^2 is shit in this case. Try R^3, it helps better
Yeah I don't think it's open either
Basically my intuition tells me the image is the closed disc D^(n-1)
Or at least up to some projection/inclusion/bla bla
One day my intuition will bite my back. But until then, Imma keep abusing it
Hmm
I think
Okay let me add a bit more context
So my map is something like u = (x^1, ..., x^n) -> (2x^1, ..., 2x^n, |u|^2 - 1)
So if u is in S^n then |u| = 1 so x^(n+1)th component is 0
THen when we remove the x^nth component and shift everything down, the new x^nth component is zero, so it lies in the boundary
But if u was not in S^n then it's in B^n, so |u| < 1, so the last coordinate won't be 0 (in fact it'll be less than 0)
Ahhh but then it wouldn't be in upper halfspace, it'd be in lower :(
But isn't that basically the same thing? As far as being in half-space in R^n goes
This is gonna be really ugly I'm just trying to sketch it out
So here's the problem
You can always switch some signs
This is some scratch work I've got
I'm trying to get a chart that takes points on S^(n-1) to the boundary of M and points on B^n to the interior of M
And this does do that but the issue is phi(S^(n-1)) isn't open in H^n, so it couldn't be a chart (ignoring any issues with bijectivity, I haven't checked those yet)
Chapter 2 of Milnor's book on Differential Geometry covers this, but we can forget that
But if I change it so it's not S^(n-1) and just a set with nonempty intersection with S^(n-1)
Then I think it's A ok?
I'm speaking gibberish but I understand what I'm trying to say :^) let me clean it up a bit and see
(And eys I'm aware phi doesn't map R^n -> R^n)
I guess at least in this case, you can work more geometrically
I will recommend trying to work explicitly for n=3 first. You have geometry in your favour for this problem.
Also, hint: ||have you ever tried to flatten orange's peel?||
Silly question but
An open subset of a closed set can contain only points from the interior or points from the interior + points on the boundary (but not the entire boundary), but cannot contain only points from the boundary right?
Yucc... first thing: what is the topology here?
Because we do have quite a few subset topologies, and one set can be open in one but not in another
Uh
Subset topology of R^n
Basically I want to be able to say that
Since M is the union of B^n and S^(n-1), a point in U is either in B^n or S^(n-1)
set theory...
So I'm trying to check if that's even correct LOL
there's absolutely nothing topological about what you are worrying about
a point in U is also a point in M, which is the union of...
Well, that's totaulogy 
Well I'm gonna take the image of U so I need to make sure it's open in M
I'm so not confident in what I know versus what I don't know

Constantly second guessing myself
remember: you also have the notion of closed set in subset topology
have you ever used a door before?
R is both closed and open, remember?
Should have done point-set topo 
I know :hehe:
That's not the def, certainly not
Q is not open in R but it's definitely not closed
In my defense I haven't done math in a couple days...? 😭
Open and closed sets are gonna be the death of me, I always get confused when what's what 
Let me take a look
closed sets are complements of open sets
It's closed if the complement is open
Bruh
Okay yes
Back to this
I'm sure you can verify yourself if what you have is closed or open
Well I know if it lies entirely in the interior it's open
So I just gotta check if the complement of a set containing part of the interior and part of the boundary is open
Can you quickly recall what it is?
Yeah it's the topology generated by the intersection of the subset with the topology of the larger set right?
Yes
So an open set in subset topo O_X is open if it is of the form U n X for some U open.
Guess what? You can play the same game for closed sets
Now I let you choose some smart closed/open sets to suit your need
I'm literally negative brain cells
I don't understand 😭 I'm just doubting everything I think I know
What was the original q
Like the cosmogonic egg
Is there a bite sized way of asking it
Did you just take a bath or smth 😄
If a subset U of a closed set M is open in M, then either U is disjoint with the boundary of M or it contains some of the boundary of M
But then it wouldn't be open since M is closed
And we can't have U = bd(M) since that's closed in M
That's why I asked what topology we're dealing with

