#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 31 of 1
Then why not just write (a, b)? O.o
people have been known to have different preferences for notation
French notation
Idk if the French came up with it, but it's pretty common in France.
I see Tu
How do I show that it's smooth? An induction argument?
Repeated differentiation just gives you sums of powers of sec & tan
compositions of smooth functions are smooth
sec and tan
You need some more scaling, and that's it
Since sec & tan are cont. on the domain then the derivatives are cont
Where do compositions come in here? The derivatives?
Idk why compositions are relevant here lol, it's more products
Are we talking about a) I assume
because of b) mainly
but you don't need it actually
Guys, can someone give me the definition of CONEXO set?
Other than the definition of path.
I have searched the internet, but ended up quite confused.
what does conexo stand for
It's a norwegian telecoms company
For my conex*, I have a set in which I cannot split, remove or divide.
what does that mean
does anyone know how to prove that the "theta" space does not cover any other spaces (other than itself)? Hatcher says it is true in his answer to this math stack exchange post https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1129047/does-there-exist-a-space-w-s-t-x-to-w-y-to-w-are-covering-spaces-when-z
the theta space is the same as a graph with two vertices and 3 edges between them
i can see why it's true if you assume that the two "vertices" are mapped to vertices, but im not sure how i can justify that assumption
do you mean convex set?
what does it mean to have two cells in each dimension in this case
It means that there are 2 n-cells for every n
So like up to n = 2 you start with 2 points, and you draw 2 arcs between them to make a circle
Then you glue one disc on either side of the circle to make a sphere
You can do the rest.
set conexo
my interpretation is that you can not separate, cut or divide, but as to how the definition is I do not know because I have been quite confused with my fellow internet stuff and what my teacher explained.
to be CONEXO-, it has to fulfill this property?
$X=A\cup B\
A\cap B=\emptyset \
A=\emptyset \text{ or } B=\emptyset$
Awuita Fria
Yes this is the standard definition for a set to be connexo
But A, B must be open sets, in our conexo topol spa
translation for connected sets
i will have my first topology exam next 10 minutes. Any advice?
I guess going slow to think and structuring your concepts well, is what I did in my multi-variable analysis exam.
To be dis-Connected, they must meet the following properties
$X=A\cup B\
A\cap B\neq \emptyset \
A\neq\emptyset \text{ or } B\neq\emptyset$
Awuita Fria
can someone give an example of a euclidean ball that isn't regular? I'm having a hard time coming up with one
very broad and probably bad question but i wanna use it to formulate better questions: what is the intuition behind CW complexs
tterra 
sorry for ping idec about the question but ur back 
that's a lie i do care but still good to have u around again
Inside a sphere, everything but a pole. This is an open disk but its closure is not a closed disk. There is no larger open disk containing it
i was asking this in particular with regards to doing it for S2 v S1
what's the justification for this
the answer to this post isn't particularly enlightening
The current time for stμ₂dying is 03:48 AM (EDT) on Thu, 27/04/2023.
i cant take this rn
Wdym
OK sure
feel like im being trolled by my prof
How come lol
just the fact that it's very late and im doing a problem about a dunce cap
in any case it's htpy equivalent to S1 right
so what does a CW structure on the dunce cap look like
#old-network physics server
Stop posting this in every channel
Isn't it supposed to be setup so that advanced channels are gated in some way?
they are (in fact there are multiple mechanisms to ensure that inappropriate stuff does not get posted in advanced channels); maybe its sometimes not enough but its a tough balance to strike, i think what we have going works well enough most of the time
Hey, I've just started on Topology by Munkres and I'm doing the problem for chapter 16, but I'm finding them quite hard and myself making mistakes. However, some solutions and problems I'm also simply misunderstanding. For example, this one, I simply assumed L to be described as normal in R^2 and then took the intersection. The topology then became generated by either half-open line segments on L, or open line segments or single points. I could of course see that this could be viewed as equivalent to R_l, R, and R_d if one viewed the line as the real line with ordering, but it didn't seem like that was what the problem wanted in the first place. And then adding direction to the line as well...
Am I missing something since viewing the line as such didn't even occur to me, or is it simply something one must pick up along the way?
What would be a good reference for understanding a Postnikov system?
(I do AG and it is coming up in the papers I am reading)
I mean it depends on what you want. Just the definition is easy enough to understand, it’s a way of step-by-step building up a space which is weak homotopy equivalent to a given one. What do you want to know about it?
I really just want to see some examples
Maybe it’s good to do some K(pi, n)‘s where it’s trivial? In general it will be very difficult to write out the postnikov tower explicitly. You can build the spaces by gluing in disks to kill homotopy groups but it is quite difficult
To get an explicit description
Can you guys pick out some problems for me because the only one that I'm interested in is 1.5 lol
But I don't think one problem is enough, though it is a fairly short chapter
1.8 doesn't look as boring as the others either
Maybe 1.3
Uh
I thought the tangent space at p was the VS of all vectors tangent to p
not just "emanating from p"
Why is 1.2 interesting?
This is a cool concept
Is the point of this that a function is analytic if its Taylor series is in its germ?
1.2 gives an example of a smooth function that is not real analytic
Yes, the classic one
Check my profile
Hm I guess that one would be good since I don't quite understand why it's smooth
I thought the derivatives wouldn't be continuous at 0
its infinitely differentiable, by part (a) using induction
its not analytic because it does not equal its taylor series centered at zero
ohhhh that makes total sense, thank you!!
Oh wait it's defined at 0
Lol
Ok yeah never mind I see why
I think that is a good thing to prove though
a modification that i like is exp(-x^{-2})
is this Tu?
Yes
TTerra recommended to me that since the exercises in Tu are fairly easy, you should also check out some exercises from Lee's Intro to Smooth Manifolds
I see
Prob doesn't apply until you reach the later chapters when it starts talking about manifolds tho
no, its just like recentering R^n with center p
But then here it says elements of T_p(R^n) are tangent vectors?
The tangent space is the space of directional derivatives
Directional derivatives and tangent vectors are the same
._.
