#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 26 of 1
so, let's say $a_n$ converges to $A$ and $b_n$ converges to $B$ in $X$, and $* : X \cross X \to X$ is some continuous binary operation (say $X = \mathbb{R}$ and $$ is $+$ or $\cross$). then there's a continuous map $n \to (a_n, b_n)$, $\infty \to (A, B)$ by the universal property of $X \cross X$, and when you compose it with $$ you can conclude that $a_n * b_n$ converges to $A * B$ in X.
Morphy
Yeah this is p dope
I think i saw something like this but with X=Q as a alternative for dedekind cut
maybe you mean the construction of R as equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences? I think it's only related in the sense that it involves sequences and convergence
i don't think so ;c
interesting
it does not involves sequences directly if im not mistaken, it's more the idea of topological closure
if you can find it I'd love to see it
meaning Q as a pointed topological group with addition and 1 as the basepoint?
prob, i didn't finished this chapter yet, it was some kind of "spoiler" from the author
it's in my native language
do you remember which book?
so i don't think it helps to send you
cause R does end up precisely adding the points that make it topologically connected
i can look on the references
w8 a sec
but
i think the main reference is bourbaki
not pretty sure
the book itself is bourbaki being digested
there are over 100 references
i'll send you pm
u good?
lul

Dam Timo beat me to the punch
easy
ty!
if we define the 2-torus to be the product manifold S^1 times S^1, Lee considers it to be a subspace of R^4. someone on mathSE said that there is also an embedding of T^2 to R^3, where we consider the "surface of the bagel"
what does that embedding look like?
also in the general case, if we regard T^n as the product of n copies of S^1, is it a subspace of R^2n? and if we generalize the "surface of the bagel" analogy, would that embedding be T^n to R^2n-1?
T^n is usually thought of as subset of R^n+1
So I did something today 😇
Which subset? Is it so easy to write down?
||I guess you could define it inductively as the boundary of a small neighborhood of T^n-1. But do you really want that?||
Which one? The embedding of T(n) into R(2n) is called the flat torus. If you type that, you'll see a representation of the flat T(2), although I'm not sure what's being drawn.
Flat comes from the fact that the Riemannian metric induced by the embedding is flat.
However, if you mean the embedding of T(n) into R(n+1), then this is the standard embedding (non-standard terminology here). The embedding of T(2) inside R(3) is, well, the outside of the doughnut.
Like I said, do you really want that?
What I linked is just technology saying that T(n+1) is a surface of revolution of T(n), and that's how visual it can get
Unless you have a mental image of euclidean 4-space 😛
Which, in turn, is saying that T(n) is the product of n circles, by induction
Do you guys have a good alg top book recommendations?
preferably pretty beginner since my course is more of an intro to topology class and at this point we've barely even covered quotient spaces
Lee's intro to topological manifolds is good as a beginner book if you aren't yet comfortable with point-set
the algebraic topology starts halfway through when he goes over the fundamental group
before that it's mostly the point-set topology that is useful for algebraic and differential topology (so he doesn't go into things like tychonoff's theorem and the details of countability/separation axioms). i think he also covers CW complexes and proves some results with them using only point-set topology
but you could probably start reading from when he starts talking about the fundamental group, and go back if you come across terms that are unfamiliar
it might be useful to read the sections on quotient spaces since those are pretty important
but imo it is a lot more beginner friendly than hatcher, especially when he covers things like van kampen and covering spaces
also, lee’s intro to smooth manifolds is a sequel to intro to top manifolds
May's book, A Concise Introduction to Algebraic Topology. You should be warned, however, that it is difficult. It is, in some sense, "beginner level" in that little knowledge is assumed
I would definitely stay away from Mays book if you’re a beginner
it's full of category theory, i had a prof put it on reading list, gave me PTSD
Why is euclidean metric of R^2 on the unit circle S^1 not a path metric space but measuring the angle in radians is? To my understanding the induced intrinsic metric should find the infimum of the lengths of all paths. Does the straight line between points not count as a path?
It’s not contained in S^1 though
Is there a one size fits all strategy for showing an arbitrary open cover has a finite subcover (assume compact)
I'm trying to prove in a separable Hilbert space, the closed unit ball is compact in the weak topology
What does it mean to be contained in S^1?
As a subset
Basically, π is not 1
I'm afraid I don't understand what you're trying to say, how can we define what curves are contained in the set
Taking the induced metic on S1 (from R^2) would have that the distance between points is the Euclidean one, but no path between them contained in S^1 has such length
So there’s no length minimizing path
What constitutes a path being contained in S^1? Why is the direct path between the two points not in S^1?
S^1 is the unit circle right?
Obviously I understand intuitively that the chord is not in the circle
That's it though
But formally how do we define when a path is in the set
But thats intuition. Its hardly a formal definition of an intrinsic metric
It’s the image of a cont function from the unit interval
So it’s just a subset
You can show by calculation that these straight lines don’t have only points of norm 1 (which is what it means to be in the circle)
So that would prove it
Does an intrinsic metric only work on sets with the same cardinality as the reals then?
I’m not sure what you’re asking
Well intuitively an intrinsic metric on a circle must be a path that follows what we intuitively see as a solid curve. If you have a finite set then how do you define an intrinsic metric on it? What would be your continuous map?
It’s more about path connectedness than about cardinality but sure
I don’t really know why that’s relevant to your original question tho
Sorry I will limit myself to one question
Wrt my original question I just wanted to try and understand what really constitutes a path being inside the set. Where can I read a formal definition of what they mean by path?
a path $\gamma$ in a metric space $(X,d)$ is a continuous function $\gamma: [0,1] \to X$
Joseph
and when we say a path $\gamma$ is inside a set, for example $S^1 \subseteq \mathbb R^2$, we mean that for all $t\in [0,1]$, $\gamma(t) \in S^1$
Joseph
maybe you'd appreciate a set of notes. I had taken a course following these notes, page 13 is relevant to this discussion https://jypan10.github.io/113notes.pdf
What are some big implications when a space is seperable? Anything to do with showing compactness?
For metric spaces, separability is equivalent to every cover having a countable subcover I believe
yeh, for metric spaces lindelof iff separable iff second countable
also for studying hilbert spaces, separable is useful because it is equivalent to a having a countable orthonormal basis
coincidentally this is what I'm going through right now
So if I have two points in S^1 (1, 0) and (0, 1) as you'd see it on the euclidean plane and with the chordic metric the distance between them is sqrt(2). If I define a map y: [0, 1] -> S^1
Such that [0, 0.5] yields (1,0) and (0.5, 1] yields (0, 1) can we say this is discontinuous because at some point there is a discontinuity in the metric applied over this function y? That is, for [0, 0.5] the path length is 0 and then suddenly a little bit further into the interval it is sqrt(2)
yeah, that's a way to see that your example function is discontinuous, since given a continuous function $\gamma: [0,1] \to S^1$, this should induce a continuous function $L: [0,1] \to \mathbb R$ which gives you the length up to time $t$, but as you said, this length function has a discontinuity at $0.5$.
Joseph
Okay that's far more understandable. Thanks a lot
the more traditional way to see that your example is not continuous would be using the definition of continuity. Here's the definition of continuity: a function $\gamma: [0,1]\to S^1$ is continuous if for all $t_0\in [0,1]$, for all $\varepsilon>0$ (think of this as your approximation error), there exists $\delta>0$ such that for all $t\in (t_0-\delta, t_0+\delta)$, you have $d(\gamma(t_0), \gamma(t)) < \varepsilon$.
