#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 33 of 1
Then pi(B_r(x)) and pi(B_r'(y)) are disjoint, and since their preimages were open, that means they're neighborhoods of x & y?
Is that correct? If it is then I believe that would show Hausdorff right?
You can embed any manifold in R^n for some n. In particular RP^k embeds very easily into R^{(k+2)C2}
If it helps you visualize (probably not) it's the image of the sphere in $R^{k+1}$ under the map $(p_0, \dots, p_k) \to (p_0^2, p_0p_1, \dots, p_n^2) $
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
It doesn't immediately follow that the images are disjoint (indeed otherwise this argument would show every quotient of a Hausdorff space is Hausdorff)
But you can make that the case
Shrink deez nuts
is di suppose to be a face inclusion
and any know the difference of face inclusion and simplices i just know that face inclusions are combinations of smaller simplices
d_i is the ith face of an n simplex, which is an n-1 simplex
The idea is that the faces of an n-simplex are n-element subsets of {0, 1, \dots, n}, each one can be identified with the n-element subset which comes from forgetting the element i.
oh ok thanks 1 question i just want to clarify cz it hasnt come up on defintions but i think i know what it is
the ker is just kernel right
Yes
Why not?
Or rather
OHHHH
I see
Okay sorry
Hm
My thinking was since the preimage of each on their own is disjoint
Then the preimage of their intersection is equal to that
This isn’t analysis why do I care about controlling the size
All I care is that they’re disjoint
Fine say r < r’ s.t B_r and B_r’ are disjoint
In Hatcher's proof of the ring structure of H^*(RP^n; Z_2) (denoted with P^n) he says that naturality of cup product makes this diagram commute but I am not sure why since it doesnt seem like it is induced from any map
like i guess the vertical maps come from the LES of pairs but they come from different long exact sequences right?
The cup product is pullback along the diagonal.
- Kunneth isomorphism.
So all morphisms in that diagram on cohomology come from a commutative square of maps of pairs.
The vertical maps are just (X, \emptyset) \to (X, Y) and the horizonal maps are just \Diag on the top and \Diag_X \times \Diag_Y on the bottom.
how is the bottom \Diag_X \times \Diag_Y?
(X, Y) \to (X \times X, Y \times Y)
The map of pairs I was writing as a product.
Perhaps you would like to think of it as (\Diag_X, \Diag_Y)
But it's just a notational difference.
I was never good at this stuff ugh, I can’t figure out how to get it
I still don’t understand why this is a problem, can someone explain? Isn’t the size of the balls controlled by saying “make them small enough so they’re disjoint”?
Or I guess that sets an upper bound on the radii, you can just say the radii can’t be zero to get a lower bound
then it’s all gravy right?
Okay I think you are maybe missing geometrically what is going on with projective space
Indeed, I think I said that before
So in projective space we are taking points in R^{n+1} - {0} and identifying them if they lie on the same line
i.e. nonzero vectors x, y are equivalent if x = \lambda y for some nonzero \lambda.
Yep
So we can quotient in stages, first we say x ~ y iff there exists a positive \lambda such that \lambda x = y
Can you see what you get from taking that identification?
You get half the line
Hint: try to find a nice subspace of R^{n+1} such that every nonzero vector has a unique positive multiple that lies on that subspace
S^n? 🤨
Yes
Then you do the same with the negative lambda yes
So before we quotient to RP^n we can quotient first to S^n, so RP^n is just S^n with opposite points identified.
So think of the sphere but you identify the north and south pole, Ecuador with singapore, etc.
But why do we need to do that? What’s wrong with just considering it “the set of all lines that cross the origin”
Yep antipodal points are equivalent
I think this makes it easier to see what the charts are.
Okay
Because now a chart is just a neighborhood of a point on the sphere which is too small to contain any antipodal points.
So for instance any acute circular cap of the sphere containing a given point maps homeomorphically onto a coordinate patch in RP^n
Don’t you get the same thing if you just call it “the set of lines crossing through the origin”
Just slap a sphere on that bad boy and look at their intersection
I mean there are many ways to describe any space.
I understand this is for the purpose of making the charts but I haven’t even been able to show the other two conditions first, why am I worried about the charts right now?
I just think this way makes what is going on much more intuitive than taking a quotient of an n+1 dimensional ball in n+1 dimensional space minus the origin and arguing that that is an n-ball
What other two conditions?
Hausdorff & second countable
Something much stronger than second countable is true, to be fair, which is good to show
Well okay I claim that both of those are very obvious from this description of the open sets as open sets of the sphere.
You gave very nearly correct proofs that it's Hausdorff feather
Just the image disjoint thing is wrong right?
I've given you the tools to, given two points, explicitly construct two disjoint neighborhoods around those points using similar arguments to what you were saying before. Similarly for second countability.
Hm
Well given distinct [x] and [y] in RP^n, you need to pick neighbourhoods of x and y whose images are disjoint
But that is okay if you think, say, of identifying antipodes on S^2 (then generalise)
I would opine again that maybe with your background instead of reading a very difficult and abstract texts on manifolds to start learning differential geometry/topology it might be better to read something more down to earth like: http://www2.ing.unipi.it/griff/files/dC.pdf which will motivate the general definitions but be more accessible to just calculus and linear algebra.

It depends on where your interests in this subject really lie.
This is fun though
So open balls around [x] in RP^2 correspond to a pair of open spherical caps of the same size around a point x and it's opposite -x.
So can you see why if [x] \neq [y] you can pick the four caps to be disjoint from each other?
Yes
Okay then you're done
Wat
Lol
My sister in christ maybe try to state clearly and in a totally dry, formal way what you are trying to prove.
being dry 
Like unpack the definitions to make "RP^2 is hausdorff" a more accessible geometric statement.
Without turning it into something not even wrong.
Can I maybe
Draw a pic of what my intuition on it is and how I was trying to make a proof out of that
Okay post that, but first I think it would be a good exercise to state clearly in a simple and perhaps unintuitive way what you are trying to prove.