If you have a function defined in a neighborhood of p, you can take a directional derivative in any direction
Hence why the tangent space is isomorphic to R^n
I also got tripped up a bit at first haha
Then why is it called...tangent...space...? 😭
its weird for R^n. the tangent space of a manifold that is not R^n, like a surface or a curve (e.g. a sphere or a circle) is easier to visualize and you will see the why they call it a tangent space
^
So for a manifold it aligns with my intuition for what I think of as tangent? lol
Yes
For example if you have the graph of a function with one input and one output, then the notion of tangent space just corresponds to tangent lines
If you have a surface, the tangent spaces are just tangent planes
But how about if you just take like
what is the definition tu gives for tangent space?
you have to specify a point as well
Yes
But the definition just calls it "a vector"
And the directional derivative cna be in any direction
So why can't we take the normal direction at any point
There's a different definition of tangent space for R^n versus a manifold?
When you learn about manifolds you'll see that the circle is an example of one
Yes
R^n is also a manifold
For now you might as well accept the definition of tangent vectors as derivations, even though it seems weird at first
It will come to make sense
The tangent space of a point on a circle can be identified with the line tangent to the point on the circle, to answer your question though
ew why does tu define tangent vectors as derivations first
Also based, 1.5 is cool
I think he gives two definitions at first, one concrete and one abstract
do all of them
It's not about long or not
It's about the result that I'm trying to prove, whether I think it's interesting or not
Ngl I read Tu without doing many exercises but don't follow my example :P
And then I can learn Riemannian geometry 
I feel like Tu is generally a laidback book
Nice for getting first acquainted with the terminology and ideas
Or maybe I read section 2 and just combine exercises from 1 & 2 🤔 2 looks a lot more interesting
i don't think you should be skipping whole sections for reading
what's an example of a smooth function that's not analytic?
e^(-1/x) is the prototypical one
BUt I read that if you function satisfies lim n -> 0 f(x)/x^n = 0 then you can get a smooth but not analytic function with 1/f(1/x)
That sounds interesting to prove :o
but hard
LOL
Btw if you want some intuition on why e^(-1/x^2) works, note that it's a Gaussian but you do a hyperbolic change of variables x -> 1/x to switch the function's value at zero and at infinity

And the Gaussian decays to zero very nicely
Another way to see it is that the higher derivatives, altho zero at the point of our interest, blow up around the nbhd as the degree increases (or was it the bump function?).
This can't happen for analytical functions
This is provable with definition of derivative, unless I'm mistaken. I remember proving it some time ago.
What whole sections am I skipping?
i never said you skipped any sections. your message made it seem like you had planned on not reading section 1
and, as you already said when i sent that message, you had indeed read section 1
Oh okok my bad
I think that's what I'll do then 🤔 finish Section 2 and then make a pset for myself out of 1 & 2
a small word of warning
what tu calls "taylor's theorem" is actually hadamard's lemma
in case you want to be googling things
that's a nice and useful application of calculus (i think it was you who said you liked calculus stuff)
I wonder why he calls it taylor's thm...
Indeed!
maybe i should have said "the specific thing he calls taylor's theorem goes by hadamard's lemma" lol
So all this is saying is that if f is smooth on a star-shaped nbhd of some point then it's equal to another smooth function in that nbhd?
So we can always construct an approximation (with remainder 0) for f within the nbhd
Wait, which one?
Why?
Also is my understanding correct here?
Ok, it's pretty annoying that we didn't do it explicitly in class
More subtle than that, it's not obvious that you can combine linearly the differentials from a basis to make something sensible.
There are cases where this doesn't hold, especially when f is not continuously differentiable.
Smoothness is a very strong condition here. It allows you to do basically whatever you want.
You can construct functions whose partial derivatives exist but it's not differentiable
I think the exact statement is, if all the partial derivatives exist and are continuous, then f is differentiable. In particular, the Taylor's formula is true.
"then it's equal to another smooth function in that neighborhood" basically completely gets rid of the conclusion of the theorem
wat
😭
I thought that was the conclusion
We can find g_i so that f is equal to f(p) + sum(x^i- p^i)g_i(x)
now that's the conclusion
How is that different from what I said?
"equal to another smooth function" is uselessly vague
Why?
because you haven't said what the smooth function is
when you do, you have a useful statement
Sure, but it guarantees existence
Are existence theorems not useful?
Sorry if I sound sassy I just don't see why it's so useless
i'm saying you can be more precise than just "another smooth function"
ttera
hey

So the significance of the result isn't just that it can be approximated, but rather that we have an explicit formula to approximate it? Or are both of those significant and just stating the first is missing the bigger picture?
the explicit formula
So there's another theorem (probably simpler) that guarantees existence?
i don't know what that means
Like existence of a smooth function that's equal to f on the domain
that's a trivial statement. f is equal to f on its domain
uh if it's equal then it's f so we just get back to this
I know I'm saying it wrong but do you get what I'm trying to say though?
It should be insightful that you cannot phrase your statement well. Maybe it isn't a very meaningful statement
This is so boring
It feels so unmotivated
Just vomiting definitions after definitions 😭
sounds like freshman complaining about epsilon-delta

Utterly based
Not saying it's not boring, but a large part of being a math student is understanding why we need those definitions
No but like
I see reasons for why we use those definitions and what use it is to establish those concepts first (usually)
And I'm given something to motivate those reasons beforehand, at least to some extent lol
Reasons in plain English**
Lol
Well if ur reading Tu there's some motivation in ch 1
Tho like generally speaking most math books are like this
Physics ppl like to meme on that
Oh we're given motivation for why we want to study differential geometry/manifolds as a subject
But I've already justified that to myself
And math ppl meme on Jacobi's notation
the world is perfectly balanced.
I don't know why I care about Hadamard's lemma or why we define derivations or why I care about germs or algebras or whatever
Like I get that maybe that seems ridiculous to you guys
"Just wait for it, you'll see why we want those concepts later" or whatever
But it would be nice to be given some reason to care about them now lol
That's because you skipped the whole multivariable calculus. Basically we have all the nice tools in real anal, and we wanna bring em to higher dimensions.