Then, your example $\gamma$ is not continuous for $t_0=\frac{1}{2}$, since you cannot find $\delta$ for $\varepsilon=0.1$ for example. For any $\delta>0$, you will have $\gamma(\frac{1}{2}+\frac{\delta}{2}) = (0,1)$ while $\gamma(\frac{1}{2}-\frac{\delta}{2})=(1,0)$, and these points have distance greater than $\varepsilon$.
Are you sure vareps is a token?
Joseph
Yay
thanks lol yeah I need to setup my texit bot config or something
in my latex I have a command "\newcommand{\eps}{\varepsilon}"
I made an entire command that would render a perspective view cube and then my config got wiped 😦
aw sadge
Sorry to be pedantic but should t_0 belong to the closed or open interval of 0 to 1?
I suppose it doesn't matter does it
it should belong to the closed interval, but I should have $t\in (t_0 -\delta, t_0+\delta) \cap [0,1]$ for this to make sense
Joseph
so there was an issue
lol no problem
Or just use intervals within [0,1] with the induced ordering and it's already correct 😎
I need some sanity check. Given a metric space $M$, is the collection of all open balls of the form $B_{\varepsilon}(y)$ for $\varepsilon>0$ and $y\in M$ still a basis for the topology if we uniformly bound $\varepsilon<r$ by some $r>$? I.e., if we have a uniform upper bound on the radii of the balls, do we still get a basis for the metric space topology?
blackiris
Yes
Yes
Okay that makes sense
The topology generated must be the same. This is the same reason why in epsilon-delta proofs, we can always take epsilon smaller than some number.
Basically if O is open, then you have a ball of positive radius about each point in O, and then you can just shrink each of those balls until they're small enough
because the union will still be the whole of O
Yeah, I just wanted to ask it here just in case I'm being stupid, and what I have in mind is not true.
Thanks
Ye nws
W metric spaces ig you can also replace the set of radii with just like some (positive) sequence going to 0
by the same logic
This probably proves second countability of metric spaces iff separable
Yeah ig this is an ingredient in it
It shows that metric spaces are first countable anyway
P(V) is the projective space of V, and P(E) is the projective bundle of E. Why does having natural isomorphisms P(V) -> P(V otimes W) imply that there is an isomorphism P(E) -> P(E otimes L)? Namely, how do we know the map between bundles we get is continuous?
This is an old book 
if there is a nowhere-vanishing section $\sigma : X \to L$ then there is an isomorphism $\varphi : P(E) \to P(E \otimes L)$ defined by $\varphi(e) = e \otimes \sigma(p(e))$ where $p : L \to X$ is the projection. i.e. we just need to make some continuous choice of nonzero elements in each fiber of $L$. On the other hand, a line bundle with a nowhere-vanishing section is trivial, so my map $\varphi$ is basically too rigid of a construction
kxrider
If S^3 is the unit sphere and is written as S^3 = {(x, y) \in \mathbb{C}^2 | |x|^2 + |y|^2} = 1}, and M = {(x, 0) | |x|^2 = 1} and N = {(0, y) | |y|^2 = 1} are the intersections of S^3 with the x/y axes in \mathbb{C}^2, why is the fundamental group of S^3 \ M equal to Z (the integers) ?
why no latex lol
If $S^3$ is the unit sphere and is written as $S^3 = {(x, y) \in \mathbb{C}^2 ~|~ |x|^2 + |y|^2 = 1}$, and $M = {(x, 0) ~|~ |x|^2 = 1}$ and $N = {(0, y) ~|~ |y|^2 = 1}$ are the intersections of $S^3$ with the $x/y$ axes in $\mathbb{C}^2$, why is the fundamental group of $S^3 \setminus M$ equal to $\mathbb{Z}$ ?
mrean
I imagine S^3 \ M deformation retracts onto N
you're saying there exists a (onto) continuous map r: S^3 \ M -> A that restricts to the identity on A ? In that case the there's a homomorphism between the fundamental groups of S^3 \ M and A induced by the injection j: A -> X.
how would that even help tho because that's only a homomorphism not an isomorphism
A deformation retraction induces an isomorphism on fundamental groups
What you described is just a retraction
Lol
The homomorphism Z -> Z is multiplication by 2pi
Oh ig makes sense but badly written
Anyway
The second paragraph claims A is homeo to D^2 x S^1 which is already enough
Lmao
this one actually looks right
well hmm did it get the complement wrong
yeah wtf chatgpt you suck
Ok time for actual solution
$r_t: S^3 \setminus M \to N$ defined by
$$ r_t(x, y, z, w) = (\sqrt{1 - t^2}x, \sqrt{1 - t^2}y, z, w) $$
for each $t \in [0, 1]$ should be a deformation retract. Moreover, $N = S^1$ by the map $(0, 0, z, w) \mapsto (z, w)$ so $\pi_1(S^3 \setminus M) = \pi_1(N) = \mathbb{Z}$
mrean
is this right @unreal stratus
image of which one
oh damn it
so you're saying sometimes points (x, y, z, w) in the image are in M, i.e., x^2 + y^2 = 1 holds
also yeah it should be r_t: S^3 \ M -> S^3 \ M not r_t: S^3 \ M -> N
For a point (sqrt(1 - t^2) x, sqrt(1 - t^2) y, z, w) in the image
(sqrt(1 - t^2) x)^2 + (sqrt(1 - t^2) y)^2 = (1 - t^2) (x^2 + y^2) = 1 can never happen, because (1 - t)^2 < 1 so we would need x^2 + y^2 > 1, right?
@unreal stratus
I'm lowkey not sure why we can't just use like 1 - t tho
No i'm not saying that lol
I meant that for example like
if x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + w^2 = 1
then (1-t^2)x^2 + y^2 + z^2 + w^2 < 1 typically
ohh
ok from now on I write (z, w) (two complex numbers) instead of (x, y, z, w)
damn this is hard uhh
ok are u even sure S^3 \ M deformation retracts onto N lol @unreal stratus
No but I bet it does, honestly not thought about it much tho
But identifying the complement w smth more tractable may be a good start idk
Cry
still can't come up with the deformation retract 😭
Wait @unreal stratus I just realized
why do we need the homotopy to be a deformation retract
doesn't homotopy equivalence between path-connected spaces in general mean that their fundamental group are isomorphic?
I think it’s just that the most obvious homotopy equivalence is a deformation retraction
hmm
wait
there's this observation
Every $p$ not on $M$ or $N$ is uniquely expressible as $p=\cos(\theta)m+\sin(\theta)n$ for points $m\in M$, $n\in N$ and convex angle $\theta\in[0,\frac{\pi}{2}]$, i.e., all $p$ lie on an arc between points of $M$ and $N$.
mrean
so close
as a hint i think you might be overthinking
either that or im underthinking 
not sure how to share my idea w/o just giving away the answer
basically, the trick with constructing maps into spheres is to try to construct a map f into R^n - {0} (or C^n - {0} in our case) having roughly the properties you want, then define g(x) = f(x)/||f(x)||
anybody have a clue as to prove the following?
Suppose we are given two basepoint-preserving maps from S^n to a space Z that agree on a disk A containing the basepoint p. Then if the two maps define the same element of pi_n(Z), they are homotopic by a homotopy that stays fixed on A.
Ive tried viewing the homotopy induced by equality in pi_n(Z) as a cylinder by viewing S^n as D^n with del D^n corresponding to the base point and A corresponding to an annulus in D^n. But i dont think that gives an obvious homotopy
uh if I have the map go into a bigger space it's no longer a def. retract
if you have a map into R^n - {0}, then you have a map into a sphere by dividing out by the norm like i did to define g
is it a def. retract tho
hm probably
ok so you're saying to find a homotopy between S^3 \ M and C^2 - {0} ?
and then divide out the norm
yeah, the goal is the same: find a deformation retract of S^3 \ M onto N, but instead of "trying to get things right on the nose", you find a homotopy into C^2 - {0} and then divide out by the norm to get the answer
I've only dealt with homotopy equivalence between maps/paths
finding maps f and g between S^3 \ M and N such that f \circ g and g \circ f are homotopic to the identity map seems like a way more daunting task
you don't have to do that
you just need this
minus the F(a, 1) = a part?
depending on your definition, you might only need F(a,1) \in A, and for our purposes, this suffices
the map i have in mind does satisfy F(a,1) = a
I just thought that def. retracts had to go from a space to a subspace
and not a subspace to a space
not quite sure what u mean by that
I asked this because the addition of the F(a, 1) = a condition turns F from just a homotopy into a def. retract no?
okay, yes, i agree
the whole idea with those conditions is that it is equivalent to there being a map
