#point-set-topology
1 messages Ā· Page 29 of 1
it's the d that's important
sorry too easy (i am a 7 year old trapped in a college student's body)
Then just declare p \to q and points P of distance x from p move as P \to P + (q - p)*(1 - x/d) if q is further from the boundary than p.
i think the intended method here wouldnt involve passing to a metric on the space
I mean why not? You have to write down a function somehow.
namely, we havent proved that all manifolds are metrizable yet
You don't need a global metric
We're doing this locally on a chart
The fact that the euclidean n-ball is metrizable is much easier to prove.
sure so we're working in the Euclidean n-ball
and the function u give is a homeomorphism fixing the boundary and sends p to q?
first of all how do we compute d
the distance of a point to the boundary
You don't need to compute it.
i'll be back w more questions when pdk is done
but thanks again
also, how is this function well defined if x is on the boundary
then d = 0
x is not a point it is a number
wait what
P is a point in that formula and d(P, p) = x
oh
Anyway the idea is:
Take a small disc around p which doesn't contain the boundary and such that the radius of the disc is less than the distance from q to the boundary
(you don't care how big the disc is, the only important thing is that it exists)
Call this disc D.
D has radius r
Actually here's a better way to do it
mhm
So take a homeomorphism from the interior of the disc to R^n
then p, q map to two vectors in R^n
So if this homeomorphism is \psi, we do P \to \psi^{-1}((\psi(q) - \psi(p)) + \psi(P))
ohhhhh i kinda see why my question before was true
those regions in the equator are just being divided into four regions
the result is that we push p to q, then the only thing left to do is to use a linear decay function to make sure the homeomorphism fixes the boundary.
uhh i'm not sure that i'm entirely following
Which part is confusing? We constructed the homeomorphism on the interior, the only thing left is to engineer it so that it fixes the boundary.
so psi is some artbirary homeomorphism from D to R^2
If your manifold is 2-dimensional, yes.
sure, let's reduce the case to surfaces
Yes I think you're getting this, so that heuristically should tell you that the H_1's are the same
Okay so yes we pick some arbitrary homeomorphism
Then we use the vector space structure on the target to just translate from one point to another
yeah i see the general idea now i need to squeeze MV in there too
So this gives a homeomorphism on the open disc D which takes point p_1 to point p_2
sorry i'll let you finish that other q tho
gotcha, i see what's going on here
the vector space structure on R^2
makes it possible to do these translations easily
and represent them by just adding vectors
Yeah, really it's just a dumb hack so you don't have to write a bunch of coordinates.
sure
So anyway once we've done this and we get our homeomorphism f on some open disk U, we fix an \epsilon > 0, for points of distance 1 - \epsilon or less from the center of U, g(x) = f(x), however for points x of distance d >= (1 - \epsilon) we define g(x) = f(x)*(1-d)/\epsilon+ x(d - (1 - \epsilon))/\epsilon
This looks like an annoying mess but all this is doing is dampening the effect of the homeomorphism as you get closer to the edge of the disc, that way the boundary is preserved
We're picking a ring of width \epsilon around the outside of the disc and decreasing the effect of the homeomorphism as you go further out along that disc
Well let's just think about the same problem but in R^n since we're in that context
We want to construct a map from R^n \to R^n which is a homeomorphism, takes p to q, and does nothing for points very far away from the origin.
sure
Ah wait here's an even better way, which is really obviously a homeomorphism with no work
Take the midpoint of p and q and rotate around it, but rotate points less and less as the distance from the midpoint changes from |p - q|/2 to N, where N is sufficiently large.
This actually switches p, q which is kind of neat.
So wolog (p - q)/2 is the origin
Then let R(\theta) be a family of rotations by angles \theta around the origin such that R(\pi/2) takes p to q and vice versa. Then we do f(P) = R( (2(N - |P|)/|p - q|) * \pi/2) when N>= |P| >= |p - q|/2, f(P) = R(\pi/2) if |P| < |p - q|/2, and f(P) = P if |P| >=N
This one is clearly bijective since you can just rotate back. And it's very easy to check that it's continuous since it's clearly continuous on each region where it's piecewise defined and it matches on the boundary.
Sure in 2-dimensions yes
yeah lets just reduce all of this
to two dimensions
for simplicity
what is N here?
also why is it ok to take the midpoint of p and q to be the origin
N is just some very large number
Arbitrarily large
Just a big distance from the origin, and outside the sphere of radius N we want the homeomorphism to be trivial
um
Because it's just as easy to describe this rotation around the origin as it would be to describe it around any other point.
If you like just replace "the origin" in what I said with "the midpoint of p and q" if it makes you uncomfortable.
wait so is this map defined on the closed disk? or R^2
I'm defining it on R^2
But the point is that because it is trivial outside the sphere of radius N, that means that when we translate back to the disc, it will be trivial outside of some open subset of the disk which doesn't touch the boundary.
but how are we translating back to the closed disk
We're defining a function on the interior of a disk, which is trivial near the boundary
so that function can be glued with the identity on the boundary to make a function on the closed disk
but how is triviality near the boundary defined for a function on R2
(trivial meaning is the identity)
like doesnt it depend on what homeomorphism we choose from the open disk to R2
Not really, being trivial "outside a compact set" is well defined for any homeomorphism
i think this description is going over my head a little bit; would it be hard to prove that the previous map u suggested is a homeomorphism
Like it makes sense on both sides, on the R^2 side that means outside some disk of radius N, inside our open disk thats some wobbly looking compact subset.
I dunno none of it is hard, but you might find it easier if you construct your own function inspired by this method.
i mean its not hard viewing it from a purely visual high level perspective but getting down to it and trying to like
actually find the inverse
The method being: do whatever you want inside some open disk, then make it trivial outside of some compact subset by continuously reducing the effect of the homeomorphism.
The nice thing about the rotation one is that the inverse is explicit.
Since it's just rotating back basically.
I wouldn't calculate out the distances explicitly, that's a waste of time. Just write dist(blah, blah)
The distance function is obviously continuous so any expression involving it and other continuous functions will also be continous.
No need to write any square roots
my homework asks that I classify the alphabet into homeomorphism classes surely I do not have to find an explicit homeomorphism right?
like the previous suggestion u gave, how would one even try to go about determining the inverse of that map explicitly
Lmao
Which one? The translation one or the rotation one?
the translation one
the inverse in the interior is obviously easy
but when u start like massaging it so that it becomes trivial toward the boundary
what even is the inverse
Yeah I think you have to be more careful about the way you massage it than what I described, the nice thing about the rotation one is that the massaging can be expressed cleanly in terms of distance from the midpoint.