I'm given a reason for the purpose of the chapter, to "characterize tangent vectors so they generalize to manifolds", but I don't see how a germ or a derivation or bla bla bla relates to that
I've taken multivariable calculus
wtf is a germ
No one'll ever give you that. You kinda have to figure it out yourself
Welcome to math world
That's so dogshit lol what
Wtf is the point of having someone guide you, teach you material, and so on
They all try to give some motivation, but at the end of the day, you have to understand it yourself.
If they can't help you understand it at least to some extent?
Yeah the work is the student's to do, but the teacher's responsibility is to guide their learning
"I can explain it to you, but I can't understand it for you"
Why should you care at topology at all? @nimble portal
A definition is not an explanation
just search for more authors foccused on construtivism
They explain how they understand it, which is most of the time not how you'll understand it. And they're now too advanced to see it your way and why it's so hard to understand.
Anyway, this is more #math-pedagogy , not topology
You sure? 😄
Yes
you always have a more general way of understanding something, i think what you need to perceive is that every definition in some way encapsulates a intuition about how things are desired to work
if you keep that in your heart
it'll be more soft to learn by those bourbaki styles
Hmm, can you state Schwartz's theorem?
equivalence class of functions in a neighborhood of a point
No :p
Can you give me a rough idea of what it's about and I can probably remember it? Lol
equivalence about what
i mean
homotopic?
/clairaut's theorem. it goes by a few different names
what kind of relation
Oh is that the one about symmetry of second partials
identical under restriction
Yes
yes feather. what's the statement?
so like if u have a neighborhood W around a point p
domain restriction then?
they're equal when you take the limit 🤓
that's useful for diff-top?
sheaves
sheaves
Leaf-leaves
yea
i think we call it fiber in my country
that's my biggest problem, notation and names.,
Agh I don't remember the exact relation it has to smootheness 😭 just something about smoothness of partial derivatives means you can exchange differentiation order and it'll be equivalent
What? They're not the same thing, aren't they?
i don't think fibers are the same
i thought fiber had something to do with the inverse of a function
Not in english
the preimage
that's another fiber
preimg
Pretty sure not in French either
that's true, but the hypotheses of the theorem are a bit weaker than smoothness
typically
Is it just continuity?
So for any C^2 function you can switch differentiation order?
Strange, because if you understand why we need that theorem, then you shouldn't have any troubles understand Hadamard's lemma either.
germ is kinda a bad name imo
germ comes from the analogy of cereal germ, stalk, sheaf
Ohhhhhhhhhhh
and thats how you explain math guys
if your function is k-times continuously differentiable, then you get symmetry of all of the kth partial derivatives. the theorem is typically stated for k = 2, since it's simpler and the general statement for all k follows easily
wait you know there's something called tropical algebra
tbh didn't even know the d2/(dxdy) = d2/(dydx) had a name lol
thanks god i didn't knew
i think it's pretty funny
albeit a bit ambiguous
I don't understand why we need that theorem
Every physics person ever
but the sacrifice for the pretty funny
real
proud to say i used to want to be a physicist
now i want to be a pure math :)
that's called reformed
Ok, either you're a physicist, or you're a lousy math student
I'm an engineering student
what's the difference?
Worse than both
The worst of both
is there gonna be any topology talk any time soon?
LOL Sorry sorry
Yes
every time i come here there's only talks about algebra and differential
i will probably flood this channel come summer
when the only thing i read will be topology textbooks
youve found the light, or well, got away from the course about it
A theorem about... usefulness?
both
that would be more logic focused xddd
I guess you might call simplical complexes describing space with a directed graph
or rather its higher-dimensional analogue
interesting
mayb diversify your reading? Did you have experience with analysis and some algebra before?
i mean im reading topology textbooks for my directed reading this fall
have oyou guys seen anything about topological games?
i took analysis and algebra this semester
like banach-mazur
and will take more next semester
I saw the wikipedia articles, thats it
it would be silly to jump into topology without analysis
😭
i did that
analysis is boring
very very very very boring
only had introduction to analysis in my grad
since my grad wasn't bachelor at all
only had introduction to analysis in my grad
the fuck
it was crazy
Do you have a different major or something
hmm everything is a mess here
they taught us algebraic structures together with analysis
Doesn't sound that crazy
it's called introduction to REAL ANALYSIS
and they taught us algebraic structures
together with some basic stuff from real analysis
i don't remember whats called in english
i think it's licensor
Ever heard of simplicial complexes?
My analysis courses did so too, but in their defense they start in the first undergraduate semester
nope i haven't study algebraic top yet
Well, then I can summarise that yes, it's very useful
when you can teach the kiddos 😎
they really arent
just do singular homology always 😎
it's because i liked nets alot
filters and nets motivated me alot
seeing how they simplify alot of theorems
And that's how you get poor
Learn some simplicial homo, do TDA, and get rich today!
unironically something in the back of my mind that motivated my algebraic top learning
ngl alg top is kinda cool
Idk how big the memes are, but TDA sounds really cool. Actually use your degree in a non-trivial way
It still breaks my mind. I can give a lecture on what I know, but I sure as hell won't do any hard exercises
TDA?
It's growing actually
me when i read textbook :)
me when i get to the exercise page :(
then i skip it :)
then i understand nothing in the next chapter and go back to do them :(
Last time I checked its a "maybe, hopefully it might be niche thing"
Hopefully the air bubble wont burst any time soon if its actually growing
They have a team in Cambridge doing those things, and it's growing fast iirc
It hasn't spread to other branches yet. In Bio it's still limited to medical stuff.
i heard from a prof that math bio used to be the next big thing like 10-20 years ago
everyone was doing math bio but then it kinda just disappeared
That's why I'm majored in Bio 
Ok, minored in Bio, but whatever
It's going, but very slowly. Thing is, you need quite a broad background
is that why you occasionally read about applying category theory to biology
Always pretty surprising to see that domain listed out of all thing
category theory to Bio?