r : X -> A such that ri = id_A and ir homotopic to \id_X
where i : A -> X is the inclusion
right ok
so really the homotopy (that I construct, of course it is invertible) should be from F(x, t): S^3 x [0, 1] -> (S^3 \ M)
and this you're saying is easy to construct to be a def. retract
should be from (S^3 \ M) x [0,1]
how's that a def. retract then
.
oh
was this what you had in mind
okay i get your confusion i think. We have a retraction r : X -> A. This does map onto a smaller subspace, but by "deformation retraction", I am referring to the homotopy we have to construct to show that r is a homotopy equivalence. namely, the homotopy of ir with id_X
yes, this was my answer to your MSE question
yes
coolio
now let me think why this works
wait uhh
@little hemlock
shouldn't f_0 be the identity
f_1 is the identity in my construction. homotopy is a symmetric relation, i.e. you can replace the "t"s with "1-t"'s if you prefer
Ok I see
so those are the family of maps if you want the homotopy from N into S^3 \ M
and replacing "t" with "1-t" is the same as reversing the maps, i.e., the resulting family is a construction in the other direction
hm no that's not quite what I mean. I'm just saying that if a map f is homotopic to g via a homotopy F such that F_0 = f and F_1 = g, then there is also a homotopy G such that G_0 = g and G_1 = f given by G(t) = F(1-t)
ok I'm mixing up definitions sorry
so it doesn't matter that f_0 is the identity or f_1 is the identity as long as one of them is the identity, and the other is a retraction
do you know what the "class" of a subspace means in a fundamental group
the fundamental group is an equivalence class of loops at some basepoint
so the "class" of a subspace doesn't really make sense to me
yea i don't think i've heard that before. i would need more context
There's another question in this problem that asks "What is the class of M in π_1(S^3 \ M) = Z ?
strange, im not sure what that could mean
Oh hmm looks like that's a term to be defined next lecture
bumping my bundle question 
The point here is that you're trying to get an isomorphism between the projective bundles
yes
so your map is basically correct in a certain sense
in that over any subset on which L is trivial it works
Or okay like here is the point: cover X by subsets U_i where U is locally trivial and take some section s of L
then you can define, on the level of ur usual bundles, isomorphisms E -> E (x) L on the preimages of the U_i by doing x |-> x (x) s
this map is given by w_i for some w_i in the fibers of L
and when we pass to the projective bundles its an isomorphism P(w_i) : E -> E (x) L over U_i, right?
yes
so if L is non-trivial it is impossible to choose all the w_i such that their induced isomorphisms agree on intersections and hence patch together to an isomorphism E -> E (x) L
But! On U_i cap U_j, P(w_i) = P(w_j)
hence on the projective bundles the P(w_i) are a bunch of isomorphisms that agree on intersections, and hence patch to an isomorphism P(E) -> P(E (x) L)
this is what they were trying to express by the existence of a "natural" isomorphism between the projective spaces
ohhh
like u can think of the non-triviality of ur line bundle as an expression of the non-naturality of the isomorphism on the fibers and what this is saying is that when you pass to the projective bundles everything is identified so it works out
np
i hope it was coherent i woke up like 10 minutes ago and didnt get out of bed to get my glasses so i can barely read what either of us are saying 
well, i can't 100% confirm because its 6am and i still haven't slept 
Let X and Y be smooth manifolds. Is there a (natural, whatever this means) smooth structure on $C^\infty(X,Y)$ such that $C^\infty(point,Y)$ is naturally isomorphic to $Y$ as a smooth manifold?
Finitely Many Bananas
If we were working with topological spaces, then the topological space structure would be given by putting the compact open topology on the set of cts maps X --> Y
I'm wondering if doing so is possible in the category of smooth manifolds
I think as soon as X and Y are infinite you get spaces which cannot be homeomorphic locally to Rn (like X=Y=R) so you might have to look towards infinite dimensional manifolds
MyMathYourMath
then abelianize it to find that $H_1(K)= \Bbb{Z} \times \Bbb{Z}_2$?
MyMathYourMath
lol i assume that is a typo but ye i think that is the presentation for it
so im GIVEN that the Klein bottle is generated by $\langle a,b : aba^{-1}b=1 \rangle$
MyMathYourMath
and using this i need to determine the group in question
Is this the so called right hand rule? 😮
does this make sense @unreal stratus
well lol
The question seems just to be a ytpo
But uh
since $aba^{-1}b=1 \Rightarrow b^2a=a \Rightarrow b^2=1$
MyMathYourMath
I assume what you mean is like
pi1(klein bottle) is isomorphic to <a,b | aba^-1 b>
yes
exactly
and so i have to determine that group based on the relation
but if $b^2=1$ then $b$ is an element of $\Bbb{Z}_2$ no?
MyMathYourMath
well the only group where all elements have the property that
MyMathYourMath
is z mod 2
no it isn't, the trivial group also has that
ah shux
such groups are called 2-groups
there are many such groups
obvious examples are (Z/2Z)^n
But also like lol
asking if b "is an element of Z/2Z" is just kinda nonsensical to me idk
idk how else to attack this exercise 😦
should i get a condition on a as well to determine
the group it is
well you just work out the presentation as you suspected
like you have b^2 =1, then figure out how a and b interact
and then conclude
ahh ok
then i need another contition on a
and see how they interact as youbve mentioned
i'm probably just missing something but i don't get how you concluded that b^2*a = a here
i did this
wait i forgot what i did but it checked out
i do have this
$ba^{-1}=(ba)^{-1}$
MyMathYourMath
well that looks true but i'm not sure it implies anything useful
this is wrong @pseudo coral
let $a = (12), b = (123)$ in $S_3$ \
then $aba^{-1}b = 1$, but $b^2 \neq 1$
bee
...although wait hang on a second
our goal is to find the abelianisation of this group right? (i only vaguely know what homology is but you said at some point that that's what you're going to do)
Right yeah they are looking for homology, so they are abelianizing pi1 which should immediately give ‘em what they want
can't we just use this presentation to find a presentation of the abelianisation by adding that everything commutes with everything else
(Sorry for interrupting)
and then it all becomes trivial because then aba^{-1}b really is b^2
algebra in topology channel lol
got hacked
our goal is to find pi1 of K then abelianize it
is "pi1 of K" the thing with a presentation of $\langle a,b : aba^{-1}b = 1\rangle$ or is that something else?
bee
yes
...what exactly would "finding" that mean then?
like, we've described it up to isomorphism in a relatively simple way, and we have enough information to abelianise it pretty easily
then i think thats what he wants us to do
abelianize that group
so mod out by its commutator
bumping this
i mean that their restrictions to that disk are the same
No i mean like when you say "a disk"
Do you mean like a small closed ball about that point (in the metric on S^n)
oh, D^n viewed as disk on the surface of S^n
Ofc you need some restrictions like being small (i.e. not the entire sphere)
But sure
so like an upper hemisphere for example
Sure
In particular im looking at this stackexchange post: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1837247/x-y-is-finite-where-x-is-finite-connected-cw-complex-and-y-has-finite-h
One of the comments quotes the "elementary fact": Lemma: Suppose we are given two basepoint-preserving maps from S^n to a space Z that agree on a disk D^n containing the basepoint. Then if the two maps define the same element of pi_n(Z), they are homotopic by a homotopy that stays fixed on D^n.
but i dont really see why its true lol
Yes, the space of smooth maps from X to Y turns an infinite dimensional manifold.
The most basic structure called a smooth structure is just a notion of tangent vectors. The tangent space to a particular map from X to Y is the space of sections over X of the pullback of the tangent bundle of Y. In particular, if you have a smooth family of maps, its derivative is such a thing. There are more refined notions of an infinite dimensional smooth manifold, but this is the important part
Oh, I guess I should specify a topology first. The space of smooth functions on X is a Frechet space, where convergence is given by convergence on all derivatives. There is an obvious generalization to when the target is Y. This space is a manifold locally iso to a frechet space