I’ll try again once I’m at uni
agh okay this is p whiny from me (to no one’s surprise) but I just cannot prove things if they’re not intuitive to me (and 90% of the time I can’t prove them even if they are
). I understand the point of a proof is just to show logical correctness, not necessarily reveal any insight or intuition, but if my proofs don’t do that then they just don’t feel satisfying to me you know?
Yes I think you have to make statements intuitive to you and in the end all mathematicians argue based on intuition. But if you are not also able to state things formally/simply you can easily fall into traps where you can't even apply your intuition because you don't actually know what you're trying to prove.
It's a bit like saying "I like music so I want to play the piano, but I don't like all of this stuff about wrist posture it's too boring."
You need to learn at least a little bit of rigor/technique to allow you to use your intuition or you'll just go in circles.
Like in the end the proof I gave you of this statement is very intuitive/nonrigorous, but because I know how to state and understand the formal statement of what you are trying to prove in my head I am very satisfied with that proof, and it would satisfy any mathematician.
Whereas if you don't write things out clearly you will constantly be making little mistakes or not understanding what exactly needs to be shown, even if your intuition/your heart is in the right place.
But it doesn't mean that mathematics has to be dry/unfun. Just that you maybe would benefit greatly by trying to do a couple of things in a slightly more rigorous way than you have been.
Something like that lol, if we make the balls around x & y small enough then all the lines going through the points in those balls would be disjoint from each other
Yes I think that is satisfying. As long as you feel like if pressed you could reduce this to something very boring about the triangle inequality or what have you.
Oh
Uh
Okay so let’s state the problem again clearly
Given two distinct elements [x], [y] in P^n, I want to show that I can always construct disjoint neighborhoods around them. That is, I can always find two disjoint sets U, V around [x], [y] such that U and V are open in the quotient topology; that is, the preimages of U and V are open
Yes so what does it mean that U, V are open and disjoint in the quotient topology?
[x], [y] aren't representatives
In terms of subsets of R^{n+1}
Oh sorry x and y are
It means that we can find disjoint open neighborhoods of x & y in R^(n+1) that map to disjoint neighborhoods in P^n
And the way I wanted to go about this way by saying take x & y and construct n-balls around them that don’t intersect, which I could formalize as saying make a ball B_r(x) around x and B_r’(y) around y, with r < r’, right?
such that neither is within one another
I mean technically you are right, but what does it mean to map to disjoint open neighborhoods in P^n?
There is a simpler way to express this.
That the neighborhoods in R^(n+1) are disjoint, no?
No for instance a ball of radius a half around x and a ball of radius a half around 10000x are both disjoint in R^{n+1} but not disjoint in P^n
Otherwise all quotients of Hausdorff spaces would be Hausdorff
But we’re doing it on separate x & y
We can’t use x and 10000x because [x] and [y] are distinct
You should be able to see that even then there are problems.
What if you use the balls tteg gave but move y to like 10000x plus something smol
For example
Well you just need to make your radius for the ball around y smaller than the distance between 10000x and y
Yes
Then 10000x isn’t in this ball
That is the key point
Isn’t that what I said…?
No
Why not?
That’s what I’ve been trying to do this entire time and what I thought I was saying lol
Damn it
Because we've shown the neighbourhoods in R^n+1 being disjoint isn't enough
Which is what you said was enough here
Like you have to make the balls small enuff in a suitable sense
Sure
I’ve constructed disjoint neighborhoods in R^(n+1) but clearly in projective space they’re not disjoint
Yes this is exactly the example that Potato was mentioning.
Kinetics and Dynamics
Kinematics
So I need to construct the neighborhoods so that the balls around lambda x and lambda y are always disjoint
Not just x and y
Well
No
Stronger you need that for every pair of points in those neighborhoods no nonzero scalar multiples of those points are equal.
Ah
So really maybe it's better to only look at neighborhoods in the shape of a pair of opposite cones minus the origin, i.e. the neighborhoods closed under scaling by nonzero scalars.
And this is why visualizing these things on the sphere is equivalent but much easier
Wait
Because if we’re on the sphere
Then x & y are a fixed radial distance away from the origin
So I can just create disjoint neighborhoods and not have to worry about the scaling issue
Yes then the only scalar you have to worry about is +/- 1
I see
The reason I’m scared of the sphere argument is just because it didn’t come to me naturally
So B_r(x) and B_r(y) are disjoint in the image iff B_r(x) \cap B_r(y) is empty as is -B_r(x) \cap B_r(y)
I see why it’s better now
It's just a nicer way to write these things because you remove some redundant degrees of freedom
It’s just scary to me to use a technique/perspective I couldn’t come up with on my own, the idea of quotienting with positive scalars first then negative
I'm sure you are capable of coming up with that on your own.
Yeppers
It's generally a good idea to factor quotients through several steps if you don't find them intuitive.
Or at least to try to find some way of breaking them up into more workable pieces.
Just trying to come up with those neighborhoods now
If x & y are in the same hemisphere you could just make the radius half their distance
But the trouble is like when x & y are opposite, then the balls around -x & y would intersect
Could you just say that lol? Suppose WLOG that x & y are in the same hemisphere, then choose r < (1/2)d(x, y)
Yes just take the minimum of d(x, y) and d(-x, y)
Okay but now you should try to think why RP^n is second countable!
Yeah
Let’s see
Second countable means we have a countable basis for the quotient topology
Which means there’s a countable family of sets in the quotient topology such that every open set can be obtained as a union of sets in this family, right?
Yes that is one characterization.
Every open set can be uniquely written as a linear comb- oh wait
An open set in projective space is a set whose preimage in R^n is open
So I need to find a countable set so that the preimage of any union in the set is open?
Yes so maybe can you see why it suffices to show that R^n - {0} is second countable by using the fact that the quotient map is open (sends open sets to open sets)?
Yes
Okay so why is R^n - {0} second countable?