Are they gonna apply homology functor to Virus and categorise them or what?
You thought the world’s bestiary of diseases was bad, now imagine if they were functorial 😨
An exact sequence over category of Diseases 😄
The ultimate way from Birth to Death
Can't wait for applying the colimit of a family of donkeys and horses to figure out what one obtains
snake lemma'd snakes
It's not quite, Taylor's theorem (first-order) usually says that if (f) is differentiable at (p), for (x) in some neighborhood of (p) and (\xi) between (x) and (p),
[f(x) = f(p) + f'(\xi)(x-p)]
Notice that in the first-order case, this is just the mean value theorem
boolean_satisfiERIC
how did taylors theorem get in here
feather had a question about the beginning of Tu intro to manifolds
(Which is diff top but meh)
also the conditions I wrote are not really right, but if you know the mean value theorem, I'm sure you can figure out the actual conditions lol
(differentiable in an open segment, continuous on the closed interval)
germs are just a way to describe the behavior of a function at a point, where you don't care about how it behaves away from that point
you might find it easier to understand if you've taken an abstract algebra course or something
(I dunno what your background is)
if you're having trouble finding the motivation, it's also possible you don't have the intuitive background yet, but also, the server is here to help answer your questions about it, although I think it'd be better to put it in #diff-geo-diff-top like mig said
Will do!
Good luck with your manifold journey :))) I'm also learning about manifolds
is this true for any X, Y with some arbitrary Topology?
because in the proof we assume X, Y are metric spaces
This is a definition
oh nvm i found a contradiction
in general
Like this theorem justifies how you define the topology on a subset of a topological space (without appealing to a metric)
Yes dear, G = {2}
Lol
Oh wait
no, {2} is not open in X
Okay perhaps I see he issue
I didn't read the whole thing, my bad
Okay so
This is certainly not true in general if you just give Y an arbitrary topology
I mean if it were true, then all topologies on Y would be equivalent...
Since they have no dependence on X
You can't just specify O_Y. E is open in the subset topology, which is induced by O_X
wait is compactness a thing only in metric spaces?
Nope
because we use this theorem to say something about compact spaces
But the point is that if Y is a subset of a topological space X then the subspace topology on Y - the natural topology on Y - is defined by the theorem you just used
And then it matches up with the topology you get from restricting a metric on X, if X is already a metric space
in the theorem their metric spaces, not induced by anything just a subset
if the topologies were not specified(i.e. any), and Y subset X, then do we assume subspace topology?
hmm, but in my book its only defined in metric spaces, so will not assume things about compactness outside metric spaces
Ye
I mean this is Rudin right, not a topology textbook
I work in mathematical biology
so we are not dead yet
andrew blumberg is doing pretty well for himself
So is Kathryn Hess.
So is diligentClerk
I am also doing mathematical biology
It’s a field I would like to work in the future, is a discussion possible in a few days?
Let’s go Kathryn Hess praise time
this
I'm very much interested
Kathryn, I didn’t know you spoke Danish!
… I speak Scandinavian
She speaks Scandinavian with a strong Swedish accent
Guys is there a topological space $X$ such that $\pi_1(X)=\mathbb{Z}^{27}$?
messyinterval
(S^1)^(27)
S^1 x S^1 x ... x S^1 (27 of them)
because fundamental groups interact nicely with products
THat could prolly be made into a torus of... Uhh some dimension
With a leftover circle
That is a 27-torus
Huh? Wouldnt that be (S¹)^(27×2)?
Because each torus is S¹×S¹
"n-torus" means (S^1)^n
Ahh
the ordinary torus is, in this language, the 2-torus
Makes sense
re: your question, every group is the fundamental group of some topological space
While we're on the topic, how about R?
There any spaces with fund. Grp R?
you can have a wedge of S^1 for each generator and quotient out any relations by attaching 2-cells
might not be a very satisfying construction
You could construct an eilenberg MacLane space with that group
You can get close even w some pretty strong restrictions on the spaces
Like any finitely presented group is the fundamental group of some smooth compact 4 manifold lol
I'm not going to put this in my calendar but if I do happen to be hanging out on discord you can ask me
Thanks 🙂
why does orientability require positive-definiteness of the jacobian? specifically, why can’t it be negative-definite?
i think you should test what you just wrote against a few examples
also, positive/negative-definiteness aren't the same as positive/negative determinant
If the jacobian is negative-definite, the function reflects or mirrors the tangent space, which results in a change in orientation. To ensure that the function maintains orientation, the jacobian must be positive-definite.
ah that makes sense thanks
i meant positive/negative-definiteness as in the determinant is positive everywhere/negative everywhere
prolly should've used a better word
just say positive/negative determinant
I posted this in the book section
Does anyone have a translated version of Freudenthal's thesis on his theory of ends
https://dspace.library.uu.nl/bitstream/handle/1874/7437/1930-freudenthal-dissertatie.pdf?sequence=1
But no one responded
the quotient topology is just like, a set is open in the quotient if its preimage under the qutotient is open?
yes that is the definition of an open set in the quotient topology
I was not able to find a clear definition of the quotient topology
the wikipedia one is like 20 lines
sorry if it was a dumb question
sorry
Tbf the first definition of the quotient topology on that article is a bit dense if you aren't familiar with
Is there is a way of deliberately quotening a subgroup out of the fundamental group of the bouqet of circles by doing... something to the space or how does that work?
Yes, this is how you build spaces with only one homotopy group.
You just take the relations that you want to hold and glue in a disc so that that path is contractible
(then if you wanted to do this with higher homotopy you glue in more cells)
How would you glue in a disc to kill that specific relation tho?
Like, choose a path and then identity the edge of the disk with said path?
you glue a 2-cell along the relation
i.e. if ab = e then you attach a two cell along the S^1 for a and then along the S^1 for b
Wait that makes a = b = e? Maybe I misunderstand what you're describing...
Are you gluing in one or two two-cells?
