#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 24 of 1
Um, you know about the complex plane, right? If you identify C with R² in the usual way, they are not just homeomorphic, but literally the same set.
@odd flame you look at picture yet :)
that's a better picture tbh
and more general too
not yet im writing up my problem first
ok lmk when you do
"define a covering projection"
meanwhile based topologists
"going this way along this edge corresponds to going this way along this circle"
yes

"consider a spherical cow"
buuuut
we are on the topic of topology
so with the nostrils, mouth, and digestive track
the cow is homeomorphic to a three-holed torus
👌
same with us
...
HOLY CRAP WE ARE HOMEOMORPHIC TO COWS
Add apporiately to the genus in case of cosmetic piercings.
HAHSHAHAHHAHH YES
now consider the fact that we are covered in pores
They don't lead anywhere; homotopic to flat skin.
what the fuck 🤠
Note well that your exercise namedrops that group, too.
EXACTLY
oh is that that E in the exercise?
no
same applies to the urinary / reproductive track
In mathematics, a Cayley graph, also known as a Cayley color graph, Cayley diagram, group diagram, or color group is a graph that encodes the abstract structure of a group. Its definition is suggested by Cayley's theorem (named after Arthur Cayley), and uses a specified set of generators for the group. It is a central tool in combinatorial and g...
they're topologically equivalent to the pores
It's the Cayley graph of the free group on two generators.
ah we havent done anything with cayley graphs
here's an intuitive way to see this
Have you done anything with commutator subgroups?
bc the fundamental group has no relations, in the universal cover you shouldn't ever "go back to yourself"
only encountered them in abelianization
so what you do is make a line corresponding to a (first loop), and a line corresponding to b (second loop)
i think he meant @ me but same in any case^
(Was asking Sebb, sorry).
but then from the endpoints you have to do the same thing
and again
and again
without ever bumping into yourself
(you also allow yourself to go backwards)
that's what gives the picture above
yes
going across a corresponds to going across the left copy of circle
going across b corresponds to right copy of circle
and you just repeat that
yes
(i.e. generate the group)
the covering E you saw earlier corresponds to the commutator subgroup <aba^{-1}b^{-1}>
going backwards is the inverse
ye
there is a beautiful theorem about intermediate covers between universal cover and the base space itself and subgroups of the fundamental group
which you'll get to
basically these are in exact bijection
Nota bene: aba^{-1}b^{-1} is the "obstruction" to being simply connected, since this is the loop I pointed out earlier
okay exact bijection is sort of a lie. Exact bijection if you specify basepoints in base space and covering spaces
(otherwise it's a bijection onto conjugacy classes of subgroups)
exercise: find an explicit bijection which serves as the homeomorphism between a cow and a sphere
Hmm, intuitively I would expect "normal subgroups" there, as the kernels of the mediating maps Xtilde -> Y.
But I'm ready to be told that intuition is wrong ...
what does the kernel of a map Xtilde -> Y mean
Sorry, what nonsense. Kernel of the induced map between fundamental groups, I mean.
(I suppose you could mean the fiber of a basepoint in Y, but then that is not a subgroup of the fundamental group)
so kernel of a homomorphism 0 -> Something?
going to not be helpful
Hmm, right.
The bijection on one side is given by
if p : (Y,y) -> (X,x) is a covering map, take p*(pi_1(Y,y))
where p* is the induced map of fundamental groups (so take the image of that)
the inverse to this is quite a complicated construction (especially if you haven't yet built the universal cover)
how does this satisfy the covering projection condition thingy
it's obvious geometrically
that's what im trying to see 
Oohkay. I got myself confused because the universal cover looked like the original fundamental group in this case. 🙃
the disjoit union thing
draw small neighborhoods lol
yes, the fact that this is bijection reverses inclusions is a tricky thing to internalize
a nbhd of just one circle has as preimage a vertical line
Galois theory moment
of the other circle it's a horizonatal line
I don't think so
also one circle isn't open
a finite subset of a vertical like
no I don't think that's right either
the fiber of one circle is going to be all the vertical (or horizontal) lines in E
oh it's all of them
think through what the projection is doing more carefully
that shouldve been obvious my b
you're fine
ok first of all an open set of S1 v S1 is just some finite interval right?
im assuming subspace topology...?
wdym "finite interval"?
embed S^1 v S^1 into the plane so that you can see it better
and then it's easy to see what the open neighborhoods look like visually
Common note: wedge is defined to be the thing you would hope it to be, leverage your visual intuition for R^2
I like that definition!
i mean standard topology on R2 is collection of squares or circles, subspace topology has as basis the intersection of S1 v S1 with those circles
am i misremembering my point set?
yes that's correct
so neighborhoods in S^1 v S^1 look like little crosses at the intersection pt
or like little intervals in a single circle away from intersection pt
not sure i see the crosses but i do see the second thing
like that interval right
then the preimage of that is a like a slice of all the vertical lines that mapped to it
which are all obviously disjoint
the crosses are at the wedge point
this is the covering
its a disjoint union of crosses at Z x Z
what book is this from? i find hatchers treatment on the covering spaces of S1 v S1 is more intuitive (especially when you think of it as a cell complex/graph)
are you familiar with cell complexes?
no lmao
oh hmm
honestly i think hatchers exposition on the covering spaces of S1 v S1 might be helpful for intuition
esp if you think of S1 v S1 and its covering spaces as oriented and labeled graphs with certain properties
looked up an alg topology questio and
bumping my vector bundle question from yesterday
also stuck on this. How are they defining P_x? I'm having trouble figuring out what they might mean by "defined by the metric"
ok, reading on, they write this
i apologize in advance for turning this into a linear algebra problem, but I don't see P_x is an orthogonal projection?
Let $f_1, \dots, f_n$ be a basis for $F_x$. Then
$$P_x^2v = \sum_i h_x(v, f_i) \sum_j h_x(f_i, f_j)f_j.$$
I can see of course that $h_x$ works something like an inner product, but I'm not exactly sure how
kxrider
I'm also not sure what they mean by "orthogonal projection" when we do not have an inner product space
okay, i suppose you can make sense of an "orthogonal basis" w.r.t. some positive definite hermitian form.
so there is an orthogonal projection of E_x onto F_x w.r.t. to this hermitian form, which would be this map
ty kx
actually, wait i just realized, a positive definite hermitian form is literally just an inner product axiom for axiom 
Ye
If X and Y are topological spaces and f:X->Y is a continuous function. Now let X0 in x and Y0 in Y be arbitrary sets with f(X0) in Y0. How can i show that the restriction f’: X0 -> Y0, x->f(x) also is contnuous? Here X0 and Y0 have the subspace topology
I don’t know why but the fact that we also restrict the image confuses me
If I take an arbitrary open set U0 in Y0, then we know that there exists an open set U in Y s.t. U0 = U intersection Y0 right? So i should analyze the preimage of U0 and i get: f’^-1(U0)= f’^-1(U inter Y0) = f^-1(U) intersected f^-1(Y0), this is contained in f’^-1(U) intersected with X0, so this thing here would be open if I can say that f’^-1(U) is open in X right?
