#point-set-topology
1 messages Ā· Page 32 of 1
hi, guys, is it true that if Y\subset U is an irreducible closed subset of U, and U\subset X is open, then the closure of Y in X is irreducible?
The closure of an irreducible set is irreducible. This is a good exercise!
It doesn't depend on U at all really.
oh i see, Y\subset U is irreducible, then Y\subset X is irreducible, then closure of Y in X is irreducible
Thanks!
is it true that the image of an injective continuous map R -> R is an interval
iām dumbed thatās theyāre for continuous functions in general
(cat on keyboard, sorry)
by a combination of some evt ivt
It's just ivt.
As a subexercise: show that a connected subset of R containing two points contains all the points between them.
That's basically the whole problem.
Hey thatās my job
isnāt this like stronger ivt
well hmm thereās no mention of function
It depends on what you consider ivt to be. But since the exercise I gave is one line it is not that much stronger than ivt.
Yes that would immediately solve your problem.
as in the subexercise right
As in the question that you asked before
Without the injective part it could be a point.
oh and thatās continuous too yikes
can we say anything similar about smooth curves in the complex plane
i.e. injective continuously differentiable maps from a closed interval real [a, b] to C with non-vanishing derivative
It depends on what you mean by "anything similar"
Maybe the analogue is about f: D \to C holomorphic nonconstant. But the conditions are much stronger of course.
Where D is the open disc
I see
For the complex numbers ivt says that "the image is connected" but there are a lot of paths in the plane, it's not clear what you'd want to claim about them.
what is the point of identifying smooth curves with each other
I mean like this
Well tbh it says why here ādefining curves independent of parameterizationā, but I donāt understand the equivalence relation
āThis can be done by considering equivalence classes of smooth curves with the same directionā
?? what does this mean
does any1 have a copy of topology by Hocking, Young by chance
Yes
could you help me on the details of theorem 4-24 on page 180 @languid patrol im a bit stuck on how to define h2,h3,h4
so from the figure, it seems as though h2 is only fixating on x1 but in what sense
im trying to prove pi_2(X,x_0) is abelian by brut force
seems like its a 4 stage process? continuously deforming one product into the other
assuming n=2, the text defines a homotopy h1:I^2 x I \to X via f(2x1,2x2/2-t) on 0<=x1<=1/2, 0<=x2<=1-1/2t and g(2x1-1,(2x2-t)/(2-t) on 1/2 <= x1<= 1, 1/2t <= x2<= 1
so many variables lol and so many constraints lol
does h2 := f(2x_1,x_2) for x_1 \in [0,1/2] and := g(2x_1-1,x_2) for x_1 \in [1/2,1]?
or is it f(2x1/2-t,x2) and g(2x1-t/2-t,x2)
for part (b), I dont see how the closure of I is [1,3]. I understand why [1,3] is contained in the closure, but for x \in [0, 1), any basis element containing x must look like (m, n) where m<x and n\geq 1 (where m,n are in Z). Then (m,n) intersects I, so shouldnt the closure be [0,3]?
I don't rly understand your reasoning
Hm
im showing every basis element containing x intersects I
so x is in the closure
yeah that intersects I
Sorry I misread
Yes they made a mistake since like
[1,3] doesn't even contain I
okay thats what i thought
bc i got the same final answer for the boundary so it had to have been a typo
for this do we have to show that if U is open in X x Y then U is open in X' x Y'?
I'm confused as to how Neukirch managed to find two distinct elements of Gamma in that neighbourhood
Like the intersection is non zero but how does that imply the existence of two distinct elements in the intersection?
any nbhd of 0 contains some other element of Gamma
Why need this be true
Gamma is any discrete subgroup of R^n here
So like in R i can take Gamma = Z and any neighbourhood around 0 only need contain 0
It doesn't need to contain 1 or any other integer
well the contradiction comes after assuming it is not closed (the closure contains extra points)
Okay i mean yeah
But this only implies that any nbhd of x has a non-empty intersection with Ī
But why does that intersection have to have at least two distinct elements in it
I am pleased to inform you that I have lost the partial of analysis in several variables, the professor will do the exam again, I am afraid I do not feel well for that, do you think it would be a good idea to talk to him to let me a range of exercises to prepare for the exam?
So I'm working through Tverberg's proof of JCT, and he gets to "It is clear that Ni consists of 2 components". How would I show that?
wanna post the proof so people actually have any idea what you mean?
I end up finding a different proof that does this step better, but here it is
Could someone explain how we can compare the topologies
I mean you just want to show inclusion right
I think you need to first consider the subspace topologies on X, X' and Y, Y'
is X/X' a quotient?
say X and X', Y and Y' are disjoint
then X x Y isn't even a subset of X' x Y'
so it cannot be open
You don't need it be a subset
Basically you endow X' x Y' with subset topology. In that case, X x Y would be empty in the subset topology of X' x Y', which is indeed open
Yeah
This exercise is more about warping your mind around abstract definitions more
Just follow all the dot in definitions, you'll be fine
yeah this confused the hell out of me lol
so what I have is that a basis of topology on $X$ should look like ${E \cap X \mid E \in T}$ and on $X'$ it is ${E \cap X' \mid E \in T'}$, in $Y$ it is ${E \cap Y \mid E \in U}$ and finally on $Y'$ it is ${E \cap Y' \mid E \in U'}$ so the basis for the product topology on $X \times Y$ looks something like ${(A \cap X) \times (B \cap Y) \mid A \in T \text{ and } B \in U}$ and similarly on $X' \times Y'$ it is ${(A \cap X') \times (B \cap Y') \mid A \in T' \text{ and } B \in U'}$. So taking a basis element of $X \times Y$ we get $(A \cap X) \times (B \cap Y)$ but $A$ is also in $T'$ and $B$ is also in $U'$ hence $A \cap X'$ and $B \cap Y'$ are open in their respective topologies meaning that $(A \cap X') \times (B \cap Y')$ is open in $X' \times Y'$
Does this look right?
FamilyFriendly
I'm ngl I still dont quite understand whats happening here