Like I suspect what I described takes even more mess to turn into a real solution, whereas this rotation one just works.
Excuse me for barging in, but I have a question regarding this problem, specifically 4b. Specifically, I am really not sure how I would construct a "smallest unique topology that contains all of T_alpha"
also what exactly do u mean by N sufficiently large
like N sufficiently large for what
Just N larger than say 2|p - q| suffices, it doesn't really matter beyond that
You just don't want to make the cutoff so small that it gets in the way of what you want to happen with p and q.
im also very confused
It follows from part (a)
R is rotations such that rotating by pi/2 sends p to q?
im not understanding what that even means
Yep, so it's rotating around the midpoint of the line between them
If you rotate by pi/2 you switch them, if you rotate by 0 degrees, you leave them alond
would maybe reducing to the case that, say q = 0
and the disk is the unit disk
make any of this easier
im just having a very hard time visualizing rotations about lines between points and stuff
Does it? Because $\bigcup T_\alpha$ is not neccesarily a topology, although it is the smallest set that contains all of $T_\alpha$
dulg
I think you can just imagine that p = (1/2, 0) and q = (-1/2, 0) if you want, that's probably maximally easy.
Yes
Which is why I didn't make any particular assumptions about p, q.
I thought you were asking for intuition, but to write it up you have to describe an arbitrary pair of points. Taking p to be the origin or something doesn't make anything simpler imo.
The smallest topology containing \bigcup T_\alpha is the intersection of all of the topologies containing it. There is at least one because of the discrete topology.
No worries.
bruh I just drew pictures for some of those alphabet things
if i get points off for no explicit homeomorphism im gonna die
I think that's fine
I dunno it depends on your TA, but it would be ridiculous to expect you to write down coordinates for all the letters
Just like some would say it would be ridiculous to stress too much about writing an explicit homeomorphism on the disk in enough detail š
hello how can I start proving the first direction?? I know that f closed means that for all U ā X closed there exists an f(U) ā Y closed?
If my memory is of any use, f is closed if it maps closed sets to closed sets.
Is my definition different?
It follows from two things, $f(\overline{A})$ is closed, and $f(A) \subseteq f(\overline{A})$.
Megumi_Tadokoro
Then $f(\overline{A})$ also contains the closure of $f(A)$. QED
Megumi_Tadokoro
It doesn't seem so, but I just find it weird
maybe.. I tried to write it out to make things easier maybe
sidenote, but topology is genuinely kinda nice
beats real analysis
XD
real analysis, more like applied liminf and limsups amirite
real analysis, more like applied topology XD
I don't get this
Oh Im dumb
because cl(f(cl(A))) = f(cl(A))
Is the reverse direction then:
cl(f(A)) ā f(cl(A)). So cl(f(A)) ā cl(f(cl(A))) => A ā cl(A), so A is closed.
Since A ā cl(A) <=> f(A) ā f(cl(A)). So f(A) is closed??
going back to this question
for that last part about the homeomorphism is it enough to say that (1,0,0) has 1 line going to it in X and 2 in Y so it cannot be homeomorphic
or maybe better that removing a nbhd of (1,0,0) will make X and Y deformation retract to different spaces
X to like a disk with a cross up the middle
but disk deformation retracts to a point so just the cross?
and im p sure Y deformation retracts to a circle when such a nbhd is removed
walter button :(
,av walter
f induces a homeomorphism on the pairs of spaces
alternatively take the maps induced on the long exact sequences of the pair and apply the five lemma
my idea was to define some g: Y -> X to be the inverse and somehow use that
is that what you meant?
could you elaborate on this one pls
i think we're doing five lemma next lecture
still curious
you know what five lemma is?
i looked ahead in hatcher
classic
anyway given you have a homeo, X ā Y you also have homeo X-x to Y-y which gives the maps
Hn(X-x) ā Hn(X) ā Hn(X, X-x) ā Hn'(X-x)āHn'(X)
|| || |? || ||
Hn(Y-y) ā Hn(Y) ā Hn(Y, Y-y) ā Hn'(Y-y)āHn'(Y)

? now becomes an iso by S5L
y should be f(x) no?
f being the homeomorphism between X-> Y
also yes
Really donāt need 5-lemma here though š¤
Homotopy equivalence of paire gives isomorphic relative homology, and in this case you have a homeomorphism of pairs (X\x maps homeomorphically through f to Y\f(x))
Okay I shouldāve read through your full answer didnāt realize you were justifying why it induced an iso on relative hom
is the excision part of this just as immediate?
reading back rn

what's the point of considering pairs of spaces like this
actually is excision "part of the point"
that's probably a really vague question 
ok it was literally just restating excision lol
now i have this fun lil guy tho
bump to this if you're around topos
wait wroong thing
i'll just repost in case anyone is around
intuitively i can see why C and Y have the same sequence but ive been unable to do it properly
Are you struggling to justify why the maps are the same? The groups that you get are obviously the same because you get homotopy equivalent spaces showing up.
this is what i came up with after messing around w it w a friend
Something you wrote there is impossible
This long exact sequence where you compute H_0(U) you have written H_0(U - {x})
is Z/2
but I think that is untrue since youve written that you have an exact sequence 0 \to X \to Z \to 0 so X must be Z
Inch resting
hmmm
In general H_0 can never have torsion.
Or no what am I saying.
It is.
\pi_0 is not.
hows that related
Yeah my half awake brain said smth very stupid

im gonna switch to another MV question for the practice then
i already did a and b
Anyway your cover is by A, which retracts onto the sphere, and B which is just two lines crossing in both cases.
wait quoi
I'm just saying in the previous problem
oh is that about the one with the two spheres?
Yes isn't that what you were asking about?
oh i just realized i posted the picture 
I see.
is the right approach to break down E into the sphere parts and line parts and then use what we know about H_n(S^2)?
You should follow the approach outlined in the problem
so just calculate the H_2 for the interval [-n, n] with spheres attached at the integer points, then take the limit as n \to infinity
slightly unrelated but what is d) hinting at? isnt pi_1(S1 v S2) nontrivial, making that hint not helpful?
iirc that has fundamental group Z
ohhhhh
and universal cover has trivial fundamental group
so the first nontrivial htpy group is pi_2
so this means that pi2(E) \cong H2(E)...?
and we get that H2 from MV sequence
well universal covers are simply connected so yeah
yep
and how do you get the MV sequence
this goes back to my first question
when i asked if you started from H0 and built up
It goes H_2 (A \cap B) \to H_2(A) \oplus H_2(B) \to H_2(X) \to H_1(A \cap B) \to ...