I will point out the following helpful equivalence: on a metric space M a set of open sets U_i is a basis for the topology if for every x \in M and every r > 0 there exists a U_i such that x \in U_i \subset B_r(x)
Well R^n is definitely second countable and R^n\{0} is a subset of R^n so couldn’t you just use the same basis
Yes you can use the same basis and intersect with R^n - {0}, but why is R^n definitely second countable?
Well take our basis to be all balls with rational radii around rational points
This set is definitely countable and we can cover R^(n+1) with these balls
Just showing that you can cover R^{n+1} is not enough of course.
And since the quotient maps open to open
Then just take our basis for proj space to be pi(basis for real space) no?
Yes, I think it's good to verify from the definitions that the image of a basis under a surjective open quotient map is a basis.
Because then any open set in proj space can be written as a union of those guys which are all open and since the original basis was countable so is the new one
Will do
That is true but you should justify this rigorously just for the future.
By which you mean prove this right
(which should just be chaining together some stuff from definitions)
Yes it's a formal exercise but it's good to convince yourself that it's true.
Another thing that you can prove is that RP^n is actually compact (much stronger than second countable) from the fact that S^n is compact.
Which is what potato was alluding to
But I think it's good to practice proving that something is second countable at least once or twice rigorously.
I'm not too far from finishing the chapter
I think I'll get to that and then make some exercises for myself
Or should I just pause here before I get to smooth atlases and start exercises?
Ngl the problems at the end look really fun though
I'd rather do those 😛
Do what you want as long as you do a lot of examples and make sure you see abstract definitions "in the wild"
Performing multiple quotients
For every point set topology thing you see you should try to think of one space that satisfies it and at least two that dont
And justify rigorously why
LOL
Oh no
It's analysis all over again
Counterexample after counterexample after counterexample just tearing apart any happiness I had 
Is there such a thing as a manifold that evolves with time?
So as time passes the geometry of the manifold does too
The reason I ask is because my fluid mechanics professor does research with the velocity profiles of surface waves (or something like that)
✨ homotopy ✨
And I remember part of what he does is establish local coordinates on the surface of the wave
And then do everything wrt those (or something along those lines)
or you can also do surgery to change your manifold tho that is more complicated
So could waves be thought of as an ever-changing manifold in R^3?
Homotopy ain't just about curves
I wouldn't know 
To me it's just rubber band go brrrrr
Pull one thing into another
Are analytic manifolds a lot nicer than just smooth manifolds?
Does this come from second-countability?
ermm no

it comes from the fact that it's locally euclidean iirc
Oh no
it does come from second coutability lol
I must have been thinking abt orientability
yes
sorry
Is it something like
but feather the proof for this is right below that proposition
I know
in the very doc you're reading
I want to try to think about it first before I read
and the first sentence relies on second countability
Noted 
thinking about it -> reading ->asking questions
Alright 😛
I don't do the first step 
Well
I got the first sentence of the proof 💀 but that was nothing like what I was expecting
I see why what I wanted to do wouldn't work though
60% 1st step,5% 2nd step and 35% 3rd step 
What are the "components" of a manifold? The domains in a cover?
Probably it's connected components
Have you seen fundamental groups before?
So all the path-connected points in the manifold?
That isn't what a connected component is in general
for some reason I forgot "connected" was a definition in its own right lmao
So the subsets of the manifold that can't be represented as a disjoint union of two sets
But more generally what is a "component"
Yes this is the whole sub field of taking various flows
I think they just mean subsets that cover the space
"component" always means connected component
I prefer sleep -> sleep -> sleep
Isn't that circular 😭 what is the "component" in "connected component"?
I think d gives the definition
Component means connected component
Oh oop
So connected component means a subset that's connected?
it is more than that
What else is it?
open a topology textbook please
For someone that has only seen the basics of topology I can't think of something that's open and closed at the same time besides the empty set
I don't understand this part about special loops
the whole space, as well
Well open and closed depend on the topology
Take a set X with the discrete topology, if you take any subset of X then it's closed since its complement is in the topology, but it's also in the topology, so it's open
Yes I forgot about the 2nd trivial example ty
You can think of plenty of nontrivial examples with small sets too
Yep that was my idea too :)
lol
this would be a good moment for you to give an example about connected components, feather
Lol
Or the trivial topology
discrete is all (sub)sets are open and thus closed right
and indiscrete is space where only X and \emptyset are open
discrete topology is what is induced from the discrete metric, which is considerably more intuitive at least for me
good way of viewing it
i have a question, how do i rigorously prove that a map S^m \to S^n is homotopic to constant loop when m<n ? Hatcher has the MOST hand wavy proof of all time for this fact i believe
not a big fan of Hatcher lol he leaves out tooo many details lol and does tons of proof by picture LOL
can I prove it by supposing merely that n=m+1?
i wanted a proof that doesnt rely on CW complexes if possible
Could you please share us the proof?
So the idea is that we just take a loop inside every open coordinate ball covering our space (and their intersections)
Since there's countably many paths in any one ball then we have countably many special loops inside a ball
you'd need to share the proof below
And it doesn't matter which point in our ball we compute the fundamental group at because they're all isomorphic in the same ball
or what exactly are you confused about
finding the homotopy from S^m \to S^n and the constant loop
if your map is homotopic to a cellular one then it is homotopic to a non surjective one in your case which means that it's homotopic to a constant map by factoring through R^n after removing the point that does not get hit
this makes it unnecessarily hard
the hard part here is proving cellular approximation
theres a hint in intro to top by Gamelin & Greene that says any map f:S^m \to S^n can be approximated by a map g:S^m \to S^n such that the range of g is a proper subset of S^n
is this ^^ what you meant
yes that follows by cellular approximation
S^n has higher dim. cells
so there are cells that can't be in the image of your cellular map from a space that only has lower dim. ones
Try proving that every non surjective map X -> S^n is nullhomotopic and then applying cellular approx. to show that every map S^m->S^n is homotopic to a non surjective one
Let A be a compact set and $(x_n)_n\in\mathbb{N}$ be a sequence in A, then $(x_n)_n\in\mathbb{N}$ has a substring convergent to A.