if any1 has a copy of Young Hocking Topology and would like to help me in finding the remaining homotopies to show pi_2(X) is abelian @ me plz
Hatcher shows that \pi_n is abelian for n>=2
The proof is actually very visual (you use a diagram to 'construct' the homotopy between fg and gf)
I need to construct the 4 homotopies explicitly though:/
is the second homotopy the following
You could use Eckmann--Hilton too: https://stanford.edu/~sfh/homotopy.pdf
$h_2(x_1,x_2,t)=f(2x_1,x_2)$ and $g(2x_1-1,x_2)$
we haventlearned that yet :/
MyMathYourMath
wait but that doesnt use t shux
$h_2(x_1,x_2,t)=f(\fr)$
$h_2(x_1,x_2,t)=f(\frac{2x_1}{2-t},x_2)$ for $x_1 \in [0,1-\frac{1}{2}t]$
If I have a Tychonoff space B, I know that the R(B)-Module of sections of a vector bundle xi splits as S(xi) = Q + Qā. How can I show that dim Q is locally constant?
Calling F_b(Q) = {q(b) | q in Q}
I think I want to show that F_b(Q) intersect F_b(Qā) is zero. But I canāt quite figure out how to do this
(It also of course might not be true)
So just to be clear this is a chart from the graph of a function to some subset of the real line? Unless x & y are vectors
So I guess not always huh lol
phi does not map to the real line
Yeah
It would if our graph was on R x R right?
Not necessarily the entire real line but a subset of it at least
yes
Okay
So I understand the definition just fine
But I'm having trouble connecting it to the intuition for what I think a chart is supposed to do/be for/represent
try working this out for low dimensional examples
if you draw some cont. function R->R in a two dimensional coordinate system you will see why this looks like R
Like the point of a chart is that we can directly map a region on our manifold to Euclidean space, and using the coordinate functions of our chart we can get a rough idea of "where we're at" on the manifold right?
Like looking at a map of a city to find where you are
But this chart only gives us the first coordinate of where we're at
I'm assuming the use of the chart is to establish a local coordinate system
Oh wait I guess it does that
if we're in R x R then once we know our local position x we can calculate our relative position on the manifold with (x, f(x))
Same idea for higher dimensions
Lee's just giving an example of a chart
Sure
On the graph of a function f: U -> R^k, U in R^n, which is a manifold
I'm switching books I like the way this guy talks
tu was recommended for a reason
People also recommended this book though
If we were in R^3 for example then U_i^+ would be the first octant?
Oh no lol not every coordinate has to be positive
What is B^n supposed to be here?
Just a subset of S^n? And u is an n-dim vector in S^n
Also doesn't U_i^+ cap S^n union U_i^- cap S^n partition S^n?
B^n is definitely the n dimensional unit ball without boundary
I see
Gah I'm confusing myself again with the stuff about dimensions and n-sphere vs n-ball
So the unit 2-sphere lives in R^3 but it's a 2D manifold
yes
Whereas the unit 2-ball lives in R^3 but it's a 3D manifold
no
fugg
Right
i mean in these examples you can see it
take a point on the sphere S^2
cut out some part around it
flatten it a bit
I understand the idea intuitively
looks like a patch of R^2
Yep
hence why it's 2 dimensional
i also don't quite agree with what you wrote about charts earlier
here
Why?
but i am too tired to elaborate and i will type more about this tomorrow
you're not really navigating your mfd in that sense
Are there any simple YouTube videos or quick reads I can go through to more-properly understand the n-sphere and n-cube and whatever other important similar spaces there are?
Emphasis on quick read, just to understand where the concepts are different, not do much math with them š
...
no flame pls I know I really should just pick up a topology textbook
if you're not willing to properly learn about some of the most intuitive examples of manifolds idk
yes you should
Not really sure what you mean by "properly understand the n-sphere"
If that's what it takes to leave with a proper understanding then I'll do it I suppose, I just don't want to spend much time on it
Exercises, examples + counter examples, knowing the common tricks in proofs, etc
Like
Well like you can go anywhere from the definition to like
idk
As hard as you want lol
oh you understand spheres? give me a positive-curvature metric on S^2 x S^2
I just understand the 2-sphere as a ball in R^3 with the interior removed, just the surface
Cohomology ring
So is the 2-ball the same thing but with interior?
hint: use the adams spectral sequence
Stfu nerds
Küneth
2-ball should be the disk in a plane i guess
I see
Also I would'nt use the word interior here
You know what I mean though right?
Like here you're using it in an informal sense I guess but yeah
Yeah
I mean I would use words like insside or smth lol idk / volume but yes
I just have trouble because when I've considered sphere and ball equivalent all my life, as 3D objects ("3D circles" or whatever you'd call it in elementary school)
Spoiler?
Just like a bouncy ball or whatever š
Just use homotopy mayer vietoris lol trivial
Yeah fair enough
Just think in terms of the like local dimensions
If ur living on a 2-ball or a 2-sphere it's like being in the plane
Yep
I just need to shift to equating ball with neighborhood, when I visualize neighborhood I think of what's being referred to as a ball
Why is living on a 2-ball "like" being in the plane? Is it not literally being on a plane? I mean I guess you're still in R^3 but the ball is on the plane
So what do you call the object that I previously associated with sphere & ball? The..round shape...with a volume and surface...?
In R^4? Lol
man what is up with these convos about the semantics of calling something a ball vs. a sphere this is like the second one I've seen
The last one was also due to me
And this is why
I finally get the example now at least lol
Thank you everyone
qeqiuwheqwuhem this makes so much sense
Wtf that's so cool
And is this right?
no
It doesn't include the case where x^i = 0
Yeah I wasn't sure how to put that
In my head it's like
You're missing the "boundary" connecting the two halves
you need too union this with S^{n-1}
feather there's a name for spaces you can partition into two opens
Connected?
opposite of that
these are precisely disconnected spaces
S^n is pretty connected to me (n > 0)
n>0 mega pedant precaution
yeah lmao