But the tangent vectors are more important
I'm not really familiar with infinite dimensional manifolds
Is there a way to realize the set of smooth functions from X to Y as a smooth manifold?
When I said smooth structure, I was referring to compatible charts to Euclidean space
Yes, the topological space of smooth maps is locally isomorphic to a topological vector space, namely the tangent space (which I described above). In general, if you know the tangent space, you should exponentiate tangent vectors to get everything. If X is compact, you can do this. If not, it’s still true that it’s locally iso to a topological vector space, but it’s harder to prove and not as useful as just playing around with vectors
Sorry I'm not really sure I understand what you mean
What charts do you use on the space of smooth functions from X to Y?
And do you still use the compact open topology?
What are the open sets in this topology?
No, not the compact open topology
What is topology on smooth functions with values in R? Look up frechet spaces
pretty much never, no. If you enlarge the category you're working in to include Frechet manifolds then the set of smooth maps from X to Y is a Frechet manifold, when X is compact
if you want to remove the compactness assumption on X then you need to enlarge your category again to something like diffeological spaces
where is the dontus???!?!?!?!?!
You can take a look at Kriegl's and Michor's The Convenient Setting of Global Analysis if you're interested in smooth mappings between manifolds.
Can anyone give me a hint on this problem?
Let $X \subseteq R^{n+1}$ be the union of the infinite sequence of spheres $S_k^n$ of radius $1/k$ and center $( 1 / k , 0 , \dots, 0 )$ . Show that $\pi_i(X) = 0$ for $i < n$.
OmnipresentCoffee
i think this is a compactness moment
Wait, wouldn't i=0, n=1 of this claim be saying the hawaiian earring is simply connected?
Hm not quite right (like showing it's path connected)
Argh. The numbering of the homotopy groups always confuses me.
ermmmm... wtf homology?
but like actually im looking at my notes and im so confused
we've been using massey but maybe i'll independently switch to hatcher
i have that given some chain complex, H(C) depends on the kernel of the boundary map into it some C_n and the image of a boundary map out of it
is that a correct statement?
This is what my prof said
i mean the definition is a quotient group of kernel and image
ok perhaps a random question
but how do chains come up in the wild, like what's the motivation
this sorta helps
what's the question
Chains give you homology, which has many applications. you can get topological invariants, knot invariants, etc out of a homology theory
maybe give some context on what homology theory you're currently learning about
then we might be able to provide examples and context
well this is the question i was looking at but then i realized i havent understood as much as id thought from lectures
so i was just going back to remind myself of definitions and general notions
Do you want help with definitions or motivation
this question is definition unpacking and diagram chasing
https://www.3blue1brown.com/blog/exact-sequence-picturebook
try reading it, gives a little visual for homology
You essentially just draw the diagram and "chase" an element around to try to prove ker \subset im and im \subset ker
so you can think of homology as the "defect" of something being "nice"
So pick an element in ker f_*, try to show there is something which maps to it by \partial by using the exactness of the SES, which will appear in your diagram somewhere
question in computing the fund group of klein bottle given the presentation aba^-1b=1
I saw somwhere they consider the subgroup A generated by a and B the subgroup generated by B then A is clearly normal if you shuffle the equation up just a tad
and they got that the fund group is the semi direct product of Z with itself? i dont see this
any help
ok so try cutting and pasting on aba'b to get the form x²y²
the reduction should follow
whato do you mean by cut and past aba^-1b to get x^2y^2
and how does x^2y^2 become the semi direct product of z with itself
have you done the exercises where you change the presentation of a surface form one to another
nope this is the first hw in this section
ex Klein bottle can be represented by aba'b as well as x²y²
ok so somehow i need to get from aba^-1b=1 to x^2y^2
any reason why youre using x and y and not a and b
not really just not to get a clash of notation
ahh ok
using this representation, G=<a,b | a²b²>
now change the base to a, ab and see what do you get
I was so confused 😭
this follows from the classification of compact surfaces, they are either T²#...#T² or P²#...#P²
sounds big but actually not that hard to prove
lol yeah
on our exam we just had to state that theorem not prove it
so c is a point not on the line that is a nor the line that is b right? like in the picture of things
or a line i should say
anyway, x=a, y= ab then a²b²=x² (x'y)²=y² so the relation reduces to
G=<x,y | y²> which is the fund group
now to get H1, abelianise which gives Z×Z2
c is the line you cut across
I'm too lazy to explain this now, refer to John M lee
the topological mani or smooth mani text
you just cut along one diagonal and attach either on a or b
the xi are all the same--this was from an exercise in hatcher on how identifying edges of \Delta^3 deformation retracts onto a Klein bottle
did you mean G = < x,y : x^2y^2 >
oh i see what u did
what's an intuition behind the profinite topology
what did you mean by this
homology usually measures something
in a topological setting we can think of that as holes
H_n being non trivial means we have an "n-dimensional hole"
we can think of this as measuring the failure of our space to be contractible
If your chain complex is exact all homology groups are trivial
what is an n dimensional hole
i put it into "" for a reason it's not something that's rigorously defined
yeah but what is it intuitively
a hole
for example S^1 and S^2 have different kinds of "holes"
one way you can think of chain complexes in top is that a "chain having 0 boundary then it encloses a region", which is not always true like S¹, the S¹ itself is a cycle which do not enclose a solid region. The homology measures such defect, when a region with 0 boundary fails to enclose a region.
this works out nicely with visual intuition when looking at simplicial homology
that's exactly the quotient
(chains which are cycles)/(chains which encloses a region)
i recommend working through some examples
and this is the ker/im quotient
any suggestions 
yes you want to kill stuff that does enclose a region
yes
some simple simplicial complexes helped me with this
it might not be the best idea for me to just dump an entire homology theory on you
isn't 2 here just the transitive part of 3?
your course will probably cover a certain one as soon as the foundations are laid
yeah this homework doesnt seem too bad, at least compared to how confused i felt in lectures
note though that there are (even nice) spaces with trivial homology that are not contractible
such as...?
indeed i should have added that
moore space for A_5
is contractibility gonna keep coming up?
basically 1-dim connected cw complex with fundamental group A_5
by pontryagin the 1st homology will be the abelianization, which is then 0
all higher homology groups are 0 for dimension reasons
and 0-th one is Z for unreduced and 0 for reduced homology
not an intuition but a motivation would be in Galois theory where infinite galois extensions are equipped with the profinite top of all its finite extensions called the Krull topology which gives a nice association with subgroups with subfields which holds for infinite extensions
yeah that's where my question comes from actually lmao
I want to show that Gal(L/K) is a topological group
equipped with the krull topology
so I have to show that multiplication and inversion are continuous
ok last silly question and forgive the terrible wording, but where do chains come from? like do we take a given space X and consider a chain of subspaces?
but I'm not sure what open sets there are
also just for my own saneness, when we say that G x G -> G is continuous, we mean that the fiber of an open set in G is an open set in the product topology of G x G?
yes but fiber is not a correct terminology, use preimage
when is fiber more appropriate?
singular chains?
inverse image of a single point