Guys, could someone tell me what is the first step for this exercise?
checking your definition of "compact set"
Awuita Fria
"convergent to A" is meaningless. do you mean "convergent in A"?
I was thinking well if A is bounded then be a sequence of A as the sequence is bounded in A then by Bolzano's theorem it has a convergent substring let's say x_n_j so the substring converges to a point "u" we can say that A is closed since it has a substring that belongs to A for all j that belongs to the naturals then u belongs to the set A so A is compact.
What is the point of the g_i business here?
I don't know, if my idea is right :c
Sorry, but I use translator not English
I hope you will excuse my lack of writing
Why is the first equivalence not enough? We showed that we can represent a loop in B as a finite product of paths of elements in B
Oh

I should've looked at the picture first
I was picturing it wrong
Hi! Is there some easy way to see that R^k \times S^{n-k} is homotopy equivalent to S^{n-k}?
it seems pretty easy to check right from the definition of homotopy equivalence
Is this due to R^k being contractible space? I did wonder whether there is a result on the product of contractible space and non-contractible space.
yes

contractibility of R^k is useful. more generally, if X is any space and Y is any contractible space, then are X x Y and X homotopy equivalent?
that would be the immediate generalization of your question
I would use Sard's theorem to grab something useful
Is this a true statement or are you conjecturing this?
why don't you find out by trying to prove it?
alternately you can use CW approximation
I should. I'm being lazy and not wanting to prove something that has the possibility of not being true...
which is easier to prove sort of ~algebraically~
use noggin
i would never say false things
never!
it's true, don't worry
Off I go then haha

ans: ||if the identity map on Y is homotopic to a constant y_0, then consider the maps X x Y -> X given by projection and X -> X x Y given by x -> (x, y_0)||
ive heard of this it says something about the measure of critical point sunder a given map?
im having a tough time wraping my head around this notion of a CW complex lol
does anyone have intro to top by gamelin and greene handy? If so, in chapter 4 section 4 are they using differential forms to prove the theorem????
never heard of it
why not send the part where you're having problems with?
instead of asking ppl if they have a copy
Ngl to be blunt like
If you are having a hard time with the notion of a CW complex why are you studying maps between spheres like this


differential forms definitely not
if so they're doing this.
the set of critical values of a smooth map has measure zero
or of a continuous map which is sufficiently many times continuously differentiable (the amount depending on the dimensions of the domain and codomain manifolds), but smooth is good enough
then whats the wedge represent
what are the critical values of a map from S^m \to S^n
wasnt sure if CW complexes are the only way about proving the results.
youre right, sorry
Simplicial approximation is another way
like the notion of a simplex?
cause that I can see better
i think gamelin and greene uses this method
Hatcher uses CW complexes which man idk how to visualize or even grasp the concept its so intertwined
im also taking an intro to alg geo and that cours is easier than this alg top busineess
its no wonder pi_n(S^k) is uknownw for many values where n>k
im able to actually attack my alg geo problems but in my defense my alg geo prof is much better than my alg top prof
as you can all see, ive not learned much from alg top this sem..
i mean the intuition for CW complexes and simplicial complexes is pretty similar
You should read up a bit about CW complexes, the intuition behind it isn't hard to grasp once you see through the details
once you have that my proof idea will be more clear
I still feel like CW complexes don't resemble too much of simplicial ones.
Iirc, we define CW complexes based on maps from balls to the space.
Simplicial homology: 
Cellular homology: 
You can literally just draw simplicial complexes, and see why they make sense. Not sure how you would draw a function. Technically it's just identifying boundaries, but heck no, it still took me quite some time to visually understand what was going on.
Like, if you draw a simplicial complex of a torus, ppl will immediately see why it's a torus.
Can you? It you're going to do it on the fundamental polygon, you still need to glue things.
Yeah, good luck explaining how you construct a cell complex. You have to have 2 S_1 to build the skeleton, then cover the surface with a disc by identifying the boundary.
Just, horrible
How do you do the simplicial decomposition otherwise? Fix a triangulation? How is that any nicer?
Yeah you're being inconsistent here. You're going into detail why it would be tedious to explicitly give a CW structure but handwaving the process behind triangulation
(Which is a non-trivial process)
My point is, a simplicial complex, at least for beginners, is just a very edgy approximation of the surface. You can still see it resembles the original space, and at the same time a simplicial complex.
You can do that for CW, but it's less trivial to see how it is a CW complex
I disagree
are you asking how critical values are defined, or whether you can say something in general about the critical values of a map of spheres?
i don't really know of a general result. one immediate thing i can say is that, if m < n, then any such map will attain only critical values, and then you can use sard and stuff to get nonsurjectivity and nullhomotopy. this isn't really special though, since it works for any domain manifold of dimension m
there might be something relating to the hopf theorem but i dunno. skipped those lectures in my DT class
god what a weird experience to have with AT compared to AG

i took AG and AT at the exact same time and AG took up like, way way way way more of my time
it was so much harder
Whether you can say something about a given map of spheres from dimension smaller to dim bigger
I feel it also has to do with the prof my alg geo prof explains everything FULLY while my alg top prof is hand wavy with almost all his proofs
Tell me about it 🤦♂️
you can and i said a bit about it. it's a classic application of sard's theorem
S^1 basis
Lol
Cellular isn't that bad
It's formulated in such a way that you don't know tf ur supposed to do
Cellular homology when the cell structure immediately gives you the cohomology
But then you realize there's a trick...