Now does this automatically follow from the fact that f is continuos? How can I go from f’ to f? I somehow cant finish this thing
yeah pretty much
your notation is really confusing, let me try to typeset what you meant
This follows from two facts. First, the embedding $X_0\to X$ given by $x\mapsto x$ is continuous. Second, if $f:X\to Y$ is a map with $f(X)\subseteq Y_0\subseteq Y$ and $Y_0$ has subspace topology then the corresponding map $f:X\to Y_0$ also is continuous
Blitz
The first fact, by composition of continuous functions is continuous, tells you that restriction of a continuous map to a subset of domain is continuous
the second allows you to just restrict the codomain after
The first fact is just restatement of what it means for X_0 to have subspace topology
Blitz


one advice id give is when ur stuck on the "why" for stuff like this, try to visualize the question using R^2 with the usual
If you can convince yourself its true there, you might be clued in to how you show this generally.
?
As a helper, please do not give out answers that could be copied as a homework solution. Have the student work through the problem themselves and guide them along the way.
'Basic' perhaps, but they're just starting it afaik 
This looks like an early exercise after learning some defns
'Giving out answers' policy is mostly for people studying calculus and high school students.
Agreed, but the principle of why still applies. It's better for the learning process for them to figure it.
In general I disagree, when someone is stuck it's usually something trivial they just don't see/they're not confident enough about their (usually correct) answer and it's more helpful to just give them the answer.
But here sure, maybe I was cheap about helping them
And let's not forget that people also learn by mimicking others. Seeing few proofs written out like that can be incredibely helpful imo
Sorry guys, didn’t want to create problems, but I mean I did it on my own haha, I just missed something(?) in the last step
I think many would share the opinion that coming up with your own proof is more conducive to learning than learning another's
After all, reading proofs and coming up with proofs are related yet separate skills
This is unrelated to topology at this point
I'm not talking about learning another persons proof but "how it's done" so to speak. Just so that they know how to start
coming up with everything on your own makes you remember it more easily etc. but it can also waste your time
so, there are pros and cons to both, really
alright
Sure but I think its important to clear it up 
What I would do: if I must give the answer or a vital part of, I ||spoiler|| it. ,texsp exists as well.
Yes ppl in advanced channels should be more mature, and it's up to them which they think would be the most beneficial - seeing or figuring it themself.
this is my question from yesterday in part but
what is that image then
faye posted a funny looking picture
it should be the free abelian group on two generators iirc
if you're familiar with universal covers I believe this is just it's abelianization
technically not in the scope of this hw unfortunately
is there another way to see why is this the case then
oh is it just bc pi(E) is abelian(?)
or at least im guessing it’s abelian
and a similar case
i have as my p mapping all circles to left S1 and all line segments to right S1 in the wedge sum
should the images be tje same?
actually i was wrong, it should be the commutator subgroup
of pi_1(wedge of circles)
are you familiar with the galois correspondence?
actually you should be able to get the commutator just by looking at the graph
i would label and orient the edges in E and then look at what you need to get a loop
commutator subgroup = center?
no its like the commutator of g, h is [g, h] = g^-1 h^-1 g h
is this one any more enlightening
or is it also one of these
this will just be Z
there's only one loop at the basepoint
or I guess <a>
if pi_1(S^1 v S^1) is <a,b> with the natural generators
In a mathematical physics class I heard that the wedge product of differential forms is the cup product in alg top. I am wondering if this is true? since the domain of wedge product is on the graded module of differential forms on our space but the cup product has a domain given by cohomology classes?
they are related yes
singular cohomology and de Rham cohomology are isomorphic
under this isomorphism, the cup product corresponds to the wedge product
Perhaps I am misremembering but doesn't the cap product take in two elements on the graded symmetric algebra and not the de rham cohomology.
yes, this is consistent with what I'm saying
cup product is on singular cohomology, if you have a cohomology class which is dual to the class of a submanifold, then cup product with this cohomology class corresponds to intersecting with this submanifold
on the de Rham side you have to think a bit about how to write down differential forms that are dual to the class of a submanifold, Alternatively you can work with currents (think Dirac's delta supported at the submanifold)
in any case the wedge product on the de Rham side should interact in the correct way under intersection of these submanifolds (with the usual transversality assumptions)
I need to just stop procrastinating and just read Bott and Tu I think
Uh what have you shown there, I'm confused
You showed it is nonnegative and conclude it isn't a distance function?
From the distance properties I get that 1>=0 for property d(x,y)>=0.
Where did you get that from?
And why does that lead to a contradiction?
1 >=0 is true im confused
What does "as 1=0" even mean?

does not satisfy as a distance function in R because it does not satisfy the triangular inequality, :c sry

yeah, adding exponentials
the other two properties are true because of the absolute value and it being a negative power of e, so when x = y this is e^(-inf)
This is true, but in order to show that, you ought to point to three concrete points for which the triangle inequality isn't satisfied.
Yeah I'm more interested as to what was happening oop but yes triangle
In particular, I'm fairly sure this is a valid distance function on Z, so proving it isn't good on R needs something that wouldn't be valid if the domain were restricted to integers.
,rccw
Sry :c
That is completely impenetrable. In order to qualify as a proof you need many more words that explain what your reasoning is. Scattering formulas across a piece of paper with no connecting text does not a proof make.
I also don't think d(x,y) + d(y,z) or anything equivalent to it appears there anywhere
I could conclude with a counterexample being x=0 y=1 z=2 in which the inequality is not fulfilled, so we can conclude that it is not a distance function in R.
I count at least 4 places on that page where you repeat the definition of your d function, without any explanation of why you repeat it at that point in the page, or how it relates to the formulas above and beyond it.
The triangle inequality IS satisfied for x=0, y=1, z=2. We get side lengtss of 0.368, 0.368, and 0.607, which is a perfectly fine triangle.
d(0,2) = e^{-|0-2|^{-1}} = e^{-\frac{1}{2}} ≈ 0.6065
d(0,1) = e^{-|0-1|^{-1}} = e^{-1} ≈ 0.3679
d(1,2) = e^{-|1-2|^{-1}} = e^{-1} ≈ 0.3679
(Second line in the right column -- though what it does there is anyone's guess).
d(0,2) > d(0,1) + d(1,2)
Okay true tropo
which contradicts the triangular inequality.