And the first map is injective when everything is 2-dimensional or less.
oh it just always has that form?
oh i guess that's how it works for SVT too
and the groups themselves just vary per each space
Yes in general all long exact sequences on Homology or covariantly functorial algebraic topological objects should decrease degree, cohomological or contravariantly functorial objects will have long exact sequences in the opposite direction.
so the nested subspace thing in the outline is just a hint about how to make it X = A U B
This comes from some general difference between the degrees in homological vs cohomological spectral sequences. Which is something that you won't understand now but perhaps later.
we do cohomology soon yeah
So in our case A_n = [-n - 1/2, n+1/2] with spheres attached at the integer points
B_n is say (-\infty, -n - 1/4) \cup (n + 1/4, \infty) with spheres attached at integer points.
The intersection is just two line segments, which have no H_2
we're taking this to be some interval in R right
This will show you that the maps from H_2(A_n) to H_2(X) are injective
Yes.
including the respective spheres ofc
Because our space is R with spheres glued in at integer points.
So i'm using the coordinates on R

Anyway so this is a somewhat trivial Meyer-Vietoris
But then you have to do another Meyer vietoris (which is similar) to compute H_2(A_n)
Alternatively you could just note that A_n is homotopy equivalent to a Bouquet of 2n + 1 spheres, and presumably you've already computed the homology of that in class.
If not you can also use Meyer Vietoris for that.
we never really defined a bouquet
Just like 2n+1 spheres glued together at a single point.
It's usually important for defining homology to compute the homology of that space.
and then using the nested subspace thing this build up to the whole space E?
Yes just to compute H_2 of the entire space.
oh so it's still trivial then
What do you mean?
have no H2
The space has lots of H_2
But yeah the intersections will have no H_2?
So because the map H_2(A_n) \to H_2(X) is injective this shows that H_2(A_n) \to H_2(A_{n+1}) is injective since A_n \to A_{n+1} \to X factors the map to X.
Then as your professor states if X = \cup A_n where A_n \subset A_{n+1} and the map H_i(A_n) \to H_i(A_{n+1}) is injective, then H_i(X) \cong \lim_n H_i(A_n)
Because we just computed H_2(E) by hand
and showed that it was Z^{\oplus \infty}
Since \pi_1(E) is obviously zero (E is homotopy equivalent to S^2 V S^2 V ...)
By Hurewicz or whatever it's called this means that H_2(E) = \pi_2(E)

can you classify all maps upto homotopy from S¹ĆS¹ to S²?
Why is that relevant?
Or are you asking a question?
basepoint preserving or no?
because in this case we have the isomorphism $[S^1 \times S^1 , S^2] \cong [S^1 , (S^2)^{S^1}]$
Irony Incarnate
which also holds in the basepoint preserving case
and in that case we have $[(S^1,x), (S^2,x)]^0 = \pi_1(S^2, x) \cong 0$
Irony Incarnate
which then implies that $[(S^1 \times S^1,x), (S^2,x)]^0 \cong [S^1 , 0]^0$
Irony Incarnate
which is just the trivial map
But thatās not true
You can always collapse the 1-skeleton and get a nontrivial one
I'm not quite sure what ur going for here
Itās not basepoint preserving but I believe you can make it basepoint preserving
Idea is using cellular approximation
I still don't get what exactly were talking Abt here anymore???
Like collapse the 1-skeleton of what
And why?
so CW structure of S¹xS¹ is we have S¹vS¹ and a 2 cell attached by aba'b'. Now collapsing S¹vS¹ gives us a S² which is not nullhomotopiv
That is send S¹xS¹ āS¹xS¹/S¹vS¹=S²
Also so this isn't always the case
Mine is correct as well
It depends on how you look at the space
If you look at it as a product of pointed spaces
Then you get a smash product
But if you look at the torus as a space with a point as a base point
Then i think what i said holds?
Tho I'm not sure
Actually no it isn't lol
You are confused.
Homotopy happens on the source not the target.
All maps from S^1 \times S^1 \to S^2 are nullhomotopic by definition (based or not).
For instance the real numbers R have a quotient S^1, just as your space S^1 \times S^1 has a quotient S^1 \wedge S^1, this doesn't imply that there are nontrivial maps from R \to S^1 up to homotopy though.
What do you mean by "by definition" here
Why is it nontrivial?
I'm asking why is it trivial
I had actually made a mistake but I think it's still nontrivial to show that it's nontrivial
I was mistakenly commuting products with Hom up to homotopy.
Sure
I just don't see any reasoning you gave to show that it is non-trivial, there is a more canonical looking finite cover of the Sphere by the torus which is obviously nontrivial.
I guess probably the way to do this is to calculate the map on \pi_2 by expressing the torus S^1 \times S^1 as a quotient of a square by identifying opposite edges, and the sphere as a quotient of the square by identifying the entire boundary.
Then it's clear that the induced map on H_2 is nontrivial, so the map is not nullhomotopic.
then why did you say the maps are nullhomotopic?
As I mentioned above, I was confused.
okay
And thought you were saying something incorrect.
I still don't understand why it's related to the post that you posted this in response to.
lol
in fact I believe the homotopy class of maps should be ā¤
given by the degree of the map S² ā S²
Yeah, you can see this from the fact that the map on H_2 is just Z \to Z by the identity.
But I don't have a proof
So, if I can redeem myself:
or collapsing S¹vS¹
Yes that is what induces the map
the whole idea was using cellular approx you get the 1-skelli of S¹xS¹ goes to a point in S² anyway as there's no 1-cell so you might as well look at maps from the quotient S¹xS¹/S¹vS¹ = S² anyway which gives the homotopy class to be Z
Yes I think that's a good argument, perhaps worded another way: up to homotopoy, S^1 V S^1 has no maps to S^2, so any map from S^1 \times S^1 to S^2 is homotopic to one factoring through this quotient, and there are Z of those as you say.
*homotopy.
But the main point is that the canonical quotient map IS nontrivial, because this argument only makes sense if you actually produce one non-trivial map.
For instance you could say the same thing about R mapping to S^1: certainly any map from Z \subset R to S^1 is homotopic to 0, but if the canonical quotient map isn't nontrivial the rest of the argument doesn't work.
^This was the mistake that I thought you had made.
^I think strictly thinking this is the problem with this argument as stated, you also need to compute what happens to H_2 or something to show that the quotient map isn't nullhomotopic.