Oh okay looking at the Wiki article I think I get it
with the recent crowd of people on this server i feel like i have to take huge precautions
S^(-n) is connected 
(for n<0)
yeah i had you in mind
lol
there are two ppl here and idk who you're referring to 
Why are there 2n+2 charts for S^n? You have two charts from U_^(+-) intsct S^n, where do the other 2n come from?
Oh wait
two charts for each x^i. there are n + 1 of them
(you need only 2 charts tho, inefficiency
)
Only?
stereographic projection
different charts, not the one you are using
take S^n-{1} and S^n-{-1}
Oh okay lol
||but you can't do it using 1 btw||
fuck
I was thinking you'd need at least 3 in order to map the "boundary" connecting the +- U_i
there's probably some good picture in needham where he went and took like an orange and did some horrific things to it to show you can cover it with two charts
those poor eggplants...

You just remove the weird stem bit on either side. It's not horrific. Stereographic projection is probably unpleasant to experience though.
stereographic projection has only ever been unpleasant
timo confirmed can't compoot
do not ask me for the derivative of something that isn't a polynomial
but I like the connection with minimal number of contractible open covere with cup length
What is the derivative of log(e^{x^2 + 1})?
Ah needham
Yeah

to show that not every suspension is simply connected maybe
Everything is a polynomial if you add enough terms 
(Do not ask me about e^{1/x^2})

So true
Yeah
do it
Oh the cover by one chart?
Uhh well since S^n is homeomorphic to R^2 this is easy

potato is a flat earther
Yes
Man configuration spaces are yummy
They should be used as the canonical proof of invariance of dimension
Jk
Oh boy
Do I consider R^(n+1) as R x R x ... x R (n+1) times or can I think of it as the vector space R^n?
I'm assuming it's just a topological space š
both
I don't know how else to interpret "sending each point x in R^(n+1)\{0} to the subspace spanned by x"
In my head all I can think is
We take a point in R^2
And it spans a line
But idk why I can't extend that to taking a point in R^3 and spanning a plane 
think as identifying antipodal points on a sphere
Sure
you won't live through the projective space example btw
this is where you drop this book
also if you haven't seen projective spaces before, feel free to skip the example till you need it
you could skip it, but the issue is it ain't gettin easier man
feather hasn't seen any topology and the book hits you with "the fundamental group of a manifold is countable" like 10 pages after that example
it is over
Not any topology but not muchhh lol
it's not Lee, is it?
it is
thought it's tu
it was until I decided I like this book better 
it is just too lengthy
This I understand at least!
So uh
How do we go from
S^1 x S^1
to this picture
I mean I see the two S^1's
But they're perpendicular to one another, how did we get that?
Doesn't that depend on what "basis" you have for each S^1?
I'm not sure what exactly I'm trying to say there
BUt I'm thinking about it like R^2 = R x R
You can have a nonorthogonal basis and then you won't just get the x & y axes perpendicular to one another
it's just one "representation" of S¹xS¹
What would I search up to find other representations?
Study topo harder š
ex like S¹ and ellipse are diffeomorphic
Study it long enough, then you'll know all sorts of representation
Think of coordinate system: You have a surface with two numbers for coordinates, and they both loop as circles
Now what does it look like? Well, the first number gives a circle
The second number gives another circle, but this new circle travels around the old circle
Yes
As it moves, it shows a surface: that's a torus
I understand
But like
If the "new circle" was at an angle (not perpendicular to the old circle)
That's still a torus right?
This particular picture does. But again, we're in topo world, everything is up to homeomorphisms.
Yes
It can be any solid mess with a hole, and that will be counted as a torus
Or at least, the boundary of that mess
But since the angled new circle & the perpendicular new circle are homeomorphic then they're all essentially the same thing
Exactly
That's awesome
Wtf is a precompact set
now that's a word I've never seen
From Googling I think it's a set where the closure is compact?
Ah, that's a French invention
not the french again
In French it's like prƩcompact
I don't think I do š
Since it's second-countable, it has a countable basis
Then since it's a manifold, if we look at a specific region centered at point p with the corresponding chart, we can map onto R^n
Is it though?
Isn't this what second-countable means
Some authors add more conditions, like second countability or paracompactness
It depends on the book
what are you talking about
Strictly speaking, a manifold can be defined as something locally homeomorphic to R^n
Without any addition conditions
I mean... it's pretty common to have second-countability as a condition?
Not to mention Hausdorffness lol
I have seen enough examples to never make assumptions š
ppl work with non hausdroff as well
If only there's one definition to agree upon
people work with nonhausdorff/paracompact/whatever. feather is working with hausdorff second countable
you are talking to feather
apparently they show up in foliation theory
Yes, the real beasts
Then we can take open sets in R^n as the basis for its topology? Something like that?
yeah but when someone says the manifold has a countable basis since it is second countable, it seems weird to challenge that
And if we take the union of those all over our manifold we'll get a countable basis for the whole thing
Well, that won't work, but dw, you have second countability in this case I think
And they're precompact since open intervals in R are precompact
no
Blegh this is where my lack of topology knowledge becomes painfully apparent huh
Basically second countability is like going to Walmart: it gives you almost everything you want
You have a countable basis for the whole space
unless you don't consider (0, inf) as interval
...
Walmart has never given me anything
I mean this is just not possible
š
(0, inf) doesn't include inf, you know that? š
that's why we have parenthesis
you are trying to tackle a book that requires at least a 100 pages of topology as a prereq
Wait okay sorry the union of finite open sets in R
we're all watching you feather and not many of us are confident
I should just Google and double-check before I speak
Well, yeah, feather be feather. Get used to it. We tried, it didn't work
we dont
I studied a fair bit of topology before trying to get into manifolds and I still struggled hard with the topology
Then don't respond :p
it just won't even be fun
I'm having fun
aight
I studied a shit ton, and I still struggle š it never stops
try Lee ITM first then
Mood
Not Lee, noooo. We had this convo already
The only reason I want to study this in the first place is so I can do fun calculus shenanigans :3
lol agree
can't you do fun calculus shenanigans... in calculus?
I have for the past three years
but itm,ism,irm is a series that almost covers everything you nedd
This is just harder fun calculus shenanigans ^_^ new stuff for me to learn
you are months away from getting to any calculus shenanigans if you are doing this
Wait like what
Learning about differential forms and generalized Stokes thm and so on :o
you can do that on R^n you know
Yep
long journey
I don't mind
Not like I'm confident either, but I'm actually curious how far feather will go. I'm also learning knot theory myself with a pinch of (algebraic) topology, intuition, imagination, and sheer willpower