0.6065 > 0.7358, since when?
have you tried plugging in something that is not an integer
can anyone help me understand compactness?
i seem to have little to no intuition for why the definition is the way that it is, and am unable to prove whether or not a set is compact
are you familiar with compactness in R^n?
@nocturne basalt i believe i could recite the definition but i still don't know what to make of it or how to use it to prove things
A few good answers here, more about the intuition and less about how you can use it: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/371928/what-should-be-the-intuition-when-working-with-compactness
in some sense yes, but it's pretty subtle
is that because a compact set can be expressed as the union of a finite number of open subcovers?
close but not quite
every open cover can be refined to a finite cover
if a space is non-compact, then you can find some open cover where you genuinely need infinitely many sets from that family to cover the space
so for instance the real line isn't compact, you can exhibit infinite covers by intervals that can't be refined to a finite subcover very easily
so the collection of open covers of a compact set is sort of like redundant ?
right it sort of tells you where the size cutoff on covers being redundant is
okay, so how do we show an open cover has a finite subcover?
is there a general technique, or does it take ingenuity
or both
the thing is about compactness is that it has to be an arbitrary open cover
so take an arbitrary cover and show that it has some finite subcover
yeah, that's the definition of compactness
are you struggling with some specific problem?
perhaps it would be more enlightening for us to see that specific problem
but how do you show a finite cover exists for an arbitrary cover about which you know nothing concrete
right it's kinda daunting at first
okay i can think of an example one second
that would be great
and the techniques you might use to deal with this might depend on the particular example you're dealing with
it's probably pretty difficult in a general topological space
like let's try to show the closed interval [0,1] is compact
well okay, showing [0,1] is compact
you could also invoke things like heine-borel
well let's say you're a naive beginner who doesn't have that in their tool kit quite yet
right let's try to do elementary things for a bit
so we have to show that every open cover {U_i}_i of [0,1] has a finite subcover, where U_i=(a_i,b_i) is an interval
we can assume this cover is infinite, otherwise we would already be done
that is the topology generated by intervals (a,b) where a<b
yep
im just making sure i have all my bases covered (no pun intended)
if you have infinitely many intervals U_i=(a_i,b_i) then you get a sequence of endpoints say {b_i}
this sequence is bounded since it's contained in the interval
so it has to have an accumulation poiint
that's the sort of idea you might try to use in an example like this
so pictorially that would look like [ (... ( ( ) ) ... ) ]
you expand the open intervals outward?
maybe the intervals aren't all nested in each other, they might overlap in funny ways
but yes you definitely have nested sequences of intervals like this
right so if this has a limit b
what about the end points {a_i}
and what do you mean by accumulation point in this context?
sorry
like you're taking the limit of a sequence
yes, it's a limit point
okay fair
so you might try to use limit points in a clever way to prove compactness
when you say "they might overlap in funny ways" how do you account for this
what do you mean
what is a general way to express a humorous overlap
I mean every open subset of R is a union of intervals
okay so some aren't "nice"
sure you can arrange some pretty complicated opens I guess
but okay here's a clever trick
take your open cover {U_i}_i of [0,1], take the set P of points x in [0,1] such that [0,x] can be covered by finitely many sets U_i from this open cover
you can check this set P contains 0 and it's bonded above by 1 so it has some maximal element s
so you would then invoke some supremum type reasoning?
right exactly, s is the supremum of this set and you know it exists by boundedness
then you show that [0,s] can be covered by finitely many sets U_i from the open cover
so then you win if you can show s=1
which it does
right
okay so my question is what is stopping one from reasoning in the other direction, namely using an infimum argument for [x,1] ?
you could do that too!
or is it arbitrary
oh okay interesting
what motivates this construction?
i agree that it works and makes some intuitive sense (although im still not sure how you can guarantee that [0,s] can be finitely covered)
showing that [0,s] can be finitely covered requires some argument
you can assume s>0, otherwise there is nothing to show
suppose now you have an open subset U_i in the cover containing this supremum s
well then there is some 0<epsilon<s such that (s-epsilon,s] is contained in this open subset
the point being like, if you know a point is contained in an open interval, then it also contains nearby points at sufficiently small distance
but by assumption there's a finite subcover of [0,s-epsilon/2]
since s was already this supremum with this funny property
so now just add U_i to the finite subcover of [0,s-epsilon/2], you get a finite subcover of [0,s]
mmm interesting
very clever argument, a lot of compactness arguments usually generalize tricks like this
but again it really depends on the example you're dealing with
okay fair
like here we're leveraging what we know about intervals and supremums and so on
okay, i think this was good to see an example. i am going to think about this some
i really appreciate your time. thank you.

Why...
does this proof work? (the whole thing but the contradiction argument at the end in particular)
Suppose $C \subseteq X \times Y$ is closed. NTS $X \setminus \pi_1(C)$ is open, so suppose $x \in X \setminus \pi_1(C)$. Consider ${x} \times Y \subseteq (X \times Y) \setminus C$. Since $(X \times Y) \setminus C$ is open, for each $x \times y \in {x} \times Y$ there is an open set $W_y$ of $(X \times Y) \setminus C$ such that $x \times y \in W_y \subseteq (X \times Y) \setminus C)$. Then $\bigcup_{y \in Y} W_y$ is open and ${x} \times Y \subseteq \bigcup_{y \in Y} W_y$. By the tube lemma, there is an open set $V \subseteq X$ such that $x \in V$ and $V \times Y \subseteq \bigcup_{y \in Y}W_y$. We claim $V \cap \pi_1(C) = \emptyset$. Suppose $z \in V \cap \pi_1(C)$. Then $(V \times Y) \cap C \neq \emptyset$, so $V \times Y \nsubseteq (X \times Y) \setminus C$, a contradiction
michαel
That looks good, I'll have a closer read
I think it can be shortened slightly but is good as is
Yeah so actually
There is no need to introduce the Wy
You can just say that (X x Y)\ C is an open subset of X x Y containing {x} x Y and apply the tube lemma immediately
But yes, that's good!
@next crystal
How can one use the fact that the stalk functor is left-adjoint to the skyscraper functor to show that a morphism of sheaves is injective (on stalks) iff monic, and surjective (on stalks) iff epic ?
idk how much of this you can do by abstract nonsense,we might have to use more about sheaves.
if F --> G is epi, then since taking stalks is left adjoint it preserves colimits and hence also epimorphisms.
for others i think you have to use that given any U, the map F(U) --> product of F_x for x in U is injective and that taking stalks is a filtered colimit, so commutes with finite limits
ig i also used that fact that Sh(X) --> PSh(X) is right adjoint, so sends monos to monos, and as PSh(X) is just a functor category a monomorphism will be a mono at each section by a simple yoneda argument
anyway, better to do all that directly lol
Consider the collection B = {[a,b] | a ∈ Q, b ∈ R \ Q, a < b }. This collection is a basis for a topology T on R. Determine whether the interval [0,1] is compact with respect to this topology.