Hi can someone give me a hint as to how to find the 4 boundary points. Thank you
2a
Suppose I have a closed hemisphere H ā R³, then it's boundary āH is the hemispherical shell. But intuitively, the upper hemispherical shell also has a boundary, which is the circle. How do I denote the circle in terms of H, even though technically the boundary of the hemispherical shell is itself?
the are sometimes distinguished as the topological boundary vs manifold boundary
your "circle" here is manifold boundary
Yea, i got the shape but i dont get where the boundary points come from, in the picture.
i think the dotted boundary is just to indicate that its open and doesn't contain the boundary
yea sorry, I mean that I dont get where the coord (3,0) came from. Would it not be (0,2) since the radius is 2? I thought to use the circle equation, is that something I can do?
its centered around x = (1, 0)
ah yes! i missed that point, thank you.
what does it mean for a class of loops to generate a fundamental group?
that every element in the fundamental group has a representative which can be expressed as the composition of elements in the class of loops, together with their inverses
any hints?
i tried constructing such a J, but i came across a problem
so for every U_i, i can write it as a union of base elements, namely B_j with j \in N (since there is a countable basis), I choose the elements J to be the j such that U_{i_j} contains B_j. The problem now is that such a thing doesn't necessarily exist
Yes it does
A property of bases is that for any x in U where U is an open set, there exists a basis element B such that x in B subseteq U
So you can always choose such a U
What more do you need for a topological space to be metrizable apart from hausdorff-ness? 
or are every hausdorff spaces metrizable?
The one point compactification of R (or any uncountable set) with the discrete topology is not metrizable.
(Because every compact metric space is separable)
(i.e. has a countable dense subset)
In topology and related areas of mathematics, a metrizable space is a topological space that is homeomorphic to a metric space. That is, a topological space
(
X
,
Ļ
)
{\displaystyle (X,\tau )}
is said to be metrizable if there is a metric
d
...
but it is hausdroff?
Yes, that's why I mentioned it
The one point compactification of a locally compact Hausdorff space is Hausdorff
Uh you may wanna google singular chain complex
Uhh approximate it by simplices is not really what you are doing
And "the map" lol
ig better is that ur forming a free group by just taking the vertices of ur simplex as the spanning set
I would recommend just reading what this is lol
over X
You aren't taking the vertices of a simplex
well so if you have a triangulation of your space by simplices then you can build a chain complex from this triangulation and compute the simplicial homology from this
this is easier to think about than singular homology
Yes sure
where you are sort of looking at all possible ways of mapping in simplices at once which is a total mess
(Isn't this simplicial rather than cellular though)
I end up forgetting simplicial even exists

yeah oops
When do you even care about simplicial homology tbh like I have never used it to compute anything lol
Other than intro examples in Hatcher
I mean this should basically just be cellular homology
you're just being picky about the sorts of combinatorial descriptions you're allowing for your space
I imagine it's like usable for computers and stuff though
but like morally these are seeing the same thing in the same sort of way
Yeah
You could have come up with a good answer to this question by thinking for less time than it took you to write this sentence
One reason - computing the boundary map in cellular homology is harder than in the case of simplicial homology.
But another reason is that simplicial complexes appear naturally in numerous fields of mathematics (i.e., https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clique_complex) whereas CW complexes only appear in homotopy theory
Even in homotopy theory it is very often useful to adopt a combinatorial perspective.
May wrote Simplicial objects in algebraic topology in 1960.
Goerss and Jardine wrote Simplicial homotopy theory in 1999.
Jacob Lurie wrote Higher Topos Theory in 2009.
Do you expect this to be the decade where we finally discard simplicial complexes?
I do not.
Yeah Idk why I said that given I have used simplicial sets and stuff lol
He probably meant connected.
But if the manifold is not connected, then each connected component will have a countable fundamental group.
is there a name for the procedure (or final result) of gluing two copies of a manifold along its boundary?
Doubling / double
thanks
If you are doing abstract homotopy theory you are far more likely to encounter simplicial sets and their associated simplicial abelian groups (which compute simplicial homology) than you are to encounter arbitrary CW-complexes.
The latter might be more common in manifold theory.
Hi, can someone explain to me in simple terms of open sets with different metrics. I cant seem to understand the sentence highlighted in terms of how the different metrics determine whether U is open or not? Thank you
open sets with different metrics
@noble osprey
an open set is a set where if you choose any point inside this set there is a ball around it that is contained inside the set
a ball of radius r centered at x is defined to be the set {y | d(x,y)<r}
if u change the metric the ball "sorta" changes
so u can have an set that is open wrt a metric abut is not wrt another metric
as the definition of the ball is different cuz the metric is different
do u get it
(this is all in the setting of metric spaces )
verify from the definitions the example given in the text
I get it thanks, so if the open ball had a radius r about (1,0) w.r.t the railway metric then the distance is 1 but from that point how do we go about determining if the open ball is open or not?
i mean if its less than r, but like how do we know?
how do we go about determining if the open ball is open or not? the open ball is always open under its respective metric
the point here is that under the railway metric this set IS the open ball
so its open by default ( u can try to prove it )
in general to determine if a set is open or not wrt a certain metric
it would be enough to show that all balls centered at some point of the set cannot be contained inside the set
for example consider [0,1] inside R with the metric defined to be d(x,y) = |x-y|
can u pick an element inside this interval and show no matter how small we choose our radius it still cannot be contianed in [0,1]?
never heard of the railway metric lol
if you can do that then by definition u showed that [0,1] is not open wrt to the metric defined
ahh so its not open since it would be outside [0,1]
what do you mean by "it" here
i know this shit is confusing
but u must understand it as its very important later on
like if we choose r such that 0-r, 1+r is outside [0,1] ?
yea, this open stuff is confusing
such that an open ball around this element can never be fully contained in [0,1]
its ok
.
all u need to make sure u know fully are the definitions
once u have the definitions it just takes time untill u get it
but u will never get it if ur definitions are fuzzy
u will always be confused
but i dont get the metric part
so you mean that an open set would alwyas contain a ball centered at any of its elements
yep
okay so
i want you to tell me
as accurately as yo ucan
the definition of an open set in some metric space X with a metric , call it d.
can u do that
a subset of X is open if there exists an open ball within that subset such that d(x,y) < r
hmmm
"within that subset"
its not quite
the word "open ball" is ambigious
what is its center
what is its radius
what are x and y?
a subset of X is open if for every element u can center a ball around it such that the ball is fully contained in that subset
so for example suppose u have some subset S
and this S is open
that means that for any random element
b for example
there must exist a ball centered around b such that the whole ball is contained
that is
there must exist some radius r; such that the set {a|d(b,a)<r} is a subset of S
better?