im asking what kind of object A,B,C might be in 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 or something like that
oh chain complexes?
abelian groups, R-modules, vector spaces, etc
im gonna assume that in the context of alg. top theyre abelian groups? 
fiber sounds cooler tho
Sure, abelian groups is common
for homology yes they are free abelian groups on n chains
they can be defined in any abelian category
definitely
but you can do the connecting homomorphism for ses -> les w just homological algebra
no, of course they are objects in a stable infinity category

abstract nonsense go brr...
or D(N)
don't know what these are
they're the thing triangulated categories should have been


since we're on this topic
quotients in higher algebra are weird
or i guess just homotopy theory in general, you already get this with just cones as homotopy quotients
if you have f : X -> X, then the induced map X/f -> X/f by f need not be zero
but it turns out that the square of the induced map is always 0
so like in spectra, which are the infty-cat analogue of abelian groups where you replace Z with the sphere spectrum S, if you look at S/2, then multiplication by 2 is nonzero
the proof of this is surprisingly easy
if the map were 0, you would get a decomposition of S/2 ⊗ S/2 as S/2 + suspension of S/2 from the cofiber sequence, which would imply that the F_2-homology of S/2 ⊗ S/2 decomposes as module over the steenrod algebra, which you can just directly compute cannot happen
anyways this stuff is fun
does anyone have this meme of jacob lurie with a gun that says something like "Read Higher Algebra. I'm not asking anymore"
maybe this
found it
MyMathYourMath
uhh idts
i think you just get the free abelian group on 2 generators
i.e. Z x Z
What obstructions other than dimensionality is there to embedding a manifold with a (finite) CW structure into another manifold with a (finite) CW structure
then how come the first homology group of kelin bottle is Z x Z_2 :/
If $G$ is a topological group admiting a transitive action on some compact space $X$, is it true that $G$ has to be compact? (is it true if we impose further conditions on $G$ or $X$?)
MisterSystem
the fundamental group of the klein bottle is not the free group on two generators (thats the fundamental group of S1 v S1)
is it Z x Z??
(I guess any group acts transitvely on the one point space and you can similarly get stuff for other finite spaces like GL_n(R) acting on {1,-1} where A flips the sign if det A < 0 and fixes it otherwise? Or am I being silly?)
Like I imagine there are many examples which are less trivial than that but idk
hmmm
(And then the first can be extended to nontrivial actions if you take products with smth noncompact and let that act trivially and stuff like that)
I was trying to think of a way to prove that O(n) is compact by exploiting its action on S^n.
Oh lol well that is easier
Yeah, there's a way to do this by showing it is bounded and closed in R^n²
using e.g
Okay I guess you don't want an alternative argument and want it in terms of actions
Yeah
the fact that orthogonal matrices have operator norm equal to 1
Ye
and a limit of orthogonal matrices being orthogonal
Ye
Anyway so uh hm in terms of actions is interesting
O(n)/O(n-1) is homeomorphic to a sphere and I imagine that should let you do it
Like take a net in O(n), it gives you a subnet net in O(n)/O(n-1) convergent to some point, then lift it to a net in O(n) and use compactness of O(n-1) to get yet another subnet
Oh, you get O(n-1) as the stabilizer at some point x of S^n of the action of O(n), right?
okie
I think this should do it
Ye
So again what’s the fund group of the Klein bottle lol it has to be a group whose abelianization is Z x Z2
<a, b | aba^{-1}b>
is that associated with a known group
like Z x Z orrrr
ahh so its just the group generated by a b such that aba^-1b = 1 and thats that?
why Z x Z is what you wrote
why the fundamental group of the klein bottle is what i wrote
i can see it pictorially
does modding out give b^2=1
yeah i think so
thx! i may be back when im typsetting the solution if i get stuck again!
god bless this discord server
you can also think of this as a semidirect product: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Semidirect_product#Fundamental_group_of_the_Klein_bottle
after all to the well organised mind
Hi, im slightly confused what the question is trying to say. Is it right that Vn+1 is another closed subset in Vn and Vinf is the intersection of a collection of closed subset Vn of X ? Thank you.
the statement is quite precise. It's just a nested sequence of closed sets $V_1\supseteq V_2\supseteq V_3\supseteq V_4\supseteq\cdots$ and you want to show that $\bigcap_{n=1}^\infty V_n$ is non-empty
Croqueta
I'm not sure what your question is tbh
if you just have a sequence of closed sets in X, then the statement is obviously false (generally speaking)
ie you want to show that there exists an x such that x in V_n for all n
Ah i see, I just dont see the picture at first . Thanks
Hello I need your help guys
If E is a real vector space, C is a convex subset of E, and x is a point in C, we say that x is an extreme point of C if C \ {x} is convex.
Here, we consider the space E of continuous functions from [0, 1] to R. Determine the extreme points of the closed unit ball in E for the norm of convergence in the mean, for the norm of convergence in the mean square, and for the norm of uniform convergence.
I struggle with product and coproduct proofs, an example i am working through is in the category of open sets on a space x.
The product would then be defined as the intersection and the coproduct as the union. Then if I have two continuous functions f and g going from c to U and V respectively i need to come up with a (unique) function h from c to U\capV.
To do this i think i have to set h(w)=(f(w),g(w)) to make the diagram commute. But i fail to understand how the projection map works in this example since we only have a single set so the product notation confuses me. But if we need a single function I dont know how to guarantee that f(w)=g(w) on the intersection to make h(w) well defined (cus from the definition they dont seem to require this, or do they?)
you can't consider arbitrary functions. you have to consider morphisms in the category
you're mixing up two different categories i think
when people say "the category of open sets on a space" it's implied that Hom(U, V) has a single element (the inclusion map) if U is a subset of V, else Hom(U,V) is empty if U is not contained in V
When you talk about h, f, g in this scenario, these variables are supposed to range across these inclusions.
If you were talking about the category of all topological spaces and continuous functions then h, f, g could range across arbitrary continuous functions but then as a result the product would be different, it wouldn't be the intersection
Yes that makes sense
And that also messes up the well defined issue i had
Since the inclusions must agree on the intersection
Thanks!