So I completely understand
If I give up, it'll be of boredom, not because of difficulty
If I'm interested in it I'll try my hardest to learn it, difficulty be damned
it takes time for the subject to grow and gain maturity
Well, not doing anything doesn't make it shorter š¤·
I'm gonna do some more reading and see if I can justify this lemma to myself first before I read the proof
doing some point set topology certainly does
Kids like to bang their heads against the walls first to make sure there's no shorter way.

Sometimes I wish I still had the same naivety
I learned topo because no one told me it was supposed to be hard 
And it wasn't! I understood up to Hilbert's fifth problem in a week
Still cannot replicate that speed anymore
godspeed
Oops, Hilbert's 10th is the one about function. That's number theory in disguise, another story
It's actually not so bad. Just follow the definitions and make sure you understand them all concretely
Yep
That's what I'm doing
I forgot coordinate ball was an already defined term, I really need to start writing this stuff down
also give some time for the concepts to grow.
Yeah
Like don't expect to solve every single exercise in first read through
Don't. Keep going back to the definitions. It's like learning vocab for a new language: writing them down and never look at it doesn't help. But searching for it the 4th time, and you will remember it.
Alright
At that point your brain will be tired of going back that it will just remember stuff to save time
best by test 
Love the psychology there
force my brain to learn out of sheer laziness
Generalsied stokes theorem is a let down
I'll be surprised if she pulls that off
we never know
Also if you can survive through Bredon then 2nd chapter is a nice run through of all the important concepts
We have a name for that, no? Not just generalised stokes
I think it's awesome, Moth helped me with the intuition for when I first learned the Kelvin-Stokes theorem a couple years ago
It's so cool that the idea extends to other spaces
wdym lol
When you have a hammer, everything is a nail
Dude
lol
You're like
oh I mean idk the proof ends up being pretty dry lol
Confucius reborn?
agree
Everything you spit sounds cool as fuck (Megu)
Nah. Try living in France for a few years, you'll see how it affects you

how does one show that any interval I cannot be homemorphic to S^1 "using an argument about connectedness of appropriate subspaces"
any hints
remove a point
yeah, ik that it is homeomorphic to S^1 without the north pole
but like would i be "using an argument about connectedness of appropriate subspaces"
if f: X -> Y is a homeomorphism and S is a subspace of X, then X\S is homeomorphic to Y\f(S)
remove a point, check the connectivity of your space after
shouldn't that still be connected
Actually I'm curious about 3) š
it's even path-connected
? for which one
same right? remove 2
this is meant to be a hint not the full damn answer
The easiest way is domain invariance, but we don't have that tool here, But yeah, removing points is a cool trick
you remove points
2 is lame, let's go with 3
remove entire S¹ and claim by invariance of domain

