#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 19 of 1
are these conditions usually not called the "first separability axiom" and the "second separability axiom"?
no
so (i) is just the definition of a separable space, and (ii) is the definition of a second countable space?
(ii) --> (i) generally, and (ii) <--> (i) in metric spaces
@gritty widget Huh, I looked up open mapping theorem but it is about concluding that a function is an open map. Then I searched about homeomorphism preserving dimensionality and could not find a related proof for that either. Any idea where I can find a proof for:
Let $f: \mathbb{R}^n \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^m$ be a homeomorpic function. Then n = m.
FrankF
if your map f is a homeomorphism, you can use Homology theory to claim m=n
Do you have a concrete theorem in mind that I can look up
theorem 6.3 of chapter 16 in Dugundji
Thank you I'll have a look
I took f:R →Rl a continuous function & reached the conclusion that f can only be a constant function, is it sufficient to answer the first part of 7(b) ?
Could someone help me with this part (c) please? I got this in an exam a week ago and still don't know how to find/show the homeomorphism...
my tragic attempt:
did you try mapping A to Ae_1
this is a map from SO(n) to S^(n-1)
since SO(n) is compact and S^(n-1) is Hausdorff, this is a quotient map
now Ae_1 = Be_1 iff A ~ B by definition
so it induces a homeomorphism from SO(n)/~ to S^(n-1)
sorry, didn't mean to solve it, I was just trying ideas
emmmm sorry if this is a dumb q but why is it a quotient map?
because it's a closed continuous surjective map
questions are for asking
why is it closed
because SO(n) is compact and S^(n-1) is Hausdorff
so a closed subset of SO(n) is compact, its image is compact, so closed since its a compact subspace of Hausdorff space
ahhhhh
sounds good
ngl, it sounds familiar so I think we proved this in homework but I can't recall it at all
not a problem
@gritty widget help please I'm still confused
they're not asking you for an answer, just your thoughts on what those functions could be
so whatever makes sense to you is good enough imo
From R to Rl right ?
both
because they meant every function from reals to reals, but without topology
no continuity
then they ask you what continuous functions from R to Rl and Rl to Rl could be
but they ask you to conjecture what could they be - so they're not expecting an answer
not in the sense that you need to give any justification for your guess
just how intuitively you think those functions could look like
no problem 
exercise from hatcher, states that if $\tilde{X}$ and $\tilde{Y}$ are simply connected covering spaces of the path connected, locally path connected $X$ and $Y$, then $X\simeq Y\implies \tilde{X} \simeq \tilde{Y}$. i don’t know if this simeq is meant to be homotopy equivalent or homeomorphic, anyone know what it most likely is?
maximo
Probably homotopy equivalent.
thank you that’s what i figured
btw are there any cool applciations of the fact that every flow on a compact polyhedron (= homeomorphic to a finite simplicial complex) has a fixed point? I've never worked with flows oop
i imagine there'd be smth in geometry but idk
Let p:(Y,y)->(X,x) be a universal cover, g a closed path in X (with start/end = x), and g' the lifted path in (Y,y). Why does there exist an automorphism f of the covering space such that f(y)=g'(1) ?
Let A be a subset of a topological space X
x \in cl(A) if and only if for every open set U containing x, the intersection A \cap U is not empty
Sps x \in X and every open set U containing x, the intersection U \cap (A \ {x}) is not empty. Then x is called a limit point of A
is the only difference between these that a point x can be in the closure if theres an open set U containing it such that A \cap U = {x}. But if this U exists then x is not a limit point
yes
in fact, if A \cap U = {x} then x is in A so its already in the closure
points like these are called isolated (in A)
i.e. {x} is open in A
right got that
X is an ordered set in the order topology. I've shown that the closure of (a,b) is a subset of [a,b], and I'm being asked under what conditions does equality hold.
when the screenshot says "it has to be that they (a and b) are both limit points of (a,b)" what does that follow from?
i follow everything up to that quote
Can you see that if a has an immediate successor, then it won't be in the closure?
Ah, no you didn't get that far yet.
is this Q phrased weirdly or is it justme
in particular the isomorphisms
one should go the opposite way no?
By definition the closure of (a,b) is the union of (a,b) itself and its limit points. Since a is not in (a,b), the only way it can be in the union is if it is oin the other term of the union -- that is, the set of limit points.
actually ig theyre isomorphisms so it doesnt matter 
ohh gotcha
isnt this argument enough to answer the question? Because this (unofficial) solution proved it using an immediate successor/predecessor argument which seems unnecessary if we used what you just said
I don't think I understand your question.
Proved what exactly using an immediate successor/predecessor argument?
As far as I understand the problem you're describing "immediate successor/predecessor" is not a detail in an argument -- it is the answer being argued for.
this is so weird
i cant seem to internalize the idea of the fundamental group
like its elements are equivalence classes of maps right
Yes.
bit of a silly question but how is it not just one equivalence class
it's made up of loops right
so paths starting and ending at a single point x
but any path from x to itself should be able to be continuously deformed into another no?
i guess that doesn't account fo orientation but i feel like im still missing part of the picture
Suppose your topological space is the unit circle and x is (1,0). One path from x to x is gamma(t) = (cos(2 pi t), sin (2 pi t)), another is the constant function gamma'(t) = (1,0). How would you deform the former continuously into the latter?