the set {a|d(b,a)<r} is called the ball centered at b with radius r.
oh wait, so an an open set is an open ball?
no, but for every element u can form an open ball around it
so more ilke
a union of open balls
something like that
best thing to do now is to do examples
lets take our set to be R , the real numbers and the metric to be defined as d(x,y) = |x-y|
ahh ok i get the definition
the usual distance
this is a metric space.
so now
answer this question:
how does the open ball centered at 2 with radius 4 look like
describe it as a set
like we did here
a| d(2,a) < 4
yes
now
u missed something very small
or its just more pedantic really
but u should say {a is in R | d(2,a) <4}
cuz we are in R
at the end of the day right?
makes sense?
okay now
u can do go further now
this d(2,a) <4
can u unfold the definition?
u know what the metric is.
i defined it above
what does d(2,a) <4 mean
given the d i defined above
"expand" it
d(2,a) = |2-a| < 4
good
okay
so now lets look at extreme cases ig
from them we can understand a little bit better ig
u know what an open set is now correct?
yep
so an open set is when you take an element x , you have an open ball around that x which is the center of the open ball with a radius r such that d(x,y) < r
good
but
thing is that r could be anything
we cant choose it
the definition tells us that THERE EXISTS an open ball
idk how small or how large the ardius could be
but i know there must be atleast one
now lets look at this example
and i want u to prove or disprove that this set is open
for example
is the set {1,2} open in our metric space?
why or why not
Ok so this is what i dont get, if we are given a set we know that it has to contain an open ball in that set for it to be open. but with repect to the usual metric say, d(x,y) = | 1-2| < r i dont know how continue from here.
oh wait is it because d = -1 and its not in the set {1,2}
so can u form a ball around 1 such that the whole ball is contained in{1,2}
?
if u can do that for 1 and u can do that for 2 then that would mean this is open
if no matter what radius u choose , a ball centered around 1 would always contain an element other than {1,2} then this is not open
do u get it?
yea i think i get it, as long as its centred around 1 then if we pick a radius around r that still contains in {1,2} then it would be open? i guess
around 1 sorry
well try it
try to pick a ball
choose any radius u like
and see if its still contained inside this set
so if i choose u=2 then {1-2, 2+2} = {-1,4} is not contained in {1,2} ?
whats u
okaay so u want to look at the ball centered at 1 with raidus 2
so {y | |y-1| < 2} right?
this is your ball?
yes
now is this balll contained in {1,2}?
by contained i mean is every element of this ball an element of {1,2}?
if no then show me one
pick an element in this ball that is not an element of {1,2}
i want u to justify it for me
for {1,2} to be an open set there must be an open ball around 1 such that the whole open ball is in {1,2}
and as well as for the element 2
but lets pick in general any open ball around 1 with any radius
yep
now are those the only ones in ur open ball?
are 1 and 2 the only solutions to the inequality |y-1| < 2 ?
what about y = 0
ur confusing the set definitoins
the condition is that
EVERY element of this ball IS AN ELEMENT of the set
so if ur set is just {1,2}
then ur ball's elements must CONTAIN either 1 or 2 or both
its a SUBSET of the whole set
but u know now that y=0 is inside your ball
so the ball around around 1 with radius 2 IS NOT a subset of {1,2}
because 0 is inside that ball but its not inside {1,2}
hence it is not a subset
do u get it?
0 would fail since itās not contained in the ball
no
0 is not contained in the set
{1,2}
it is in the ball ( satisifies the condition ) but its not in the set
hence the ball is not contianed inside the set
contained*
do u get it?
Ahh so {1,2} is an open set with open ball around 1 or 2
But 0 is not contained in {1,2} so we canāt form a ball around 0
Because itās not contained in the set {1,2}
yes
it has an element that is not in {1,2}
so that would only SUGGEST that it is not open
it would not show that is not open cuz that is just one ball
who knows if maybe we chose too big of a radius
do u get it?
to show that this is not open we would want to argue that for any choice of radius
an open ball around 1 would always contain an element that is not 1 or 2
remember that we are over the real numbers
that is alot of numbers
haha
Ahh so we always look at the end points 1 or 2 and form a ball around it
I get it now [tears]
Iām so sorry for being stupid and thank you for your patience haha
No because we can find an element that is not contained in the set {1,2}
and that doesnt make much sense
u must mean that u can find an element such that there is no ball around that element contained in the set
Oh ok so what exactly is [1,2] ? Is that a subset of R ( real line) ?
yes
the dotts are the ball
And the center is 1
U can see no matter how we shrink the radius
It will always be outside the interval
No matter the radius
So its not open as for all radii ucant center a ball around 1 such that the WHOLE ball is contained in the interval
Got it?
Yup get it, does that apply to open interval as well (1,2)
I mean in this case the centre canāt be 1 or 2
Iām I right in saying that?
Yup
So what does that mean
Then it would contain within (1,2) thus itās open
Yes
u got it
now notice that this depends on the metric choice
now
As for the finisher
lets now look at the same set but different metric
let it be the same set (R)
But define d(x,y) = 1 if x=y
d(x,y) =0 if x !=y
i want u to try examples with this metric
How does the open ball around any point look like? What are the open sets?
Good luck
this should answer ur original question on how like different metrics induce diff open sets
different*
In this case would it be open
by composition do you mean the product on loops?
Yes.
Of course this is not actually function composition. But the term "composition" is common in group theory to refer to the multiplication of a group.
Does someone have a visual example of cell decomposition, For example, if I was starting out with a disc from which two discs were removed (sort of like a torus but with 2 holes instead) how could I decompose that?
Then from that how could I think find the euler characteristic?
Okay sorry that this looks like it was drawn by a child, I did it with a trackpad
Here is a decomposition of your space with 8 vertices, 10 edges, and 4 faces.
The red lines are to indicate the 2 disks which were removed.
The orange arrows are orientations
The green arrows indicate the orientations of the edges.
Thanks! And no worries about the drawing, it helps a ton regardless. Do you mind describing how you went about doing it like that?
I basically just did it randomly, you can decompose it in any way and you'll get the same answer.
Oh ok, my initial attempt was just straight across the middle with 6 vertices instead of 8, but I was unsure if it was necessarily ācorrectā
I think that should work as well afaik.
It depends on what you mean by cell decomposition. Sometimes there are extra rules if you want to compute simplicial homology etc.
I mean I guess ultimately all the matters is I get the same characteristic, then theyāre just homeomorphs of each other
Nah nothing that fancy
You had the right idea
My professor went at a snails pace so we didnāt get that far lol
Yeah, and in the end even that doesn't matter. For a "reasonable" space (i.e. anything that you can draw) you can just make the cells basically random and everything will work out.