Yeah idk the first time i read what the differential was in hatcher i nearly bought a Jerry can of gasoline and burned it but then i realized the differentials are just related to the attaching maps of the n-cells so i could actually do computations 😎
I tend to pull out every trick in the book to avoid computing differentials and finding degrees of maps
guys could someone give me some ideas tips or tell me more or less a flowchart of how you could prove that the class of Q is R
pls
assume the closure is not R, the complement must be open and therefore must contain some epsilon ball around some point
I am saying that if Q is contained in the closure of Q , we also say that Q is dense therefore if a belongs to an irrational then for all epsilon greater than zero there exists an m that belongs to the naturals such that n is greater than m this implies that the sequence is contained in the ball of center a and radius epsilon, suppose a is an adherent point of the set {xk/k belongs to the naturals} if, there exists a convergent subsequence x_k(_j) of x_k, where the limit of the subsequence converges to , we can conclude that a is an adherent point of Q and the subsequence converges to an I therefore the "closure" of Q is equal to R
i am sorry but this is completely incomprehensible
could you help me
to expand on this, if the closure is not all of R, it's complement is nonempty and has some p
but since the closure is closed, the complement is open
so p must have some epsilon ball around it contained in the complement
but this contradicts Q being dense in R
"Q being dense in R" is literally the statement we're trying to prove
you may want to rephrase that last step
I guess if you have the property that for any real number you can get rationals arbitrarily close
but then you could also use some limit points argument
completion =? closure
is this just because you can map |{n}| to n and then |{n,n+1}| to the line segment between n and n+1
CP^n means the n-dimensional complex projective space
ok i'll think about this more then come back with real questions
actually my dominos is ready
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 12:17 AM (EDT) on Thu, 04/05/2023.
breakfast
classification of surfaces is so coooool
why does surjectivity of q imply that f is unique?
let f and f' be functions with f o q = f' o q. for each y in Y you can find an x in X with y = q(x). then f(y) = f(q(x)) = f'(q(x)) = f'(y)
Yep
name of book?
my final exam

I'm studying for my exam of analysis in several variables, I hope I do well, it's tomorrow.
shit good luck
the book really scares me :c
takes some getting used to but it's a good book
median was 53 so hoping for a B fr
what book do you guys use
topology, the same as you from what I have noticed from my colleagues.
of analysis in several variables
the poderos de analisis real y analis de varias variables de elon lages lima, we also use sergio plaza's, I have all those books in physical form, shit.
physical form the way to go i hate online textbooks
they got legos on the right book
I have several books but well, knowledge does not come for free.
libgen
my intro analysis class is using rudin next semester ive heard mixed thoughts about the book
my professor said there is no perfect book, plus it also depends on the professor who is giving analysis though, see topology and then analysis eh, that's weird.
yeah i wasnt even supposed to be allowed to take topology this semester
hopefully it makes analysis easier though lmao
It will
ne, if you have already seen topology, it will be even easier, and you will realize that it is similar.
$if A\subset X\
int(A)=X-\overline{X-A}$
Awuita Fria
it's true?
So the idea for this is that if we look at a point in our manifold that's in the intersection of two chart domains we can still look at that space wrt. the manifold by using the transition map
we can still look at that space wrt. the manifold
this doesn't make any sense to me
Sorry like
the idea is to look at how you transition from one coordinate chart to another
We can look at the intersection on the manifold through the homeomorphism to R^n given by the transition map
I think I get it
Any two charts includes a chart and itself?
what do you think? see if it's true
what's the transition map from a chart to itself
The identity no?
so is any chart smoothly compatible with itself?
can i get a nudge on this pls 
Well yeah the identity map in R^n is smooth
there you go

I see
That's a cool way to do it
Wait so does every equivalence relation just induce a quotient space
yes
That's interesting
quotient spaces are typically terribly behaved when it comes to topology
but some are nice
I see the term come up a lot in algebra discussions, are they nice there?
quotient spaces?
The only example I have is projective space on R^n
quotient spaces pop up everywhere
quotienting is a fancy way of saying gluing shit together
the sphere and torus are quotients of a unit square for example
Yeah I don't get that at all 
Like I saw a demonstration on how we make a torus out of a square (and I can see how to do the same for a sphere)
that's quotienting
But I don't understand how quotienting is gluing
Is it because of the equivalence relation?
yeah
We have two separate things
BUt because of the equivalence they're the "same" so we can "combine them" ("glue them")
quotienting is adding a relation to the space
I see
which is gluing things together
all good lol
Hm
I'm trying to generate an equivalence relation for the torus out of the unit square but I'm having trouble 
Two points are equivalent if they're on "opposite sides" of the boundary
with the unit square it's easier to do things visually
So (a, b) is equivalent to (c, d) if a = c and b = 0 or 1 & d is the opposite
but that sounds so convoluted
i think that it would be a good exercise for feather to explicitly write out the equivalence relation
torus
Yes
visually is good, but you need to be able to translate things to mathematical language
I just don't know how to write that
true
Like everything on the bottom edge is of the form (a, 0)
Everything on the top edge is of the form (a, 1)
i guess for me the picture makes the actual equivalence relation make sense
bump teaterra 
So (x1, y1) ~ (x2, y2) if x1 = x2 and (y1 = 0 & y2 = 1)
But that's so weird to read
Seems like there's gotta be a nicer way to say that xd
Can you define an equivalence relation in "parts"?
Wait
integration by parts 
Yeah I think so? That's what we did with projective space to see that it was homeomorphic to the sphere
Like
For projective space you say x ~ y if x = lamba*y for nonzero real #s lambda
But if you consider that in two “parts”
so x = -lambda * y and x = lambda * y for positive real numbers lambda
Then you can see that you get antipodal points on a circle of radius lambda
So in the same way
Could you just say that (a, 0) ~ (a, 1) and (0, b) ~ (1, b)?
So you define your equivalence relation in two different “parts”
Though it feels like these are different parts from the kind we used here
Idk how to explain it but this feels like an intersection of relations whereas that felt like a union of relations? 