so are there things in general that distinguish loops? or is it always specific to a space
i believe the elements of the fundamental group are supposed to distinguish loops (up to homotopy)
i sense a chicken or the egg situation
well we have loops, but we want to treat some of them to be the same so we add this equivalence relation
which we can furthermore endow with an algebraic structure
wdym
conjugation is usually defined in terms of a group right
but the path which induces the homomorphism isnt part of either fundamental groups
since its not a loop
conjugating a subgroup of a group is usually done by an element outside of the subgroup
is that how you mean?
well it doesnt need to be, but its just usually done by any group element
also mildly related but how does "isomorphism equivalence" work
thinking about this problem
wdym isomorphism equivalence
an isomorphism can be thought of a version of "equivalence"
like the claim in that problem
part of it is if the two change of base point iso's are equal
but this is what is mixing me up
ohh
well
you can have multiple isomorphisms between groups right
this is a matter of are the isomorphisms the same
yeah but that just feels like a weird question
like theyre both isomorphisms
it's like an equal equivalence 
yeah i get what you mean

at least this is more fun than point set
how do you even show equivalence of isomorphisms then?
like the backwards part of that iff
The universal cover of a space is really good at doing this
I think it's any element of pi1(X, x0) is sent to the same element of pi1(X, x1) by both the induced isomorphisms
imma try the forward direction then try that 
for each h and h' it doesnt matter if we distinguish their directions right? since theyre both iso's
what's this btw
repost for convenience
wdym
like saying that h is a path from x0 -> x1 and h' is a path from x1 -> x0
well gamma and gamma' are both paths from x0 to x1
usually the reverse is denoted with a bar
oh
The prototypical example is the map R -> S^1 given by theta -> e^(itheta)
then tbh im not sure what the two isomorphisms are
oh wait nvm
it's just conjugation by either gamma or gamma'
And any loop in S^1 can be “lifted” to paths (not necessarily loops) in R, and upon lifting homotopic loops in S^1 are exactly the ones with the same endpoints in the universal cover
what's the difference between that and a covering space?
homotopic = continuous map between them right?
Er kinda a homotopy is a map X x I -> Y which is the same as the two specified maps X -> Y at the endpoints
This is a covering space. A universal cover is just special bc it has trivial fundamental group
gotcha
so is saying h = h' the same as saying that conjugation of loops centered at x0 by gamma is equivalent to the conjugation of those loops by gamma'?
i guess based at is the proper term
the operation of the fundamental group is just loop composition right

Homotopy class of
My \amongus got rejected
$\amogus$
sebbb
skill issue
I’ll let you have this one
dont snitch ryu
Lmao illegal
elememts of π_1(X, x0) are not paths but homotopy equivalent paths