In terms of computing homology or just the euler char.
MyMathYourMath
Yes, it is those things up to homotopy which fixes the boundary
yes so all boundaries are x_0
MyMathYourMath
The boundary of the image of \gamma is x_0
but a homotopy is a map $H: [0, 1]^{n+1} \to X$ and it fixing the boundary means that $H(\partial [0, 1]^n \times [0, 1]) = x_0$.
ok im doing a project on higher homotopy theory so i may be in this chat room a lot these next few weeks
ok
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
im not entirely comfortable with the construction of cohomology groups yet \
is there a general result we can get from $H_n(X) \approx H_n(A) \oplus H_n(X / A)$, given that $A$ is a retract of $X$ about the cohomology groups $H^n(X)$
maximo
im trying to show $H^n(X) \approx H^n(A) \oplus H^n(X / A)$
maximo
I am trying to show the bijection of isomorphism classes of covering spaces with isomorphism classes of $\pi_1(X, x_0)-sets$. I know that for any given a covering space we can get a $\pi-$set by considering the action of $\pi_1$ on the fiber $p^{-1}(x_0)$. Now I am trying to show bijection. In particular I am struggling with surjectivity. Any ideas?
ru0xffian
i think quotienting by the action should give you a covering space
I'm not sure there is a simple way to show the surjectivity.
Maybe the actual construction is needed.
For a given $\pi_0(X,x_0)$-set $A$, consider it as a discrete topology,
Let $Y$ be the set of all paths in $X$ starting from $x_0$, with a topology defined to satisfies
the map $\gamma \mapsto \gamma(1)$ from $Y$ to $X$ is locally homeomorphic.
Now my suggestion is:
take a quotient topology of $A\times X$ by the equivalence relation
$\gamma(1) ~ \gamma'(1)$, where $\gamma'$ is the path obtained by:
- first lift any element of $\pi_0(X, x_0)$, starting from the $(id, x_0) \in A\times X$,
- and then lift $\gamma$
I believe this construction might work, but please check it.
etale
hypothetically you could just take the universal coefficients theorem and use that it splits and that Ext and Hom factor through the direct sum but you can also just prove it directly using a basically identical proof to that of homology and its probably faster
moth use ur szamuely knowledge
Agree
could you elaborate more on that? Quotienting what exactly?
it may help to talk about the universal cover
im sure getting the equivalence between Cov(X) and pi_1(X, x)-sets via locally constant sheaves will really elucidate the subject š„°
Sorry for few mistakes in my writing.
Consider $(a, \gamma(1))$ and $(b, \gamma'(1))$ in $A \times Y$ whenever the following holds:
-
There exists $g \in \pi_1(X, x_0)$ s.t. $ga = b$.
-
Whenever you lift the a representative of $g$ to $A\times Y$ and then lift any element homotopic to $\gamma$ (with the same end point), the resulting path is homotopic to $\gamma'$.
etale
i did end up using the universal coefficients theorem with mayer vietoris
I think everyone are saying the similar strategy, but the actual construction might bother.
It's hard to me to remember the exact one.
yes this is the quotient by the universal cover in question
you could also go via gluing which might be slightly more explicit
Right
Moth
This has not been topologized yet, to be clear!
Moth
Ok tbh im realizing I dont know quite how to make this construction work without the fundamental groupoid instead of the fundamental group
Im sure i can but I will think about it for a bit instead of posting something wrong
An open set of a compact hausdorff space X can't be dense if it is missing isolated points, correct? For instance, in X=[1,2]U{3}, (1,2) cant be dense because the closure of (1,2) is [1,2], which doesn't include {3}. The reason I ask is because the boundary of a closed set is nowhere dense. But I read the complement of a closed nowhere dense set is open and dense. Where I'm having trouble is that the boundary of X is {1}U{2}U{3} the complement of which is (1,2) which is not dense from what I said above. Can someone tell me where I'm going wrong?
I believe boundary of $X = cl(X)-int(X)=X-X=\phi$.
I guess you got the boundary of $X$ as a subspace of $\mathbb{R}$, which seems not relevant in this context.
etale
So an easy argument shows that you can reduce to connected $\pi_1$-sets (i.e. those sets on which $\pi_1$ acts transitively) by taking disjoint unions of covers. Can you use the universal cover to construct all of those?
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
For a compact Hausdorff space, If C_1 > C_2 > ... is a nested sequence of closed sets, the intersection is non-empty, is that right?
Yes. You don't need hausdorff. This is cantors intersection theorem
Hi for this prop 9.11 if X\V is open is that the same as X being open? ( but 1. says X is closed) Thanks
oh wait X\V a collection of open subsets yea?
X\V is an open set, for some closed set V
if you put $V=\emptyset$, then you can see $X \backslash \emptyset=X$ is indeed a closed set.
cflau_
in fact, $X$ is both open and closed, and there's nothing wrong with that
cflau_
Get it, thanks a lot
a grad student at my school told me that topology allows us to use open shapes to determine which points are near to each other without specifying distance, can someone help me think through why this is the case?
i would assume that two points are "near" if we can find an open set that contains both of them, but the whole space is open, and obviously the whole space contains any two points in it
so im not exactly sure the intuition behind this notion
It's a heuristic notion of being near rather than a formal one
If I take the points 0, 1, and 2 in the real line then any open ball about 0 containing 2 contains 1 but not the reverse so in this vague sense 1 is "closer" to 0 than to 2
hmm okay
But there are uncountably many open balls about 0 containing both so it's not really a strict definition
A useful intuition might be to think about Hausdorff spaces vs non Hausdorff spaces
In a non Hausdorff spaces you have points x, y such that any open ball about x contains y
So in this sense the points x and y are "so close together you cannot distinguish them topologically"
oh okay that makes a bit more sense
so in a general case, how can we determine whether two points are "near" or "far"?
or is this not the correct way to think about it?
It doesn't really mean anything in an absolute sense beyond this separated vs non separated thing
It's not really "nearness" you get to model -- it's more accurate that you get enough of the properties of distance to be able to define limits.
At best one can get this relative notion of closeness as in this example (everyone open set about x containing z contains y)
Yes this is a better way of thinking about it
Honestly for most practical purposes whatever particular field you're working in will have it's own heuristic notions of what makes points close or near that you will practically use for intuition
So I think worrying about this nearness closeness idea is not super important in the point set context
So in a topology you can say no matter how close you insist it has to be, there's something with such-and-such properties. But you cannot say "this is closer than that".