Some hints for this problem? I'm not able to come up with a guess on whether this should be compact or not.
First observation I'd make is that any open set in R with standard topology belongs to T
Even if it doesn't help, its useful to note things like that
Second we can use Alexander subbasis theorem and consider only open covers using that basis
Here you can try fixing some open cover U and consider sup over t such that there is a finite subcover of U for [0, t]
do you have a link for this book ? online or can you send me the file if you have it ? pwease 🙂
@gritty widget for an actually useful hint on this problem, note that {1} is open. ||So we can just take open cover of [0, 1) (in R) without a finite subcover||
Just use libgen
So I’ve got an argument to say the quotient of a top group by a closed subgroup is hausdorff but the problem is I feel like my argument would work with H open too so idk what’s going wrong (note I’m just trying to fix this argument in particular, I already have another functioning argument)
open subgroups are closed
So I take $x\neq y$ in $G$ and consider $\phi : G\times G \to G$ given by $\phi(x,y) = xy^{-1}$. Since $H$ is closed and not equal to $xy^{-1}H$ its complement is an open neighborhood of this second set. Taking its preimage via $\phi$ and quotienting each factor by $H$ gives an open set of $G/H \times G/H$ around $(xH, yH)$ avoiding the diagonal. Thus the diagonal is closed
Ahh that would explain a lot then
𝓛ittle ℕarwhal ✓
yea, if H is open then the complement of H is union of the remaining cosets
Fair
The definition of open set says that $E$ is open if every point of $E$ is an interior point of $E$ (that is, if every point has some neighborhood $N$ that is a subset of $E$. But the answer to this exercise implies that there is a point $(z_1, z_2)$ whose distance from $(x_1, x_2)$ (which is in $E$) might be smaller than any neighborhood of $(x_1, x_2)$ that contains points of $E$, since we can choose any $r$. What if this neighborhood is empty?
Aiya
Nevermind. I just realized we are talking about open subsets of $\mathbb{R}$ so the neighborhood can never be empty
Aiya
A neighbourhood can never be empty by definition anyway
Why? The empty set is a subset of every set so the empty set is a neighborhood
Aren't you talking about a neighbourhood of a point
I have a question that might not be that interesting, but if you take two torus and glue them together one ontop of the other (see picture). This would be T#T, but would only contain one hole, right? which would make T#T homeomorphic to T (assuming you glue them right), but this cant be right. Am I thinking about this wrong? How should one treat gluing donuts like in the picture?
we need to make a distinction here, are you just gluing them on top of each other or are you taking the connected sum
that would make a difference
because for the connected sum you'd cut something out of both first etc
if we just glue them on top of each other that should be homotopy equivalent to S^1 v S^1 v ... (6times) x S^1
hmm Im currently in an undergrad course so we havent talked about homotopy at all.
oh okay
I assumed you could cut out an open set of both tori like this and then glue those open intervals together which gives the stacking above, right?
oh okay yeah that's different
i don't think the connected sum works like that though in this case since you'd remove an embedding of a disk before gluing
and that isn't a disk
ah it has to be a disk
i haven't worked a lot with connected sums though
Hm
it'd be empty on the inside preventing you from contracting it
Sorry I meant
like between the "walls"
uh
I thought it would just be a long torus.
Its interesting how relaxing what you can cut out of the object suddenly makes everything break down
oof yeah removing/gluing does not mix well with homotopy
except if you're doing it with carefully chosen subspaces
quotient spaces are generally not well behaved wrt. to homotopy
this is a mess
Pain
Well I appreciate entertaining it 🙂
I was about to start second guessing everything I learned this semester

Mathematics
Got it, thats a lot cleaner
Thanks!
Np!
I wonder if there is a direct way to prove this lol
But yeah I think hm i mean idk if you've thought about it but this is pretty cool
Like it is very categorical basically and purely in terms of spaces and the canonical projection
lpl
I want to say that this is an iff (if you quantify over all X) though I am paranoid it isn't lol
According to this one website it is
It said that the direction i proved is a pretty standard topology problem but the other direction isnt that commonly seen in books
Ye
anyone have any resource recommendations for learning homotopy ?
any favorite treatments, etc
not my favourite one but you can try hatcher
thank you
isn't a consequence of this that Hom(E,F) depends only on X and the rank of E and F, even when E and F aren't trivial?
in general case, with E and F nontrivial, would it just be that a bundle homomorphism is locally a continuous map U -> Hom(V,W), where U is any open set for which there is a local trivialization of E and F?
And if this is the case, when does a family of maps U_i -> Hom(V,W), where {U_i} is an open cover of X for which E and F have local trivializations, induce a bundle homomorphism E -> F?
is there a direct way of showing that the standard n-simplex (the simplicial set, not the topological space) is connected?
there's probably something easy i'm missing but I don't see an easy proof
it's convex and hence path connected
I know that the standard n-simplex is connected as a topological space, I'm searching for a proof that the simplicial set $\Delta^{op} \to Set$ sending $[k] \to hom([k],[n])$ is connected as a simplicial set
dadaurs
This is very not true. If you let E be trivial then Hom(E, F) is just F
They should agree with the transition maps between different U_i
By trivial I think they mean a product bundle
Yeah if you take E to be the bundle X x R^n and then let F be any other rank n bundle over X then Hom(E, F) is isomorphic as a bundle to F
So taking any two distinct n-bundles for F we can see that Hom(E, F) depends on much more than the base space and the ranks of E and F
Unless I misinterpreted
Or sorry E should be n = 1 for this to work. Though in the general case it's the nth tensor power of F I believe which should also be fine
a germ of a function f : X -> Y at a point p in X where X,Y are topological spaces is an equivalence class
where we consider f,g : X -> Y equivalent at p if there is a small enough neighborhood of p in X on which f,g agree
small enough?
If f is defined on U and g is defined on V, say, then agreement is when there's some neighborhood W about p contained in their intersection on which f and g agree
Under the equivalence relation you're basically identifying local agreement
precisely what do we mean by this?
wait, am i correct in saying that if $f : E \to F$ restricts to linear maps on the fibers over each point of $X$, then $f$ is a bundle homomorphism if $f|_{\varphi_i^{-1}(U_i\cap U_j)} = \psi_i^{-1}\psi_j f \varphi_j^{-1}\varphi_i$ for local trivializations $\varphi_i, \psi_i$ over $U_i$ for $E,F$ respectively?
kxrider
i believe this implies continuity of f
err uh oops, i meant f|_{p^{-1}(Ui \cap Uj)} on the LHS, where p: E -> X
Can someone recommend a source for Steenrod squares/powers? I'm trying to read from Fuchs & Fomenko, which constructs them via the Serre SS.