Go with fundamental group instead because it's cool
Well, that's basically removing points, but as a grad student
true
Yes feather? We're all waiting
I'm just trying to type it out here while I go back and forth between Google and the book
Maybe try writing them down once. Not because you'll look at them again, but for the sake of writing.
Idk, it helps for me. Especially at the beginning
If A is a subspace of X and B is a subspace of Y , then the product topology on A Ć B is the same as the topology A Ć B inherits as a subspace of X ĆY. I don't really understand the difference between the two. Is this correct? product topology on AxB is {UxV| U in subspace topology A of X, V in subspace topology B of Y} and topology AxB inherits as a subspace of XxY is {AxB intersect with PxQ| PxQ is open in topology of XxY}?
One is $(U \cap X) \times (V \cap Y)$, and the other is $(U \times V) \cap (X \times Y)$.
Megumi_Tadokoro
It depends on you taking product first, or subspace topo first. In this case it's the same, but it's not trivial
I assume this is a typo lol
I would say it is pretty trivial they are the same
like
$(U \cap A) \times (V \cap B) = (U \times V) \cap (A \times B)$ straight up
potato
Oh yes, should be A and B
I mean, everything is nice in finite case.
It's just the infinite case that's worth the rigour.
Well, it can still be an exercise š
And in infinite case, it's not for me
I'm not sure where it holds anymore
I guess it holds even in general case? Product topology is nice enough for these kinds of ops
i dont get what u mean by infinite case
When you have a family of spaces $(X_i)_{i \in I}$
Megumi_Tadokoro
If I is countable, sure. But if it's not, well....
That's where category theorists will shout at us about their importance
Also, there's this whole mess about Axiom of Choice
Just, stay away from it whenever you can, for your own sanity
oh ok but this is just for two its just in the first chapter of the topology book
Then yes, it's trivial
Ahhh, point-set. Good ol' days...
Actually, I just notice
(see ā get-advanced-access to use this channel) point-set topology (topological spaces), algebraic topology (homotopy/homology/etc.), geometric topology, anime
Why anime?

why not
Okay so if we have a manifold M^n (dimension n) then by definition (second-countability) there's a countable basis for the topology on M
Now look at a neighborhood U in M, and consider the chart phi: U -> U', where U' is a subset of R^n
R^n naturally has the Euclidean topology, for which n-balls form a countable base. The closure of an n-ball is the (n-1)-sphere, and the union of these two is closed and bounded, so by the Heine-Borel theorem it's compact. Hence n-balls are precompact
U' comes with the subspace topology, of which precompact n-balls form a countable base. Then, taking phi inverse of these precompact n-balls, we have a countable base for U
So if you do this for every neighborhood U in M, and take the union, then we'd get a countable base for M
Eww, weebs
Pretty sure I'm missing a bunch of details but is that the right idea? lol
Still coming to grips with what a basis for a topology is
It took me a good week. Take it easy.
How about this?
I think that's the best I can do, guess I'll just go read the proof now
It's a sketch, but I can't find anything wrong, hmmm