Yeah I thought about this but also couldn't get the covering space from the universal cover; any ideas?
Did you at least show that you can reduce to constructing a cover for each G = \pi_1 set with transitive action?
Isn't the idea if we show that for each orbit we get a path connected cover and then the cover for all of the set will be the space with all these path connected components ?
Now wlog we can assume that our pi-set is transitive and we want to construct a cover (it's gonna be autmoatically path-connected)
Not sure; but we want loops that lifts to loops in the covering space to have no effect on the base point. So do we consider the covering space whose fundamental group is the stabilizer of the point that we fix in the G-set?
Yes so this gives an equivalence between based coverings and based G-sets (which shouldāve been part of your equivalence)
The other direction comes from looking at the monodromy action of pi_1 on the fiber, wrt the fixed base point in the fiber
yeah but I don't see how the action that we get from the covering space that we found is isomorphic to the action that we're given on the pi-set
Thatās almost by definition of X^univ/H (note that X^univ also comes with a based point in this based category)
The monodromy action on the fiber comes from the action of G on the fiber of X^univ above the base point of X
But if you didnāt prove this in class you can show it with path lifting
I see. I like this approach better; we're utilizing the classifiaction that we have of path-connected covering spaces.
Yes. It's a nice way
Then the claim about isomorphism classes of unbased objects comes from forgetting the base points on both sides.
İs every line in topology a set of infinite point with them and we technicaly can chance arrangement of point in set and set will technicaly be same.so same logic affect topology is it because why to diffrent lines with diffrent shape is counted as same
I think i wrote very complicated
But you got the point
Okey
İ will trying explain
So we have sets of 1,2,3
İf we mixed up like 3,2,1
it would be same set
So i am asking lines in topology is a sets of infinite coordinate of points
is that why it is diffrent lines in topology counted as equal
Not equals
Lets say only rule is a point not crosing with other point
what is a here?
so like the function X - Y ( In this case f : R - R) a is an element we choose in Y
OK but then how did you come up with the bound <=1?
Hey ! In topology we can define the notion of convergence in a very general setting (for a topological space (X,T)). But does all the type of convergence that we see during our studies always mean that there is an "underlying" topology within the space that we study ? For example we saw in class the convergence for distribution and our teacher said that indeed it corresponds to the notion of convergence that you would have if you put a (very exotic) topology on the space of distribution. In measure theory for example, is there a topology for almost everywhere convergence ?
I hope my question is clear
it actually isn't!
for other types of convergence (here specifically convergence in measure) you put topology of convergence in measure on your function space and that gives you said convergence
But I don't think there's a topology for almost everywhere convergence
This is because I think almost everywhere convergence has some issues if you try to put the topological form of convergence on it iirc
(But I think you can put a different structure on your space in that case but I'm not 100% sure what the details are)
What are some homological tools to show two spaces arenāt homotopy equivalent when you know homology and fundamental groups agree? I donāt think something like local homology should be preserved under homotopy equivalences but can we do something similar that is?
Local homology isn't preserved by homotopy equivalences unfortunately.
Your last easy resort in this case is to use the ring structure on cohomology to distinguish them.
So show that the intersection pairing between cycles is different on one than the other.
Aight thought so
Hmm we havenāt started cohomology yet so Iāll have to think of smth else
Are you sure you're not being asked about homeomorphism? That would be easier and then local homology is preserved.
Yeah for sure, homeo would be easy in this case
Hmm shame that
Im looking at S^1xS^2 vs S^1 v S^2 v S^3
Intuitively speaking a homotopy equivalence would have to contract S^3
But idk how to phrase that
I was thinking maybe there was a way to say that a homotopy equivalence could be viewed as a homotopy in R^4 and use Jordan curve or smth to get a contradiction but that sounds whack
Thanks a lot !
Wait (I could be making a mistake) but it seems to me that here the universal covers are not homotopy equivalent: one is S^2 and the other is an infinite wedge of S^2's and S^3's?
Ah right im not used to thinking about covers
Isnāt the universal cover of S^1xS^2 RxS^2 though?
Not that it makes a difference
Yes, I was speaking up to homotopy equivalence.
Yeah okay
Alright thatās smart Iāll keep covers in mind from now on
We havenāt really looked at them yet so Iām not too comfortable with calling them up to my toolkit but by exam time weāll have seen it so itās aight
A fun example of spaces which have the same homotopy groups and homology but are not homotopy equivalent are a point and the "long line"
It is a stupid example though.
Ew long line
*Yay long line!
To be honest, no idea where this belongs as it comes from a practical problem.
My friend is making a golf computer game with a twist: the user enters an RGB hex code, and that is where your ball gets putted to. You can see the flag you are trying to get to.
Since we are putting our ball on a 2D plane we want a projection from the cube of R,G,B values into the plane.
An important property that our projection needs to have is that if two colours are close in RGB space, they should be close in the 2D projection. It doesn't matter if far away colours are even further away than what they really "should be".
Is his game possible to make?
What sort of considerations need to be made for the projection?
Ideally he wants to have every colour represented in his game.
Ever heard of space filling curves?
Hilbert's curve is your best friend
The next step would normally be to compute the cohomology rings and see if the ring structure agrees. If they do, you can try to distinguish them by looking at the action of the Steenrod algebra on the cohomology groups.
You can also look at the behavior of bundles and similar topological objects over these base spaces.
Ex. The topological K-theory
A general idea in this topic is: build an object homotopy-theoretically from your two spaces and then look at the pi1 / (co)homology of that instead
this is surprisingly powerful, because if the construction is complex enough, it might not be that the object's pi1/cohomology can be computed just from the pi1 / cohomology of the base space you started with
The simplest example being the loop space (but unfortunately this is terrible to compute, as it's higher homotopy groups)
You also have more complicated cohomology operations like the Massey product. For example IIRC the Massey product distinguishes the complements of Borromean and the Brunnian links, which the cup product is too coarse to detect.
can anyone elaborate the definition of this, this seems so weird to me (at least the last part with the open cells)
take a bunch of points
Then attach lines between these points such that these lines are homeomorphic to open intervals
Then attach some open disks to this graph (you can imagine this as like gluing the ends of the disk along certain edges of the disk)
And continue this inductively
yeah, i kinda got that part, but what is meant by the last point
(open cells)
It's a definition
I think this has some formal consequences somewhere so it's better that the cells are open
something something this makes the pushout work
tho like idk what exactly is weird abt it
is it confusing because they're not literally open
That's Hatcher 
I guess one of the many reasons is the glueing lemma
Similar to how you breakdown simplicial complexes into simplices. Here you break down the spaces into a bunch of balls. Why balls? Because they're simple and nice.