So is that valid?
what is lambda supposed to represent here
sorry feather im also down cataclysmically rn
α is a generator of H^2 and f*α is also in H^2
it should say f*(α^i) = λ^i α^i. then the lefschetz number is the sum of λ^i
many typos
hm
cohomology hard
ok my question is a little different
but the same reasoning applies no?
its not just asking you to show that f has a fixed point, it's asking you to find one
the lefschetz fixed point theorem doesn't seem particularly useful
The current time for stμ₂dying is 02:42 AM (EDT) on Thu, 04/05/2023.
i might just quit on this homework then
im so fucking tired and i have three other questions
for once it's not entirely my fault
sleeping is usually good for you
my personal life decided to go up in flames right before finals 
i will keep trying
bc i wanna get into grad school
i have risen to try once more
just find the fixed point directly by calculation?
If you have an automorphism of projective space which comes from a linear map then the fixed points are just eigenlines, in this case they are very simple to find.
First term I have heard the term eigenlines and it makes too much sense lol
LMAO Yeah I like that
reminds me of 3b1b
out of curiosity does this fail in even dimensions
seems elementary enough that it shouldn’t but the question is in odd dimension
oh wait
is it then just showing that rank is 2n-1
Lmao
Hello
Yes
what is your question exactly?
boop
Is what just showing that the rank is 2n-1?
findinf the fixed pt of the map before
but thats silly so nvm
doesnt actually find any points
The first map is just a linear map, so it has loads of fixed points.
I have a feeling like you're overcomplicating this problem by a lot
E.g. just find any nontrivial eigenvector.
probably 🥲
The second map you can also just prove the lack of fixed points explicitly
By trying to solve for them and showing there are no solutions.
Note that it suffices to prove the existence of fixed points/nonexistence for P^1 by an easy induction.
This is basically reducible to just semilinear algebra, but you're trying to use very difficult topology to get around computing anything.
I mean we've all been there. But if you sit down and try to compute you'll realize it's even easier than making some argument about the lefschetz fixed point theorem.
i mean im also like
not doing too hot so probably thinking less
butt
i can still do this
It sucks to have personal problems during exam season but I believe in you!
yeah 
gonna be a long fucking week
but thank you
might bother with another q later
ok wait
in P1 thats just the antipodal map
0 the fixed point?
For f or for g?
f
Can you see for what values of X, Y where X and Y are not both 0 we have (X, Y) = \lambda \cdot (-Y, X)?
No worries!
but you're working in complex projective space!
ok this time i do just wanna ask for a hint if possible please
its not clean but i think you can just compute it directly from the boundary map
sorry i keep jumping around but different question
They want you to just compute it but you can explicitly homotope it to the wedge of S^2 with two circles.
Just to check your answer
(by contracting the face that they're glued along, then contracting v_2 -> v_4
i dont immediately see that
hmmmm
ok wait sorry id gone back to a dif question
trying to show that X v Y has the fixed point property iff X and Y both have it
for backwards direction i was starting by assuming that if X and Y have it but we have a self-map of the wedge with no fixed points this would induce some kind of selfmap on X and/or Y with no fixed points too which is a contradiction
but that feels too weak
or maybe induced is the wrong word but just like
the restriction of the self map of the wedge sum to X or Y
this is wrong 
they're homology
yeah it's the only thing is that you're working with different coefficients so you just gotta account for that
yeah you mod out the coefficients
trying one rn hol up
for Z/4
ker(d1) = {a1, b1}
im(d2) = 2a1
so H1 = Z/2 x Z...?
also im assuming Q probably means rationals right
a topological group G acts on a topological space X, and the action is continuous. x is ana element of X, then, is the orbit of x a connected subspace?
x is an element of X
not necessarily
Any simple counterexample? In what case it is?
a common example is G = {-1, 1} acting by multiplication on X = S^n. the orbit of any point x is {x, -x}, which is disconnected
a sufficient condition is for the group to be connected: the orbit of x in X is the image of the continuous map G -> X given by g -> gx
but it's not a necessary condition. take your favorite disconnected topological group and let it act on your favorite topological space trivially (every element acts as the identity). the orbits are points, so they're connected
maybe you could throw orbit-stabilizer at it and get something nice
That helps a lot, thank you very much!
yes with Q coefficients
Hmm... I'm still waiting for feathers' dose of question for today.
LMAO
I have a 2000 word essay due tonight and I’ve only written 150
My questions will come after 😌
ong me too
reading lee and he mentions that an open simplex (that is, without boundary) isnt open in R^n in general, is this just about the dimension mismatch? or am i missing something
like, would it not be true that every open k-simplex is open in R^k?
ok lol, the way he phrased it made it seem deeper than that
well\
since I'm almost done with chapter 1 (just smooth manifolds w boundary left, whihc looks simple enough)
I think it would be good to make myself some notes/prove stuff within the chapter as I re-review it before I start te exercises
What are some basic topology facts I should prove?
Like stuff you'll see pop up all the time, things about connectedness & compactness and whatveer else might show up
show that the continuous image of a connected/compact set is connected/compact
and tie these into things you know from calculus
this is the EVT
o I thought EVT was continuous on compact means attains max & min
(which in R means closed, bounded -> compact by heine-borel)
but I guess I'd want to prove it for any top space huh
do the exercise i suggested and then convince yourself that it is the generalization of the extreme value theorem you know
a continuous map from a compact space to a hausdorff space is a closed map
(i.e. takes closed sets to closed sets)
a space X is hausdorff if and only if its diagonal {(x, x) : x is in X} is closed in the product topology of X x X
struggling to see why this would be true
skill issue
clearly
connected locally path connected spaces are path connected
you can use to show connected manifolds are path connected.
There's this one, X second countable then any basis of X has a countable sub basis. Lee uses this to show manifolds have a basis with regular coordinate balls
i have intuition for pretty much every one of the basic properties of a manifold except for hausdorffness
so how exactly does homology work? and what exactly are the elements and the operation of a homology group? all I know is it's a way to classify holes in a top space 
doesn't hausdorffness naturally follow from a manifold being locally homeo to R^n?
hausdorffness is a local property innit? 