how can one show that a particular sequence of points in a topological space X will converge in every possible metric of X?
(it's unknown whether X is metrizable)
If X is not metrizable then what do you mean by “converge in every possible metric”
well its not known whether it is
Wait lol I'm confused
well the statement "every possible metric" is a bit unprecise
what i more so mean is
if we were to assign an arbitrary metric on X
Converging in a metric which induces the topology is equivalent to converging in the space (as a topological space) anyway
Like
but we're not assuming the metric here induces the topology
we're just ascribing a metric on X treated as a set
Well then saying "metrisable" isn't precise
What’s your question exactly! Rephrase it
sure
we have a topological space X, and it's unknown whether it's metrizable
my guess is that it isn't
in order to show this, I want to demonstrate a particular sequence of points that will always converge (trivially to the same point) given any metric ascribed to X
however, i will simultaneously show that this point cannot be the limit of this sequence in the topology on X that is already given
thereby showing its not metrizable
Hm that doesn't seem a very effective strategy
Like with the discrete metric, only the (eventually) constant sequences converge
And you can do perturbations of that metric too
If you are free to choose the metric the giving it the discrete one just forces the sequence to be eventually constant
Usually you wanna check stuff like normality / Hausdorffness etc
hm this is true
yeah this is generally the strategy for showing that a space isnt metrizable
the one that im working with here is normal but not compact
what is teh space if i may ask
Like we may be able to give better hints or whatever if you'd like
hm i wanted to phrase my question more generally so that i can think of the specifics myself
but sure, the space in question is the infinite broom
Lol
no
I mean it's a subspace of R^2
Why
the topology that's ascribed is such that the open sets are unions of sets that are open in each of the lines of the broom
It’s literally written a subspace of Euclidean space
So what you're talking about isn't the standard infinite broom then
i thought that it was?
but this^ is the definition im working with
Sure
an explicit example of a set thats not open in the subspace topology but is in our definiton
Think that gives you the Euclidean metric?
would be like
segments that are decreasing
u take each line in the infinite broom and take a segment of it
that gets smaller and smaller
(open segments)
if we're treating it as a subspace of R2, yes but it's not given the topology we've defined on it
ah hm
i realized ive been approaching it wrong
i was taking the sequence a priori, and then trying to show that it converges in every metric
but what i should do instead is take a metric a priori, and demonstrate a sequence that doesnt converge in it
can i have a hint for 4-18 (a)? my instinct is that i only have to find charts for points within the “adjunction” part; points in the interior of M1 and M2 already have charts since M1 and M2 are manifolds
Your intuition is correct
Consider what ("small") eighbourhoods of the boundary points look like
/theorem of engel
can we use f as our chart homeomorphism?
$\mathcal{U} \in \mathcal{O}{\text{standard}} \Leftrightarrow \forall p\in \mathcal{U} :\exists r\in \mathbb{R}^{+} :B{r}( p) \subseteq \mathcal{U}$
berketozlu
about this statement
the points at the boundaries of U are not included, right?
B is an open ball
since, the balls would be out of the U
how do we write down the points at the boundaries of the set U?
Like $\partial U$?
UwUChad
Or am I not understanding the question
yeah, i didn't understand when we we write p \in U, it is the elements in the set U, but how the elements of partialU is related to the U in the same notation?
Well \partial U is defined as the set of all boundary points
And a boundary point $x$ is defined as $\forall r>0 B(x,r) \cap U \neq \emptyset$ and $B(x,r) \cap U^c \neq \emptyset$
UwUChad
ah thanks, this is what I was asking basically
the boundary set can be written as the closure of U minus the interior of U if you're familiar with these concepts
so you cant really pick points in the boundary when testing if its open
i see
i've seen the defns but this is my first time studying it..
thank you both, i'll check them more in detail
For this the closure is the set union its limit points
This is where limit point comes in…
what does $H_{*}(C)$ usually denote in the context oh homology, where C is a chain complex
not sebbb not stμ₂dying
Well the homology of a chain complex forms another chain complex which may be denoted thusly
"which may be denoted thusly"
sorry potat id never heard that phrase lol
all love 
i need to review my definitions though, i dont know enough to ask proper questions yet
Thusly is a dope word
yes i am aware
i mean apparently it was coined like by people trying to seem smart since thus is already an adverb
Ah lol
Now that i have caught your attention
I have to prove that, given a manifold M, if U is an open subset of M, with its induced topology U is also a manifold
Let me outline my proof
Idk if it's legal or not lol
Given that M is a manifold there exists a set of charts {(U_a, f_a)} that cover U. Denoting t as the induced topology on U, taking the intersections of all V_a in t with the U_a's should give me a set {(U'_a, f_a)} with the U'_a open. Thus, this set would define an atlas on U which turns it into a manifold.
Does this work?
It's an abelian category and by def all Hom sets are equipped with an addition structure
i.e. you can add maps. Think of it in R-mod, f,g ∈ Hom_R(M,N) then (f+g)(x)=f(x)+g(x). It's basically that but in a abelian category
you can just replace abelian category by R-mod
you need to fill the details why those charts should be compatible
It's a slightly more roundbout that it needs to be. You can just intersect each U_a with U itself.
You many need to do a bit more footwork if you find that U_a intersect U = U_b intersect U for some a,b, but the trouble is mostly notational -- e.g. you can just drop one of them.
also i found this cute thing recently...
instead of defining your abelian cat to have hom-sets as abelian groups you can actually recover this by assuming certain morphisms in your category are isos.
if you assume your category has a finite products and coproducts and that the map A + B --> A x B given by the identity matrix is an isomorphism, i.e. you have biproducts. then you can define an operation on Hom(A, B). given f,g: A --> B, look at the composite
A --> A⊕A--> B⊕B --> B
where first map is the diagonal, second is f⊕g and third is codiagonal/sum map.
so this way your hom-sets are (commutative) additive semi-groups.
if you assume your cat has a 0-object then hom-sets are automatically pointed sets and that the 0 morphism is 0 in the semi-gropu making it an abelian monoid.
finally if you assume that the map A⊕A --> A⊕A given by the matrix (1, 1\0, 1) is this also an iso for all A. then you get that these abelian monoids are actually abelian groups.