[f]*[g]=[f*g]
^
that's just composition right
pick representative and concatenate then take it's equivalence class
composition might not be the right terminology, product maybe or concat
homotopy equivalence classes of loops at x0
wikipedia describes it as going along one path and then following the next path
yes
a'ba
$$[f][g] = [f\cdot g]$$ where $$(f\cdot g) (x)= \begin{cases} f(2x) & x\in[0,\frac{1}{2}\ g(2x-1) & x \in [\frac{1}{2},1]\end{cases}$$
maximo
so it's saying a'xa=b'xb
it's actually abba, the genius artist behind global sensation Dancing Queen
are you talking about the forward direction?
There's a reverse direction?
gamma and gamma bar?
id imagine you would otherwise why would it be included
mildly related
is it really fucking weird that conjugation just happens to have all these magical properties in different scenarios?
first conjugation with normal subgroups and whatnot
now conjugation defining a change of base pt isomorphism
well a normal subgroup is defined by conjugation, so it's really no coincidence there
here it is interesting but it's very clear why this "conjugation" makes sense
i just mean that it seems like a random thing to do that gives very useful consequences
but then again why does anything in math work
yeah i do see that
we learnt about the sylow theorems and conjugates are just flying around being crazy useful
i had a similar experience
im not sure if this is right tho now
bc im not really using h_gamma
walter
I mean, conjugation is a "change of basis" in some sense of the word so I don't find it's prevalence too surprising
yeah i forgot it appears in linear algebra too
which i'll assume implies that it appears in R-modules too
if it appears in linear algebra then it is immediately three times as important and prevalent
so yes it is no surprise i guess
i suppose
any chance you can look this over tho pls 
sounds like an algebra class too
the first thing to note is that w does not equal (gamma gamma'bar) w (gamma gamma'bar)
also the next question is to prove that h_gamma = h_gamma' iff the fundamental group based at x0 is abelian
at best they are homotopy equivalent (and only sometimes equal)
ok nvm about what i was gonna say
im doing both an alg top class and an algebra class
same 
im not sure i see why this is false tho
note im not saying they aren't the "same"
just that they aren't equal
the notion of same here should be homotopy equivalent
can you define that for me then pls i think i have the wrong idea of what that means
the other important thing is that you're assuming (gamma gamma'bar) is homotopy equivalent to the constant map
recall that loops are paths
and paths are just functions from I to the topological space

so the loops are equal iff f(t) = g(t) for all t in I
when talking about fundamental groups we usually only really care about being the "same" up to homotopy, so up to continuous deformations
so what I assume you meant to say is $$\omega \simeq (\gamma \overline{\gamma'})\omega (\gamma\overline{\gamma'})$$
maximo
where \simeq is just homotopic to each other
the other thing to note is that while (gamma gamma' bar) is indeed a loop, it may not be homotopic to the constant map
so that \simeq may actually be false
let me draw up a quick example of what that might look like
i think this is wrong tho
you can't contract that gamma gamma' bar to a point
shouldnt it be (gamma gamma'bar)w(gamma' gamma bar)
if we want to show (gamma gamma'bar) is in Z(pi) then no
hmmm
another notation nitpick before we get into the proof
your map h_g is not well defined
it should go
$[\omega] \mapsto [\sigma \cdot \omega \cdot \overline{\sigma}]$
owo
sorry
instincts got the better of me

maximo
the dots are implied but let's keep them for clarity
it's okay i use omega bc it makes it look like an owo 
my prof has the sigma bar come first tho
i would start by assuming $h_\gamma = h_{\gamma'}$
that's just preference right?
maximo
sure, i don't think it should matter
so the proof is a bit tricky as you might imagine
and start by taking h_g[w] = h_g'[w]
follows from this assumption obv
yes
i'll use g and g' instead of gamma
but then (gbar)(w)(g) = (g'bar)(w)(g')
this is the same as what i have written up to now
note it's [gbar w g] = [g'bar w g']
sorry forget i said to start with this
start with [g g'bar][w] as you had
it's [g' gbar]
oh thanks
[g' gbar][w]
i would multiply the right side by [g gbar]
since it is the identity in pi_1
[g' gbar][w][g gbar] = [g' gbar w g gbar]
note that since we assumes h_g = h_g', we can say gbar w g is homotopic to g'bar w g'
i was about to say that 
[g' gbar w g gbar] = [g' g'bar w g' gbar] = [w g' gbar]
silly q but why can we break it apart there but not before
because both w and g' gbar are loops
but g' and gbar are not loops alone
that is
[g'] is not in pi_1(X)
it's not iffs here
it's just equality, which i guess is kind of an iff
but we only did the => direction
oh 
the <= is not much more difficult
did you understand the => direction completely though?
lemme write it up
this is just by the fundamental group operation right
maximo
where the dot is the path product i defined way up above
this is the group operation on the fundamental group
great
the backward direction is almost the same then
here instead of replacing just rearrange
be careful with rearranging
bc you can only rearrange loops right
not individual gammas
i was about to say lol
what do you get?
[g'bar g'] is a loop so we can "operate"
yes
by the way, when we multiply by [g'bar g'], you should be making sure we are respecting the basepoint of the fundamental group we're working with
i'm taking it as a given, but you should probably confirm all that in your proof
proof: trust me
we should have $[\overline{\gamma'}\cdot\gamma'\cdot\overline{\gamma}\cdot\omega\cdot\gamma]$
cursed
maximo
but g'gbar commutes with everything
with every loop
in particular, [g' gbar][w] = [w][g' gbar], which is to say (g' gbar)(w) is homotopic to (w)(g' gbar)
so we can indeed commute the (g' gbar)(w) in the class there
i would write the intermediate steps
[g'bar w g' gbar g] = [g'bar w g'][gbar g] = [g'bar w g']
in what i write
thank you so much for the patience btw
like i genuinely understood the steps 
np, this is probably the only thing i properly understand from this class so far so im happy to discuss it
me neither but i keep pretending i do and it keeps working