Specifically, I'm finding it hard to follow the proof of Adem's relations (via the "splitting principle").
@unreal stratus hope you dont mind the ping, but coming back to this im worried i've relied to much on the picture i've drawn to conclude that V \cap pi_1(C) is empty. Specifically how do we know that z in that intersection would imply that (V x Y) \cap C would not be empty?
Okay so to recall we've taken open V x Y \subset (X x Y) \ C and suppose z is in V \cap pi1(C)
Then we can write z = π1(z,b) for some (z,b) in C
But (z,b) is in V x Y, so it can't be in C
how do we know (z,b) is in VxY?
i know z is in V but how do we know b is in Y
oh is it bc (z,b) \in C \subseteq X x Y?
π1 is a map X x Y -> X
oh right
Or this yeah sure
What diagrammatic knot invariants have no known diagram-independent descriptions?
this is what i have so far for the forward direction of the proof. I have an open set containing (x,y), but i dont think its necessarily true that this open set is a subset of (X x Y) \ G_f (just by drawing a picture), but i need it to be a subset to show G_f is closed
anyone have any hints
hmm this is just a wild guess but, since sSet is the cocompletion of Δ, there exists a left Kan extension of the inclusion Δ -> Top along the Yoneda embedding, then if the representable hom(-, [n]) were not connected, then we could represent it as a coproduct S and T of two other nonempty simplicial sets, but - since the extension functor L: sSet -> Top is an left adjoint and preserves colimits - that would imply that the n-simplex is homeomorphic to the coproduct of two other nonempty topological spaces and thus not connected, which is a contradiction
there’s probably a way simpler method but
tired
Alright yeah so two things
- This is a really nice way of proving this
- it basically boils down fo “geometric realization of a connected sSet is connected”, ehich is 1 argument I had in mind, issue is that this statement appeared earlier in thr book
Ie before introducing geometric realization
i’ve basically only approached simplicial sets from the perspective of “Top is a shit category so let’s steal from it while leaving it in a back alley”
It probably isnt too important, i talked with someone else about it a few hours ago and they also didbt find an elementary way
i did find that if it was not connected then theres only 1 possible natural isomorphism between hom(-, [n]) and S sqcup T per the yoneda lemma as there’s only one endomorphism of [n] in Δ, and maybe a density based argument could also work (every simplicial set is a colimit of representables)
the yoneda angle looks promising as it places severe restrictions on what those sSet isomorphisms can even be
another consequence is that one of S([n]) or T([n]) would have to be empty
assuming S sqcup T to be isomorphic to hom(-, [n])
the steenrod squares are constructed using the method of acyclic models in spanier
but i'mma be complete honest
i find not find it really geometrically convincing
at that point in the book it's just pure algebra
simplicial sets are very elegant imo for reasons that are not purely about topology
the short version (i would be happy to elaborate) is that if C is a cocomplete category together with a cocontinuous monoidal product then any distinguished monoid M in C can be thought of as a "0-simplex" and the higher tensor powers M^{\otimes n+1} can be thought of as the n-simplices. Simplicial sets let you glue these monoids together along 'face' and 'degeneracy' maps constructed using (respectively) the unit and multiplication maps of the monoid to form simplicial complexes
So anywhere you have a cocomplete monoidal category with cocontinuous tensor product and a distinguished choice of monoid, you have a reasonable notion of "simplicial complex" and a resulting 'geometric realization' functor, a cocontinuous monoidal functor SSet -> C
It just so happens that when C = Top, M = 1 and the tensor product is the join of topological spaces, we recover the usual notion.
I'd be happy if you elaborated @plain raven 🙂
In Kerodon, Lurie hints at the fact that if Q is a cosimplicial object in a category C (which is cocomplete), then there is a variant of the geometric realization functor which occurs as a left adjoint of the functor Sing^Q_.: C -> sSet, is what you're describing simply the special case where we take Q to be the cosimplicial set sending [n] to the n-th tensor power of M with itself?
Consider two NLS’s (V1, || |||1) and (V2, || ||2). Consider linear operator T : V1 →
V2. Show that if V1 (domain space) is of finite dimensional then T must be
bounded and hence continuous.
This implies that any linear map with range space on a finite dimensional space
must be continuous.
I'm having difficulty in approaching this, not sure as to how to go about it
How many connected components does R^3 \ (R^2 x {0}) have? Is it just two?
Yes
Yes, this is correct. The construction that Lurie is describing doesn't really make use of any special properties of the base category \Delta, though, what he's saying here applies to any presheaf category.
This is one of the most important theorems of category theory for how understated it is. This theorem should basically be taught right after the Yoneda lemma, because it gives one explanation of what presheaves 'are' categorically - the presheaf category on C is the 'free cocompletion' of C and presheaves represent formal colimits of objects in C which can be interpreted as true colimits in any cocomplete category E where we can represent the objects of C via some functor F : C -> E. Moreover, the cocontinuous functor \hat{F}: \hat{C} -> E interpreting the formal colimits as colimits proper has not just a 1-categorical but a 2-categorical universal property, it is the left Kan extension of F along the Yoneda embedding.
But on the other hand, I am asking you to pay attention to the specifics of what I am talking about which are missing from Lurie's more general theorem. The category of simplicial sets is equipped with a monoidal product called "join" or "day convolution" and when you take Q(n) M^{\otimes n+1} the "geometric realization" Q^GR preserves this monoidal product. What makes the category of simplicial sets special is the relationship between its colimits and the monoidal product structure.
simplicial sets = colimits + monoids
or to be more formal
the category of simplicial sets is the free cocomplete monoidal category with distinguished monoid
so it's initial in the category whose objects are small-cocomplete monoidal cats with distinguished morphism and where the morphisms in this category are cocontinuous monoidal functors sending distinguished monoids to distinguished monoids
Alright, I remember reading about day convolutions a week ago, so the geometric realization of the day convolution is going to be the join of their geometric realizations?
When Q : SSet -> Top, yes.
For this reason the day convolution of simplicial sets is also itself called the join, so you could also say "the geometric realization of the join is the join of the geometric realizations"
of course it would only make sense to call it the join because that's true lol
yeah right I just wanted to make sure haha
Could you explain what you mean when you say that "when you take Q(n) M^{\otimes n+1}, the geometric realization Q^GR preserves this"
is it just that in the special case I described here, we get the same commutativity between day convolution and tensor product when taking geometric realizations?
Yeah too much left implicit there.