? no
line with two origins
what i mean is that i know how to use the definition but its not something theres a nice visual intuition for in my head
i guess shrinking open sets around two points or something until theyre separated idk
bit its never obvious to me how it relates to other concepts
it doesn't? so if Y is a topological space that's hausdorff and if X is locally homeomorphic to Y then X is not hausdorff?
just gave you an example neamesis
Non Hausdroff spaces are wwird, for example intersection of compact sets may not be compact for non HD spaces. So in a sense HD spaces are spaced where intuition work
okay reading about it now 
lee says that hausdorffness roughly means a space has "enough points"
no
and second countable means it doesnt have "too many"
^ this one makes sense to me
i get what youre saying, weaker separation axioms can give strange results
my brother told me he had a prof give websites connected by hyperlinks as an example
but i still dont see hausdorff and it frustrates me a little
in this stack exchange answer they're constructing the line with two origins
people also denote the extended reals as R U {-inf, +inf} you're just adding in points just like how they're constructing the line with two origins, does that mean topologically the extended reals are like a line with 3 origins?
its not that youre adding in points randomly, its that youre saying theres more than one point that serves the same role
so subbing in either point you get open sets which are homeomorphic to R^n
but then the points themselves can't be separated
But just taking the union doesn't give you any information of where you're adding the points or how it serves a particular role?
correct, thats why theres more to the definition
ah okay
you take as basis:
(-a,0) U {one origin} U (0,a)
so for one origin you get something homeomorphic to the real line, youre basically just relabeling 0
ooh I see
say you want your sequences in the space to have unique limits. HD enforces this
this (and some countability axiom) allows you to give sequential arguments for continuity
At most you can motivate the definition and convince that it's the right kind of requirement to have on your space
For a fiber bundle do we need the projection to be smooth
If it's a smooth fiber bundle yes.
I feel like in Hatcher everything is smooth so
But there are, e.g., fiber bundles over topological manifolds and it doesn't make sense to require them to be smooth.
The question is if S^k -> S^m -> S^n is a fiber bundle then k = n-1 and m = 2n-1
if everything is smooth then n can’t be 0 because S^m is connected and S^0 is two points
That has nothing to do with smoothness, the continuous image of a connected set is always connected.
yes I am only using continuity
n \neq 0 gives k < m
Then the inclusion image of S^k is contractible in S^m
and the homotopy LES splits
It's not that easy.
E.g. consider the Hopf fibration
Just because the fibers of a bundle are nullhomotopic in the whole space individually it doesn't mean the fiber bundle is trivial.
Yes but how is that helping you? You need to make an argument for why that is impossible, e.g. why the bundles will be trivial.
.
the inclusion is nullhomotopic since its image is contractible?
Then I get $\pi_i(S^n) = \pi_i(S^m) \oplus \pi_{i-1}(S^k)$
Iteribus
if I set i = n the first term on the RHS is 0
oof
So like I would keep in mind S^1 \to S^3 \to S^2
which is a fiber bundle which is not trivial between different spheres.
That's one of the examples of why m = 2n-1 k = n-1 is excluded.
ok let's look just at the LES around i = n which is where it might be interesting
$\pi_{n}(S^k) \rightarrow \pi_{n}(S^{n+k}) \rightarrow \pi_{n}(S^n) \rightarrow \pi_{n-1}(S^k) \rightarrow \pi_{n-1}(S^{n+k})$
Iteribus
second term is 0
last term is 0
So k has to be equal to n-1 yes.
Iteribus
ty
I thought we get m = k + n from dimensions
Yeah lol
owo
I am do fundamental group stuff again for exam and it makes we wish we did the fundamental groupoid too lol
feels much more natural in some cases
All spaces are path connected
hey is S^2 x (S^2 - {p,q}) homotopy equivalent to S^2 - {p,q}?
the second factor is homotopy equivalent to R^2 \ {p} which is S^1 so would this be homotopyequivalent to S^2 x S^1?
Yep, and then you have to show that that is not homotopy equivalent to S^1
i'm doing this because i would have needed to get something simple out of S^2 x (S^2 - {p,q}) to calculate cohomology for it, but S^2 x S^1 is not simple enough for me
hmmm well do you know the Kunneth formula? Or do you know about higher homotopy groups?
well a bit but i'm doing a mayer-vietoris construction here
can I get some direct sum out of S^2 x (S^2 - {p,q})?
That will also work! You can cover S^2 by the complement of the north and south pole, U, V. Then Meyer-Vietoris on U \times S^2 - {p, q} and V \times S^2 - {p, q} will work.
well that is what i'm doing but the intersection of U and V comes out to S^2 x (S^2 - {p,q})
for context i'm calculating S^2 x S^2
Ah so you want to compute the cohomology of S^2 \times S^1
For that you can do another meyer vietoris on the left hand side
And you will reduce to (U \cap V) \times S^1 being a familiar space.
i'm only doing this up to the case k = 2 so can I get away without m-v for S^2 x S^1?
It depends on what you use.
okay so i've managed to conclude that H^2(S^2 x S^2) = R + R from the m-v construction. i would now want to figure out a base for this and i think that since H^2(S^2 x S^2) = H^2(S^2) + H^2(S^2) i could use the orientation forms on the spheres?
why not Küneth?
since i'm interested in the generators i think i need something out of the maps on m-v
Künneth also tells you something about generators when phrased correctly.
This is something I’ve realized as I’ve done more alg top. I don’t just wanna know there is an iso. I wanna know what the hell the iso is
The generators that you're getting from your argument are obtained in exactly the same way from Kunneth
This is esp. easy to see if you work over a field.
how do you retrieve them from just knowing that H^2(S^2 x S^2) = R + R? i should be able to use the volume/orientation forms of the spheres to get the generators, but no idea how
actually the cup product gives you the generator of H²
or wedge product in case of De Rahm
ok actually the pull back of the volume form does it
p1: S²xS² → S² and ω be volume form of S² or orientation form then you can p1* ω to get one generator
anyone can correct me if I'm wrong
Could anyone give a hint to this one?
i had this problem for hw last semester, the way i did it was to just come up with a metric and show that it induces the dictionary order topology
it ended up working out nicely in that the metric was kind of "the most obvious one" you could choose
Interesting
if this is from munkres then idt theres any other way to do it? bc theres no theorems about metrizability introduced by this point
Yeah they just want you to construct a metric, it's easy enough.