noice
i find this nicer because it makes me feel like the definition of abelian category is less artificial lol
assuming you need (1, 1 \ 0, 1) to define the inverse
That step still smells slightly of artifice.
yea that's just a weird way to ask for a map i : A --> A such that 1+i = 0
but the point was that, we can describe these axioms just by asking some weird class of morphisms are isos
and the last axiom is that if further you have kernels and cokernels, then natural map coimage --> image is an iso
I see
inverse of this would be (1, i \ 0, 1) as you can expect 
And if you want an inverse for a general f: A --> B, you simply compose it with an inverse of one of the identities for A or B?
yep
i should've mentioned that the way you define the operation is automatically then compatible with composition
so treating a map like Matrix just refers back to the elements of A
so aren't we going back to underlying elements?
nah, we didn't mention elements at all
a map from a coproudct of A_i to a product of B_j is just a collection of maps f_ij : A_i --> B_j
i'm just putting them nicely in a matrix
because if you define the addition like above, then composition of maps like you can expect is just matrix multiplication
there are lots of tiny details to check
but it was quite surprising for me that how little your axioms are asking and how much structure is automatically induced
also another advantage of such a definition is that, you don't need to ask a question like "does the same category admit different abelian category structure by possibly changing the abelian group structure of the hom-sets"
cause the structure can be defined intrinsically, its not some extra data