I am saying that if (C ,M, \otimes, 1) is a cocomplete monoidal category with cocontinuous tensor product, if you choose Q : Delta -> C to be defined by Q(n) = M^{\otimes n+1) for some distinguished monoid M, the induced "geometric realization" functor Q^GR : SSet -> C will be not just cocontinuous but also monoidal, it will send day convolution (aka join) to the tensor product \otimes of C.
Yes, this is what i am saying is special about SSet which distinguishes it from other categories. The category of 'delta sets' or 'semi-simplicial sets' and the category of 'symmetric simplicial sets' have similar properties which involve the relationship between monoidal structure with the colimit structure.
Alright this is actually really cool, thanks a lot for your time clerk 🙂
Yes, it's my pleasure.
It is an interesting exercise to translate this into the enriched setting and work out what the analogous property is for simplicial Abelian groups. Then think about what this means about Dold-Kan.
(When I say interesting exercise i am understating a bit, it's something that i found extremely illuminating and important, ymmv)
Will do, dold kan is on my toread list
i assume "pr" here denotes a projection?
yes
Is this correct?
X\subset R^n discrete <=> X\cap K finite for all compact K:
X discrete => X\cap K discrete => cl(X\cap K)\subset K compact => finite => X\cap K finite
for x\in X take a closed ball around it, then its intersection with X is finite => pick the least of the distances from x and take the ball half that radius around x => it's an open set intersecting X only in x => X discrete
sounds correct
This equivalence is not true
What's wrong
Ah, is it because we don't know if cl(X\cap K) is discrete?
oh I see take 1/n
We don't indeed
Hm, how to fix this then
Closed and discrete on the left
What would be the easiest way of showing a discrete subgroup of R^n is necessarily closed?
not true, take {1/n}
Subgroup
ah subgroup
hm well
for R, the discrete subgroups are all of the form aZ right
So it should be possible to show that all discrete subgroups of R^n are just lattices by considering the projections onto R
i assume that isn't too bad
No I think it was done differently
hm well what I said shows it's a subset of a lattice at the very least, which is enough right
but ye looking it up it seems people use other proofs
Take a nbd of zero U with U cap H = {0}, let x_n be Cauchy, then for big enough n, m we have x_n-x_m in H cap U so x_n is eventually constant.
So H is closed
@median sand
Thanks, that was clean.
Nice solution blitz
Thanks. I made it myself
If K\subset R^n is compact and x\in\bigcap_{t>0} (1+t)K, why does it follow x\in K?
so, treating S^1 = R/Z
i have a function f: S^1 -> S^1 x S^1 by x -> (2x, 3x)
I'm having a lot of trouble visualizing what the image of this function looks like on the torus
I'm currently trying to start by visualizing what it looks like on the unit square, which we can turn into a torus by identifying opposite edges
but i'm kind of stuck on doing that in the first place
Well you can maybe kinda visualise the corresponding loop
Like you're going around both circles, one a bit faster than the other
I assume this is bigcap
if X is homeomorphic to Y, then is X - a point homeomorphic to Y - a point?
the proofs for why R^n =/= R^m, m=/=n usually involve comparing the spaces minus a point on each, so i was wondering if that was were the conclusion came from
I mean if you remove different points then obviously not
and conversely if you have a homeomorphism f, and you remove a from X and f(a) from Y then I don't see a reason why homeomorphism wouldn't be preserved
if you want a concrete example, take X = Y = [0,1], from X remove 1/2 from Y remove 0
then it should be, isomorphisms in any category are pretty much relabelings
i also don't see why they wouldn't still be homeomorphic, but i guess i wanted confirmation
so removing a and f(a) would be like removing the same thing
np
obv restricting a homeomorphism f to X / {a} preserves the homeomorphism, no need to rely on vibes
to be more convincing
X\{a}
yes I always confuse the two
sadly that notation is unusable when you are dealing with TVS
Anyone care to give a try using nets?
Let $(X,\tau_X)$ and $(Y, \tau_Y)$ be topological spaces with $Y$ being $T_2$ and there is a continuous function $f : X \rightarrow Y$ , then the function graph is closed, (in other words) $X \times f[X] \subseteq X \times Y$ is a closed subset of $X \times Y$ with the "canonical" product topology.
wtfprelvde
I would like to see a proof using nets
i tried but it lacked some ideas (i can send it later), maybe someone knows a better one.
what i used as a main idea is that it's closed iff contains all limit points.
then either by contradiction or direct proof would work.
Ye
you take a convergent net in X x f[X]
which means the projection onto first component converges to at least one point
it's hausdorf
isn't only Y
oh i didn't read "first component"
okay, your idea is basically the same as mine
x in X must converge to at least one point
fine
only Y is hausdorff, i didn't read correctly "first component".
right
well thanks, if i'm not the only one who thought like that probably im not hallucinating to convince myself.
I mean why are you doubting the proof
idk i don't know too much about nets yet
and i used the continuity condition without knowing them too well
(but i'm learning nets, so i'll be fine in a while probably)
I see, good luck
ty 

In symbols. If $(x_\alpha, f(x_\alpha))\to (x, y)$ then $f(x_\alpha)\to f(x)$. From Hausdorffness $y = f(x)$.
Blitz

ty
please ping me and let me know
Hm well this kinda just follows from functorality right
Like the argument can be purely formal
but does the solution make sense
or
Yeah that looks fine
thank you
Np
Looks good to me
for both of them?
Yes
thanks
what about this solution? does this make sense? (these are from my lecture notes)
Looks good to me but didn’t you already ask this?
Is R³ \ (R² x {0}) homotopy equivalent to some nice space?
oops yeah
wrong picture
I meant to ask this
if these make sense
anyone?
question being whether these two sols make sense
Looks good to me idk
thanks
Ye to 2 points
Thanks! Also is it correct that R⁴ minus the plane (x,y,0,0) is homotopy equivalent to S¹?
does this make sense?
Yee, tho I would mention what the preimage of U(s) is
Can you characterize compactness purely in terms of continuous maps? 
nah nvm I was gonna ask something trivial
Anyway, I have another question
In the Zariski topology, X compact if and only if X closed?
I think X closed implies X compact, but idk about the other direction
generally you need hausdorff for compact to imply closed
oh
Yes.
For Tychonoff spaces at least
I had a space in which compact and closed subspaces agree but isn't Hausdorff
Ah well sure
But hm
I interpreted 'continuous maps' differently
I wonder whether one can do it like purely categorically because the condition of being a closed map isn't as nice as it could be
I guess the characterisation in terms of nets could fit the bill right though?
This is one-point compactification of Q for example
maybe this? a space if compact iff it's a compact object in the category of open sets of it
I think the notion of a proper morphism in algebraic geometry is better behaved. Probably a proper map in topology is well behaved for a certain category of spaces, such as LCH spaces.