but jokes aside you can think of it like s^n under the quotient topology relating antipodal points
im not sure if youve been introduced to that notion or not
yeah i can regurgitate the definition
just not 100% comfy with it
needs a bit of time is all
i don't think you ever become 100% comfy with AT lol
but yeah
it eventually becomes natural-ish
what's your algebra class like btw
it's called algebra 2 so we're continuing ring theory, field theory, and hopefully getting to galois theory
yeah so far we've done some g-sets, sylow theorems, and group series. getting into ring theory now
last sem was all group theory pretty much
wouldve assumed that shouldve included sylow thms tho 
we went kind of slow-ish and also lost a lot of class cause of hurricanes and football games
overall a messy semester
should i chance a guess at florida
ucf yeah

nowhere else does the sentence "lost a lot of class cause of hurricanes and football games" apply
but ye im pretty much just exhausting all the algebra, topology, and geometry offered here
nah its literally on my github
idc if people know
ok im off to bed, got algebra tmrw
gn and gl with your AT course
This user hasn't set their timezone! Ask them to set it using ,ti --set.
i know this has to do with brouwer fixed pt thm, but can i get some pointers on this pls
what's the composite S^{n-1} --i--> D^n --r--> S^{n-1}?
det 
sebbb 
,ti det
64 members found matching det!
Page 2/4
========
21. sparklecadet#5318
22. Detsu_XO#4608
23. detonator#8116
24. ∆DETROIT•_•OP∆#9860
25. DETOX#0236
26. Deton4tOr216#5471
27. Detective Pikachu#5889
28. helloimadethisaccount#6456
29. OneBrd. O detetive#5822
30. caden_the_cadet#0001
31. gudetama#8168
32. Boidete#3120
33. Las estrellas me detienen#3095
34. Detoxical#6518
35. Daudet#0362
36. detectivebozo2#7301
37. Lp Space Cadet#0486
38. sssdeanvendetta#6405
39. Vendetta12#2127
40. Weeb Detective Taiyo / Tomo#8518 ```
Please type the number corresponding to your selection, or type `c` now to cancel.
9am
o
Member selection timed out.
is i the injection map?
ye the inclusion into the boundary
well that's jus the boundary of the disc
i brush teeth i brb
i here
so why do we wanna consider that i first?
just keep it at the back of your head :p
what sort of pointers are you looking for 
just a start i guess
i figure it's asking for the preimage of open sets is open defn of continuity
you mean showing r is continuous? 
yeah
maybe my brain is still stuck in point set
but isnt that what we need to show
preimage of an open set of S^n-1 is open in D^n
tho ig idek the topologies on these things 
yea we do, but most people doing alg top at that point would just agree that the definition of ray intersecting is "continuous" enough and doesn't need a proof 

like they say, write a formula
and use sequential ocntinuity
everything is a metric space
that's what they have written 
not really, that's a weird map
start with x, go at f(x), then make a ray from f(f(x)) to f(x)
wait why f(f(x))?
because that's how we define r(x)
start from f(x) and go to x
and see where you hit the sphere
so r(f(x)) would start at f(f(x)) and would go to f(x)
,ti
The current time for stμ₂dying is 03:23 AM (EST) on Tue, 07/02/2023.
i'll nap later in the day tooo
hi @marble socket
Ohayou 
ohio
3 hours 20 minutes 

reposting for convenience e
i wonder what they mean by vector rotation
where
to find the formula for r
i think it says notation
ah
yee so lets find a formula for r
what's the equation of the ray from f(x) to x?
yea parametric is fine
we will solve for the parameter which forces it to lie on the sphere
and f(x) != x should make sure we're not dividing by 0s
ok potentially stupid question
how do we know if we need the eqn of a line in 2d space, 3d space, etc
we cant know right
D^n lives in the n-d space
so the line would also be there 
since we're writing parametric equation, there shouldn't be any problems. you start at the vector f(x) and shoot in the direction (x - f(x))
so f(x) + (x-f(x))t
in general S^{n-1}
somehow i feel like this isn't alg top enough
yea this is just calculation
nothing to do with retractions or anything
i mean yeah after that it's brouwer fixed pt thm
we proved that in class and left the continuity of this as an exercise
the existence of that functor also requires some work
my next question is actually to verify that a (path connected?) topological space is a category
but that doesnt seem too hard
(path connected spaces would form a subcategory :3)
it doesnt specify path connected
but the morphisms are set of equivalence classes of paths x0 -> x1 so