I mean, there are details left out, but that's the trivial part.
Wtf isn't this what I said
I don't understand why we need that last part about V in U_i being precompact though
Oh wait
I mean, you have to show the preimage forms a basis. That's why we have this V thing
I don't think that's why
Also you haven't shown precompactness, but that should follow easily(?), or I'm hallucinating
The sentence before the V thing shows that the preimage does form a countable basis (when we take the unions)
Yes, that's what I was about to say
The V thing is to show that our countable basis of coordinate balls is precompact
I mean, oh c'mon, you have all the nice maps in the world
That's nuisance, you got the good grip. Dw, just be careful next time.
I haven't properly read that last bit yet
Let me try to show to myself why the coordinate balls are precompact
Megumi I donāt really think youāre helping much
A coordinate ball is not necessarily precompact
Yes, but we're in finite dimensional case
Consider a coordinate ball given by a homeomorphism of (-1,1) onto R
(Even then Megumi)
Ok, I'm hallucinating obviously
I see
Also @nimble portal I came here to say do the RP^n example. It is arguably the most important early example of a manifold
Yeah it's the one Tu mentioned too
I'll come back to it once I've gotten to play around with other topology stuff for a bit
It will also build your intuition for what the theory of manifolds is allowing you to do
Also it comes up constantly in the book later. It's a nice example of a nonboring manifold
That will bend your mind quite a lot actually
How is this a coordinate ball?
Itās not super easy to cook up an explicit embedding or RP^n into R^m. But showing it is a manifold allows you to still work with it
The radius of the ball is infinite
Left side is a 1D ball. Right side is our whole manifold. We have one chart
Radius of left hand ball is 1 :)
I doubt
No
Hm
Manifold
So then how does Lee conclude that the open balls are precompact
It is true that any coordinate ball contains a coordinate ball which is precompact
I feel like you need Hausdorff since that means we've got a finite cover right?
I would think about this and try to prove it
Hausdorff has nothing to do with having a finite cover here
Blegh
Hint: do it this way, and use that this is true in R^n
Okay wait pause one second
Also use that you have a homeomorphism in your hands
In this example, the homeomorphism restricted to (-1/2,1/2) will have a precompact image
Oh
Well because we're in R^n we can just write our not-precompact coordinate ball as a union of precompact coordinate balls right?
Thatās true but I donāt believe you really even need that
But sure thatāll be fine
So just to remind myself what this is all about
I said coordinate balls are precompact
But that's wrong, as demonstrated by your counterexample
If you just grab yourself an open cover of precompact coord balls youāll be happy. Bc then you can use second countability to get a countable basis of such guys
I think I just don't get the counterexample? LOL
Like (-1, 1) is a precompact coordinate ball
How does using a homeomorphism to stretch that onto R change that
Ah ah ah
No it isnāt
Being precompact depends on what the total space is
How can R be a coordinate ball? Isn't the point of coordinate balls that the radius is unity??
Because closure depends on what the total space is
Youāre misunderstanding the definition of a coordinate ball
It consists of a few pieces of data
A coordinate ball in a manifold M is a pair (U, phi) where phi is a homeomorphism phi : U -> B_r(p) for some r > 0 and p in R^n
In my example. The manifold is R, the coordinate ball is R, the map phi is phi : R -> (-1,1)
What a coordinate ball is essentially is a piece of your manifold that looks like a ball in R^n
After we apply phi
Right
Idk why I just thought they were unit balls
I was totally misunderstanding the lemma then
BUt I don't think I'll have to hcange too much
Okay okay so
Proof sketch is something like
Consider a chart phi on U in M
Then because M is locally Euclidean, we can write phi(U) as a countable union of n-balls balls in R^n
These n-balls are precompact
Then we take phi inverse to write U as the union of the preimages of the n-balls
But then by definition of being a preimage of an n-ball, these subsets are coordinate balls
And they'd form a countable basis for U, and then you take the union over the manifold to get a countable basis of coordinate balls for the manifold
Now did I word it right?
I see why a coordinate ball is not necessarily precompact though
But now I just need to show that in this case these coordinate balls are precompact
Hm
Couldn't you just consider the closure of each coordinate ball to be the preimg under phi of the closure of the n-ball
Hint: it doesnāt work with the counterexample I gave
That's what I was working on lol
Not necessarily no?
I think you need to take a step back and stop thinking so formally. Also it helps break to things up into pieces
Do you understand the counterexample
Wasn't the counterexample to show that coordinate balls need not be precompact
Yes
I'm saying that n-balls are precompact
Precompact depends on the total space
Your total space is phi(U) not R^n
I agree n-balls are precompact in R^n
In phi(U) maybe not
Here are the two steps I would do
- show that for every point p in M there is a coordinate ball in M which contains p
- show that you can take this open cover and make it into a countable sub cover using second countability (nontrivial. Hard topology exercise for a beginner)
Okay
And I technically haven't even done 1 yet since I assumed that the n-balls would be precompact in phi(U)
Yes
Well
There is a very quick proof of 1
phi(U) is homeomorphic to R^n
Maybe 1ā is show it without the precompact condition
Er it depends on your defn of a chart
Lee's definition has it homeomorphic
Some ppl require image to be R^n and some ppl say any open subset of R^n
Then sure the argument you gave above works then I have no issue with it anymore
Does two spaces being homeomorphic mean their subsets are homeomorphic too?
Which subsets?
Like what I'm thinking is
A homeomorphism restricted to any subspace is also a homeomorphism onto its image.
because phi(U) is a subset of R^n
If youāre asking if h : X -> Y is a homeomorphism and A is a subset of X then h(A) is homeomorphism to A via h then yes
Feather I do beg of you read a topology book at least a bit
And the basis for R^n is the union of n-balls
I thought you said before it was R^n
uh
I think I was wrong
š
Let me check instead of trying to remember
Sorry...
Ohhh I see where I was misreading
I retract this statement lol
No consider the counterexample I gave earlier
^
Yeah
Total space is Utilde
Yes
Well in that case don't we just fix it by saying that phi(U) isn't precompact?
Since phi(U) is still in R^n then it inherits the subspace topology so we can still write it as the union of n-balls right?
So even though phi(U) might not be precompact, each n-ball still is
Like with (0, inf) in your example
So then we just take the inverse
No?
(-1,1) is an n ball
It is the union of 1 1-ball
But that 1-ball is not precompact if (-1,1) is the total space
I'm making the same mistake every time, I see it now LOL
Wait okay then
Why don't you write phi(U) as a union of balls in phi(U)
Wow, y'all are really dedicated, I must say
Which is fine since phi(U) inherits the subspace topology
These should be precompact in phi(U)?
(-1,1) is a ball in (-1,1)
(0,1) is not precompact there
Why not try this?
Isn't that what I'm doing? I'm just stuck on the coordinate ball part, since that hinges on us being able to write phi(U) as a union of unit balls
But why do we need precompactness in phi(U) anyways
The domain might not be a coordinate ball but it can be written as the union of coordinate balls no?
I think it has to do with the existence a subordinate continuou partition of unity for the open cover {U_i} of the manifold

dunno
...
sorry if I'm wrong
I'm sorry Faye maybe I should just come back to it later
I feel like I'm missing the point and you're just talking to a wall š
Hereās a correct solution to part 1:
Take your chart phi : U -> Utilde. Let p be in U. By openness there is an r>0 so that B_r(phi(p)) lies in Utilde.
Now Vtilde = B_(r/2)(phi(p)) has compact closure in Utilde (since its closure is the closed ball)
Then let V be the preimage of Vtilde
Then phi|V : V -> Vtilde is a precompact coordinate ball about p
Work smarter not harder
@nimble portal maybe read this and see if it makes sense
How is V a coordinate ball?
oh
my fucking
god
WHY DID I KEEP GOING BACK TO n-BALLS MANNNNNNNNNNNNN
Idk why I kept thinking coordinate ball means phi(U) has to be an n-ball argh
Yeah
I get it
How does is Vtilde precompact?
Doesn't its closure just have radius r/2
Never mind I see what you're doing
I was trying to do the same thing too but got stuck in the wording since I wasn't focusing on a specific point
I was trying to do it this way but got stuck trying to word this part
But I understand now I think
Every B_r is inside B_r', so each B_r is precompact in B_r', and since we can cover Utilde with B_r's then we can cover it with B_r's, which will then be precompact in Utilde
Yeah I understand it all, this is what I was trying to do too, just struggled with putting it into words
I just still kinda don't get what this part is for
Okay so the coordinate balls have compact closure (this follows from just taking the preimage of all of the B_r', of which the preimage of B_r lie in)
So they're precompact in each U_i
I assume youāre trying to show that M has a countable cover by precompact open sets?
compact subspaces of Hausdorff spaces are closed
I was trying to prove that to myself, I understand the idea behind it all except for the very last bit in Lee's proof
Okay so this is just a last little technical detail which would be familiar from point set topology.
I mean this last part is showing that the basis that you chose is precompact in M (since before you only showed it's precompact in Ui)
Right
I just don't understand where being Hausdorff ties into that
And I'm not getting it from SubGui's comment either š
Every compact subset of a hausdorff space is closed iirc
You have shown that there is a countable open cover U_i with subsets V_i \subset U_i which have compact closure in U_i, but the closure in M might be larger. However a compact subset of an open set is compact within the whole space, and in a Hausdorff space a compact set is closed, so the closure of V_i in M is contained within its closure in U_i, whence they are equal.
OK so I assume you understand why V is closed in M?
also, I think that is a lemma (actually theorem)
Let X be a Hausdorff space, then X is locally compact if and only if given x in X and U a neighborhood of x, there is a neighborhood V of x such that x in V subset U and the closure of V is compact.
In other words, it has pre-compact neighborhoods V subset U for each x in X and neighborhood U of x
ok there are too many ppl trying to explain stuff here so I'll leave