But don't quote me. I've fought with this for days. Still haven't got it.
I'm not so sure, the hard part of this question is defining what colours go where since we want similar colours to be placed in similar positions spatially
Is it?
iām a bit confused on what the quotient map should be in the first place
in this case (not the definition)
you quotient by the attaching map on the n-1 skeleton
Basically the point is like if you attach a cell D^n to a space X to form Y, then there's a canonical map D^n -> Y
Since you attach it via the boundary, this map is a homeomorphism onto its image when you restrict to D^n \ boundary
Awuita Fria
You're correct. For example note that if X is closed, then X' is contained in X, so X' - X is empty
Thanks, I will do the demonstration
I'm just not sure about some things but I'm going to do it hehe.
Let $A$ be contained in $R^{n}$, If $A$ is closed then we say that $a$ belongs to $R^{n}$, suppose that $a$ is an accumu
lation point of $A$ where for any given epsilon, there exists a y that belongs to $A$ such that y belongs to the Ball of center a and radius epsilon.
We know that A is closed, this implies that $A'$ is contained in closed $A$, so the boundary of A is equal to empty since $a$ is an accumulation point, therefore it is false
Awuita Fria
look
Hey guys, can someone help me get an intuition of retracts, deformation retracts and strong deformation retracts? I somehow can't quite imagine how they could work
Have you never seen examples of them? An example which contains all 3 types of retract is the following, let $X = {(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2| 0 < x^2 + y^2 \leq 1 }$ then we can parameterize $X$ in polar coordinates by $f(r, \theta) = r(cos(\theta), sin(\theta))$ for $0 < r \leq 1, 0 \leq \theta < 2\pi$. Let $R$ be the map which sends $f(r, \theta) \to f(1, \theta)$, then $R$ is a retract of the inclusion of the circle into $X$. On the other hand $H(f(r, \theta), t) = f(r(1 - t) + t, \theta)$ is a (strong) deformation retract. Intuitively a deformation retract is a space where every point can be moved along a path to lie in a subspace in a way where the paths vary continuously, and a retract is a space where every point can be assigned a point in the subspace continuously, but not necessarily moved there along a path in such a way that the paths vary continuously. Perhaps the hardest thing to understand is a strong deformation retract, because most deformation retracts which are geometrically intuitive are strong deformation retracts.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
hmm i'm wondering if there's some niceness condition on a pair for deformation retracts to automatically be upgraded to strong deformation retracts
nlab and hatcher are of no help, although nlab gives a fancy definition for a strong deformation retract
nlab is only good for learning about Hegel https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/Science+of+Logic
how can I understand an identity map between 2 metric spaces?
like, I get that every element probably gets mapped to itself, but how do the metrics play a role?
like say from $(X,d_\infty)$ to $(X,d_2)$
WasMachenWirDennDa
lawvere was so weird
i guess hegel figured out what an adjunction was over a century before mathematicians did
I think that's pretty charitable, but what do I know.
Sure, if itās a relative cell complex. X is a CW complex and A is a subcomplex. Or more generally if X is formed by adding cells to A without hypothesis on A. This is also studied under the name cofibration.
i'm familiar with cofibrations, but what part of the cofibration is used here
The definition
Is there a global G-action on the associated bundle to a principal G-bundle?
The associated vector bundle you mean?
So given some representation (\rho, V) the associated bundle is V \times^G \mcal{G} so there is a canonical G action coming from the one on either side.
Could you elaborate? I was under the impression we have
((g_a ā g_b^-1)(x, v)) ā h = (x, r(g_ab)v) ā h = (x, r(h^-1 g_ab)v)
(g_a ā g_b^-1)((x, v) ā h) = (g_a ā g_b^-1)(x, r(h^-1)v) = (x, r(g_ab h^-1)v)
which isn't global
I don't know what you mean by not global
Also it would be nice if you could TeX what you write so I can read it more easily
As in, if we define it as $(x,v) \cdot h = (x, \rho(h^{-1})v)$, this is not independent of the trivialization
bacono
as in the homotopy extension property, but for some stupid reason i don't know what i plug in
so that's what i'm asking
The retract
Also, the global G action on P becomes trivial when we pass it down to the associative bundle by construction
No
It is equalized with the left G-action on V.
The action which becomes trivial is the action $g*(v, s) = (gv, sg^{-1})$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
What do you mean by the "it is equalized by the left G action"?
I'm not familiar with that terminology, sorry
But yes this action is not a "global" one, in general there cannot always be such a "global" action even for $G = Gl_n$.
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
I mean what I LaTeXed
so it's actually "every retract is gives a strong deformation retract" not "every deformation retract is gives a strong deformation retract"
Thank you, so there is not a global action, makes sense
So if G is abelian this exists, but for general G even for G = Gl_n you can see that such an action can't exist in general
Thank you! This is what I've been thinking but i thought i was going insane
No worries! If you're working with a category of algebraic-looking objects (varieties, complex manifolds, etc.) I can even write down an example for you. But you probably already know one.
so being a cofibration is sufficient, but what is equivalent? that's what i'm asking
Yep it is stronger!
Yeah, this came up in the context of nonabelian gauge theories in physics which involves connections on associated bundles to principal SU(3) things
Physicists like to pretend that global actions on sections exist (when in fact, they do not)
Yeah that is very strange. Perhaps they are too used to abelian gauge theories.
I was answering the second
Strong def retr is a combination of equivalence and nice. Equivalence is a substantial property, rather than a technical property. Asking for nice to imply equivalence is asking for a lot. If every retract of X is equivalent then every point is, so X is contractile. Probably āabsolute retractā is a sufficient hypothesis
Orbits of the action on deck transformations on the covering space are of the same sizes?
Not in general, what are your hypotheses?
For instance if X_2 is a double cover of X then X \coprod X_2 has two orbits for its deck transformations of different sizes.
Very vague intuition coming from the fact that only the identity transformation fixes a point.
But I guess the set on which we are acting is not finite so it is not necessarily true that orbits have the same sizes
If your space is connected (plus the other usual assumptions) it's true.
question, how do i prove the case riguourusly that $\pi_n(X)$ is abelian for $n \geq 2$ specifically the case $n=2$
MyMathYourMath
for $n=2$ can this be made rigorous easily?
MyMathYourMath
let $\alpha, \beta \in \pi_2(X)$ for some top space $X$ then $\alpha,\beta:(S^2,a) \to (X,x_0)$
MyMathYourMath
is it the extra dimention that allows for this "Hop" so i can commute them? i can see it but
There are quite a few ways to do it