Yeah sure
My point in bringing this up is that being compact is the same as being proper over the singleton space.
If that wasn't clear.
Sure yeah and I guess also that this formulation kinda leads to why we should care about the corresponding thing in alg geo riggt
Or at least that's motivation I was given
👍
oh nice
i hope this isnt too philisophical but how come the fundamental group is defined as the loop space quotient homotopy rather than quotienting reparametrizations?
like this would get the job done of making multiplication associative and thus inducing a group structure on the loop space, but nobody talks about that group. how come?
do you have an inverse?
thank u, missed that lol
You do get a perfectly good monoid (if you're careful about what counts as "reparameterization" for curves with constant intervals), and you could also beat on that to make a group if you really want to.
But it's not as useful as the fundamental group, because it is generally a much more complicated object than the original space, in contrast to the fundamental group which has a chance of being simpler.
Really quick and stupid question
I know the wedge sum is the coproduct in pointed spaces Top0. But does the universal property factor through free or based homotopy?
I.e., do we have [X\vee Y, Z] \simeq [X, Z]\times[Y, Z] instead of just on plain homsets?
If we have two spheres in R³ such that they intersect at the origin and we pick a neighborhood U of the origin, how many components does U - {0} have?
U a neighbourhood in the intersection?
Yes
Can be one, two, three, ...
This can be controlled by choosing small enough radius?
Neighbourhood =/= open ball
I think for nice spaces, eg cw, this is true because in the homotopy category the coproduct is computed by replacing everything with cofibrant objects in your model category and then taking the coproduct, and cw are already cofibrant
Someone plz correct me if I said something stupid
Bit confused about proving that F(x+1)=F(x)+1 where F is a Lift of the circle map f. Anyone who could help me out with this proof?
The hint gives was to look at F(x+1)=F(x)+d and showing that, using IVT, that d has to be 1 or we get a contradiction with it being a homeomorphism
What definition of subnet you guys use?
Is the following one well known?:
$(x_d^{^{\uparrow}}) \subseteq (y_s^{^{\uparrow}})$ observation: right side of inclusion is subnet, where uparrow symbolize generated filter.
wtfprelvde
guys, why is a T1-space only T2 if it's finite?
huh what
wait haha
I'm looking for a condition on when a Fréchet space X is Hausdorff, and I thought that the problem would came up when X is not finite
When its finite then its Hausdorff so in this sense yeah
I don't think I know any conditions of the form "T1 + ... implies Hausdorff"
Oh well. Group structure would imply that
Compactness doesn't give you anything tbh
There are T_1 compact spaces that aren't Hausdorff
Btw saying Frechet space is a bit ambiguous. There are already Frechet-Urysohn spaces (also called Frechet spaces) and there are Frechet spaces in FA too
So I'd avoid that
okay thanks a lot, I was trying to be precise, but I was only talking about T1 spaces, which I think is better
I'm trying to differ both actually
Wdym differ
Find a difference?
T_1 spaces allow you find disjoint neighbourhoods one at a time
T_2 spaces allow you to find both simoultanously
Kind of
Finite T1 implies Hausdorff but there are many many spaces that are Hausdorff without being finite lol
I'd say T_2 gives you less ambiguous info about points
my intuition feels satisfied with that reasoning at least xD
is the set of naturals closed in the space of integers?
Integers are discrete
Try proving it
so it would be closed?
as there are no limit points of the naturals outside of the integers?
Why bring up limit points
cause as far as I understand, a set is closed if it contains all it's limit points
Technically yes
so if the integers contain all limit points of subsequences contained within the naturals, isn't N closed in Z that way?
A set is closed when its complement is open
A discrete space is one with topology in which every subset is open
Thus also every subset is closed
This is equivalent to all singletons being open
hmm
You must have got the limit points idea from Munkres
okay makes sense, but had another doubt, is every point in N an interior point in the set of integers?
I'm very confused on how to approach the interior points thing when the space is no longer the reals, but the integers like here
If you pick n in N
hmm
but by definition, you should be able to draw an epsilon ball which contains elements of Z
how does that work here?
An epsilon ball is with respect to the restriction of metric on R to Z
Thus consists of elements of Z only
so then if i take, say n = 5, then an epsilon ball of radius half has no elements of N in it, so no point is an interior point?
It has an element: 5
There's no such thing as interior point
Only interior point of a set
but then if I look at the interior points of [0,1], it would be (0,1), 0 is not an interior point, but if I look at the epsilon ball around 0, it contains 0 anyways, so that's a contradiction
where am I going wrong?
[0, 1] is not a subset of Z
for this case only
If you take a ball around 0, is the ball contained in [0, 1]?
oh
ohhhhhh
okay i got it
okay okay
so N has no boundary points too in Z?
if my understanding is finally right?
Every subset of Z has empty boundary
You're welcome 
In Engelking's general topology book, he uses the term "open domain" for sets which are equal to the interior of their closure, and "closed domain" for sets which are equal to the closure of their interior. Is this standard terminology? I did a quick flip through Munkre's book and I didn't see similar language.
Not really. You call those regular open/closed sets
as in, "regular open/closed sets" or that "open/closed sets" usually refer to that already?
Regular is part of the name
ah ok thanks
ah here we are! https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Regular_open_set
yeah, searching "open domain" wasn't bringing up anything relevant so I suspected something was up
thanks
They help to estimate some cardinal functions on regular spaces
oh interesting
Generally relevant for regular spaces in particular
I guess this also relates to the Kuratowski 14 sets problem
Wikipedia mentions that definition of closed domain in the middle of this article about how definitions are inconsistent
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domain_(mathematical_analysis)
In mathematical analysis, a domain or region is a non-empty connected open set in a topological space, in particular any non-empty connected open subset of the real coordinate space Rn or the complex coordinate space Cn. A connected open subset of coordinate space is frequently used for the domain of a function, but in general, functions may be ...
Where?
I've searched it but didn't find it
Oh, not quite that definition. The closest is
closed domain is the union of a domain and all of its limit points.
Yeah definitely different
In the context of that article, where the ambient topical space is perfect, I think it’s equivalent
what is a double covering
im being asked to find a double covering of the torus on the klein bottle but 
maybe it covers both the torus itself and an immersion? idk
nvm, this doesn't make sense
lul
wikipedia says that /\
it's not really the same as i said
(Redirected from Double cover)
You're asked to show that the torus double covers the Klein bottle, i.e. that there is a map f:T->Kl which is a double cover
then the wikipedia definition makes sense?
You basically just need to find an involution t:T->T of the torus without fixed points, and the double covering is f:T->T/t
Can you think of one if I write T=SxS the product of two circles?