i'll do that one in a bit though
going back tho
we begin by considering r(x) = f(x) + (x - f(x))t for t putting this on S^n-1
doesnt continuity of r just follow from the fact that f is cont. (given)
yea
but the important part is that the solution for t exists and varies continuously with x
for that you need f(x) != x
if f(x) = x, then the ray is just a point
so depending on whether x lies on the sphere, there are either no solutions for t, or every positive real is a solution
im sorry det but i might have to ask you to spoil this one
you can explicitly write down the equation t needs to satisfy
because points on S^n-1 satisfy ||v||^2 = <v, v> = 1
this should give you a quadratic equation in t
and you can then solve for the positive root 

say f(x) = a and x - f(x) = v
so you want <a + vt, a+vt> = 1
which is ||a||^2 + 2<a, v>t + ||v||^2 t^2 = 1
ngl it doesnt help that i havent parametrized an equation in about 4 years so
but i see this i think
yea, i don't think there's more to that
and the fact that such t always exist makes it cont. right
yea, and that is because ||a|| <= 1
(||a||^2 - 1) + 2<a, v>t + ||v||^2 t^2
so if you draw the graph of this, at t = 0 it is <= 0
but for t = infty, it must be infty
where did that -1 come from
so needs to have a root
from the right
ah
is this just by defn of a map D^n -> D^n
yep codomain is D^n, so f(x) lands in there
you mean intermediate value theorem?
but yea these things should be clear from the picture
nobody writes explicit maps in alg-top

(unless nothing else can be done)

ok this is my last question
i think i've got composition and associativity
what would the identity morphism be? loops?
dont think it's loops
maybe fruit loops
@marble socket 
it's the constant path
c(t) = x0 for all t in [0,1]
you would need to show the composition is well defined
and be a little careful with associativity, as you don't have strict associativity, only up to homotopy
i think that's almost it for associativity
you haven't done this >.<
like if [f] = [f'] and [g] = [g'] then [f*g] = [f'*g']

(also best to not use \circ, as you might confuse with the way you multiply. normally composition is done right to left >.<)
and this should just be multiplication right
yea, it's concatenation of the paths

this is just an expansion of definitions though right
not exactly, but there isn't a lot to be done there
you would have (path) homotopies between f, f' and g, g' just need to concatenate the homotopies

If p:(Y,y) -> (X,x) is a universal cover, does there exist a universal cover (Y,z)->(X,x) for any other point z in Y?
ok i understood that
moving on, i didnt finish associativity right
im hoping those defn's are right
but as for setting them equal to each other i just wanted to draw the picture of I x I with the diagonal lines
isn't (R, n) --> (S^1, 1) a universal cover for each n in Z? the map being t --> exp(2pi i t)
yee the definitions are right, but the two maps aren't strictly equal. you would have to construct a path homotopy between them so that after going to homotopy classes you have an equality

also you mean 2/4 and not 2/2
idk too hard to read, maybe tha'ts 1/2 with a loop which confused me
Is this the composition symbol for concatenation of paths
yes 
Please refrain therefrom
.

writing feels so strange to me now 
det is too advanced
this needs its own piecewise definition right
yea, it's annoying to do that tho
Usually I would just do a diagram
I think most people would at least in exams or a lecture
Then the homotopy in the diagram can be written down explicitly and this is what you get
that's just the diagonal lines on I x I right

I'm not sure how to show the existence of the automorphism of the pointed covering space.
There's a theorem about the existence of liftings in the case that X is path connected and locally path connected, but I don't have that here.
Even assuming that the space is nice, it seems I would need a pointed universal cover from (X',gamma(1)) to (X,x) to lift it to (X',x'), but how do I know such a universal cover exists?
No, consider the universal cover of the wedge of two spheres by the Cayley graph of <a,b>
Some Points are distinguished in the universe cover (these correspond to ones lying over the intersection point)
What kind of covering is X~ tho? Not true otherwise
Deck transformations may not act transitively unless the cover is normal
It's a universal cover which here includes being simply connected.
If p:X' - > X is a universal cover, is p*pi:YxX' -> X a univeral cover where pi is the projection onto X' from YxX' ?
universal cover is unique upto homeomorphism
also that's not even a cover
unless for very specific Y's
@gritty widget
discrete space?
no longer connected
right
Hi everyone. Someone have defined an order topology over a poset? How do you work with elements that are incomparable with everything? (that´s an issue when I define the basis for a topology)
The most principled thing to do would probably be to declare the sets {x|x>a} and {x|x<a} for all a to be a subbase for a topology. Then if the poset has a completely unconnected point, its only neighborhood would be the entire poset.
question
the answer is yes if it's sunny out
i am showing contractible spaces are simply connected does this suffice for a proof of the pathc onnected ness
That last intervals is 1/2,1
It’s not sunny out so
can u say the proof in words
Lol
Yes
You travel from a to some fixed p
Via the homotopy that sends identity to constant
And one from b to p
Then take inverse of b to p
And compose the a to p with the inverse of b to p which travels from p to b
And then run it double time so it starts and stops at a and b respectively