"However a compact subset of an open set is compact within the whole space"
So each V_i with its closure (which is compact) is compact within the whole manifold M
"And in a Hausdorff space a compact set is closed"
So each V_i with its closure is compact on M
Ahh but that means each V_i is precompact in M
I see I see
You know
maybe
just maybe
you guys have convinced me to brush up on my point-set topology
,
Yes but the V_i arenāt compact, their closures (call them K_i) within U_i are compact.
Yes
That's what I meant whoops yeah thank you
How long would it take to go over all the prerequisite psTop?

wasn't so fun?
you could study it from the initial chapters of Lee, Introduction to Top. Manifolds
I think it would not take so long assuming you have already seen it before
Yeah, I have
Itās not necessary strictly speaking to understand point set topology to do calculations/get the gist of whatās going on with manifolds if you want to see them as subsets of R^n, but if you want to do manifolds from a modern perspective all of the technical details will be lost on you if youāre not fluent in point set topology. Little flourishes like this one that would be second nature if youād read a bit more might be very confusing.
Just not the stuff about connectedness & Hausdorff spaces
Yeah I would have never come up with that last bit on my own
I did get the gist of what was going on too for the rest of the proof
Just couldn't put it into words
Yeah which is not so much of a problem in itself, it just might not be clear reading the proof which parts are purely technical and what is the heart of the proof. And you might get very confused about some very small technical part of the proof which is basically āsoft mathematicsā
not too long
But I feel like that's the wrong question to ask
You should never rush learning math
I agree
I'm just an impatient little rat

The only thing I don't immediately see is that compact sets are closed in Hausdorff spaces. I think if I'd properly studied the point-set first too then I would've never had trouble putting my thoughts into words and we never would have spent so long on this in the first place
Also just better at paying attention to definitions
point set is like the technical prerequisites to be able to do cool topology
me when separation axioms