Just to me ig
It did kinda sound they just glued a one disk to each of the circles of a and b, thereby outright killing them completely and giving you a free group of lesser rank
So given a bouqet of n circles with generators a_1, .... a_n , after gluing in a disk along a_j1 , .... a_jk the only paths affected are those that loop around the edge of the disk completely, that is, loops that have at least the components a_j1+ ... a_jk?
is there an easy way to see/show that the multiplication operation on the loop space of a topological (compact) group given by either loop concatenation and pointwise multiplication are homotopic?
also is compactness required?
You can use a homotopical version of the Eckmann-Hilton argument. Basically homotope the pointwise product of loops so that each is stationary at some point of the loop. The product is then the same as the concatenation.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Eckmann–Hilton_argument
thanks
does anyone know of a good place to learn/understand how homotopy quotients work?
like why when I do a homotopy quotient by a Z/2 action do I usually multiply by some EZ/2 before quotienting
Maybe try Hatcher's book on Alg topology?
That book doesn't cover homotopy quotients ig
Rats.
Daniel Dugger, A Primer on Homotopy Colimits
Im feel confused
Someone on reddit told me S1 and T2 are homotopy equivalent
But they have different fundamental groups
How tf—
Also it is mentioned as a theorem that the fundamental group of a genus-g surface is the free group generated by g-elements
Possibly Z^g
But T2 is the case g=1
So π(T2)=Z
But by van kampen, π(T2)=Z*Z=Z²
And as far as i know Z aint isomorphic to Z²
This is incorrect.
If the torus was solid, they would be homotopy equivalent.
but the hollow torus is not homotopy equivalent to S^1.
What did they actually say?
There are lots of things caused the torus. Clerk suggested one that is homotopy equivalent to the circle. Another is C*, the nonzero complex numbers
Well the original post was the quotient C/Z[i]
Which was group theory
But some know it all claimed the resulting construction is homotopy equivalent to S1
Smh i was talking about groups not spaces
C/Z[i] is a torus, this is S^1 x S^1
I was originally pertaining to the quotient group, not the quotient space
But ugh some phrasing in that meme i sent gave that one guy the wrong idea
Also the fundamental group of a genus g surface is not abelian nor is it a free group on g generators
Although I guess in the world where S^1 x S^1 \sim S^1 maybe the second statement would be true
Anyway it’s isomorphic to the “surface group” which is 2g free generators in sets of g disjoint pairs modulo the relation that the products of the commutators of the pairs is trivial
Show that if $Y$ is path connected, the set $[I, Y]$ has a single element, where $[I,Y]$ is the set of homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$.
My proof:
Suppose $f: I \to Y$ is continuous, and $g: I \to Y$ is the constant map $g(x)=y$ for all $x \in I$. Since $Y$ is path connected, there is a continuous function $\varphi: I \to Y$ such that $\varphi(0)=f(0)$ and $\varphi(1)=y$. Let $F: I \times I \to Y$ be given by $F(x,t) = \begin{cases} f((1-2t)x), t \in [0, 1/2]\ \varphi(2t-1), t \in [1/2, 1] \end{cases}$. Then $F$ is a homotopy from $f$ to $g$, so $[f]=[g]$ and $[I,Y] = {[g]}$.
michαel
this should be right, but when constructing the homotopy F it took a lot of brute force trying to figure out what works, even though F wasnt that complicated
is there some sort of diagram/graph or something that can make constructing a homotopy easier?
When sketching out the idea for why the product on paths is associative, my prof drew a diagram like this which motivated how to construct r(t), but im wondering if theres something similar i could do for this problem?
this is false
i meant to say where [I,Y] is the set of homotopy classes of maps of I into Y
nvm I thought you are doing rel ∂I
is a visual argument enough for you?
I haven't read your solution tho
im trying to use something visual to make coming up with a formual for F easier
so yeah ig a visual argument would be enough if it helps me construct F
say you have path a--b and c--d, try to split the [0,1] interval in three parts where first you map b ->a via the path a--b, then 2nd stage you move a to c via any path a--c (exists as path connected) and then pull back b along the path c--d
Another way would be
That retract is easy to find
is ∂IxI the |_| part of the picture?
i think i sorta get what youre getting at but im not sure how i'd actually apply this to this problem
do you understand the map F: IxI → Y I just described?
if you want to find r explicitly then here's what you can do
not fully
so i get that we are finding a retraction of IxI to |_| but once we map into Y what are a,b,c,d?
But most arguments in AT dont require you to give an explicit map
Ahhhh i guess i misinterpreted the definition. Anyway is there a case wherein the group is isomorphic to Z^2n?
so we have to show any two paths in A can be connected via a homotopy
so I am assuming the paths are a--b and c--d
in Y right not A
okay i think im seeing it now
trying to connect it back to my drawing with f,g, and phi
so a--b might be one function c--d the other and a--c connecting f(0) to y in my proof
yeah i got that now
assuming you call f the path a--b, g be c--d and σ be a--c, r gives r(x,y) = 0xt or tx0 or 1xt
send 0xt to f(t)
tx0 to σ (t) and
1xt to g(t)
this is more explicit description
but it's clearer from the diagram
okay i see how that matches with the diagram
so if i were to construct the homotopy with this my homotopy would have three parts?
a t \in [0,1/3]
t \in [1/3, 2/3]
t \in [2/3, 1]
you can try to write it down explicitly
Only when g = 1 and the surface is a torus. Then the fundamental group is Z^2

okay i'll try doing that
idk if in the end it'll be faster to do this or just try and figure it out the old way
(but trust me, it's unnecessary)
i doubt we'll have to do this on the final just because of time but there were hw problems where we had to so
For g>1 we have to abelianize the group?