Is that a good or bad emojo lol
good
Ok lol
Now for showing loops can be shrunken to a point
Do I use that same homotpy
Define the homotopys first component as gamma(t)
Where gamma is my loop
Does that work
is homotopic to the contant map at p define
MyMathYourMath
or do i define a homotopy that sends \gamma(t) to its base point?
thats my question
so for simply connected define a new map that sends any identity mapping to this constant base point
anybody??
by this i mean $H(x,0)=x, H(x,1)=p$ some $p \in X$
MyMathYourMath
and all x \in X
anyyyyyooonnneeeee???
@gritty widget ?
so do I define a homotopy whihc i know exists from gamma(t) to its base point via the homotopy which starts at \gamma(t) and ends at its base point
anyone?
if the space is contractible there is a deformation retraction to a point
use the deformation retraction as part of your homotopy
let F be the retract. you should be able to define a homotopy H between an arbitrary \gamma starting at the retraction point and the constant loop using F
@pseudo coral
so is this correct @steel glen
is what correct
this
wait i used H when i meant F at the end
after defining F
i need to change all Hs to Fs
cause usually u use H for Homotopy lol
your F is not well defined
you only said what F was at t=1 and 0
that’s ok if you just state them as properties
but that looks like a definition which is missing what happens when t in (0,1)
yea i’m just saying you’re stating that as a definition of F
continuous defomr
ok sure
so its consistent
also it’s not for a fixed p (arbitrary), it’s for the contraction point p
ahh good point
your proof for path connectedness makes sense to me
i’ll read the simply connected now
i don’t agree with your proof for that
have you shown that in a path connected space, the fundamental group is independent of basepoint?
then I need a homotopy from the loop gamma to a single point
i’m also a little uneasy as to how you claimed existence of the homotopy by just saying the space is contractible
i think you should construct the homotopy using the F you defined above
define the homotopy H by H(x,t) = F(gamma(x),t)
thats sorta what i did
i believe that’s what you’re saying
you should make it clear if so
because it just seems like you’re saying such a homotopy exists just by contractibilty, which is the whole point of the proof
I suppose it’s that trivial then that the fund group is trivial
Since you’re given a map from identity to some contractible point
it's trivial that ... is trivial.
thx
isn't the definition of Y a category error
S^{n - 1} is the boundary of the (n-1)-sphere in R^n, so D_n is the closed ball in R^n
meanwhile X is just some arbitrary topological space
right
I just said (n - 1)-sphere because people call a circle S^1 and not S^2 for some reason
its because its a 1 manifold
oh each point is contained in an open set homeomorphic to R^1, that would make sense
yes
would you know if I am I justified in my confusion here
im not sure what you mean by category error
I mean that X is not necessarily a subset of R^n
so taking its disjoint union with D_n is meaningless
thats fine. you can form the disjoint union with any two top spaces
the definition of disjoint union doesn't require that the two spaces be contained in the same larger space
I can take the disjoint union of X = {emptyset, {red}, {blue}, {red, blue}} and Y = R^n ???
wtf is that
well I guess the literal set X = {red, blue} but still
that's so whacky
what's the topological structed associated with it
in general, X disjoint union Y is the set (X x {0}) U (Y x {1})
do you mean Y x {1}
it is like you're indexing the elements in the set so that you don't have intersection of elements from distinct (or maybe the same) set
the final topology wrt. to the inclusions
why the "(or maybe the same)"?
if they're from the same set then you can intersect I would think
we can always form the union of two sets by the axiom of union, nothing is broken here
yes
unless they have different indexes
I see
like X disjoint union X, but for the first you do it with a_1, the second with a_2
this is like the first time taking the union of two sets with know ambient space containing them, that's why this is weird to me
in the sense that the elements now given by (x, a_1) and (x, a_2) don't have intersection
indeed
I see
i picture the disjoint union as plopping both spaces right next to each other in some white room or something. they're both just there, in each other's company
the two are related by the fact that one is the coproduct in the category of unbased spaces and the other is the coproduct for based spaces
formally why do we have to attach index sets to the disjoint union
I know nothing about category theory yet
why does it have to be this and not just "the disjoint union of X and Y" like the axiom of union guarantees
because you want to be able to explicitly distinguish elements from each set, particularly in the case where the two spaces you're unioning have elements in common, for example, the real line disjoint unioned with itself is two distinct copies of the real line
I see, basically what SubGui was saying
if you didnt tag the elements via an indexing set, you would just get the real line back, and thats already the regular union
so really you can take the disjoint union of non-disjoint sets
yes
but in doing so you end up distinguishing the common elements anyways
yup
I am still having trouble understanding this definition
the set {p ~ f(p) \forall p \in \partial D_n} is supposed to be a subset of X, obtained by identifying points in S^{n - 1} with their image under f
but again, same issue (this time I don't see a resolution): what exactly is this identification doing? because points in S^{n - 1} are not contained/related to X
They are not contained/related to X yet, that’s what we’re trying to achieve
We’re gluing D^n to our space by gluing the boundary to its image under f
Drawing a picture will help here
I’ll go to sleep now but I’ll elaborate on this if you still have questions tomorrow
alright thanks, I'll try to find images online
@tidal lynx I couldn’t resist drawing a small picture. The figure at the bottom is Y and the lines are supposed to indicate that “there’s a bubble within that area”. The boundary of D^2 at the top is marked with “zigzags”. This is when n=2. Hopefully this addresses your issue, otherwise wait for someone else I guess
But yeah this is basically what timo said (the map f is laying out the glue on X and you glue the boundary according to f), but I thought I would make a pic because they’re going to sleep soon like they said