My brain hurts
There are two ways to see this fact
Ugly drawings and intution
Or going back to definition
That's good. It means you're learning something new.
or you have a headache. drink some water
:hehe:
and possibly eat some food
and watch a movie too
I think I've answered my question just not really proved it to ymself lol
intuitive understanding is good too!
You know, the God said himself: there are two ways to crack a nut
You use force, crack it hard, very hard, then it might open.
Or you soak it, for a long time, multiple times, then it'll open on its own
alexander tadokoro
Do something else, then come back. Thinking too long makes it less productive
Another God liked to do something else when he did Math. He believed that mind still worked on the problem unconsciously
grothendieck, when he wasnt doing math, was a pick up artist
poincare was sleeping instead
What/who did he pick up?
Girls? 
‘It is also the case that the most totally consuming ambition is powerless to make or to demonstrate the simplest mathematical discovery - even as it is powerless ( for example) to “score” ( in the vulgar sense). Whether one is male or female, that which allows one to ‘score’ is not ambition, the desire to shine, to exhibit one’s prowess, sexual in this case. Quite the contrary!’ - actual quote from Grothendieck
refer to Recoltes et Semailles for more pick up advice
I forgot he was also a philosopher
*pick up artist
Can some1 check this? I think the closure of sequences that are eventually 0 is R^w in the product topology but in the second topology, it should be I think the sequences which converge to 0
im rlly struggling to understand why this already implies that f x id_K is a quotient map, this should follow from the universal property of the final topology apparently, but i dont quite see it
(this is theorem 2.38)
well, you are trying to prove (b) for the map (f x id_K) right?
yeah pretty much
so you are showing this map is the map that induces the final topology on Y x K, I am assuming that is how the quotient map is defined in your book
or maybe there's some equivalence that has been proven
quotient maps f : X -> Y are continuous surjections that satisfy U is in Y open if and only if f^{-1}(U) is open
for my case i guess
has nothing been proven about how quotient maps induce the final topology on Y with respect to the map?
is our definition of final topology i guess
(in this case, we would have Y standing for Y x K)
right, and I'm asking if there's no prior discussion in the book about the relation between final topologies and quotient maps
to be clear, it's not hard to figure out on your own, but it does come out of nowhere in the proof
not rlly tbh
if you have a quotient map pi : X -> Y this is essentially saying Y has the final topology induced by pi, try to show that
can you elaborate what you mean by Y having the final topology induced by pi?
so the topology is just defined by the open sets U in Y such that pi^{-1}(U) is open in X?
imagine Y as just a set
X is a top space
pi : X -> Y is a map
there is the final topology that is induced on Y from this one map pi
so this?
just to be clear
and this will be the same topology as the original one
yes
wait
not open sets
any set in Y is defined to be open if its preimage under pi is open
yeah
isnt that what i said
hm, i find this a bit weird because essentially, the way we defined a quotient map is to be between top spaces
if we consider Y to be just a set and we have a quotient map from X to Y
and induce the final topology this way
it seems like we're going a different way if that makes sense
the proof would literally just be the "definition" of the quotient map
I'm saying, if you have a quotient map X -> Y where Y is a top space, this is the same as saying Y has the final topology induced by pi
like these two concepts coincide
okay, wait, so for this
how do we get that f x id_K is a quotient map then
you are trying to show (b) holds in that earlier thing
here
that means you will have shown the target space has the final topology induced by f x id
by our earlier discussion, that makes f x id quotient map
ah, i see, okok, thank you
you're also indirectly using (c) with uniqueness
yes
got it, thanks
I would appreciate it
sent it in dms
thanks
can someone help me understand why part b is true?
I'm assuming everything after n is just X for U
Give a value of x which has no neighborhood in U, according to the uniform metric
What was your solution for part a?
For part a, wouldnt every point just work cuz eps<1, so U would be X after some N but in uniform topology, even after that N, it would continue to be smaller than eps
How are we supposed to have phi(U) open in H^n but have nonempty intersection with bd(H^n) 
I mean I see how
Just struggling to put it into words zz
what do you mean X after some N?
the points (x_N+1-eps,x_N+1+eps) x ... and so on, it wouldnt be eps exactly but it would be smaller than eps
Im assuming that U is X after the N right
or R in this case
I believe (U(\mathbf x,\epsilon)) here is meant to be defined to be
[\prod_{i \in \bN} (x_i-\epsilon, x_i+\epsilon)]
boolean_satisfiERIC
I don't think it stops at the n
Just so you know what the general term looks like
ok i see
that changes things
its the box topology then
I was thinking product topology
ok ill come back after thinkin about it
I know but the point is to compare topologies
Yeah it's open in the box topology
open in H^n means that it's the intersection of an open set of R^n with H^n
It's the subspace topology
Would this be open in H^n then?
It's open in R^n
And I believe it's the intersection of R^n with...that set...
no it's not open in R^n
I just ChatGPT'd whether it was or not fuck 😭

I never thought this open-closed stuff would be this tuff
it's gonna be hard if you're using chatgpt
R^{n-1} x (0, 1) is open in R^n, for example
chatgpt for math is pretty terrible
R^{n-1} x (0, 1] is not. no point whose last coordinate is 1 has any neighborhood contained in the set
Hm
Don't use ChatGPT for this lol, especially if you're unsure about something
If you can BS-check it and you're just using it for a dirty computation for a subject you've already learned, ig that's different