Ohhhh that's what you said at the last part
With modding out by the commutating something
We're modding out by the comm subgroup
Which, by def, is the abelianization of the grp
if you were doing this problem would you just ditch all the diagrams and kinda brute force figure it out
thats how i got the homotopy in my solution i feel like its harder to come up with but might be less time consuming since i dont have to think about this retraction/other stuff
no just diagrams
what if i force you to write a formula
those retracts will become a common theme as you progress
I wouldn't 
he's normally fine with us just describing retracts and stuff
and like in the hws after homotopy he's like just say its homotopic but in the homotopy section hw we have to explicitly construct a bunch
you are supposed to give these kinda arguments anyway otherwise they almost get into impossible territory if you want to describe explicitly
yeah ig if it wasnt something made to be really nice it would be almost impossible
No to form the fundamental group you just mod out by the product of the commutators, the result is not an abelian group. If you mod out by all of the commutators you do get Z^{2g}
your problem is still doable but I wouldn't try
probably should spend my studying time on more important stuff but i always get stuck up on these things
the one in my solution is right apparently but i really didnt have a strategy to find it i just tried stuff until it worked
the one I gave should be your general strategy
Ah the latter part is the one im aiming for
this is a more general theme as I said when you have cofibrations and you extend homotopies etc
That is the homology of a surface, not the fundamental group.
we didnt do cofibrations in this course but i will keep that in mind
So there is no symbolically compact way of expressing the fundamental groups of genus-n surfaces? Damn.
it was a point-set course with a little algebraic in the last 40% of the course
okay
anyways thanks for the help 👍
👍
Yes there is! I explained it to you, it's $<a_1, b_1, a_2, b_2, ..., a_n, b_n>/([a_1, b_1] \cdot ... \cdot [a_n, b_n])$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
If you want to be really symbolically compact some people denote this $S^g$, the surface group of genus g.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
*orientable 
Right but i meant in terms of isomorphisms with particular groups such that i can label em as the fundamental group
Which one?
The one I gave a presentation for.
Well the fun grp yes
Obviously
But apart from that one
Yes well I don't really understand what else you want....
Im looking for other groups our particular construction is isomorphic to
We established it isnt abelian so not Z
There are infinitely many groups which it is isomorphic to.
One of which is...?
Change one of the symbols in the presentation to any unicode symbol
lol
Then when you get done with plugging in unicode symbols you can use non-unicode symbols.

Mfw i use $\Xi$ to denote the fund grp of T2
messyinterval
I watched pierre albins lectures on this and i shit you not he claimed the fundamental group of n=2 genus surface is isomorphic to Z⁴
I musta been hallucinating

Well he claimed "when abelianized"
Maybe he just meant the abelianization
Well yep
Ohhhh
but if I were you I wouldn't be satisfied with that
Z^{2g} has infinitely many groups which it is isomorphic to
You should find them all.
Like coker(Z → Z^{2g+1})
@coarse night can help you now in your quest.
godspeed

...cokernel?
I uh
Im still yet to study homology trembles in fear
Also how about T^n? What are their fundamental groups?
π_1( (T²)^g )
If you are done with the classification, let me know. I would love to see
So that would be a group of 2g generators?
C'mon, at least give them a tip like well-ordering the set of all countable sets to make this easier
I don't think that would help since there is no set of all countable sets.
I thought you were being sarcastic
Haha I definitely was, the fact that there is a proper class of such things makes it pretty unlikely that you can say anything....
Guess I need more credentials before I can joke about well-ordering a different proper class without getting fact checked 😅
What does that have anything to do with finding other isomorphic homologies of T^n?
Actually... wouldn't a subclass of the isomorphism class there be the free Z-module over {(G,1),(G,2),(G,3),(G,4)) M,with G a group from the class of groups. But for G=M that free Z-module is build up from itself 🤔
What do you mean by "other homologies" ?
Choosing different representatives for the generators?
who's gonna tell him 
Yes...?

Well i meant groups tho
If your representatives are n-cycles, then you will usually have uncountable many ways to chose them. If you are looking at finding all isomorphic groups, consider finding all the groups isomorphic to this particular trivial group:
{empty set}
I am going through munkres topology book and one of the exercises asks us the following: Let ${T_{\alpha}}$ be a family of topologies on $X$. Show that there is a unique smallest topology on $X$ containing all the collections $T_{\alpha}$, and a unique largest topology contained in all $T_{\alpha}$.
My question is when he says "largest topology" does he mean the finest topology? Or is it on cardinality? Similarly when he says "smallest topology" does he mean coarsest?
FamilyFriendly
smallest/largest with respect to inclusion
"smaller" is coarser, "larger" is finer
oh ok, thank you for clearing that up
for the largest topology contained in all $T_{\alpha}$ would it be the intersection of all the topologies, $\bigcap T_{\alpha}$? Because suppose there was a finer topology, $T$, contained in all $T_{\alpha}$ then there is an open set $U \in T$ such that $U \in T_{\alpha}$ for every $\alpha$ but $U \notin \bigcap T_{\alpha}$ which would be a contradiction
FamilyFriendly
a proof by contradiction is unnecessary but yes it'll be the intersection of them all
Let the boy have his moment

sets can be closed and open
a set which is not closed is not necessarily open
a set which is not open is not necessarily closed
etc
Hitler gets confused about the topological definitions of open and closed sets. Then he totally freaks out.
There's a typo right in the beginning of the video. It should say "...and all zero of the points in the null set," so no "the" before zero. And if you're wondering what I meant by "close points," they are Wikipedia calls "limit points" of...
we define a closed set as one whose complement is open
Under some conditions, one can show that a non-empty set that is not the whole space must be either open or closed.
But it doesn't hold in general. Topo can get pretty wild.
Do you understand the definition of lim S?
ye
what if S is just a sequence (x_n) and x
then lim S is just x
can the sequence be just x
so (x) converges to x?
but then lim S is always S
so uhh mildly curious, can you prove JCT with solely point-set?
Hmm, there's something called sequential characterisaton of a closed set
There are some more elementary proofs like this https://www.maths.ed.ac.uk/~v1ranick/jordan/tverberg.pdf
So the main method is show it holds for an easy shape, and show you can turn messy shapes into easy shapes
the idea is to show that if you take any point of lim S, it is a limit point of lim S, hence it must be closed
Let $p: E \to B$ be a covering map, with $E$ path connected. Show that if $B$ is simply connected, then $p$ is a homeomorphism.