Ohh but this reminded me how some of my friends shit themselves when they took diff geo cuz first class first thing that the prof did was prove that every manifold was paracompact so everyone got scared it would be a super technical class lmao
Speak of the devil
That's what I'm about to get to
LOL
Having trouble with the definition of locally finite
Depending on what youāre trying to do it might be nice to do something like d carmoās curves and surfaces
Where you do a lot of practical things with 1 and 2 dimensional manifolds in 3 dimensional space using explicit parameterizations but donāt have to deal with all of the baggage of the modern formalism of a manifold
Take some nbhd of x called A
Then locally finite means that if you have a cover indexed by some I, i.e. {U_i}_{i\in I}, then A cap U_i is non-empty only for finitely many i's
Can I think of paracompactness like a mesh? In the sense of like finite element analysis & CAD lol
In the end many undergrads/grad students read an entire manifolds textbook but find themselves unable to compute integrals of differential forms/curvature/etc. explicitly.
uhhh I wouldn't say so?
I don't think there's a very visual way to see stuff like compactness/related stuff at least I don't have one
Nope I get it now
Generally of all the topological properties I think that compactness is one of the more difficult ones for people to get
compact set = thin
The idea is that we can refine our cover as much as we want and every point will still only intersect finitely many sets in our cover (given a large enough neighborhood)
In the end what paracompactness gives you is that if you take an arbitrary collection of open balls covering the space, then this can be refined where each point lies in only finitely many at a time. This allows you to construct functions on open balls and average them together to get functions defined on the whole manifold. The averaging wouldnāt make sense if there was a point in infinitely many of the open balls
So we can make our open cover as fine as we want
Oh!
[0,1] = thin (0, 1) = thicc apparently
lol I should have said precompact
Wait a second
Is the reason we do this to define functions on manifolds?
I mean that's what you said but like
We just showed that we can cover M with precompact coordinate balls
By gluing together the precompact coordinate balls covering the domains of every chart
So if we have a function on a manifold
We can consider the function restricted to a specific subset
Then compose that with our chart (so phi(f)) to understand how the function behaves in a space we're familiar with, one rich with structure
And because our manifold is paracompact (which we're about to see the proof of) then we can do this within smaller and smaller domains and glue them all together to get an accurate picture of the entire function on the manifold
Eh, sort of. You donāt need paracompactness to glue the functions together if you already know they come from a global function.
It's the locally finite part of paracompactness that's important to what you were saying
What it helps you do is locally describe functions around a bunch of points and stitch them together into a function which is globally defined, smooth, and looks like a given function near a chosen set of points.
Otherwise we could do what I was saying with just any refinement of the cover, we don't need local finiteness for that
:o
Yes exactly
Paracompactness allows you to construct global functions with desired local behavior, going in the opposite direction is trivial.
I'm assuming this is part of what gives the manifolds here their "differentiable structure"
We can have a function on a manifold, and a definition of continuity thanks to being a topological space, but no definition of differentiability
No, they would have it even without paracompactness! But it would be really hard to prove anything about smooth functions/differential forms on them
The differential structure just comes from the charts.
But if we look locally we can glue together finitely many functions to smoothly approximate the global function around a point, which we can then do fun stuff with
Yep! Itās important in many technical arguments to know that non-constant smooth functions actually exist and paracompactness is a nice technical property that will allow us to do that.
Wow that's so freaking cool
Do we use Hadamard's lemma to show those functions exist
Not really, the key tool thatās used is something called a partition of unity. They are quite obnoxious to construct but once you do they are a very powerful tool.
I see
Basically you cover your space by U_iās and V_iās such that the V_iās are disjoint, and construct functions f_i such that f_i = 1 on V_i, f_i = 0 outside of U_i, and the sum of all the f_i is the constant function 1
Oh
Then you can take whatever smooth functions g_i you want on the U_i and average them by \sum_i f_i g_i to get a function g which is smooth and looks like g_i on V_i
The sums are well defined because of paracompactness
I think I get it
f_i g_i is only going to be nonzero where U_i and V_i intersect right?
In U_i
So where V_i overlaps U_i
V_i is contained in U_i
Oh I see
But the U_i intersect each other inside U_i but outside the V_i
And only finitely many at a time
So only finitely many terms are nonzero at any given point
Right
I see
That's enough math for me today lol
Thank you so much
Mind if I ask a question or 2 about Lee's topological manifolds before I go?
Sure
So I definitely want to cover Chapters 2 & 4
Chapter 3 is important if I want to understand projective space
I think itās all important
234 or the entire book? š
But judging by the table of contents it all seems like essential background. Itās probably the driest part of the book but it will make the rest easier
Sigh
Is it too late to just go back in time and swap majors to math
This is infinitely more interesting than engineering
Blegh sorry thank you again, have a good evening friend
Let t and T be two Hausdorff topologies on the same space X, if a sequence (x_i) converges to x in t and y in T, does that mean x=y?
I think so, by generate a new topology through the union of the old ones, but I'm not sure if there is any flaw in my reckening
ok, it should be a net (x_i)
Not if you donāt assume thereās any relation between the topologies. Let one space be [0,1] and the other just swap 0 and 1. Theyāre just names. Then 1/n converges to 0 in one topology and 1 in the other
If you take the two and generate a third, itās (0,1) plus two isolated points
These arenāt unrelated topologies. Each one is finer than the last
oh, yeah, I neglected that. Thanks a lot š
can someone help me with this problem
the continuous image of a dense set is dense in the image of the mapping
i can't read this, sorry
np
you should try typing up your argument
it'll be more likely to get feedback
Z+2piZ is dense in -1 , 1
x<y and a in Z
x<a+2pia<y
x-2pia<a<y-2pia
abs(x-2pia)<abs(a)<abs(y-2pia)
-1<cos(abs(y-2pia))<cos(abs(a))<cos(abs(x-2pia))<1
abs(a)=N
then cos(n) dense in -1 , 1
Is projective space as simple as the definition implies...?
Equivalence classes of lines passing through the origin in R^1
with the quotient topology
in R^1 this is trivial and boring
there is only one line through the origin in R^1
Yes
I'm not sure why it's any more interesting in R^2 or higher though
If I have my visualization right it's just a fat asterisk on the plane O.o a bunch of lines criss-crossing through the origin
that's like asking why people don't only focus on zero-dimensional manifolds
I don't know why Tt, enlighten me 
I mean Faye mentioned earlier that projective space is a good early example of an interesting manifold
Because you can't embed it in R^n
0-dimensional manifolds are the absolutely least interesting examples of manifolds you could possibly think of
there's literally nothing to be done with them
OKay sure
I think it'd be a cool exercise to prove that projective space is a manifold (and define the charts)
it is a very important exercise
it is also a worked example in quite a few books
one you should understand well
No fun if you don't try to work it out yourself
š
Let's see
How can it even be Hausdorff š
Let me look at the definition again 
well, to even speak of it being hausdorff, you need to have a topology
so you should start there
Well yeah there's the quotient topology
Just trying to understand that
So subsets of P^n are open if the preimg is open in R^(n+1)
subsets of P^n
Thank you
think of qoutienting a sphere instead of R^n+1
So I need to show that given two distinct points in P^n, there's are neighborhoods around each that are disjoint?
yes
given two different points x and y in P^n, find open neighborhoods U and V of each, respectively, which are disjoint
And "neighborhoods around each" means that each point is an element of some set in the quotient topology
i just mean that x is in U and y is in V
I know
I was trying to translate this
i did it for you
Yes sorry I just want to clarify that "open neighborhoods" means "sets in the quotient topology that contain x & y, respectively"
unless you have another topology on P^n in mind, that's all it could mean
I did not
I just wanted to make sure I wasn't misunderstanding
Okay cool
I feel like I'm completely misunderstanding what projective space is supposed to be 
Or rather look like (visualizations for P^1 and P^2)
Hm
Can't you like
Ok so take two distinct elements in P^n, [x] and [y]