Which definition?
covering space
Yes you have to show that the torus is a covering space of the Klein bottle
the name made me think that, 😭
What does that mean?
i sent a small question here yesterday
What was the question?
how people generally know the definition of subnet
Is there a typo or do you rly mean subnet? (idk what those are!)
i really mean subnet
Then I won't be of any help I'm sorry!
np
I thought about given a covering of the torus and a homeomorphism or some sort of continuous map still covers the torus as a immersion in the klein bottle, but it doesn't make sense.
i didn't study covering spaces yet
A covering is a continuous surjection f:Y->X such that any p in X has a neighborhood U whose preimage under f is homeomorphic to some number of copies of U
And if X is connected, that number is the same for any x and is the 'degree' of the covering (here, double covering means this equals two)
Interesting, i can't skip things to study it yet but seems interesting
It's amazing
If you know about the fundamental group, then there's deep connections between subgroups of the fundamental group and covering spaces
in fact, i'm learning general topology before diff-geo and stuff like that
Ah, don't skip differential topology, it's important
Fundamental group is alg-top thing right?
Yes
You'll need a bit of group theory which isn't taught in group theory classes (i.e. free groups and group presentations)
Then for homology theory, you'll need ring theory
I know a bit of free groups
But things will come in time, don't worry 🙂
But i didn't understand some of the proofs because they required category theory
Naaaah that's bs
it's not like i didn't understand, it did sense actually.
but the author didn't want to extend too much
only showed universal propety of free groups
You can be pedantic and use cat theory, but it's definitely not needed (at least for an intro to alg top and further)
And if you do differential geometry and geometric topology, you absolutely never use cat theory
context was made from the group of integers
i'll leearn those someday
the author said that the proof of existence of such groups described in universal propety required category
What, the existence of free groups?
It doesn't
yes
You absolutely don't need that xD
he didn't want to talk about "words"
its a covering where all the fibres have two elements
so like each point is being mapped to twice
You check things by hand and never need cat theory for this basic stuff
Existence of free groups doesn't really make sense to ask for since you just define them concretely
you could ask for the existence of free objects in grp i guess and show that free groups satisfy the desired property
but that's ...
not how you should initially construct things
Well, he showed only the universal propety, talked about some free structures like free modules and how vector spaces come, and the group of integers
mentioned the "words" thing
Who's that author, out of curiosity?
He only mentioned it? I mean, that's the basic lego brick to build the entire lego city of free groups and group presentations xD
He prefered to stay with universal propety
but i searched on my own later
word problems 
about those
wdym
God I hate Matplotlib, it's so ugly sometimes...
what is t in this definition?
words are very easier to understand imo as an example
/not definition
rly
oh nvm
does this work cause ur viewing them both as quotients of a square?
word problems are quite hard if your group isn't nice enough
In computational mathematics, a word problem is the problem of deciding whether two given expressions are equivalent with respect to a set of rewriting identities. A prototypical example is the word problem for groups, but there are many other instances as well. A deep result of computational theory is that answering this question is in many imp...
You use the antipodal map on one of the circles
Or both, I'm too tired to think of which is the correct one xD
So either t(x,y)=(-x,y) or t(x,y)=(-x,-y)
I think it's t(x,y)=(-x,y)
#undecidable even 🙂
indeed
reminds me when i was reading about Reidemeister diagrams for knots
and thought how strong it is that we can write down a presentation
but then nvm 
You mean Wirtinger presentation?
ah yeah right
Yeah this is powerful indeed 🙂
I mixed up something
Also the knot group is such a powerful invariant
Like, the group + a meridian is a complete invariant of the knot type xD
i must say knots didn't really catch me
Watcha doing for a living now?
suffering with mandatory courses
Discord mod

Which ones? 🙂
cool
what is numerics
Glhf 😄
and why computer science?
a second subject is mandatory here and i chose CS
let's not continue this here though if you have more questions (since it's not topology related)
what do they mean with "topology of"?
this isn't the first time I've someone use that wording or whatever
(I'm too lazy to watch the video)
I'm too lazy to watch the video too
Probably refers to the various topological properties of the space
Sometimes "topology of..." also refers to the Topology you endow the space with
In the video they basically just cut bread
And when you cut it a specific way you can put more cream cheese in your donut shaped bread thing
Who knew topology was so yummy
We call that a bagel where I'm from. No need to be disrespectful.
Oh sorry lol, I completely forgot that was a thing lol
So I've been cutting my donut the wrong way the entire time
If someone says "the geometry of the euclidean plane" you have an idea about that right?
Similar way of speaking in topology.
can't it have many different topologies
like the trivial one, the one whose name I always forget, etc?
Yes, but when you're doing topology you will fix a "standard" one
Like if someone starts talking about R, you don't sit there confused about how this argument works with the discrete topology
Similarly if someone says "the topology of R" they are almost certainly talking about the standard euclidean topology
shame on you
Oh yeah I wrote something on this a while ago lol
You can get something like 17% more spread as an upper bound
A set of $X\subset \mathbb{R}$ is bounded if, and only if, its projections are $X_{1}=\pi_{1}(X),...,X_{n}=\pi_{n}(X)$ are bounded sets in $\mathbb{R} $
Awuita Fria
This... what?
Presumably this should say X \subset \bR^n
Actually this just has a lot of typos
Y'\X is closed
is this because Y' Hausdorff implies T_1 so the singleton set Y'\X is closed
I think that if you said
"It's because Y' Hausdorff implies ..."
You wouldn't even have to ask
is there any reason for including "homotopy" in "chain homotopy" other than its what you use to show that homotopic maps induce the same homomorphisms on homology groups? like is there a purely algebraic version of homotopy which it agrees with as well?
isnt this just Cauchys theorem reformulated
or no
it sure sounds like it
if $f:\Omega \to \Bbb{C}$ and $\Omega$ is simply connected then $\int_\gamma f dz = 0$? is this the statement im trying to prove?
MyMathYourMath
Yes, a chain homotopy is a left homotopy in the category of chain complexes. Basically under 3 in https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/chain+homotopy you can see that a chain homotopy is “what a homotopy should look like”
he gave us a complex analysis problem to do a alg top problem which seems common apparently
@feral copper i caught a flu (at least its not covid) 😭 so i'm not doing exercises, but i was watching some classes and look what came as a motivation example for cover space in a playlist that i watch along with the notes.
indeed it's just as you said, the ideas are very amazing
Haha nice! The covering R->S is the universal cover, and imo it's the best covering space 🙂
And someday you'll encounter branched covers, which are so much more flexible (and also they're amazing when you work with 4-manifolds, but I'm biased on thinking that :D)



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