What i have so far:
Suppose $e_0 \in E, p(e_0)=b_0$. Since $E$ is path connected, the lifting correspondence $\phi : \pi_1(B, b_0) \to p^{-1}({b_0})$ is surjective. Since $B$ is simply connected, $\pi_1(B, b_0)$ is trivial, so $p^{-1}({b_0})$ must be a singleton set. Since $B$ is connected, by a previous problem we did we know $p^{-1}({b})$ is a singleton set for every $b \in B$. \\ $p$ is continuous and surjective by definition. To show injectivity, note that if $\alpha, \beta \in E$ satisfying $p(\alpha)=p(\beta)=b$, then $p^{-1}({b})$ is not a singleton set.
michαel
all i have left to show is that p^{-1} is continuous, so if U is open in E then p(U) is open in B, but im not sure how to do this. Any hints?
nvm i got it we showed p is an open map in class
I know a very long chain of proofs that need some multivariable calculus, but yes, you can
are there topologies for which no basis exist?
No
Every topology is a basis for itself
ah true
this might be a dumb question but one of the conditions for a collection to be a basis is that if we have an element that is common in two basis elements then there is a third basis element that contains the common element and is a subset of the intersection of the previous two, can we just take the third basis element to be the intersection of the two basis elements?
that's pretty much what a subbasis is
oh bruh, really?
for a subbasis S, the set of all finite intersections of elements of S is a basis, which is sort of what you are describing
Yes.
The word "basis" can be a bit misleading if you expect it to be like linear algebra where every vector can be made as a combination of basis elements in exactly one way. There's no such requirement for a basis of a topology; as long as each open set is a union of basis sets in at least one way, it's a good basis.
yeah I was trying to connect it to linear algebra, but couldn't think of an analogous idea to subbasis
In linear-algebra terms, both the topological concepts are more analogous to "spanning set", but in two different ways. For "basis" we consider "span" to mean "everything we can get as sums of these" (where sums then becomes unions). For "subbasis" we think of the span of a set of vectors as "the smallest subspace that contains all these", and a set A is a subbasis for T if and only if T is the smallest topology that contains A.
These ideas are gonna take a while to settle in ngl
Yeah, it takes some time.
ok so say I had a collection of topologies, ${T_{\alpha}}$ on some set $X$ then does $B = \left{\bigcup_{\beta \in I}U_{\beta} \left\mid\right U_{\beta} \in T_{\beta}\right}$ define a subbasis for some new topology? Since the union of all elements in $B$ is $X$?
FamilyFriendly
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Every set of subsets of X is a subbasis for some topology.
hmmm
in munkres he says that "A subbasis S for a topology on X is a collection of subsets of X whose union is X"
what i get from that definition is that if X = {1,2,3} then S = {{1},{2}} would not be a subbasis
unless I'm missing something
Oh yeah, authors differ slightly in whether they require every point of X to be covered. If you define the topology it's a subbasis for as "the coarsest topology where all these sets are open", then you don't need the extra condition -- but if you define it as "all unions of finite intersections of subbasis elements" you may need it -- depending on whether you're comfortable with calling X itself the intersection of no subsets.
oh I see, so these are pretty much the same thing
Eyup.
would this generate the coarsest topology that contains all T_alpha?
Yes, but it's a bit roundabout. You could just take $\bigcup_{\alpha\in I} T_\alpha$ to be your subbasis.
Troposphere
oh yeah you could
I didn't do that cuz I got it confused with that fact that U T_alpha may not be a topology
lol
A proof I'm reading makes the claim that any connected subset of $\mathbb{R}^n$ is path connected via piecewise-linear paths. Yet, I see no reason how this is obvious and can't seem to find anything on this.
Philka
It doesn’t seem true for the circle. Are you sure the hypothesis is connected and the conclusion piece wise linear?
Actually now that I think about it I think it's necessary that the subset is open, since then you can show the set of points connected piecewise linearly to an arbitrary point is a nontrivial clopen subset of the connected set; therefore the whole set
Yes
Also so like morally uhhh
If you know a subset U of R^n is path connected and open then given some path in U with image C, we know C is compact and admits some epsilon thickening around it within U
So we could use that to cut up C into pieces and replace it by something piecewise linear lol
But yeah easiest to just do what you dod
No
Hello how can I show that the only continuous maps from T (trivial space) to H (hausdorff space) are the constant maps? I've tried with a map $f:X\to Y$ and $T=(X,\tau_1), H=(Y,\tau_2)$ saying that $U\in\tau_2$ open, so $f^{-1}(U) = X$ or $f^{-1}(U) = \emptyset$ which are both open and so f is continuous. But how can I show that they are constant? If that's what I wrote even makes sense?
b3s4d
assume f is not constant and get a contradiction
"there exist x and x' in X such that f(x) is not equal to f(x')"
Oooh ok let me try
Here's a proof that we can define a topological manifold M in two different ways, one requiring the charts to carry open sets into open sets, and the other requiring them to carry open sets onto open balls (and hence also R^n by transitivity):
Suppose x is a point of M, and U is an open nbhd of x such that there exists a homeomorphism f from U into V, an open set in R^n. Then since V is open, there exists an open ball B centered at f(x) and contained in V. Now note f^-1 exists and is continuous, so we can restrict it to B to get our desired homeomorphism.
I wanted to confirm that the last step relies on two facts, and it's not just immediate some other way:
- If
f: U -> Vis a bijection, then so too isfrestricted to any subset ofU - If
f: U -> Vis a continuous map, then so isfrestricted to any subset ofU(with the corresponding subspace topology on the subset and its image)
or I guess they can be combined into - If
f: U -> Vis a homeomorphism, then so too isfrestricted to any subset ofU
nbhd -> nbhd
open nbhd -> open nbhd
open nbhd -> nbhd
nbhd -> open nbhd
And it looks like defining it in any of the above ways (X -> Y meaning the charts provide a homeomorphism between a set of type X in M to a set of type Y in R^n) are all equivalent by (3) above?