I think I understand it better now thanks all, will think about it some more
Show that every compact subspace of a metric space is bounded in that metric
and is closed. Find a metric space in which not every closed bounded subspace
is compact.
what does "bounded in that metric" mean?
does it mean that if Y is the compact subspace in question and d is the metric, then there exists k such that d(x, y) < k for all x, y \in Y
i.e., there exists a "diameter"
or a better way of saying it: everyone in Y is contained in some open ball
yeah I think this is right
yes
helloo guys
for x,y elements of X does d(x,y) = 0 define a metric??
i think it follows all the axioms...
or should it be d(x,x) or d(y,y)??
you already mentioned an axiom it doesn't satisfy in the other channel
if x is not equal to y then d(x,y)>0
yesss indeed.
hello how can I determine the inner set of A in R^2 if A = Q x Q?
interior?
thats called interior
Oh
also idk what inner element is
what are your thoughts on the problem
i don't know how to approach it
do I need to find an epsilon??
like I have to find an epsilon ball for any (q1,q2) in A right
maybe try to think about it conceptually first
Q in R and it's interior
i'm not sure how to give a hint without spoiling it entirely
so do it for 1 dimensional and then Q^2?
maybe try to explain how to approach the problem in generality
hmm
you know, guiding someone, explaining the definitions etc
Do i need to use that for any x in the reals the epsilonball of x always contains rational numbers?
remember that the ball you choose has to lie entirely in the rational numbers
so what problem might you run into
yes
so we cant find an epsilonball small enough so that it only contains rational numbers
but there are much more rational numbers than irrational
indeed
cantor’s proof is a memorable way to remember this isnt true
Oh so because there are so much more irrational numbers this works
so A° = {} because there isnt any interior element
yes
yes you can argue similarly for epsilon balls in R^2
for A = Q x Q is the closure of A also = {} ?
Nope
hmm
It’s ||R x R||. Why?
I didn't want to tell them the answer but okay
this definition is wrong for closure right? It should be epsilonball of a cap A is not equal to {}
where A is a subset of M and M is a metric space
because otherwise it wouldn't make any sense
Yeah
Ok so the boundary of A would be RxR cap bar{RxR} then?
closure of RxR
hm. CR^2?
the complement of R^2
the complement of R^2 is the empty set
that's what I thought
So RxR cap {} = {} actually
noooo wait
this is getting very confusing now
its confusing for me too
the boundary is defined as A \cap closure of complement of A
no
Blitz
that's what I wrote?
no
In showing a cont map from 2 sphere to itself such that g(x) \neq g(-x) is surjective do u utilise the Bursak Ulam Theorem
And suppose it misses a point
Then consider the stereo graphic projection of S2 \ the point to R2
Then compost this stereo graphic projection w g then apply the theorem
what do you think?
I think that works lol
you can think of closing the set, so you get it completely filled, then you take out the inside and the outside, leaving only the boundary
hence intersection of the closure and the closure of the complemenet