yeah this feels like a more natural way to define Ab Cats ngl

where did you read it from?

i've come to think of the freyd mitchell theorem in reverse now
earlier i used to think that if you wanna prove something in an abelian category, you can pretend you're in some R-mod and do stuff
but now i feel like, it should be said as, if you're proving something general enough for R-mods, then you might as well work in an abelian category and use more categorical tools
well I like element chasing 
chase generalized elements 


like for example if you develop homological algebra by doing everything for abelian cats, you only have to do it once for projectives/injectives, and then appeal to the opposite category
and another cool thing is that the functor categories A^J are also abelian
so for example arrow category of A, Ar(A) is abelian and if A has enough injectives, so so does Ar(A)
and clearly Ar(R-mods) isn't naturally a R'-mod for some R'
so abstraction is uwu

true
so the same theory lets do somethign stronger, if A --> B is a morphism, then you can find compatible projective/injective resolutions directly!
can i get a hint on this
i tried the obvious thing but it didnt work
it's hard to explain without a diagram though...
do you have a more concrete example by any chance
nvm got it
Lol ye where is homological algebra meant to go
Actually, it is for R’ upper triangular 2x2 matrices
oooh really?

so like if M is a module over that matrix ring, do we recover the stuff by looking at E11 * M and E22 * M?
quick question
oh no
well if that's visible enough
are the d_A and d_B "the same"
No
right ok
in the answer here how come they are kinda treated the same
for ease
Thanks!
What does it mean for two charts to be compatible?
when rewriting the f1 - f2 the answer uses the same d in ds + sd
shouldnt it be like d's + sd
Wait I’m at a bar rn so I can’t look into details properly
On my phone for a second
Thanks!
Would i really need to drop one if all i wanted was to prove the existence of an atlas for U?
Depends on exactly how your atlas formalism has been set up.
oh, i should think of it like a quiver then the triangular matrix thing would just be the path algebra right 
Sometimes an atlas is a set of U's and exactly one map into E^n for each.
Sometimes an atlas is juset a set of maps, each from some open subset into E^n.
Looking at E11 and E22 gets you a module over diagonal matrices, which is a module over RxR, which is two modules, the source and target. The action of E12 gives you the arrow
Right
oh ok, depends on the definition i would be working with
Yes.
i'm following nakara and "gauge fields, knots and gravity" by john baez. that was exercise 4 
homology is weird man
ok stupid question because i cant make sense of these definitions
what am i being asked here with respect to H_*(C)
i know what chains are and what a free abelian group is
well its asking you to compute H_n(C)
it says to compute it, what do you mean what are you being asked?
i think im just not seeing what a homology group is
or what the point of one is
assigning abelian groups to a topological space just feels kinda random i guess
im reading my textbook again though
this should be defined in any textbook, it's the ker / im of boundary maps
I think the intro to hatcher 2.1 motivates it quite well
i have massey
it starts with some stuff on singular n-cubes
yeah these books take different approaches i think
hatcher is using simplexes and i have cubes I^n
you should still be able to compute the homology just from the bases and boundary maps
like for H_0, ker = C_0 and im = 3C_0 so you get Z/3Z
how come it's 3C_0 though, b isn't in the image
look at what the boundary operator does on the basis elements of C_1, it sends a_1 to 0 and b_1 to 3 a_0
ohhhh my b my b i looked over the defn of C_i for i = 0
ok then for H_1(C)
ker = (a_1)
yes
yeah
:O
^wtf is this <@&268886789983436800>
is this right then? or would it be more accurate to write like (a,b | a_2 - 2b_2 = id)
im also not sure what happens with H_3 if H_2 is trivial
more general concept/understanding questions: what information about the chain do we get from these groups?

What do you mean? The groups are literally built from the maps of the chain.
They give you information about the kernels and images of the maps in the chain
If the homologies are 0 the chain is exact
You can think then of homology as measuring how far your chain is from being exact
im trying to parse what they mean here. I assume by "union of all these", they mean that $H^* = {(a, e) \in P(E) \times E : e \in a}$ and that $H^*$ should be interpreted as some kind of generalization of the tautological line bundle over some projective space?
kxrider
Suppose, for contradiction, that there is a $b_1 \in B$ such that $|p^{-1}({b_1})| = j \neq k$. For each $i \in \mathbb{N}$, let $A_i = { b \in B : |p^{-1}({b})| = i}$. Then $A_i$ is nonempty for $i=j,k$. I then show that $A_j$ and $B \setminus A_j$ form a separation of $B$, contradicting connectedness. What happens if $p^{-1}({b})$ has infinitely many elements for some $b \in B$ though? My argument doesnt consider this and im not sure how to account for it
michαel
If I have that for $G$ a topological group with identity $e$, and $\gamma_1, \gamma_2 \in \pi_1(G,e)$; then $\gamma_1 \cdot \gamma_2$ is homotopic to the pointwise product $t \mapsto \gamma_1(t) \gamma_2(t)$. Is it a one-liner that $\pi_1(G,e)$ is abelian or am I severely overlooking something?
Tubular Cat
because there is a hint on this problem and yet it doesn't feel like it needed one
this helped!
so we have almost exactness here
this is a little obvious in retrospect actually
probably a trivial question, but I’m working through Lee’s top mfds and I fail to see why $a^{-1}$ which I’ve found to be $$a^{-1}: , z \mapsto \frac{ln(z)}{2\pi i}$$ is not continuous.
humefanboy
you could also argue by compactness
like you can rule out the possibility that the two are homeo so no cont. bijective map can have a cont. inverse
i still have trouble visualizing these, cuz each of A B C are their own chains right
This is however before compactness is introduced in Lee, so is there a sort of analytic way to see why that specific map is not continuous?
You can show it isn't an open map
this is the visualization
do you need a translation or is it clear
a translation would probably make me fixate on unnecessary details lol that helps
What do Sequenz and Diagramm mean
which open subset should I focus on?

Also I’ve been able to come up with an example where f is a continuous bijection but not an inverse, though I’m not 100% sure if it works. You take id: X —> X, equip the first with the discrete topology and the second with the trivial topology. For any reasonably big X this should work?
Yes that is good
can you please help me to understand an exercise 😔
It works for any X with more than 1 element
be specific about your questioon
dont ask to ask

try drawing out the map. its essentially stretching out the half open interval into a circle, but the circle isnt "all the way closed"
is there an explicit form of (u_n)? or is it asking to give a counterexample
Wait how are you defining adherent point
Oh okay sure
And then a cluster point is the same but you exclude x ig
That difference should help suggest what kind of sequence to consider
are the delta's in these two diagrams the same?
There are boring examples essentially
No
The deltas in the second are the induced boundary maps
oh so they're just named the same to fuck with me
I’m still not too sure. Like I suspect there’s an issue here, but I cannot pin it down exactly. The image of [0, 1) is just S^1 since the map is surjective if I’m not glossing over something huge
It is fine in the long run
busy potat
focus on neighborhoods of 1 in S^1
Ye it's a slice of it
Oh yeah I see it now, [0, a) is open in [0, 1] but its image isn’t open
Perfect
Another way which doesn't explicitly identify an open set is like
Wair hm
If you consider a path in the circle which loops right twice, say
Then in [0,1) that corresponds to like
Going from 0 up to 1 back to 0 etc
Very discontinuous
does mine not have the same kind of delta then?
or is each A,B, C in my picture also a chain
Oh I see, thanks for the help guys 
It says they are chain complexes
I misread ig but it is still a slice of it kinda
it said SES so i thought A -> B -> C was that SES
OHHHHH
im so dumb
"ses of chain complexes"
the spectral sequence proof of this is very nice, did it recently
@odd flame try reading the 3b1b article I had sent recently about exact sequences
i read part of it but need some more time to really sit through it 
modules exam tomorrow
Then go back to abstract alg, what are you doing here
i'll be there after my class lol

a bleakified version of wanwan would be nice timo :)
Btw is this wanwan from mobile legends?



asking why there arent different boundary maps and instead only d