What are some resources to learn homotopy theory post-Hatcher? I'm interested in learning motivic homotopy theory eventually, so ideally I want a book that develops tools found in both the classical (topologicak) and motivic case.
Is Simplicial homotopy theory by Goerss and Jardine good for this?
Yes, that's the standard resource.
That's what I've heard
Though Hartshorne is also a standard resource, but I don't think it is the best for learning AG
Supplement with May's Concise maybe.
I know some rudimentary definitions, but nothing substantial.
Do you know what sections of it I should pay more attention to for motivic homotopy purposes?
And what sections I should skip for now
I'm planning on working through it over the summer
I suspect getting a good understanding of G-J and then moving into motivic is a good idea.
Some key ideas, like grothendieck topologies, are not covered though iirc, so you'll need to fill that gap.
Oh I know a bit about that from stacks
Should I learn any more details or is a basic understanding sufficient?
What about elements of homotopy theory?
I think just getting comfortable with the material in G-J is sufficient.
Good luck!
Thanks!
Is there an example of a retraction $i:A \to B$, where both $A$ and $B$ are retracts of a $CW$-complex, such that $i$ is a deformation retract, but not a strong deformation retract?
Digiteraat
The usual example is the space consisting of the straight lines connecting the origin to (1, 1/n) for all n union with the line connecting the origin to (1, 0)
Then (1, 0) is a deformation retract, but cannot be a strong one which is a nice exercise.
The topology is the subspace topology inherited from the plane, the idea is that the points (1, 1/n) get too close to (1, 0) to allow them to move without violating continuity
But that's not a retract of a CW complex, is it?
because I need both A and B be bifibrant
I think a lot of this is more inertia than actually being good
Then again I think AG has a kinda weird thing in that like
commutative algebra largely is motivated by AG and many commalg texts are written from that perspective
so it almost ends up being cyclical
almost because of course you can learn commalg without understanding the AG motivations (yet)
but I think there's still a lot of room for improvement in the pedagogy here and I wish there was a book that tried to do them both at the same time and maximize intuition
Have you done SHGH?
ty
np
toki!!!
Have you started learning about infty cats?
I started reading HTT recently so idk if you wanna join me
Idk this is a personal thing
I enjoy it
of all the resources for AG i've found I think hartshorne + Gathmann's notes are perfect for learning
ayy hello! No I haven't started yet
oof sounds nice! I don't have a lot of time rn so I don't think I will be able to read it unfortunately
maybe in the future, but maybe by then you're already done lol
idk ifyou have plans over the summer but we could maybe read then
nah my summer looks fine, I should have time then and I would be down reading stuff about this
yay
Then I'll put off reading HTT for now and do some other stuff
let's dm when summer is approaching then
ye fr
but I've been doing the same thing over and over I guess lol
like stable stuff I guess
Oof I see, yeah that stuff is fun but also hard so makes sense
ye exactly. How about you tho john?
Oh still doing operator stuff, transition to more math phys type of stuff
Probably gonna do some actual physics once I get to grad school
oh damn I see
i forget, are you going to grad school too or are you applying next cycle
right so its members of the kerner of d 
but i see, nice. Presumably going to target for homotopy theory stuff for grad school?
oof i see. yeah I mean you know a lot of homotopy theory so the rest will seem low in comparison
Hello. If I have an injective group morphism A -> B, does it imply that the morphism H_(A) -> H_(B) (between their group homology at constant coefficients) is also injective ? I don’t know examples of computation of group homology to find counterexamples. Thank you.
No.
Also the map is in the wrong direction.
It should go H^(B) to H^(A)
unless you mean for A, B to be coefficients for H^*(G; A)
I wanted to put the star below but I don’t know how to do it on phone.
It’s not true for H_1, which is the abelianization. Take any nonabelian group and an element that doesn’t survive the abelianization
it's not even true for H_0
Ok thank you.
I think that it is true for constant coefficients since the action of group is trivial
But I’m maybe wrong, I’m new with group homology.
Ah just with constant coefficients yes
to see that Rn and Rm have the same htpy type can i just say they both retract to the origiin
Yes

reviewing for a final so im going back to very basics and im just curious about how someone else might phrase thiis
what is the motivation for/what info do we get from homology
Here, could it not be the case that K_xi is a nonorientable surface like a Klein bottle? For instance, if we take X to be a Klein bottle with the Delta-complex structure consisting of two 2-simplices A and B, then taking xi to be the chain A - B I think would result in K_xi being a Klein bottle
We've been over this before
if you search for older messages in that convo you'll find answers from ryu as well
i think it was them at least
i should rephrase then
You failed to take the signs into account when doing the identification
At least I think this is what’s happening
(I believe you get something like a punctured torus but maybe I am mistaken)
Yes actually I just realized it’s more dumb than that, A - B isn’t a cycle
Thanks
Ah well I guess it isn’t a cycle because of the signs :)
I have not
Would you recommend doing that before G&J or after?
I feel like I should learn homotopy theory before stable stuff
Adams is easy but sloppy. He’s the motivation for learning homotopy theory, so you should read him first
Has anyone tried May's More Concise Algebraic Topology?
I'm being invited to a reading group, but honestly the book itself scares me to death already
Yeah, probably not the best idea 😄 it's dense af
The first volume is very dense. More concise is not actually concise. I don’t think it’s dense, either
I think it's a good book
but it's a pretty mature perspective and ymmv whether or not it works for you
Also a bit light on examples
Motivation isn't a big problem for me
Will G&J be too difficult without working through Adams?
No, you don't need to read Adams to read G-J.
Ujs are an open cover of P^n. is the middle thing supposed to be u_{j - 1} / u_j, u_{j + 1} / u_j?
Yes
thanks
not sure if this is still the correct channel


if you're there lurkiing