Bumpp
Hello, can I say that: Assume f is not constant, so $\exists x,x' \in X : f(x) \ne f(x')$. So in H $f(x)\in U, f(x')\in V: U\cap V = \emptyset$. But with $f^{-1}(X\cap X) \ne \emptyset$ this is a contradiction?
b3s4d
I don't think this is correct because U must differ from V right??
Yes I've changed the U and V with the X
Because I thought that $f^{-1}(U\cap V) = f^{-1}(U) \cap f^{-1}(V)$
b3s4d
this is true
But I can't replace U and V with X at the same time right?
.
Yes hm ok I see it now
why is f^{-1}(U \cap V) non-empty
maybe like this: f^{-1}(U cap V) = f^{-1}(U) cap f^{-1}(V) = X cap X = non-empty??
Because U cap V must be empty
so the pre-image is also empty. there you go
But I don't understand
Why can I choose X for V and U
I thought they are disjunctive neighbourhoods
are you asking why f^{-1}(X \cap X) makes no sense or are you asking why f^{-1}(U) \cap f^{-1}(V) = X \cap X
The first one I get
But for example I choose x, x' from U and V so U and V must be seperate neighbourhoods from the beginning but then I choose U and V to be equal
no
you're not choosing U and V equal
f^{-1}(U) and f^{-1}(V) will be equal. the pre-images, not the sets themselves
why are f^{-1}(U) and f^{-1}(V) both equal to X
well they can also be equal to the emptyset or a combination I suppose?
no
you wrote, essentially, f^{-1}(U) = X here. why is this true
i am not saying it is not true
i am saying you haven't justified why it is true
f^{-1}(U) \subset X and f(X) \subset U <-> X \subset f^{-1](U) so f^{-1}(U) = X
Ooooh
you're right only f(x) \subset U
\in
emptyset cap X
emptyset cap emptyset
X cap X??
those would be the possibilities for f^{-1}(U) \cap f^{-1}(V)
so are either of f^{-1}(U) or f^{-1}(V) empty?
(neither is empty. so both equal X)
Right because that's what brings the counter example
justify
But what is there to justify
that they are non-empty
Well they have to be to satisfy f^{-1}(U) cap f^{-1}(V) != emptyset
you are proving this
by showing that f^{-1}(U) and f^{-1}(V) are both equal to X
from which you will deduce that the intersection is not empty
Oh okay so I can't just choose them
you are showing that they are equal to X by showing that they are not equal to the emptyset
this works because you put the trivial topology on X
you cannot just choose them but this is not a problem
so why are they non-empty
interesting way of saying "it contains an element so it is nonempty"
Oh ok that also works xD
hold on, then here the fourth line is basically wrong because f^{-1}(U) != \emptyset
?
you said "or"
and you got one of the possibilities
you also seemed to conclude from that that f is continuous, but you are supposed to assume this, not prove it
you need to know that f^{-1}(U) is open in X to say it's equal to the empty set or to X. you need continuity of f for this
Oh that makes a bit more sense now
Im confused as to whether or not the set $(0, 1) \setminus K$ where $K = {\frac{1}{n} \mid n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is open in $\mathbb{R}$ with the standard topology
FamilyFriendly
I believe that it is open
since we just have it like (1/2, 1) U (1/3, 1/2) U ...
which is just a countable union of open sets
any union of open sets is open
so this set would be open then?
seems like it to me
ight thank you
Hello, I'm trying to prove that every element of B_1 is an open subset of Rn, but I'm really not sure how.. B_1 will look like B_1 = {{y1}, ..., {yk}}, but then they already are open subsets of Rn??
huh?
I am not sure what you are saying but you usually do this by using Hausdorff's criterion
then find nested neighborhoods
its hard to write a cube as a union/intersection of balls
you'll want to use some theorem, probably
Okay
I don't know this explanation came up followed by the example I've shown
you mean the question came immediately after the definition?
basically yeah
realistically, just prove this. its easy
that's it
Okay I'll try to
it did look a bit familiar to yours
but I wasn't sure
maybe because I didn't understand it
You can also use 2.40 to prove the critereon
(and the criterion is a generally useful thing to know)
using 2.40 directly for 2.42 is just a little more annoying and will involve actual numbers and such
whatever you prefer
okok I'll try it with the 2.40
the identity map is continuous, and the product of two compact sets is compact, so the graph of the identity map is also compact?
am i missing something? this is a qual problem and seems too good to be true
i suspect something goes haywire if X is not hausdorff or something
definitely a weird question
well, there is a result that shows that the diagonal of X is closed in XxX if and only if X is separated (can you prove it?), here we have something a little similar, but with compacity :>
isn't this only a thing in AG
i was thinking about that
hausdorff (separated X -> *) iff the diagonal is closed, compact iff universally closed (pullback of Y -> * along X -> * is closed, where * is the point)
in AG, the diagonal is quasi-compact as a map iff quasi-separated

but none of these are relevant to the situation at hand lol
Chill, it's point-set topo
This is sort of right but it has nothing to do with the product of compact sets being compact, all you need is that the map $x \to (x, x)$ is continuous.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
Was about to say didn't it follow from closed graph thm.
(AG? XD)
(no it's quite general, but my point really was to show that we needed the space to be Hausdorff, or else we would get something not closed, and thus not compact if everything is, lets say, metric)
not sure what you mean. usually people say "hausdorff" instead of "separated" outside of algebraic geometry for the analogous condition, but the result of the problem follows because continuous images of compact sets are compact
metric spaces are automatically hausdorff so that counterexample doesn't work
wait, you are right, i'm stupid ; I'm looking for a "set" of non-hausdorff spaces but such that any compact spaces of this set is closed
I think it's quite langage-dependent ; in my french courses, we used both. Also the notion of compact in french include separability (the english compact is called *quasicompact [changed])
ah, my mistake
Yes it is a common confusion when reading French texts on topology, I've seen many people ask questions like "isn't there a hypothesis missing here or do I not understand the grammar?"
If the space is compact but not Hausdorff (often called quasi-compact) then the diagonal is not closed. But it is still compact! The image of a compact set under any continuous map is again compact