Alternatively, the closure minus the interior
Does this work cause that would imply there exists an x such that g(x) = g(-x) contradicting my assumption
Also what’s the standard way of showing R2 minus two points has fundamental group that is free group on 2 generators
explicitly deformation retract onto the figure 8
Can I use van Jamie a
That seems tough
Can Kampen
Can
Van
Lol
Lol
If I use van kampen I let my two open connected sets be R2 \x1 and R2\x2
Then they satisfy van kampen
"a topological space X is sequentially compact if every sequence of points in X has a convergent subsequence converging to a point in"
This is probably implicit but the convergent subsequence has to be infinite right?
or else for every infinite sequence you could just have the subsequence be the first couple terms, and then the subsequence "converges
to the last term
sequences are by definition infinite
oh ok
lol
this is a proof for:
If X is a metric space with metric d, then if A is a compact subset of X, then d(x, A) = d(x, a) for some a in A
basically the idea is, since d(x, A) is the infimum of the set {d(x, a) | a \in A}, we are guaranteed the existence of a sequence a_n such that d(x, a_i) converges to d(x, A). also in metric spaces compactness is equivalent to sequential compactness, so there exists a subsequence of a_n that converges to some a' \in A. Now I don't get why this means that d(x, A) - d(x, a') < eps for all eps > 0 (i.e., d(x, A) = d(x, a'))
do you remember what the distance of the sequences was converging to?
d(x, A)
calling b_n the subsequence, we have that for all eps > 0 there exists an index i such that d(x, A) - d(x, b_i) < eps
exactly
sooooo
is it true that d(x, A) - d(x, a') < d(x, A) - d(x, b_i) for any i though, if so then I will see why
the b_i are converging to a', I recommend you try figuring out the rest
don't think you need more help just more time
is the point that b_i converges to a' means that f(b_i) converges to f(a') for any function f
bc that seems sus
no that's not the point and is nontrivial, f would need to be continuous
if f is continuous probably but I'm overcomplicating it now
keep going
since b_n is a subsequence of a_n, we have that d(x, b_i) converges to d(x, A)
oh
is that it
wait no
for any b_i in the sequence, by the triangle inequality we have that
d(x, a') < d(x, b_i) + d(b_i, a')
as i gets bigger d(b_i, a') approaches 0
yeah
hmm I'm clueless
geometrically this says that d(x, b_i) approaches to d(x, a') (what we want)
but i don't directly see it in the algebra
I wanna say this and just call it a day 😭 but there's definitely something simpler
what's the problem?
here .
I don't understand the last step to a proof
you really don't see the continuation?
I see it geometrically
if I give any hint here it would just solve the problem
try showing that your new seq is a cauchy sequence
we have that d(x, b_i) > d(x, a') for sufficiently large i from here
d(a,a')≤d(a, x)+ d(a',x) < 2 ϵ
(I should call them a_n and a_n_k but you get the point hopefully)
this just shows that b_n converges to a' ?
okay just come back here
you said d(b_i,a') approaches 0
what does d(x, b_i) approach
d(x, A)
oh bruh
w/e
i just move the d(x, b_i) to the other side
d(x, a') - d(x, b_i) < d(b_i, a')
and I can make the d(b_i, a') guy as small as I want
this is a dumb topology question but I'm struggling to see how an inclusion of a deformation retract is injective
The definition should also require that either ri = id_A or i is injective, right?
Yea, the assertion is false, right? Take A = R^2, B = R, i(x,y) = x, r(b) = (b,0), H(b,t) = b
how do we know every open set in R is the union of countably many open intervals?
Take all the rationals in your open set and add the maximal open interval that contains each.
An irrational element of your set will have an open neighborhood that contains a rational, so it is at least in that rational's maximal containing open interval.
don't we need zorn's lemma for that or smth?
its also the union of countable many mutually disjoint open intervals.
also, @opaque cloud here's another example of why dense sets are useful
No, the maximal open interval in an open set S containing a point x is well-defined and doesn't require choice.
It is (a,b) where a is the infimum of all y such that (y,x] subset S, and b is the supremum of all z such that [x,z) subset S.
right
I see
thx 
so anyhow
the crucial part is this
oh, also
you can also use the fact that rationals are countable to disprove the fact that open sets with uncountably many disconnected components can't exist
since every open set contains rationals





